55143_test Item Bank Managementplus Jawab Deck.pdf

TEST – ITEM BANK FOR DECK OFFICER AND ENGINEER OFFICER AT MANAGEMENT LEVEL

DIRECTORATE GENERAL OF SEA TRANSPORTATION MINISTRY OF TRANSPORTATION Jl. Medan Merdeka Timur No. 5 Jakarta Phone : 021-3845808 Fax : 021-3456945Email : [email protected] Website : dpkp-kemenhub.org

CONTENTS Acknowledgement................................................................................................. Foreword ............................................................................................................... Preface .................................................................................................................. Contents ................................................................................................................

i ii iii iv

I. PRELIMINARY (PART I) ...................................................................................... A. Background ................................................................................................ B. Basic ........................................................................................................... C. Objective.................................................................................................... D. Scope .........................................................................................................

1 1 2 3 4

II. DECK OFFICERS COMPETENCE (PART II) ......................................................... 1. Plan a voyage and conduct navigation ..................................................... 2. Determine position and the accuracy of resultant position fix by any means ................................................................................................. 3. Determine and allow for compass errors.................................................. 4. Coordinate search and rescue operations ................................................ 5. Establish watchkeeping arrangements and procedures ........................... 6. Maintain safe navigation through the use of information from navigation equipment and systems to assist command decision making ....................................................................................................... 7. Maintain the safety of navigation through the use of ECDIS and associated navigation systems to assist command decision making ........ 8. Forecast weather and oceanographic conditions ..................................... 9. Respond to navigational emergencies ...................................................... 10. Manoeuvre and handle a ship in all conditions ........................................ 11. Operate remote controls of propulsion plant and engineering systems and services ................................................................................. 12. Assess reported defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks and take appropriate action ......................................... 13. Carriage of dangerous goods .................................................................... 14. Inspect and report defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks ............................................................................ 15. Control trim, stability and stress ............................................................... 16. Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and measures to ensure safety of life at sea, security and the protection of the marine environment ....................................................................... 17. Maintain safety and security of the ship’s crew and passengers and the operational condition of lifesaving, firefighting and other safety systems ...................................................................................................... 18. Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle emergency situations ................................................................................ 19. Use of leadership and managerial ............................................................. 20. Organize and manage the provision of medical care on board ................

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27 54 77 103

134 160 173 194 232 262 299 414 453 461

488

568 589 643 670

III. ENGINEER OFFICERS COMPETENCE (PART III) ................................................ 1. Manage the operation of propulsion plant......................................................... ................................................. 2. Plan and schedule operations ................................................................... 3. Operation, surveillance, performance assessment and maintaining safety of propulsion plant and auxiliary machinery .................................. 4. Manage fuel, lubrication and ballast operations ...................................... 5. Manage operation of electrical and electronic control equipment.......... 6. Manage trouble-shooting, restoration of electrical and electronic control equipment to operating condition ............................................... 7. Manage safe and effective maintenance and repair procedures ............. 8. Detect and identify the cause of machinery malfunctions and correct faults ............................................................................................. 9. safe working practice ................................................................................ 10. Control trim, stability and stress ............................................................... 11. Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and measures to ensure safety of life at sea, security and protection of the marine environment ........................................................................... 12. Maintain safety and security of the vessel, crew and passengers and the operational condition of life-saving, fire-fighting and other safety systems ........................................................................................... 13. Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle emergency situations ................................................................................ 14. Use leadership and managerial skills ........................................................

676

IV. End Chapter ..............................................................................................

1371

v

676 808 982 1056 1069 1087 1101 1118 1161 1200

1228

1311 1332 1345

PRELIMINARY

A. Background Since the establishment of the International Maritime Organization (IMO), Human Resource become the most important development of the world shipping industry that have a considerable influence to improve the quality of education and training for seafarers through the provision of international and national requirements. It becomes a matter that can not be negotiable and should get special attention to exam the competence of seafarers as an assessment of the learning process and is used as an accurate attestation of training participants competencies. Required the system and regulations that are sustainable. therefore, The Board of Examination and Assessment for Seafarers (DPKP) as a forum AD-hoc for independent responsible for organizing the exam expertise sefarers in a professional, relevant, valid, reliable, consistent and realistic to develop a system Competence-Base Assessment in facing the challenges of the future that aims to test the competence of seafarers as the evidence that the training participants can make and implement behavior and competencies STCW as Amended in that suit in the realm of domain taxonomy bloom namely Cognitive, Psychomotor and Affective where training participants with the level of the duties, responsibilities and authority to master; 1. What should the training participants know (knowledge) 2. What skills should the training participants can do (ability), and 3. How should the training participants have a taste or a change of attitude as a seafarers (skills). Proficiency exam seafarers is a exam to obtain a certificate of the seafarers for the examinees to write a comprehensive testing methods and practices. Appropriate regulation of the Director General of Sea Transportation No. HK.103 / 4/2 / DGLT2015 on Systems and Procedures Implementation Exam Skills for Seafarers (SISPRO) is as a reference guide in the implementation of assessment system seafarers for the acquisition of knowledge, abilities and skills of training participants.

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Computer-Base Assessment (CBA) is a computer-based assessment to evaluate the level of comprehensive knowledge and understanding in form which complies with minimum standard column in STCW as amended. Hopefully, the result in the future it can be apply as on-line assessment expectedly directly be accessed objectively and the implementation can be more effective and efficient. As for problems that can be identified both in the learning process and the testing process competence the basis will be for how seafarers can be generated internationally and nationally so that in the future human resources of sea transportation become entrepreneurs in shipping industry and support the government's vision to make Indonesia as the world Maritime Axis in the face of globalization market.

B. Basic 1. International Maritime Organization Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers (STCW) in regulation I / 6 and Code STCW Section A-I /6; 2. Keputusan Presiden Nomor 60 Tahun 1986 tentang Pengesahan International Convention on Standard of Training Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers 1978 sebagaimana telah diubah dengan Amandemen yang terakhir; 3. Undang – Undang Nomor 17 Tahun 2008 tentang Pelayaran (Lembaran Negara tahun 2008 Nomor 64, Tambahan Lembaran Negara Nomor 4849); 4. Undang-undang Nomor 20 Tahun 2003 tentang Sistem Pendidikan Nasional; Evaluasi, Akreditasi dan Sertifikasi; 5. Peraturan Pemerintah Nomor 7 Tahun 2000 tentang Kepelautan; 6. PerMenHub No PM 70 Tahun 2013 tentang Diklat, Sertifikasi, & Dinas Jaga Pelaut; 7. Keputusan Bersama Menteri Perhubungan, Menteri Pendidikan Nasional dan Menteri Tenaga Kerja dan Transmigrasi Nomor KM.41 Tahun 2003, Nomor 5/U/KB/2003, Nomor KEP.208 A/MEN/2003 tentang Sistem Standar Mutu Kepelautan Indonesia; 8. Peraturan Direktur Jenderal Perhubungan Laut No. HK.103/4/2/DJPL-2015 tentang Sistem dan Prosedur Penyelenggaraan Ujian Keahlian Pelaut. 2

C. Objective Test – Item Bank for Deck Officer and Engineer Officer of Management Level, includes a collection of Test – Item Bank in accordance with specific minimum standard column ot the STCW as amended which can be developed as on-line or off-line assessment with system of computerized random to carry out a written test comprehensively to measure mastery level of learning outcomes for generating the execellent and professional seafarers.

D. Targets The targets are as follows : 1. To stimulate participants spirit of learning 2. To stimulate the instructor and assessors fairness 3. To collect 1000 Test – Item in multiple choice form as necessary

E. Scope 1. Deck Officer at Management Level : a) Plan a voyage and conduct navigation b) Determine position and the accuracy of resultant position fix by any means c) Determine and allow for compass errors d) Coordinate search and rescue operations e) Establish watchkeeping arrangements and procedures f) Maintain safe navigation through the use of information from navigation equipment and systems to assist command decision making

g) Maintain the safety of navigation through the use of ECDIS and associated navigation systems to assist command decision making

h) Forecast weather and oceanographic conditions i) Respond to navigational emergencies j) Manoeuvre and handle a ship in all conditions k) Operate remote controls of propulsion plant and engineering systems and services l) Assess reported defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks and take appropriate action

m) Carriage of dangerous goods 3

n) Inspect and report defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks o) Control trim, stability and stress p) Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and measures to ensure safety of life at sea, security and the protection of the marine environment

q) Maintain safety and security of the ship’s crew and passengers and the operational condition of lifesaving, firefighting and other safety systems

r) Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle emergency situations s) Use of leadership and managerial t) Organize and manage the provision of medical care on board 2. Engineer Officer at Management Level : a) Manage the operation of propulsion plant b) Plan and schedule operations c) Operation, surveillance, performance assessment and maintaining safety of propulsion plant and auxiliary machinery

d) Manage fuel, lubrication and ballast operations e) Manage operation of electrical and electronic control equipment f)

Manage trouble-shooting, restoration of electrical and electronic control equipment to operating condition

g) Manage safe and effective maintenance and repair procedures h) Detect and identify the cause of machinery malfunctions and correct faults i)

Control trim, stability and stress

j)

Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and measures to ensure safety of life at sea, security and protection of the marine environment

k) Maintain safety and security of the vessel, crew and passengers and the operational condition of life-saving, fire-fighting and other safety systems

l)

Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle emergency situations

m) Use leadership and managerial skills

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DPKP 1. Merencanakan pelayaran dan melaksanakan navigasi. ( Plan a voyage and conduct navigation ) 1. When must a passage plan be prepared ? A. At the start of the sea voyage. B. Before the voyage commences. C. When requested by a pilot. D. After the pilot has disembarke

2. What should a passage plan include ? A. The plan should include the first 72 hours of the sea voyage. B. The plan should include the entire voyage from berth to berth. C. The plan should cover the first half of the sea voyage. D. The master decides what to include in the passage plan

3. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line drawn from the point of departure to the point of arrival, is the __________. A. DR plot B. Track line C. Heading D. Estimated course

4. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying reefs and shoals? A. Approach charts B. General charts C. Sailing charts D. Coastal charts

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5. Which would you consult for information about the general current circulation in the North Atlantic Ocean? A. Pilot chart B. Coast Pilot C. Current Table D. Climatological Atlas

6. Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using the __________. A. Latitude scale near the middle of the track line B. Longitude scale near the middle of the track line C. Latitude scale at the mid-latitude of the chart D. Latitude or longitude scale at the middle of the scale

7. You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft of 32'06". The charted depth of an obstruction in the channel near Boston Light is 30 feet and you wish to have 3 feet of keel clearance. The steaming time from the pier to the obstruction is 01h 05m. What is the latest time (ZD +4) you can sail on 17 May 1983 and meet these requirements? A. 1610 B. 1728 C. 1821 D. 2350

8. In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance NOT approximately the same as the great circle distance? A. The two points are in low latitudes in the same hemisphere B. The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere. C. The two points are near the equator, but in different hemispheres D. One point is near the equator, one point is in a high latitude, and both are near the 180th meridian.

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9. You are planning to enter an unfamiliar port. Which publication provides information about channel depths, dangers, obstructions, anchorages, and marine facilities available in that port? A. American Practical Navigator B. Notice to Mariners C. Coast Pilot D. Sailing Directions

10. The drift and set of tidal, river, and ocean currents refer to the __________. A. Position and area of the current B. Speed and direction toward which the current flows C. Type and characteristic of the current's flow D. None of the above

11. You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland, OR. Good seamanship would require that you have on board, available for reference and use, all of the following EXCEPT the __________. A. Coast Pilot B. Harbor and coastal charts for ports of refuge enroute C. Sailing Directions (Enroute) D. Light List

12. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course 233°T, and bears 264°T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to intercept vessel A? A. 249° B. 256° C. 262° D. 268°

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13. Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important changes to aids to navigation by means of __________. A. Marine broadcast Notice to Mariners B. Weekly Notices to Mariners C. Corrected editions of charts D. Light Lists

14. You are informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation by __________. A. Local Notice to Mariners B. Weekly Notice to Mariner C. Marine broadcasts D. All of the above

15. You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage System in __________. A. The Philippines B. Australia C. Republic of Korea D. Chile

16. Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE? A. The topics for warnings included in HYDROLANTS, HYDROPACS, and NAVAREA warnings are the same. B. NAVAREA warnings concern only coastal navigation and inland navigation in large bays or sounds such as Puget Soun C. The United States is responsible for NAVAREA warnings in the North Atlantic north of 7°N, and west of 15°W. D. Long range radio navigational warnings are usually broadcast by radiotelephone, radiotelegraph, and radio-teletypewriter.

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17. In which country would you expect the channels to be marked with the IALA-B Buoyage System? A. Poland B. Morocco C. Peru D. Saudi Arabia

18. What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists? A. Supplements to new editions are issued monthly by the U.S. Coast Guar B. New editions are published by the National Ocean Service. C. New editions are corrected through the date shown on the title page. D. None of the above

19. The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the dissemination of important marine information. Which NAVAREAS include the Indonesian? A. XI B. IV and XI C. V and X D. VI and VII

20. In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic area? A. Chart No. 1 B. Catalog of Charts C. Guidance for Practical Navigator D. Coast Guard Light List

21. What publication contains information about the port facilities and passage entry to port ? A. World Port Index B. Coast Pilot C. Nautical Index D. Sailing Directions

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22. The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is __________. A. Unpredictable B. Generally too weak to be of concern C. Predicted in Tidal Current Tables D. Generally constant

23. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on __________. A. Well-charted inner dangers B. Port facilities C. Coastal anchorages D. Offshore traffic separation schemes

24. On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is shown as flashing white with a red sector. The red sector __________. A. Indicates the limits of the navigable channel B. Indicates a danger area C. Is used to identify the characteristics of the light D. Serves no significant purpose

25. To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply? A. Those adopted by the International Maritime Organization B. Those set up by local authorities C. Those defined on navigational charts D. All of the above

26. The distance covered by a ship on four successive days were 320, 300, 310 and 330 nautical miles respectively. Find the average daily run speed if each day is 24 hours long A. 330 naut. Miles B. 300 naut. Miles C. 320 naut. Miles D. 315 naut. Miles

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27. How often is it recommended that a position fix is taken during a sea voyage if the ship is in open waters ? A. Just before the change of watch B. Twice a watch C. At least every 30 minutes D. Only when the visibility drops

28. What chart should be used when navigating ? A. The largest scale chart onboard for the area which is properly corrected B. Any chart which shows the area which the vessel is passing through as long as it is connected C. The largest scale chart on board for the concerned area D. The chart which covers the largest part of the passage

29. Define the required interval between position fixes. A. Before the vessel is due to alter course B. When the weather changes C. Such as the vessel cannot be set into danger if the last two fixes were incorrect D. Such that the vessel cannot be set appreciable off course, or into danger by the effects of wind, tide or current

30. The latest edition of a chart can be found from _______. A. The chart catalogue B. The Annual Notice to Mariners C. The latest cumulative notices to mariners D. The Guide to Port Entry

31. A cumulative list of notices to mariners are published _____ a year. A. Three times B. Once C. Four times D. Twice

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32. Controls testing of bridge equipment should be carried out _______. A. Every day at noon when at sea B. On completion of maneuvering in port C. One to two hours prior sailing D. Whenever an item of navigation equipment is not functioning

33. You are asked to find if a particular port you are expected to visit has an Indian Embassy. Which of these publications would you consult? A. Port approach chart B. Admiralty Sailing Directions C. Admiralty list of Radio Signals D. Guide to Port Entry

34. Which of the following factors may not be taken into consideration when planning a passage in coastal waters? A. Under keel clearance B. Clearing bearings and clearing ranges C. No - Go areas D. Choice of ocean route

35. A voyage passage plan is made from _____. A. Pilot station to pilot station B. Fairway buoy to fairway buoy C. Berth to berth D. Berth to drop of pilot of that particular port and from arrival pilot station to the berth

36. Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using vertical letters. This indicates the __________. A. Rock is visible at low water springs only B. Rock is a hazard to deep draft vessels only C. Rock is dry at high water D. Exact position of the rock is doubtful

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37. When the range of a ship is decreasing and its bearing remains constant,the ships are on: A. Parallel courses B. Opposite courses C. Diverging courses D. Collision courses

38. According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in 1912, the ratio of length to width at the entrance for cargo vessels is A. 5.5 and 6.0 to 1 B. 6.2 and 6.8 to 1 C. 7.4 and 7.8 to 1 D. 8.2 and 8.5 to 1

39. Which one of the following land marks on the coast line must be depicted on hydrographic maps ? A. Light houses B. Church spires C. Shore line D. All the above

40. Pick up the correct statement from the following: A. An artificial barrier which makes the enclosed area safe for anchorage of ships, is known as break water B. The length of the quay wall is governed by the length of the largest vessel likely to be berthe C. The break water whose inside is used as a plateform for loading and unloading is called a mole D. All the above

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41. You expect to sight land at 2100 where an alteration of course is marked on the chart. By 2120 no land has been sighted, the visibility is very goo What action would you take? A. Keep looking out. B. Call Master. C. Stop engines. D. Alter course.

42. How should a vessel cross a traffic lane when obliged to do so? A. At a speed and heading that will cause the least encounters with vessels within the lane B. On a heading that will cause her to spend the LEAST TIME in the lane C. On a HEADING as nearly as practical at right angles to the direction of traffic flow D. On heading so that her TRACK will be as nearly as practicable at right angles to the direction of traffic flow

43. A vessel is steaming in east longitude on January 25 and crosses the International Date Line on an eastbound course at 0900 zone time. What is the date and time at Greenwich when the vessel crosses the line? A. 0900, 24 January B. 2100, 24 January C. 2100, 25 January D. 0900, 26 January

44. The period at high or low tide during which there is no change in the height of the water is called the __________. A. Range of the tide B. Plane of the tide C. Stand of the tide D. Reversing of the tide

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45. Spring tides are tides that __________. A. Have lows lower than normal and highs higher than normal B. Have lows higher than normal and highs lower than normal C. Are unpredictable D. Occur in the spring of the year

46. Mean high water is the reference plane used for __________. A. All vertical measurements B. Heights above water of land features such as lights C. Soundings on the East and West Coasts D. Water depths on the East Coast only

47. The range of tide is the __________. A. Distance the tide moves out from the shore B. Duration of time between high and low tide C. Difference between the heights of high and low tide D. Maximum depth of the water at high tide

48. The reference datum used in determining the heights of land features on most charts is __________. A. Mean sea level B. Mean high water C. Mean low water D. Half-tide level

49. Charted depth is the __________. A. Vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom, plus the height of tide B. Vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom C. Average height of water over a specified period of time D. Average height of all low waters at a place

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50. The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide tables is __________. A. Mean low water B. The same as that used for the charts of the locality C. The highest possible level D. Given in table three of the tide tables

51. When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate __________. A. A shallow depth reading B. A zero depth reading C. No depth reading D. Two depth readings

52. When the moon is at first quarter or third quarter phase, what type of tides will occur? A. Apogean B. Perigean C. Neap D. Spring

53. Priming of the tides occurs __________. A. At times of new and full Moon B. When the Earth, Moon, and Sun are lying approximately on the same line C. When the Moon is between first quarter and full and between third quarter and new D. When the Moon is between new and first quarter and between full and third quarter

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54. Region grooves traffic for ships does range TSS Traffic in shore's lines, traffic corresponds to that region is : A. Traffic Areas B. Traffic lines C. Range of Traffic D. Leading Area

55. Lines which shall follow for the ships to entering or outer an area A. Course lines B. Trafiic lines C. Leading lines D. Heading lines

56. All bridge member shall attended if there is available changing to passage plan : A. Bridge attention B. Plan Changes C. Passage changing D. All the above

57. Route with prescribed bounds where ships shall get navigations with extra caution is A. Dangerous area B. Area to be avoid C. Precautionary area D. No Go Area

58. Which stages following Apraisal stage of passage planning : A. Checking, maintain and records B. Planning, maintain and records C. Excecution, maintain and monitoring D. Planning, execution and monitoring

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59. Area which may not navigate to get bearing with depth and danger of navigation is : A. Coution Area B. No Go Area C. Danger area D. Area to be avoid

60. Area which shall be avoided by all ships or for ship by clasification indeed is : A. Coution Area B. No Go Area C. Danger area D. Area to be avoid

61. A point given at navigational charts to revamp bow before ship arriving at way point's is : A. Way Point B. Fix Position Cordinate C. Wheel Over Point D. Point to altering the course

62. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying reefs and shoals? A. Approach charts B. General charts C. Sailing charts D. Coastal charts

63. Under the IALA - A Buoyage System, a buoy used as a port hand mark would not show which light characteristic? A. Isophase B. Quick flashing C. Long flashing D. Group Flashing (2 + 1)

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64. When possible, a DR plot should always be started from where? A. Any position B. A known position C. An assumed position D. None of the above

65. The scale on a chart is given as 1:5,000,000. This means that __________. A. 1 inch is equal to 5,000 inches on the Earth's surface B. 1 nautical mile on the chart is equal to 5,000 inches on the Earth's surface C. 1 inch is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the Earth's surface D. 1 nautical mile on the chart is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the Earth's surface

66. A ship is in longitude 54°00'W on a true course of 270°. The ship's clocks are on the proper time zone. At what longitude should the clocks be changed to maintain the proper zone time? A. 45°00'W B. 52°30'W C. 60°00'W D. 67°30'W

67. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides? A. They occur only at quadrature. B. They occur when the Moon is nearest the Earth. C. They cause diurnal tides to become mixe D. They have a decreased range from normal.

68. Safe water buoys may show ONLY __________. A. Flashing red lights B. Flashing green lights C. White lights D. Yellow lights

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69. The description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart would mean a __________. A. Radar conspicuous beacon B. Circular radio beacon C. Radar transponder beacon D. Radar calibration beacon

70. The shoreline on charts generally represents the mean __________. A. High water line B. Low water line C. Low water spring line D. Tide level

71. On March 17, at 0500 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming eastward to west longitude. What is your local time? A. You are in -12 time zone. B. It is 1700, March 18. C. It is 0500, March 16. D. It is 0500, March 18.

72. You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as your berth is not yet available. You are on a SW'ly heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe the range lights as shown on your starboard beam. You should __________. A. Drop the anchor immediately as the range lights mark an area free of obstructions B. Drop the anchor immediately as a change in the position of the range lights will be an indication of dragging anchor C. Ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the range while at anchor D. NOT drop the anchor until the lights are in line

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73. A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times and advanced to a common time is a(n) __________. A. Running fix B. Dead-reckoning position C. Fix D. Estimated position

74. A buoy marking a wreck will show a(n) __________. A. White light FL (2) and a topmark of 2 black spheres B. Occulting green light and may be lettered C. Yellow light and will be numbered D. Continuous quick white light and may be numbered

75. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate methods of determining positions and include which of the following? A. All of these suggested answers B. Radar ranges and Parallel Indexing C. Bearings and ranges from coastal navigational marks D. Positions determined by GPS and plotted on the ECDIS

76. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS? A. Yes B. No C. Only if approved by the Flag State D. Only if approved by the owner

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77. Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or river, when under pilot? A. A passage plan is always required, irrespective of the length of the voyage, or if the ship is under pilot B. A passage plan is required for all deep sea passages, but not for transiting a canal under pilotage. C. A passage plan is required only when there is no pilot on board D. A passage plan is required from departure from port to arrival at the pilot station at the destination.

78. What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way? A. An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and followed by a competent bridge team. B. All navigational equipment fully functional. C. Bridge equipment effectively operating and being used efficiently D. The bridge equipment includes ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in full and effective operation

79. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in discussing the passage plan with the pilot while he is there to use his local knowledge and advice on the navigation of the ship? A. A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in the same way as discussed with the bridge team when deep sea B. The passage is well established and known by the pilot and a plan is therefore not necessary C. A pilot is responsible for the navigation whilst on board and will be very familiar with what is required, therefore discussing the passage plan is not necessary D. The pilot would probably consider it unnecessary, be more interested in knowing the ship's characteristics and resist any passage planning discussions with the Master.

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80. When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following answers would most suitably cover the most critical aspects to be considered when deciding the courses to steer? A. The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The distances gained by sailing by great circle. The ship's draught and the loadline limits B. The anticipated weather with the possibility of encountering ice and the need for weather routing. The prevailing currents and their advantage to improved speeds C. The passage time to the destination; the anticipated bunkers used and the need to arrive within prescribed schedule D. The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased traffic density. The limitations of the ships draught and the loadline limits

81. What should you apply to a fathometer reading to determine the depth of water? A. Subtract the draft of the vessel. B. Add the draft of the vessel. C. Subtract the sea water correction . D. Add the sea water correction.

82. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line drawn from the point of departure to the point of arrival, is the __________. A. DR plot B. Track line C. Heading D. Estimated course

83. A chart with a natural scale of 1:160,000 is classified as a __________. A. Sailing chart B. General chart C. Coast chart D. Harbor chart

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84. Tropic tides are caused by the __________. A. Moon being at its maximum declination B. Moon crossing the equator C. Sun and Moon both being near 0° declination D. Moon being at perigee

85. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides? A. They occur only at quadrature. B. They occur when the Moon is nearest the Earth. C. They cause diurnal tides to become mixe D. They have a decreased range from normal.

86. An important lunar cycle affecting the tidal cycle is called the nodal perio How long is this cycle? A. 16 days B. 18 days C. 6 years D. 19 years

87. The class of tide that prevails in the greatest number of important harbors on the Atlantic Coast is __________. A. Interval B. Mixed C. Diurnal D. Semidiurnal

88. To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable current, you should reach an entrance or strait at what time in relation to the predicted time of the favorable current? A. One hour after the predicted time B. At the predicted time C. 30 minutes before flood, one hour after an ebb D. 30 minutes before the predicted time 20

DPKP

89. IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the port side of a channel would be marked by a __________. A. Red can buoy B. Black can buoy C. Red conical buoy D. Black conical buoy 90. The depth of water on a chart is indicated as 23 meters. This is equal to __________. A. 11.5 fathoms B. 12.6 fathoms C. 69.0 feet D. 78.6 feet

91. Which chart projection would be most suitable for marine surveying? A. Gnomonic B. Lambert conformal C. Mercator D. Polyconic

92. As your vessel is heading southward along the east coast of the United States, you encounter a buoy showing a red flashing light. How should you pass this buoy? A. Pass it about 50 yards off on either side. B. Leave it to your starboar C. Leave it to your port. D. Pass it well clear on either side.

93. Which statement about a simple conic chart projection is TRUE? A. It is an equal-area projection. B. It is a conformal projection. C. Meridians appear as curved lines. D. The scale is correct along any meridian.

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94. Your dead reckoning position should be plotted __________. A. Whenever an estimated position is plotted B. When it agrees with your loran position C. When coming on or going off soundings D. At least every hour on the hour in the open waters of the sea

95. A pilot chart does NOT contain information about __________. A. Average wind conditions B. Tidal currents C. Magnetic variation D. Average limits of field ice

96. Where will you find information about the duration of slack water? A. American Practical Navigator B. Sailing Directions C. Tide Tables D. Tidal Current Tables

97. All of the following can be found on a Pilot Chart EXCEPT information concerning the __________. A. Percentage of frequency of wave heights B. Percentage of poor visibility conditions C. Sea surface temperatures D. Amounts of precipitation

98. If you were sailing in the North Pacific and were interested in the ice and iceberg limits, you could find this information in the __________. A. Pilot Chart B. Coast Pilot C. Notice to Mariners D. None of the above

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99. When using a Lambert conformal chart in high latitudes, angles such as bearings are measured in reference to __________. A. The meridian through the object of the bearing B. The meridian through the ship's position C. The meridian midway between the ship and the object D. Any meridian

100. The marking A is __________. A. Way point B. Whell Over Point C. Paralell index D. Altering course

101. The marking B is ___________. A. Way point B. Whell Over Point C. Paralell index D. Altering course

102. The marking C is ___________. A. Way point B. Whell Over Point C. Paralell index D. Altering course

103. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on __________. A. Well-charted inner dangers B. Port facilities C. Coastal anchorages D. Offshore traffic separation schemes

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104. Which statement is TRUE concerning the Inland Navigation Rules? A. They list requirements for Traffic Separation Schemes. B. They define moderate spee C. They require communication by radiotelephone to reach a passing agreement. D. All of the above

105. During the survey of Long Range Identification and Tracking (LRIT) equipment, which document must be available to the surveyor to demonstrate compliance with SOLAS? A. A report giving the result of the Conformance Test issued by an Approved Service Provider on behalf of the flag B. A report giving the result of the Performance Test, issued by the manufacturer in compliance with the Flag State Authority requirements. C. The Certificate of Compliance with SOLAS V/19-1, bearing the serial number of the equipment installation. D. A Statement of Installation and and Testing by the Approved Service Provider in compliance with SOLAS V/26-4.

106. How often is the performance check of a Voyage Data Recorder by a competent person required under SOLAS? A. Annually. B. At the Intermediate Safety Equipment Survey. C. When the battery is replace D. When the data media is downloade

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107. What is the main purpose of VTS? A. Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in the vicinity. B. Provide local information to all vessels navigating in the area C. Improve the scheduling and traffic movement in the are D. Increase safety for ships participating in VTS

108. When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following answers would most suitably cover the most critical aspects to be considered when deciding the courses to steer? A. The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The distances gained by sailing by great circle. The ship's draught and the loadline limits B. The anticipated weather with the possibility of encountering ice and the need for weather routing. The prevailing currents and their advantage to improved speeds C. The passage time to the destination; the anticipated bunkers used and the need to arrive within prescribed schedule D. The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased traffic density. The limitations of the ships draught and the loadline limits

109. A traffic separation zone is that part of a traffic separation scheme which __________. A. Is located between the scheme and the nearest land B. Separates traffic proceeding in one direction from traffic proceeding in the opposite direction C. Is designated as an anchorage area D. Contains all the traffic moving in the same direction

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110. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall __________. A. Avoid anchoring in areas near the termination of the scheme B. Avoid crossing traffic lanes, but if obliged to do so, shall cross on as small an angle as is practical C. Only anchor in the separation zone D. Use the separation zone for navigating through the scheme if she is hindering other traffic due to her slower speed

111. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall NOT __________. A. Cross a traffic lane B. Engage in fishing the separation zone C. Proceed in an inappropriate traffic lane D. Enter the separation zone

112. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall __________. A. Only anchor in the separation zone B. Avoid crossing traffic lanes, but if obliged to do so, shall cross on a heading at as small an angle as is practical C. Avoid anchoring in areas near the termination of the scheme D. Use the separation zone for navigation through the scheme if she is hindering other traffic due to her slower speed

113. BOTH INTERNATIONAL & A traffic separation zone is that part of a traffic separation scheme which __________. A. Is between the scheme and the nearest land B. Contains all the traffic moving in one direction C. Is designated as an anchorage area D. Separates traffic proceeding in one direction from traffic proceeding in the opposite direction

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DPKP 2. Penentuan posisi dan ketepatan atas hasil akhir penentuan posisi menggunakan berbagai cara. (Determine position and the accuracy of resultant position fix by any means ) 1. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using a magnetic compass. How should an error of 5 degrees WEST be applied to the compass bearings? A. Subtract 5 degrees to the bearings B. Add the 5 degrees to the bearings C. The same error applies to all bearings and therefore it can be ignored D. The error should be "High" or "Low" and therefore more information is require

2. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be confirmed by other means, when possible. Which of the following suggested methods would be the most accurate? A. The ranges of three distinctive shore objects on the radar. B. Compass bearings of three shore objects C. Bearing and distance from a navigational Buoy D. Bearing using the Radio Direction Finding of three radio beacons

3. What is important to check when transferring a position from the GPS output to a paper chart? A. Any necessary corrections are applied to convert between the GPS datum and the chart datum B. It is important to ensure that the GPS is setup on 2 dimensional and not 3 dimensional position fixes. C. Ensure that the GPS is setup on the same datum as the chart D. Ensure that the chart has been corrected up to date.

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4. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate when the accuracy of the displayed position is reduced? A. A large HDOP value is displayed on the screen B. A large "Correction Factor" number is displayed on the screen C. The GPS display flashes and sounds an alarm D. The GPS display is always very accurate and does not give any indication of lack of accuracy.

5. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is correct for an observer in position Latitude 30°00' North; Longitude 15°00' West, when observing the sun on the meridian, if the sun's Declination is 15°00' South? A. Figure 4 is correct. B. Figure 1 is correct. C. Figure 2 is correct. D. Figure 3 is correct.

6. Which of the four calculations illustrated is the correct one to determine the latitude of the observer when the sun is on the meridian? A. Calculation 3 is correct. B. Calculation 1 is correct. C. Calculation 2 is correct. D. Calculation 4 is correct.

7. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line for the following situation: Latitude 50°00'N, Longitude 30°00'W, Time 1200 GMT. Course steered: 090° True, Speed: 12 knots, bearing of the sun: 200°, Intercept correction: 00°02' Towards (observed altitude - computed altitude). A. Figure 2 is correct. B. Figure 1 is correct. C. Figure 3 is correct. D. Figure 4 is correct.

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8. A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of __________. A. Buoys close at hand B. Fixed known objects on shore C. Buoys at a distance D. All of the above

9. If Loran-C signals become unsynchronized, the receiver operator is warned because __________. A. Signals begin to blink B. Signals begin to shift C. Stations discontinue transmission D. Stations transmit grass

10. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be considered? A. The buoy should be considered to always be in the charted location. B. If the light is flashing, the buoy should be considered to be in the charted location. C. The buoy may not be in the charted position. D. The buoy should be considered to be in the charted position if it has been freshly painte

11. When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be observed on the visible horizon when __________. A. In high latitudes B. The Sun is near or at a solstice C. The declination is of a different name from the latitude D. The Sun's declination is at or near 0°

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12. When navigating a vessel, you __________. A. Can always rely on a buoy to be on station B. Can always rely on a buoy to show proper light characteristics C. Should assume a wreck buoy is directly over the wreck D. Should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position

13. Civil twilight begins at 1910 zone time on 20 July 1981. Your DR position at that time is LAT 22°16'N, LONG 150°06'W. Which statement concerning the planets available for evening sights is TRUE? A. Venus will have a westerly meridian angle. B. Mars will set about one hour after the Sun sets. C. Mars, Venus, Jupiter, and Saturn will be above the horizon. D. Sights of Saturn, Jupiter, and Venus will yield a good three-line-of-position fix.

14. When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation? A. During calm weather only B. During daylight only C. Only when inside a harbor D. Only when fixed aids are not available

15. While steering a course of 150°T, you wish to observe a body for a latitude check. What would the azimuth have to be? A. 000°T B. 090°T C. 150°T D. 240°T

16. For navigational purposes, each great circle on the Earth has a length of __________. A. 3,600 miles B. 5,400 miles C. 12,500 miles D. 21,600 miles 30

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17. The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70°30'E. Which time would you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN? A. 1842 B. 1652 C. 0728 D. 0652

18. A position obtained by taking lines of position from one object at different times and advancing them to a common time is a(n) __________. A. Dead-reckoning position B. Estimated position C. Fix D. Running fix

19. The parallax angle will vary the most with the time of year for __________. A. Venus B. Jupiter C. Saturn D. Polaris

20. The zone time of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 73°15'E. What time would you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN? A. 065 B. 0652 C. 1859 D. 1852

21. A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n) __________. A. Assumed position B. Estimated position C. Fix D. Running fix

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22. The rate of increase in hour angle is the slowest for __________. A. The Sun B. The Moon C. Mars D. Mercury

23. All Loran-C transmitting stations are equipped with cesium frequency standards which permit __________. A. Every station in one chain to transmit at the same tim B. Each station to transmit without reference to another station C. On-line transmission of single-line transmitters at the same time D. Each station to only depend on the master for synchronization and signal ratio

24. Your longitude is 179°59'W. The LMT at this longitude is 23h 56m of the 4th day of the month. Six minutes later your position is 179°59'E longitude. Your LMT and date is now __________. A. 00h 02m on the 4th B. 00h 02m on the 5th C. 23h 50m on the 5th D. 00h 02m on the 6th

25. Which position includes the effects of wind and current? A. Dead reckoning position B. Leeway position C. Estimated position D. Set position

26. The GHA of the first point of Aries is 315° and the GHA of a planet is 150°. What is the right ascension of the planet? A. 7 hours B. 11 hours C. 19 hours D. 23 hours 32

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27. The time interval between the transmission of signals from a pair of Loran-C stations is very closely controlled and operates with __________. A. An atomic time standar B. Daylight Savings Time C. Eastern Standard Time D. Greenwich Mean Time

28. The difference in local time between an observer on 114°W and one on 119°W is __________. A. 1.25 minute B. 5 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 75 minutes

29. A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your vessel's course and speed is a(n) __________. A. Dead reckoning position B. Estimated position C. Fix D. None of the above

30. A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position taken at nearly the same time, is a(n) __________. A. Dead-reckoning position B. Estimated position C. Fix D. Running fix

31. The date is the same all over the world at __________. A. 0000 GM B. 1200 GMT C. 0000 LMT for an observer at 90°E longitude D. No time

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32. What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position? A. Dead-reckoning position B. Estimated position C. Fix D. Running fix

33. If the radio signal ground wave extends out for less distance than the minimum skywave distance, there is an area in which no signal is receive This is called the __________. A. Skip zone B. Blackout zone C. Diffraction zone D. Shadow zone

34. How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix? A. None B. One C. Two D. Three

35. The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the __________. A. Index mirror B. Horizon glass C. Micrometer drum D. Telescope

36. On 6 July 1981, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming westwar What is your local time? A. It is 1000, 5 July B. It is 1000, 6 July. C. It is 2200, 7 July. D. It is 1000, 7 July.

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37. The horizon glass of a sextant is __________. A. Silvered on its half nearer the frame B. Mounted on the index arm C. Between the horizon and the shade glasses D. All of the above

38. Civil twilight occurs at 0558 zone time on 30 December 1981. Your DR position at that time is LAT 15°02'N, LONG 46°02'W. Which statement concerning the planets available for morning sights is TRUE? A. At 0558, Mars can be used for an ex-meridian observation. B. Venus, Jupiter, and Mars sights will yield a good three line fix C. Saturn will be near the prime vertical. D. Venus will be visible low in the western sky.

39. When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of the satellites that your receiver is locked onto? A. Horizontal Dilution of Precision B. Selective Availability C. Doppler Shifting D. Precision Coding

40. Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude reads 60° on the limb, the actual arc of the limb from 0° to the 60° reading is __________. A. 20° B. 30° C. 40° D. 60°

41. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is indicated by the __________. A. Equation of time B. Difference of longitude between the local and central meridian in time unit C. Longitude in time units D. Zone description 35

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42. Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle? A. Radar station B. Radar transponder beacon C. Radio beacon D. Aero light

43. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a twodimensional fix? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

44. A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a __________. A. Positive correction B. Dip error C. Negative correction D. Semidiameter error

45. The equation of time is 12m 00s and the mean Sun is ahead of the apparent Sun. If you are on the central meridian of your time zone, at what zone time will the apparent Sun cross the meridian? A. 1148 B. 1200 C. 1212 D. It cannot be determined from the information given.

46. At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you again fix your position and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE? A. The current is westerly at 0.5 knot. B. You must increase speed to compensate for the current. C. The current cannot be determine D. The drift is 0.25 knot.

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47. A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a __________. A. Positive correction B. Dip error C. Negative correction D. Semidiameter error

48. The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the mean Sun. If you are on the central meridian of your time zone, the apparent Sun will cross your meridian at __________. A. 11-51-20 ZT B. 12-00-00 ZT C. 12-04-20 ZT D. 12-08-40 ZT

49. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a threedimensional fix that takes into account altitude? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

50. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause of index error? A. Telescope not being parallel to the frame B. Index mirror and horizon glass not being parallel C. Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame D. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame

51. It is 1200 local time for an observer at 54°E longitude. Which statement is TRUE? A. It is afternoon at Greenwich. B. It is midnight at 126°E longitude. C. The observer is in time zone -4. D. All of the above are true.

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52. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes side error? A. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame B. Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame C. Telescope not being parallel to the frame D. Elliptical centering error

53. The marine sextant is subject to seven different types of errors, four of which may be corrected by the navigator. An error NOT correctable by the navigator is __________. A. Index error B. Prismatic error C. Perpendicularity of the horizon glass D. Perpendicularity of the index mirror

54. When using a radar in a unstabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily from __________. A. Center bearings B. Tangent bearings C. Ranges D. Objects that are close aboard

55. A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times and advanced to a common time is a(n) __________. A. Running fi B. Dead-reckoning position C. Fix D. Estimated position

56. The true wind is from 330°T, speed 6 knots. You want the apparent wind to be 30 knots from 10° on your port bow. To what course and speed must you change? A. Cn 240°, 28.0 knots B. Cn 270°, 28.0 knots C. Cn 180°, 30.0 knots D. Cn 090°, 32.5 knots 38

DPKP

57. What is a nonadjustable error of the sextant? A. Prismatic error B. Index error C. Side error D. Error of collimation

58. The difference (measured in degrees) between the GHA of the body and the longitude of the observer is the __________. A. Right ascension B. Meridian angle C. SHA of the observe D. Zenith distance

59. In order to remove index error from a sextant, you should adjust the __________. A. Index mirror to make it parallel to the horizon glass with the index set at zero B. Horizon glass to make it parallel to the index mirror with the index set at zero C. Horizon glass to make it parallel to the sextant frame D. Telescope to make it perpendicular to the sextant frame

60. Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to indicate the __________. A. Distance to the next port B. Speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water C. Time of the next navigational satellite pass D. None of the above

61. The position accuracy of Loran-C degrades with increasing distance from the transmitting stations as __________. A. Gains are made over the signal path B. A result of variation in propagation conditions C. The frequency of the pulses increases D. The stations shift pulses 39

DPKP

62. The index error is determined by adjusting the __________. A. Sextant frame B. Horizon glass C. Index mirror D. Micrometer drum

63. What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 232°27'? A. 127°33'E B. 52°27'E C. 61°52'W D. 61°52'E

64. A polyconic projection is based on a __________. A. Plane tangent at one point B. Cylinder tangent at one parallel C. Cone tangent at one parallel D. Series of cones tangent at selected parallels

65. A marine sextant has the index arm set at zero and the reflected image of the horizon forms a continuous line with the actual image. When the sextant is rotated about the line of sight the images separate. The sextant has __________. A. Error of perpendicularity B. Side error C. Prismatic error D. Centering error

66. A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar __________. A. Should never use radar bearings B. Should only use radar bearings when the range exceeds the distance to the horizon C. Can use radar information from one object to fix the position D. Must use information from targets forward of the beam

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67. During the month of October the Sun's declination is __________. A. North and increasing B. North and decreasing C. South and increasing D. South and decreasing

68. If the radar scanner of one ship is at the same height as the cargo deck of the other during transfer operations, which type of radar would pose a greater danger of the induced ignition ? A. A 3 cm radar. B. A 10cm radar. C. Neither a 10 cm or a 3 cm radar. D. Both a 10 cm and 3 cm radar.

69. A ship's position is best plotted by bearings from ____________. A. The radar of the nearest land B. The radio direction finder C. Buoys close at hand D. Fixed known objects on the shore

70. In Loran C ___________. A. The master and secondary stations transmits 8 pulses each B. The master station transmits one long pulse and the secondary stations transmit 8 short pulses each C. The master station transmits 9 pulses and the secondary stations transmit 8 pulses each D. The master station transmits 8 pulses and the secondary stations transmit 9 pulses each

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71. In Mercator sailing ________---. A. D'long / DMP = Tan course B. Dep / d'long = Cos Course C. DMP = d'long x Secant Course D. DMP = d'lat x Secant Course

72. Plotting position using the method of a running fix is used when _______. A. Three bearing position lines are available of different objects B. Only one bearing line is available C. Two bearing lines from two different objects are available D. A bearing and distance off a navigational mark is available

73. The DMP between latitude 20? 30' N and latitude 10? 15' S is _________. A. 1863.07 B. 634.77 C. 1248.92 D. 614.15

74. The Decca green zone has ________. A. 18 lanes B. 24 lanes C. 30 lanes D. 72 lanes

75. A vertical sextant angle gives _________. A. The height of a bridge above sea level B. A position line C. A position circle D. The ullage of a tank

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76. From the following data: Sextant altitude (LL): 38?12.4'; Index error : 3.0' on the arc; Corr'n for HE : 6.6'; Total corr'n for sun : for UL -17.0' , for LL + 14.8. What is the true altitude of the Sun's Lower limb? A. 38?30.8' B. 38?17.6' C. 37?45.8' D. 38?23.6'

77. What will be the d?Long for departure of 66.5? When the ship is on m?Lat of 29 degrees N. A. 137? B. 76? C. 36.8? D. 77.0?

78. The SHA of star "VEGA" to the nearest minute is _______. A. 137?18' B. 96?37' C. 80?47' D. 90?52'

79. Coastal radio navigational warnings are issued _____. A. By port and harbour authorities within their respective limits B. By the meteorological department of that country C. By the mercantile marine department of that country D. By national broadcasting corporations

80. The azimuth of a body whose LHA is 195? Will be _____. A. Westerly B. Easterly C. Northerly D. Southerly

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81. Which of the following methods do you think will give the most accurate ship?S position? A. Doubling angle on the bow. B. One bearing and distance of one object. C. Two distances off two objects subtending an angle of about 90 degrees. D. A three point bearing.

82. When calibrating a sextant for Index Error using the Sun the micrometer reading 'off the arc' was 32.8' and on the arc was 32.0'. What is the index error of the sextant? A. 0.8' off the arc B. 0.4' off the arc C. 0.8' on the arc D. 0.4' on the arc

83. In latitude 42 36? N, a ship sails due east from Longitude 26 30? W to longitude 21 12? W . What departure has she made? A. 234.08 miles B. 234.00 miles C. 235.00 miles D. 235.08 miles

84. To fix the ship's position by horizontal sextant angle you need at least _____. A. 1 object B. 2 objects C. 3 objects D. 4 objects

85. The LHA of the body when on the observer's meridian is _______. A. 360? B. 090? C. 180? D. 270?

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86. Your DR latitude is 10?S. A body whose declination in 20?S when setting makes an angle of 30? At the observer's zenith. What is its azimuth? A. 150? B. 330? C. 030? D. 270?

87. The chronometer which was losing 8 seconds every day was 4m 48s fast on GMT on 20th March. What will be the error on 4th April? A. 5m 48s B. 6m 48s C. 2m 48s D. 3m 48s

88. The method used to plot ship?S position when only one navigational mark is available and radar cannot be used to find the distance off is called ____________. A. A running fix B. Plotting by DR Latitude and bearing line C. Plotting by DR longitude and bearing line D. Course line intersection technique

89. A fixed quantity of Mercury will weigh more at ___________. A. The Equator B. 30?N Latitude C. 30?S Latitude D. 80?N Latitude

90. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is indicated by the __________. A. Equation of time B. Difference of longitude between the local and central meridian in time units C. Longitude in time units D. Zone description

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91. When the equation of time is taken from the Nautical Almanac for use in celestial navigation, it is used to determine __________. A. Zone time B. Sunrise C. Time of local apparent noon D. Local mean time

92. 90° - Ho = __________. A. Sextant altitude B. Co-latitude C. LHA D. Zenith distance

93. The values of the Greenwich hour angle and declination, tabulated in all almanacs, are for the __________. A. Upper limb of a celestial body B. Lower limb of a celestial body C. Centers of the various celestial bodies D. Lower limb of the Sun and Moon; center of the stars and planets

94. When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix your position, an indeterminate position will result in which situation? A. The objects lie in a straight line. B. The vessel is inside of a triangle formed by the objects. C. The vessel is outside of a triangle formed by the objects. D. A circle will pass through your position and the three objects.

95. When navigating in high latitudes and using a chart based on a Lambert conformal projection, __________. A. A straight line drawn on the chart approximates a great circle B. The chart should not be used outside of the standard parallels C. The course angle is measured at the mid-longitude of the track line D. Distance cannot be measured directly from the chart

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96. The height of eye correction is smaller than geometrical dip because of __________. A. The angle between the horizontal and the line of sight to the visible horizon B. Index error C. Parallax D. Terrestrial refraction

97. When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix your position, an indeterminate position will result in which situation? A. The objects lie in a straight line. B. The vessel is inside of a triangle formed by the objects. C. The vessel is outside of a triangle formed by the objects. D. A circle will pass through your position and the three objects.

98. For what purpose would using a Lambert conformal chart be more convenient than using a Mercator? A. Plotting radio bearings over a long distance B. Determining latitude and longitude of a fix C. Measuring rhumb line distances D. Measuring rhumb line directions

99. When applying a dip correction to the sighted sextant angle (hs), you always subtract the dip because you are correcting __________. A. Hs to the visible horizon B. Hs to the sensible horizon C. Hs to the celestial horizon D. Ho to the celestial horizon

100. A correction for augmentation is included in the Nautical Almanac corrections for __________. A. The Sun B. The Moon C. Venus D. None of the above 47

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101. A semidiameter correction is applied to observations of __________. A. Mars B. The Moon C. Jupiter D. All of the above

102. A gnomonic projection is based on a(n) __________. A. Plane tangent at one point B. Cylinder tangent at the equator C. Cone tangent at one parallel D. Infinite series of cones tangent at selected parallels

103. You are approaching a light fitted with a RACON. The light may be identified on the radar by __________. A. A dashed line running from the center of the scope to the light B. An audible signal when the sweep crosses the light C. A circle appearing on the scope surrounding the light D. A coded signal appearing on the same bearing at a greater range than the light

104. The error in the measurement of the altitude of a celestial body, caused by refraction, increases as the __________. A. Horizontal parallax decrease B. Observer's height above sea level increases C. Humidity of the atmosphere decreases D. Altitude of the body decreases

105. A line of position derived by radar range from an identified point on a coast will be a(n) __________. A. Straight line B. Arc C. Parabola D. Line parallel to the coast

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106. The small circle of the celestial sphere parallel to the celestial equator, and transcribed by the daily motion of the body, is called the __________. A. Hour circle of the body B. Parallel of declination C. Vertical circle of the body D. Parallel of altitude

107. With regard to GPS, a civilian receiver may be capable of achieving the same accuracy as a military receiver if __________. A. Selective availability is set to zero B. The satellites are all below 15° in elevation C. Your vessel is equipped with a Doppler receiver D. The horizontal dilution of precision is high

108. In the celestial equator system of coordinates, what is comparable to latitude on the terrestrial sphere? A. Altitude B. Right ascension C. Celestial meridians D. Declination

109. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the heading flash always points to 0°. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash, what type of bearings are produced? A. Relative B. True C. Compass D. Magnetic

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DPKP

110. A line of position formed by sighting two charted objects in line is called a(n) __________. A. Relative bearing B. Range line C. Track line D. Estimated position

111. At about GMT 1436, on 3 December 1981, the lower limb of the Moon is observed with a sextant having an index error of 2.5' on the ar The height of eye is 32 feet. The sextant altitude (hs) is 3°38.8'. What is the observed altitude? A. Ho 4°18.6' B. Ho 4°29.1' C. Ho 4°36.3' D. Ho 4°42.2'

112. On 21 January 1981, you observe a back sight of the Sun's lower lim The sextant altitude (hs) is 121°31.5'. The index error is 2.5' on the ar The height of eye is 31 feet (9.3 meters). What is the observed altitude (Ho)? A. 31°06.2' B. 58°53.1' C. 58°12.2' D. 58°03.2'

113. What great circle is always needed to form the astronomical triangle? A. Celestial Equator B. Prime Meridian C. Celestial Meridian D. Prime Vertical Circle

50

DPKP

114. On 16 January 1981, you take a sight of a star. The sextant altitude (hs) is 4°33.0'. The temperature is -10°C, and the barometer reads 992 millibars. The height of eye is 42 feet. The index error is 1.9' off the ar What is the observed altitude (Ho)? A. 4°10.2' B. 4°14.3' C. 4°17.0' D. 4°24.1'

115. To measure distance on a Mercator chart between the parallels of LAT 34°30'N and LAT 31°30'N, which 30 mile scale should be used? A. 33°00'N to 33°30'N B. 32°30'N to 33°00'N C. 32°45'N to 33°15'N D. 32°15'N to 32°45'N

116. Radar makes the most accurate determination of the __________. A. Direction of a target B. Distance to a target C. Size of a target D. Shape of a target

117. You plot a fix using three lines of position and find they intersect in a triangle. The actual position of the vessel __________. A. Is outside of the triangle B. May be anywhere in the triangle C. May be inside or outside of the triangle D. Is the geometric center of the triangle

118. The magnitude of three stars is indicate Which star is the brightest? A. Antares + 1.2 B. Altair + 0.9 C. Vega + 0.1 D. Cannot be determined; magnitude indicates size not brightness

51

DPKP

119. Concerning a celestial observation, the azimuth angle is measured from the principal vertical circle to the ____________ . A. Greenwich celestial meridian B. Hour circle of the body C. Local celestial meridian D. Vertical circle of the body

120. You are on course 238°T. To check the course of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing? A. 180° B. 238° C. 328° D. 090°

121. A line connecting all possible positions of your vessel at any given time is a __________. A. Longitude line B. Latitude line C. Line of position D. Fix

122. 122: When using GPS without Selective Availability, you may expect your horizontal accuracy to be better than __________. A. 3 meter B. 20 meters C. 100 meters D. 200 meters

123. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals? A. Position B. Electronic navigational chart source C. Course made good history D. All of the above

52

DPKP

124. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at a minimum, __________. A. An indication within 5 seconds if the specified HDOP has been exceeded B. A warning of loss of position C. A differential GPS status indication of the receipt of DGPS signals D. All of the above

125. Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy equivalent to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability? A. Transi B. Selective Availability C. Auto-correlation D. Anti-spoofing

126. The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by __________. A. DGPS, within a coverage area B. SPS, without selective availability C. PPS, without selective availability D. NAVSAT, using the Doppler-shift

53

DPKP 3.

Menghitung dan menggunakan kesalahan kompas. (Determine and allow for compass errors ) 1. Gyrocompass repeaters reproduce the indications of the master gyrocompass. They are __________. A. Accurate only in the Polar regions B. Accurate electronic servomechanisms C. Hand operated D. Accurate only if the vessel is underway

2. Lines on a chart which connect points of equal magnetic variation are called __________. A. Magnetic latitudes B. Magnetic declinations C. Dip D. Isogonic lines

3. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range which bears 185°T. You steady up on a compass course of 180° with the range in line dead ahea This indicates that you(r) __________. A. Must come right to get on the range B. Course is in error C. Compass has some easterly error D. Are being affected by a southerly current

4. As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________. A. Remains aligned with compass north B. Also turns to starboard C. First turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port D. Turns counterclockwise to port

54

DPKP

5. You would find the variation on a polyconic projection chart __________. A. On the compass rose B. On the mileage scale C. Written on the chart title D. At each line of longitude

6. What is an advantage of the magnetic compass aboard vessels? A. Compass error is negligible at or near the earth's magnetic poles. B. It does not have to be checked as often. C. It is reliable due to it's essential simplicity. D. All points on the compass rose are readily visible.

7. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the heading flash always points to 0°. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash, what type of bearings are produced? A. Relative B. True C. Compass D. Magnetic

8. Magnetic compass deviation __________. A. Varies depending upon the bearing used B. Is the angular difference between magnetic north and compass north C. Is published on the compass rose on most nautical charts D. Is the angular difference between geographic and magnetic meridians

55

DPKP

9. Deviation in a compass is caused by the __________. A. Vessel's geographic position B. Vessel's heading C. Earth's magnetic field D. Influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel

10. Magnetic variation changes with a change in __________. A. The vessel's heading B. Sea conditions C. Seasons D. The vessel's position

11. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass? A. Magnetic materials of the same polarity repel each other and those of opposite polarity attract. B. The Earth's magnetic lines of force are parallel to the surface of the Earth. C. Magnetic meridians connect points of equal magnetic variation. D. The compass needle(s) will, when properly compensated, lie parallel to the isogonic lines of the Earth

12. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in __________. A. Speed B. Vessel heading C. Geographical location D. Cargo

13. Variation is the angular measurement between __________. A. Compass north and magnetic north B. Compass north and true north C. Magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian D. Your vessel's heading and the magnetic meridian

56

DPKP

14. A relative bearing is always measured from __________. A. True north B. Magnetic north C. The vessel's beam D. The vessel's head

15. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and __________. A. Deviation B. Annual rate of variation change C. Precession D. Compass error

16. At the magnetic equator there is no induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron because __________. A. The lines of force cross the equator on a 0°-180° alignment B. The quadrantal error is 0° C. There is no vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field D. The intercardinal headings have less than 1° error

17. The greatest directive force is exerted on the magnetic compass when the __________. A. Needles are nearly in line with the meridian B. Vessel is near the magnetic poles C. Variation is near zero D. Vessel is near the magnetic equator

18. The magnetic compass magnets are acted on by the horizontal component of the Earth's total magnetic force. This magnetic force is GREATEST at the __________. A. North magnetic pole B. South magnetic pole C. Magnetic prime vertical meridian D. Magnetic equator

57

DPKP

19. The standard magnetic compass heading differs from the true heading by __________. A. Compass error B. Latitude C. Variation D. Deviation

20. Compass error is equal to the __________. A. Deviation minus variation B. Variation plus compass course C. Combined variation and deviation D. Difference between true and magnetic heading

21. When changing from a compass course to a true course you should apply __________. A. Variation B. Deviation C. Variation and deviation D. A correction for the direction of current set

22. Which error is NOT included in the term "current" when used in relation to a fix? A. Poor steering B. Leeway C. Known compass error D. Ocean currents

23. To center a compass bowl in its binnacle, you should have the ship on an even keel, heading north or south, and adjust the screws until __________. A. The compass heading is in line with the lubber's line B. There is no lost motion in the gimbal rings C. No change of heading by compass is observed if you raise and lower the heeling magnet D. The gimbal rings do not strike the compass frame when they are tilted

58

DPKP

24. When crossing the magnetic equator the __________. A. Flinders bar should be inverted B. Heeling magnet should be inverted C. The quadrantal spheres should be rotated 180° D. Flinders bar should be moved to the opposite side of the binnacle

25. The quadrantal spheres are used to __________. A. Remove deviation on the intercardinal headings B. Remove deviation on the cardinal compass headings C. Remove heeling error D. Compensate for induced magnetism in vertical soft iron

26. The purpose of the soft iron spheres mounted on arms on the binnacle is to compensate for __________. A. The vertical component of the permanent magnetism of the vessel B. The residual deviation C. Magnetic fields caused by electrical currents in the vicinity D. Induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron

27. Which compensates for induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron of a vessel? A. Iron spheres mounted on the binnacle B. A single vertical magnet under the compass C. The Flinders bar D. Magnets in trays inside the binnacle 28. Deviation which is maximum on intercardinal compass headings may be removed by the __________. A. Flinders bar B. Transverse magnets C. Fore-and-aft magnets D. Soft iron spheres on the sides of the compass

59

DPKP

29. You are about to go to sea and adjust the magnetic compass. To expedite the adjustment at sea, in what order should the following dockside adjustments be made? A. Flinders bar first, then the heeling magnet and spheres B. Heeling magnet first, then the Flinders bar and spheres C. Flinders bar first, then the spheres and heeling magnet D. Spheres first, then the Flinders bar and heeling magnet

30. When adjusting a magnetic compass using the fore-and-aft permanent magnets, you should __________. A. Use the magnets one at a time, putting one in one side and then one on the opposite side, one step higher. B. Use the magnets in pairs, starting at the top, with trays at the highest point of travel C. Use the magnets in pairs, from the bottom up, with the trays at the lowest point of travel D. Fill all the trays with magnets, then remove them one-by-one until the deviation is removed

31. The Flinders bar on a magnetic compass compensates for the __________. A. Induced magnetism in vertical soft iron B. Induced magnetism in horizontal soft iron C. Permanent magnetism in ship's steel D. Vessel's inclination from the vertical

32. The vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field causes induced magnetism in vertical soft iron. This changes with latitude. What corrects for this coefficient of the deviation? A. The Flinders bar B. The heeling magnet C. Quadrantal soft iron spheres D. Bar magnets in the binnacle

60

DPKP

33. A single vertical magnet placed underneath the compass in the binnacle is used to compensate for __________. A. The horizontal component of the permanent magnetism B. Deviation caused by the vessel's inclination from the vertical C. Induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron D. Induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron

34. What are the only magnetic compass correctors that correct for both permanent and induced effects of magnetism? A. Quadrantal spheres B. Heeling magnets C. Athwartships magnets D. Fore-and-aft magnets

35. Which compensates for errors introduced when the vessel heels over? A. The soft iron spheres on the arms of the binnacle B. Magnets placed in trays inside the binnacle C. A single vertical magnet beneath the compass D. The Flinders bar

36. Heeling error is defined as the change of deviation for a heel of __________. A. 2°While the vessel is on an intercardinal heading B. 1°While the vessel is on a compass heading of 000° C. 2° and is constant on all headings D. 1° while the vessel is on a compass heading of 180°

37. The total magnetic effects which cause deviation of a vessel's compass can be broken down into a series of components which are referred to as __________. A. Divisional parts B. Coefficients C. Fractional parts D. Equations

61

DPKP

38. When adjusting a magnetic compass for error, a deviation table should be made __________. A. Before correcting for any deviation B. After correcting for variation C. After adjusting the fore-and-aft and athwartships permanent magnets D. Before the quadrantal correctors are placed on the compass

39. The principal purpose of magnetic compass adjustment is to __________. A. Reduce the variation as much as possible B. Reduce the deviation as much as possible C. Reduce the magnetic dip as much as possible D. Allow the compass bowl to swing freely on its gimbals

40. If a ship is proceeding towards the magnetic equator, the uncorrected deviation due to permanent magnetism __________. A. Increases B. Remains the same C. Decrease D. Is unimportant and may be neglected

41. If the compass heading and the magnetic heading are the same then __________. A. The deviation has been offset by the variation B. There is something wrong with the compass C. The compass is being influenced by nearby metals D. There is no deviation on that heading

42. How is the annual rate of change for magnetic variation shown on a pilot chart? A. Gray lines on the uppermost inset chart B. Red lines on the main body of the chart C. In parenthesis on the lines of equal magnetic variation D. Annual rate of change is not shown.

62

DPKP

43. Deviation is the angle between the __________. A. True meridian and the axis of the compass card B. True meridian and the magnetic meridian C. Magnetic meridian and the axis of the compass card D. Axis of the compass card and the degaussing meridian

44. Which information does the outer ring of a compass rose on a nautical chart provide? A. Variation B. True directions C. Magnetic directions D. Annual rate of variation change

45. The horizontal angle between the magnetic meridian and the north-south line of the magnetic compass is __________. A. Deviation B. Variation C. Compass error D. Dip

46. On a nautical chart, the inner ring of a compass rose indicates __________. A. True directions B. Compass error C. Deviation D. Magnetic directions

47. How is variation indicated on a small-scale nautical chart? A. Magnetic compass table B. Magnetic meridians C. Isogonic lines D. Variation is not indicated on small-scale nautical charts.

63

DPKP

48. Deviation changes with a change in __________. A. Latitude B. Heading C. Longitude D. Sea conditions

49. On a nautical chart, the inner ring of a compass rose indicates __________. A. True directions B. Compass error C. Deviation D. Magnetic directions

50. If a magnetic compass is not affected by any magnetic field other than the Earth's, which statement is TRUE? A. Compass error and variation are equal. B. Compass north will be true north. C. Variation will equal deviation. D. There will be no compass error.

51. The annual change in variation for an area can be found in __________. A. The handbook for Magnetic Compass Adjustment, Pub 226 B. The center of the compass rose on a chart of the area C. The compass deviation table D. Variation does not change.

52. Variation is a compass error that you __________. A. Can correct by adjusting the compass card B. Can correct by adjusting the compensating magnets C. Can correct by changing the vessel's heading D. Cannot correct

64

DPKP

53. The lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicates __________. A. Compass north B. The direction of the vessel's head C. Magnetic north D. A relative bearing taken with an azimuth circle

54. The directive force of a gyrocompass __________. A. Increases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic poles B. Decreases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic equator C. Is greatest when a vessel is near the Earth's magnetic equator D. Remains the same at all latitudes

55. Which statement about the gyrocompass is FALSE? A. Its accuracy remains the same at all latitudes. B. It seeks the true meridian. C. It can be used near the Earth's magnetic poles. D. If an error exists, it is the same on all headings

56. The gyrocompass error resulting from your vessel's movement in OTHER than an east-west direction is called __________. A. Damping error B. Ballistic deflection C. Quadrantal error D. Speed error

57. A system of reservoirs and connecting tubes in a gyro compass is called a __________. A. Spider element B. Mercury ballistic C. Gyrotron D. Rotor

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DPKP

58. At the master gyrocompass, the compass card is attached to the __________. A. Spider element B. Sensitive element C. Link arm D. Pickup transformer

59. Indications of the master gyrocompass are sent to remote repeaters by the __________. A. Follow-up system B. Transmitter C. Phantom element D. Azimuth motor

60. If the gyrocompass error is east, what describes the error and the correction to be made to gyrocompass headings to obtain true headings? A. The readings are too low (small numerically) and the amount of the error must be added to the compass to obtain true B. The readings are too low and the amount of the error must be subtracted from the compass to obtain true C. The readings are too high (large numerically) and the amount of the error must be added to the compass to obtain true D. The readings are too high and the amount of the error must be subtracted from the compass to obtain true

61. Which statement about gyrocompass error is TRUE? A. The amount of the error and the sign will generally be the same on all headings. B. The sign (E or W) of the error will change with different headings of the ship. C. Any error will remain constant unless the compass is stopped and restarte D. Any error shown by a gyro repeater will be the same as the error of the master compass.

66

DPKP

62. The most accurate method of determining gyrocompass error while underway is by __________. A. Comparing the gyro azimuth of a celestial body with the computed azimuth of the body B. Comparing the gyro heading with the magnetic compass heading C. Determining from the chart the course made good between celestial fixes D. It cannot be determined accurately at sea due to drift of unknown currents.

63. To find a magnetic course from a true course you must apply __________. A. Magnetic anomalies (local disturbances) B. Deviation C. Variation D. Deviation and variation

64. Magnetic information on a chart may be __________. A. Found in the center(s) of the compass rose(s) B. Indicated by isogonic lines C. Found in a note on the chart D. All of the above

65. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range which bears 185°T. You steady up on a compass course of 180° with the range in line dead ahea This indicates that you(r) ______. A. Must come right to get on the range B. Course is in error C. Compass has some easterly error D. Are being affected by a southerly current

66. Horizon earth rate causes a free spinning gyro to appear to __________ to an observer on the earth A. Change in azimuth B. Tip or tilt C. Slow down D. Spin very rapidly 67

DPKP

67. If your gyro compass reads 20 degrees lower than your magnetic compass A. You should be concerned as they should match fairly closely B. The gyro is experiencing a large amount of deviation C. The gyroscopic variation has become irregular D. The magnetic compass could be experiencing large amount of variation

68. Gyroscopic inertia is that force which causes a gyroscope to A. Seek true north B. Remain pointing at a fixed point in space C. Precessindefinately around the poles D. Spin very rapidly

69. Vertical earth rate is A. Maximum at the poles B. Minimum at the poles C. Non an effect on the gyrocompass D. Impossible to compensate for

70. A torque applied carefully to one of the rings housing a gyro will cause the gyro to A. Swing wildly about B. Precess in a direction 180 degrees opposite to the torque C. Precess in a direction 90 degrees from the torque D. Stop 71. The earth’s magnetic field is A. Constant over long periods of time B. Decreasing overall and has lost 50% over the last 4000 years C. Is increasing slowly due to magnetic sun storms D. The only force effecting a magnetic compass

68

DPKP

72. While your vessel is proceeding down a channel you notice a range of ligths in line with your mast. If your vessel on a course of 001° per gyro compass and the charted value of the range of lights is 359° T, what is the gyro error ? A. 2° W B. 2° E C. 1° E D. 1° W

73. Your vessel is proceeding up a channel, and you see a pair of range lights that are in line ahea The chart indicates that the direction of this pair of lights is 311° T, and the variation is 8° E. If the heading of your vessel at the time of sighting is 305° PSC, what is the correct deviation ? A. 2° E B. 2° W C. 6° E D. 6° W

74. You are swinging ship to determine the residual deviation by comparing the magnetic compass against the gyrocompass. The gyro error is 2° W. The variation is 8° W. After completing the swinging you have the following readings : HEADING PSC

- PGC

HEADING PSC

-

HEADING PGC

PSC

-

PGC

358.5° - 354°

122.5° -114°

239.5° -234°

030.5° - 024°

152.0° -144°

269.0° -264°

-174° 061.5° is-the 054° What deviation on a181.0° true heading of 157° ? 298.0° -294°

A. 2.0° W 092.0° - 084°

210.0° -204°

327.5° -324°

B. 1.5° W C. 1.0° E D. 0°

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DPKP

75. You are heading 328° PGC to make good a course of 332° T, correcting for 3° of leeway due to southwesterly winds and 1° E gyro error. If the variation is 17° E, what should the heading be to make good 332°T. If you were steering by magnetic compass ? DEVIATION TABLE

A. 315°

MAGNETIC HEADING

B. 318°

345

DEVIATION 1° E

C. 343°

330

1° W

D. 345°

315

3° W

300

5° W

76. Your vessel is steering course 216°psc, variation for the area is 9° W, and the deviation is 2° E. The wind is from the east, proceeding a 5° leeway. What true course are you making good ? A. 315° B. 318° C. 343° D. 345°

77. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course 233°T, and bears 264°T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to intercept vessel A? A. 249° B. 256° C. 262° D. 268°

78. Deviation in a compass is caused by the __________. A. Vessel's geographic position B. Vessel's heading C. Earth's magnetic field D. Influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel

70

DPKP

79. As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________. A. First turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port B. Also turns to starboard C. Remains aligned with compass north D. Turns counterclockwise to port

80. Magnetic variation changes with a change in __________. A. The vessel's heading B. Sea conditions C. Seasons D. The vessel's position

81. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass? A. Magnetic materials of the same polarity repel each other and those of opposite polarity attract. B. The Earth's magnetic lines of force are parallel to the surface of the Earth. C. Magnetic meridians connect points of equal magnetic variation. D. The compass needle(s) will, when properly compensated, lie parallel to the isogonic lines of the Earth.

82. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in __________. A. Speed B. Vessel heading C. Geographical location D. Cargo

83. Magnetism which is present only when the material is under the influence of an external field is called __________. A. Permanent magnetism B. Induced magnetism C. Residual magnetism D. Terrestrial magnetism

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DPKP

84. Variation is the angular measurement between __________. A. Compass north and magnetic north B. Compass north and true north C. Magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian D. Your vessel's heading and the magnetic meridian

85. A relative bearing is always measured from __________. A. True north B. Magnetic north C. The vessel's beam D. The vessel's head

86. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and __________. A. Deviation B. Annual rate of variation change C. Precession D. Compass error

87. At the magnetic equator there is no induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron because __________. A. The lines of force cross the equator on a 0°-180° alignment B. The quadrantal error is 0° C. There is no vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field D. The intercardinal headings have less than 1° error

88. The greatest directive force is exerted on the magnetic compass when the __________. A. Needles are nearly in line with the meridian B. Vessel is near the magnetic poles C. Variation is near zero D. Vessel is near the magnetic equator

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DPKP

89. The magnetic compass magnets are acted on by the horizontal component of the Earth's total magnetic force. This magnetic force is GREATEST at the __________. A. North magnetic pole B. South magnetic pole C. Magnetic prime vertical meridian D. Magnetic equator

90. The standard magnetic compass heading differs from the true heading by __________. A. Compass error B. Latitude C. Variation D. Deviation

91. Your ship is proceeding on course 320°T at a speed of 25 knots. The apparent wind is from 30° off the starboard bow, speed 32 knots. What is the relative direction, true direction and speed of the true wind? A. Relative 80°true 040°T, 16.2 knots B. Relative 40°true 080°T, 16.4 knots C. Relative 80° true 060°T, 15.2 knots D. Relative 60°true 040°T, 18.6 knots

92. The compass heading of a vessel differs from the true heading by __________. A. Compass error B. Variation C. Magnetic dip D. Deviation

93. Compass error is equal to the __________. A. Deviation minus variation B. Variation plus compass course C. Combined variation and deviation D. Difference between true and magnetic heading 73

DPKP

94. When changing from a compass course to a true course you should apply __________. A. Variation B. Deviation C. Variation and deviation D. A correction for the direction of current set

95. Which error is NOT included in the term "current" when used in relation to a fix? A. Poor steering B. Leeway C. Known compass error D. Ocean currents

96. How many degrees are there on a compass card? A. 360° B. 380° C. 390° D. 420°

97. To center a compass bowl in its binnacle, you should have the ship on an even keel, heading north or south, and adjust the screws until __________. A. The compass heading is in line with the lubber's line B. There is no lost motion in the gimbal rings C. No change of heading by compass is observed if you raise and lower the heeling magnet D. The gimbal rings do not strike the compass frame when they are tilted

98. When crossing the magnetic equator the __________. A. Flinders bar should be inverted B. Heeling magnet should be inverted C. The quadrantal spheres should be rotated 180° D. Flinders bar should be moved to the opposite side of the binnacle

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DPKP

99. The quadrantal spheres are used to __________. A. Remove deviation on the intercardinal headings B. Remove deviation on the cardinal compass headings C. Remove heeling error D. Compensate for induced magnetism in vertical soft iron

100. The purpose of the soft iron spheres mounted on arms on the binnacle is to compensate for __________. A. The vertical component of the permanent magnetism of the vessel B. The residual deviation C. Magnetic fields caused by electrical currents in the vicinity D. Induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron

101. Which compensates for induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron of a vessel? A. Iron spheres mounted on the binnacle B. A single vertical magnet under the compass C. The Flinders bar D. Magnets in trays inside the binnacle

102. When adjusting a magnetic compass for error, a deviation table should be made __________. A. Before correcting for any deviation B. After correcting for variation C. After adjusting the fore-and-aft and athwartships permanent magnets D. Before the quadrantal correctors are placed on the compass

103. The total magnetic effects which cause deviation of a vessel's compass can be broken down into a series of components which are referred to as __________. A. Divisional parts B. Coefficients C. Fractional parts D. Equations

75

DPKP

104. Heeling error is defined as the change of deviation for a heel of __________. A. 2°While the vessel is on an intercardinal heading B. 1°While the vessel is on a compass heading of 000° C. 2° and is constant on all headings D. 1° while the vessel is on a compass heading of 180°

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DPKP 4. Koordinasi di dalam kegiatan pencarian dan pertolongan (Coordinate search and rescue operations ) 1.

According to the IAMSAR Manual, what is the expected survival time for a person in water of 4-10 degrees Celsius, without special protective clothing? A. Less than 3 hours. B. Less than 1 hour. C. Less than 6 hours. D. Less than 12 hours.

2.

If a master initially responds to a distress but then, in special circumstances, decides not to proceed, what must he then do? A. Inform the appropriate search and rescue authorities of his decision and enter the reason in the ship's logbook. B. If possible, inform the casualty of his decision and communicate his reasons. C. Inform his owners of his decision and resume his passage at the earliest opportunity. D. Contact the SAR Mission Co-ordinator and secure his written agreement to the release of his vessel from the operation.

3.

In what format will an On-Scene Co-ordinator report such information as on-scene weather and operation progress to other parties? A. SITREP. B. POSREP. C. SARREP. D. OSCREP.

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DPKP

4.

It has been shown that the controlled release of oil is effective in reducing the effects of the sea, making it possible for a rescue craft to approach survivors in the water.

How many square metres does the IAMSAR Manual suggest may be

calmed by releasing 200 litres of lubricating oil slowly through a rubber hose with the outlet maintained just above the surface while the ship proceeds at slow speed? A. Approx 5,000 square metres. B. Approx 500 square metres. C. Approx 50 square metres. D. Approx 50,000 square metres.

5.

The recommended distance between parallel tracks (track spacing) in a search for a casualty by a surface vessel varies (amongst other factors) according to visibility and the nature of the target in the IAMSAR Manual. These distances are then normally adjusted for prevailing weather conditions. If visibility was 5 nautical miles and you were looking for a six-person liferaft, what would the recommended uncorrected track spacing be? A. 3.6 nautical miles. B. 2.5 nautical miles. C. 5.0 nautical miles. D. 0.7 nautical miles.

6.

Under most circumstances, how will communication be carried out between a ship and a SAR helicopter? A. On VHF Ch 16. B. On VHF Ch 70. C. On 121.5 mhz. D. On 410 khz.

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DPKP

7.

What are the three volumes of the IAMSAR Manual? A. I

Organization and Management

Mission Co-ordination

II

III Mobile

Facilities. B. I Organization II Communications III Rescue Procedures C. A

Command and Control

Communications

C

B Rescue

Procedures D. I Planning and Preparation II Rescue Control III Reference

8.

What is the name of the reference manual, jointly produced by the International Maritime Organization and the International Civil Aviation Authority, which currently outlines the organization and management of search and rescue activities at sea? A. The International Aeronautical and Maritime Search and Rescue (IAMSAR) Manual. B. The Search and Rescue (IMOSAR) Manual. C. The

Merchant

Ship

Search

and

Rescue

(MERSAR) Manual. D. The Internation Maritime Search and Rescue (IMARSAR) Manual.

9.

What is the world-wide system operated by the US Coast Guard exclusively in support of search and rescue operations? A. The Automated Mutual-Assistance Vessel Rescue (AMVER) System. B. The International Search and Rescue Coordination System. C. The

Worldwide

Maritime

Mutual

Assistance Programme (WMMAP). D. The U.S. Command and Control Rescue (USCOMR) Service.

79

DPKP

10. What type of search pattern is recommended in the IAMSAR Manual as most effective when the location of the search object is known within relatively close limits? A. Expanding Square Search. B. Sector Search. C. Track Line Search. D. Parallel Sweep Search.

11. Where several rescue units are engaged in a search and rescue operation, one of will be designated as the On-Scene Commander (OSC). Which of the following descibes how this appointment will be made? A. The

OSC

will

always

be

designated by the nearest Rescue Coordination Centre.

No other

vessel may assume the role at any time. B. The first rescue unit to arrive at the scene will normally assume the role of OSC, until the unit appointed as OSC by the SAR Mission Co-ordinator at the applicable RCC is in a position to take control. C. The OSC will initially be a controlling aircraft. Once a suitable vessel is on scene, the responsibility will be passed to them. D. The role of OSC can only be taken by a naval ship with suitable command and control capability.

In many regions, such vessels are permanently

assigned on stand-by to assume such a role.

80

DPKP

12. Who is responsible for the ship being safely manned? A. The master and the shipowner are responsible for the adequate manning of the ship. B. The General of Sea Transportation is responsible for the ship being at all times adequately manned in accordance with National acts and regulations. C. The shipping company shall ensure that information on the number and composition of the crew is posted in the ship and has the sole responsibility for the ship being adequately manne D. The manning agent is responsible for supplying the ship with adequately qualified seafarers.

13. How many separate means of escape from passengers and crew spaces should it be in each zone? A. Two B. One C. Three D. Four

14. What is a passenger ship according to SOLAS regulations? A. A ship which carries more than 12 passengers B. A ship which is arranged and fitted for carriage of persons which are not members of the ship's crew C. A ship which carries passengers only D. A purpose-built passenger ship carrying persons only on defined lines or routes

81

DPKP

15. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the navigation bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be identified in the emergency plans? A. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts threatening the safety of the ship and the security of its passenger and crew, Pesonnel accidents, Cargo-related accidents, Emergency assistance to other ships B. Fire, Evacuation, Pollution, Personnel accidents and Ship Security C. Evacuation, Fire, Pollution and Man-Over-Board D. Man-Over-Board, Evacuation and Fire

16. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger cabins. Which information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency instructions? A. The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals B. Escape routes and alarm signals C. Name of cabin attendant D. Where to find thermal protective aids

17.

Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems shall be kept on board __________. A. For 1 year B. For 2 years C. Until the next Coast Guard inspection D. Until the vessel's Certificate of Inspection expires

18.

You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence? A. 5 compressions then 1 inflation B. 15 compressions then 2 inflations C. 20 compressions then 3 inflations D. 30 compressions then 4 inflations

82

DPKP

19. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position? A. On their side if unconscious B. Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or head C. Flat on their back with head and feet at the same level D. Arms above their head

20. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You should FIRST __________. A. Boat the sea anchor B. Paddle away from the fire C. Splash water over the liferaft to cool it D. Get out of the raft and swim to safety

21. A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the water, would indicate that a submarine __________. A. Has fired a torpedo during a drill B. Is about to rise to periscope depth C. Is on the bottom in distress D. Is disabled and unable to surface

22. When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute? A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 20

23.

The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least a __________. A. Mate's license B. Restricted radiotelephone operator permit C. Second-class radio operator's license D. Seaman's document

83

DPKP

24. Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered at the periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT __________. A. Minimizing the affects of unintentional flooding B. Fire on board C. Rescuing an individual from the water D. Emergency towing

25. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take? A. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down. B. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down. C. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container. D. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.

26. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would fulfill the minimum requirements for fire protection? A. One B-I extinguisher B. One B-II extinguisher C. One B-II and one C-II extinguisher D. One B-V extinguisher

27.

The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________. A. Cupping a hand around the patient's mouth B. Keeping the head elevated C. Applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth D. Holding the jaw down firmly

84

DPKP

28.

Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________. A. Shape B. Shallow draft C. Large sail area D. All of the above

29.

Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the Rules of the Road? A. D B. E C. S D. All of the above

30.

When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed about __________. A. 1/2 inch or less B. 1/2 to 1 inch C. 1 to 1-1/2 inches D. 1-1/2 to 2 inches

31. If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________. A. Filling the stabilizers on one side with water B. Releasing the CO2 cylinder C. Pushing up from under one end D. Standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside of the raft

32. On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________. A. 6° B. 12° C. 20° D. 25° 85

DPKP

33.

Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________. A. Without losing the rhythm of respiration B. Only with the help of two other people C. By not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes D. At ten-minute intervals

34.

Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing apparatus be carried? A. Emergency gear locker B. Bridge or pilothouse area C. Where they can be readily found D. The same location as the equipment it reactivates

35. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflate You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this? A. The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy. B. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflate C. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2. D. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.

36. The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________. A. Having the proper equipment for the process B. Starting the treatment quickly C. Administering of oxygen D. Treating for traumatic shock

37.

To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must pull the safety pin and __________. A. Pull the hook release handle B. Pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar C. Use the ratchet bar and depress the retainer D. Pull the hook release handle and depress the retainer 86

DPKP

38.

A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________. A. Should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards B. Should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards C. Will right itself when the canopy tubes inflate D. Must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself

39. If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when should you remove the safety pin and pull the hook release? A. Immediately upon launching B. One to three feet before first wave contact C. Upon first wave contact D. Only when waterborne

40.

If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should __________. A. Go in a different direction in search of land B. Spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft finding you C. Reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible into as few rafts as possible D. Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group

41.

If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should __________. A. Separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued B. Get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel C. Immediately head for the nearest land D. Remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position

87

DPKP

42. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________. A. Put the vessel's stern into the wind B. Abandon ship to windward C. Call for assistance D. Keep going at half speed

43. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should __________. A. Not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time B. Plug the safety valve C. Unscrew the deflation plugs D. Remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch

44.

You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflate You should __________. A. Quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates B. Check the sea anchor line attachment for a tear if the seas are rough C. Check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial opening D. Not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape

45. If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send? A. BR B. BS C. BT1 D. BZ

46.

Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use? A. Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath. B. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a life jacket. C. They should be tight fitting. D. A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value. 88

DPKP

47. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________. A. Remain in the immediate vicinity B. Head for the nearest land C. Head for the closest sea-lanes D. Vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision

48. Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a fishing vessel? A. Recovering an individual from the water B. Steering casualty C. Emergency towing D. Loss of propulsion power

49. Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call on channel __________. A. 13 B. 16 C. 19 D. 23

50.

According

to

the

"Vessel

Bridge-to-Bridge

Radiotelephone

Act",

your

radiotelephone log must contain __________. A. A record of all routine calls B. A record of your transmissions only C. The home address of the vessel's Master or owner D. A summary of all distress calls and messages

89

DPKP

51.

Which statement about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT? A. It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 khz by two dashes of 10 to 15 seconds duration. B. Channel 16 (156.8 mhz) may be used for distress messages. C. If no answer is received on the designated distress frequencies, repeat the distress call on any frequency available. D. Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 khz.

52.

Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies? A. On the bridge or in the wheelhouse B. In a separate radio compartment C. Adjacent to the main power source D. As high as possible on the vessel

53.

Each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes must have a Category 1 406 mhz EPIRB that __________. A. Is in good operating condition and is stowed near its charger B. Will float free and clear of a sinking vessel and automatically activate C. Is protected against all physical hazards D. All of the above

54.

You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the __________. A. VHF-FM service B. Coastal harbor service C. High seas service D. Emergency broadcast service

90

DPKP

55.

The radiotelephone required by the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" is for the exclusive use of __________. A. The Master or person in charge of the vessel B. A person designated by the Master C. A person on board to pilot the vessel D. All of the above

56.

Which statement relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE? A. There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system. B. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to a vessel in distress than a non-participant. C. An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from offshore. D. The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels responding to calls for assistance.

57.

Why are lifeboats usually double-enders? A. They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach to. B. They can go forward and backward more easily. C. They require less space for stowing aboard ship. D. There is no particular reason for this.

58.

An unconscious person should NOT be __________. A. Placed in a position with the head lower than the body B. Given an inhalation stimulant C. Given something to drink D. Treated for injuries until conscious

91

DPKP

59.

While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a continuous listening watch on channel __________. A. 6 (156.3 mhz) B.

12 (156.6 mhz)

C.

14 (156.7 mhz)

D. 16 (156.8 mhz)

60.

You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. This indicates that __________. A. A message about the safety of navigation will follow B. Message of an urgent nature about the safety of a ship will follow C. The sender is in distress and requests immediate assistance D. You should secure your radiotelephone

61.

The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is __________. A. 156.8 mhz (channel 16) B. 156.7 mhz (channel 14) C. 156.65 mhz (channel 13) D. 156.6 mhz (channel 12)

62.

Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate assistance. You would preface a message advising other vessels of your situation with __________. A. Mayday-Mayday-Mayday B. Pan-Pan (3 times) C. Securite-Securite-Securite D. SOS-SOS-SOS

92

DPKP

63.

In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that __________. A. A ship is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate assistance B. A calling station has an urgent message about the safety of a person C. The message following the prefix will be about the safety of navigation D. The message following is a meteorological warning

64. The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is __________. A. Shorter than the rowing oars B. The same length as the rowing oars C. Longer than the rowing oars D. Unrelated to the length of the rowing oars

65. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft? A. Immediately use all the signals at once. B. Use all the signals during the first night. C. Employ a signal every hour after abandoning ship until they are gone. D. Use them only when you are aware of a ship or plane in the are

66. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of __________. A. 12 hours B. 18 hours C. 24 hours D. 36 hours

67. Which item of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon? A. A red parachute flare B. A red hand-held flare C. A flashlight D. A lantern 93

DPKP

68. Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone? A. Securite B. Mayday C. Breaker D. Pan

69. On every vessel, distress signals must be stowed __________. A. On or near the navigating bridge B. On the flying bridge not closer than 15 feet to any bulkhead C. Above the freeboard deck away from heat D. In an enclosed space below the freeboard deck away from heat

70. A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it __________. A. Has no more than two compartments B. Has two compartments in addition to the engine room C. Will sink if any two compartments are flooded D. Will float if any two adjacent compartments are flooded

71. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "F" hoiste What should you do? A. Continue on your present course since the vessel is signaling for a pilot. B. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is disable C. Stop your vessel instantly. D. Change course to keep clear of the vessel because she is maneuvering with difficulty.

72. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat? A. Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are require B. If hand-held rocket-propelled parachute flares are provided, they are the only distress signals require C. Two hand-held smoke signals shall be provide D. A Very pistol with twelve flares is require

94

DPKP

73. An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________. A. So as to float free B. With the vessel's emergency equipment C. Near the wheelhouse D. As far forward as possible

74. An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger ship that has a doctor and hospital on boar You want to rendezvous in a certain position so the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your message contain? A. MAF B. MAB C. MAA D. MAE

75. The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is __________. A. 6 short blasts and 1 long blast B. More than 6 short blasts C. More than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast D. 1 long blast of at least 10 seconds

76. You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are requesting urgent medical advice. Your message should contain which code? A. MAB B. MAD C. MAA D. MAF 77. On small passenger vessels electrical equipment in spaces that contain gasoline powered machinery must be __________. A. Explosion-proof B. Intrinsically safe C. Ignition protected for use in a gasoline atmosphere D. All of the above

95

DPKP

78. You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for __________. A. Abandon ship B. Dismissal from fire and emergency stations C. Fire and emergency D. Man overboard

79. Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________. A. More than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle, and the same signal on the general alarm B. Continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds C. 1 short blast on the whistle D. Alternating short and long blasts on the ship's whistle

80. You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ. This means "_____." A. Place patient in hot bath B. The wound should be stitched C. You should pass a stomach tube D. The wound should not be stitched

81. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short rings on the general alarm bells" is the signal for __________. A. Abandon ship B. Dismissal from fire and emergency stations C. Fire and emergency D. Man overboard

82. After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member, you receive a message containing the code MRL. This means "_______". A. Apply ice-cold compress and renew every 4 hours B. Commence artificial respiration immediately C. Give enema D. Pass catheter into bladder 96

DPKP

83. If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain? A. MPO B. MPR C. MPK D. MPJ

84. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________. A. Drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter B. Find some wood for a fire C. Get the provisions out of the raft D. Set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it

85. The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by applying the __________. A. "Length of Rail" criteria, allowing 30 inches of rail space along the vessel's sides and transom for each passenger B. "Deck Area" criteria that permits one passenger for every 10 square feet of deck space available for passenger use C. "Fixed Seating" criteria that allocates 18 inches of space for each passenger to rest his/her buttocks upon D. Any or a combination of the above criteria

86. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is __________. A. Asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed B. Hypothermia caused by cold temperature C. Collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures D. Starvation

97

DPKP

87. In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and __________. A. Application of CPR B. Removal of any foreign objects C. Administration of oxygen D. For traumatic shock

88. The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________. A. Relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication B. Avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling C. Preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the pain D. Providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration

89. All OSV personnel should be familiar with survival craft __________. A. Boarding and operating procedures B. Maintenance schedule C. Navigational systems D. Fuel consumption rates

90. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water? A. Up to 3 days B. 8 to 14 days C. 15 to 20 days D. 25 to 30 days

91. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having abandoned an OSV in a survival craft, you should __________. A. Go in one direction until the fuel runs out B. Plot course for the nearest land C. Take a vote on the direction in which to go D. Shutdown the engines and put out the sea anchor

98

DPKP

92. If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of action should be to __________. A. Remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel B. Head for the closest land C. Head for the closest sea-lanes D. Get a majority opinion

93. When abandoning an OSV, following the launching of the survival craft you should __________. A. Plot a course for the nearest land B. Take a vote on the direction in which to go C. Stay in the immediate area D. Go in one direction until fuel runs out

94. If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, you should __________. A. Remain in the immediate vicinity B. Head for the nearest land C. Head for the closest sea-lanes D. Vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision

95. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning an OSV, when no rescue craft is in sight, they should __________. A. Be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water B. Float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the air C. Remove their life jackets and hold on to uninjured survivors D. Sip seawater at intervals of fifteen minutes

99

DPKP

96. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning an OSV and no rescue craft are in sight, they should __________. A. Tie themselves to the unit to avoid drifting with the current B. Group to form a small circle of survivors to create a warmer pocket of water in the center of the circle C. Send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance D. From a raft by lashing their life jackets together

97. Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has been established, the drinking routine should include __________. A. Small sips at regular intervals during the day B. A complete daily ration at one time during the day C. One-third the daily ration three times during the day D. Small sips only after sunset

98. The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line strong enough to tow the vessel's largest loaded liferaft at a speed of at least __________. A. 1 knot B. 2 knot C. 5 knot D. 10 knot

99. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________. A. Survivors in the water B. Food and water C. Land D. Bad weather

100. What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft? A. Open equipment pack. B. Post a lookout. C. Issue anti-seasickness medicine. D. Pick up other survivors. 100

DPKP

101. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________. A. Take measures to maintain morale B. Prepare and use radio equipment C. Identify the person in charge of liferaft D. Search for survivors

102. The bridge wheelman has not reported for duty and there is a suspected "Man Overboard" situation on your vessel. The ship has been searched and there is one seaman missing? The vessel turns round and retraces the course back, calling for assistance from other vessels in the vicinity. What should be the focal point for any search pattern to be established? A. Determine when the seaman was last sighted and concentrate the search

round

the

course

line

between the last sighting and present position, taking into account any prevailing current. B. The focus of the search should be from the present position as he probably went overboard when proceeding to the bridge for his watch. C. Determine the drift and leeway of own ship and take this deviation from track into account on the return course. The search should focus around this return track back to the last sighted position D. The last sighted position should be the focal point of any search pattern and all ships should keep a good lookout in that vicinity, moving outwards to the present position.

101

DPKP

103. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have been in a collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What would you do? A. Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors B. Leave the position as fast as possible C. Do nothing and wait for assistance D. Call the company, explain the situation and ask for orders

104. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 6 knots on course 133°T, and bears 042°T, 105 miles from you. What is the time to intercept if you make 10 knots? A. 12h 30m B. 12h 44m C. 12h 58m D. 13h 22m

105. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 5.5 knots on course 033°T, and bears 284°T at 43 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 16 knots to intercept vessel A? A. 284° B. 303° C. 329° D. 342°

102

DPKP 5. Menetapkan pengaturan dan prosedur tugas jaga (Establish watchkeeping arrangements and procedures )

1.

A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops moving through the water, having been steaming through a shallow water channel for several miles. The sheer may be strong and unexpected and is due to what reason? A. The large volume of water dragged behind the vessel continues to move forward and cause a strong turning moment on the stern of the vessel B. The

hydrodynamic

interaction

effects from the banks of the shallow water channel acts on the stern causing the vessel to sheer strongly C. The vessel stopping shifts the pivot point forward and creates a turning moment and results in the ship swinging towards the bank. D. The shallow water reduces the effectiveness of the rudder and when the vessel stops any applied rudder will become suddenly more effective.

2.

A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two tugs assisting and there is little wind or current affecting the vessel. What would be considered the best use of the tugs and at which position? A. Pushing on the ship's side and made fast in case the vessel's movement towards the berth requires reducing by the tug pulling off. B. Made fast Forward and Aft using the centre leads. C. Pushing on ship's side, but not made fast to allow the tug to move to another position if needed D. One tug made fast forward for pulling and the other pushing aft.

103

DPKP

3.

A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a narrow channel, using its own engines and assisted by the use of one tug. Where should the tug be connected to assist the ship in maintaining its course in the centre of the channel? A. Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern. B. Made fast on a line through the centre lead ahea C. Standing-by - Ready for use anywhere, as require D. Pushing alongside

4.

A ship experiences an interaction effect known as "Squat" when moving in shallow water. The amount of Squat is affected by the speed of the vessel through the water. If the speed through the water is HALVED what will be the change in the affect of "Squat" A. The squat effect will be reduced to a quarter of its original value B. The squat effect will also be halve C. There will be a significant change in the reduction of underkeel clearance, but the amount varies from ship to ship D. There will be very little change to the effects of Squat.

5.

A ship has turned a complete circle (360 degrees) in deep water at full ahead throughout the turn. The same ship, in the same conditions, is now to make a complete turn (360 degrees) at half ahead throughout the turn. Would there be any difference in the size (diameter) of the turning circle? A. No, the diameter of the turning circle would be almost the same. B. Yes, it would be a much smaller turning circle at half ahead C. Yes, it will be much larger turning circle at half ahea D. Yes, there would be a change of shape of the turning circle; it would have an increase in the transfer, but not the advance.

104

DPKP

6.

A tug is connected by a line to the bow of a ship. Will the bollard pull exerted by the tug be the same at any speed? A. No, when the ship's speed exceeds about 5 knots it will be expected that there will be a reduced pull exerted by the tug B. No, when the speed of the ship is increasing, the bollard pull exerted by the tug will also be increasing C. Yes, the bollard pull would normally be expected to be the same at any speed of the ship D. Yes for movement ahead, but when going astern the bollard pull would be expected to be at its greatest.

7.

A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence of a 1 knot beam current. At the first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the draught and at the second the underkeel clearance is only 0.5 times the draught. If the current exerted a force of 50 tonnes on the ship at the first jetty, what would be the approximate force exerted at the second if the draught is the same? A. 150 tonnes B. Unchanged, remains at 50 tonnes C. 25 tonnes D. 75 tonnes

8.

In shallow water a ship will experience "Squat". What are the principle reasons creating the effects of squat? A. There is an increase in the water velocity and a decrease of water pressure around the ship's hull B. There is a decrease in the water velocity and an increased of water pressure around the ship's hull C. There is an increased effect of gravity due to closeness of the sea-bed D. There are changes in the bow and stern pressure fields associated with the ships motion. 105

DPKP

9.

In the situation illustrated, a ship is proceeding in the centre of the channel and approaching a bend in a river. What helm would probably be required to safely round the bend and what other effects could be expected in this situation? A. The

heading

should

be

carefully

monitored, some port rudder may be required to start the swing, though starboard rudder may be required to balance any bank rejection. B. The wheel should be put hard over to port to keep the ship in the middle of the channel

and

the

heading

carefully

monitore C. A small amount of port helm would be required to get round the corner and the engines should be slowed down to give more time to the manoeuvre. The heading should be continually monitored D. The ship will round the corner without any helm being required, due to interaction and rejection by the river bank

10. In the situation illustrated, what should be the distribution of the power requirements from the tugs, if the ship is to be moved sideways without changing the heading?

Both tugs have similar bollard pull and are of conventional

propulsion. A. Much greater power on the forward tug than on the after tug while monitoring the gyro heading B. Much greater power on the aft tug than on the forward tug while monitoring the gyro heading. C. Equal power required by both tugs, but monitor the gyro heading to ensure sideward movement only D. It would be very difficult to predict the power requirements in this circumstance and it could only be found by observation.

106

DPKP

11. In the situation illustrated, what should be the power distribution of the tugs to maintain the ship sideways motion with only minor changes in the ship's heading? A. Considerably more power on the aft tug than the forward tug, while monitoring the ship's gyro heading B. Considerably more power on the forward tug than the after tug, while monitoring the ship's gyro heading C. Equal power on both tugs while monitoring the ship's gyro heading D. Full power on the forward tug and the after tug ceases to push, but continuously monitor the ship's gyro heading

12. It has been established by experience that the most successful method of double banking two vessels, when no tugs are available, is one of the following methods. Select which answer is considered the most successful metho A. When both vessels are underway, fig. 1 B. When the larger vessel is at anchor, fig. 2 C. When the smaller vessel is at anchor, fig. 3 D. When the larger vessel is stopped and drifting in the water, fig. 4

13. The bridge is informed by an eye-witness that a man has just fallen overboar Which of the following manoeuvres is the most appropriate action when the person is still close to the vessel? A. Williamson Turn B. Scharnow Turn C. Direct Turn D. Evinrude Turn

107

DPKP

14. The effective stability of a tug, when assisting a vessel to manoeuvre, can be decreased by hydrodynamic interaction with the ship it is assisting. Where is the most dangerous position of the tug relative to the ship, for this adverse affect to be found? A. The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches the bow rounding the forward shoulder of the larger vessel. B. The most dangerous position is when the tug is alongside the amidships section of the larger vessel. C. The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches the stern of the larger vessel and enters into its associated positive pressure fiel D. The most dangerous position is where the tug has made fast the towing spring and is then moving ahead of the larger vessel.

15. The effectiveness of a rudder is dependant on the flow of water past the rudder. If the rudder is put hard over when the ship is at full ahead in deep water, and then the engines are stopped, how much lift force remains? A. About 20 % B. About 50 % C. About 80 % D. About 5 %

16. The rudder is hard over when steaming at full ahead in shallow water. How much "lift force" remains when the engine is stopped? A. About 10 % B. About 50 % C. About 80 % D. There will be lift force remaining

108

DPKP

17. The ship is approaching shallow water where the Under Keel Clearance will reduce to about 0.25 of the ship's draught. Which of the following answers most accurately summarizes the aspects to be considered when deciding a suitable speed? A. All of the suggested answers B. A further reduction of underkeel clearance and possible changes of the ship's trim C. A reduced ability to stop the vessel and maintain steerage D. Touching the bottom if there is any swell and causing damage due to the wake or wash of the vessel

18. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots which suddenly increases to 60 knots. What will be the change of force exerted on the ship driving it off the jetty? A. The force will be Quadrupled B. The force will be Tripled C. The force will be Doubled D. The force will be Quintupled

19. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and the Doppler log shows a sideways motion to port at both forward and aft positions. Where would the "pivot point" be considered to be located? A. At a position outside the hull of the ship itself B. At a position aft of amidships C. At a position on the centreline, about 1/6 of the ship's length aft of the bow. D. At a position in the vicinity of the ship's centre of gravity

109

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20. What is understood by the term "Balanced Rudder"? A. A rudder with part of the rudder area forward of the turning axis, therefore reducing the load on the steering motor. B. A rudder with equal rudder area forward and aft of the turning axis, the turning axis being at the geometrical centre of the rudder area C. A rudder which is operated by two steering motors providing equal amounts of thrust to the rudder D. A rudder with an additional flap attached the training edge to improve the rudder efficiency

21. What will have a major effect on the performance of a tug when used to assist in the manoeuvring of a large vessel? A. The position of the tug relative to the ship's pivot point B. The experience of the tug crew. C. The use of the tug's wire instead of the ship's towing spring D. The length of the towing spring

22. What would be the correct understanding of the term "a ship is directionally unstable"? A. The ship requires continual application of the rudder to maintain a steady course. B. When the rudder is kept amidships, the ship will continue on a straight course C. The ship will only require small amounts of helm to maintain its course when steaming in a heavy seaway D. The ship has negative transverse stability (-GM) when proceeding on some specific courses 110

DPKP

23. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag force. When the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do you think remains if the rudder-angle is decreased to 20 degrees from hard over position (35 degrees)? A. About 80 % B. About 10 %. C. About 30 % D. About 50 %

24. When a vessel is moving in shallow water it will experience an effect known as "Squat". Which of the following statements most accurately specify the results of squat on the vessel? A. There will be a reduction of the vessel's underkeel clearance and a possible change of trim. B. There will be an increase in the vessels draught while moving through the water C. There will be a change of draught and a reduction in the spee D. If the speed of the vessel through the water is kept to "Slow Ahead" there will be no effect due to Squat.

25. When a vessel is to experience a long tow across an ocean, what would be the best system of connecting the tow? A. Wire

from

a

deep

sea

tug

connected to the ship's anchor chain. B. Wire from a deep sea tug through the forward centre lead of the ship and

made

fast

onto

several

mooring bits on the forecastle C. Wire from a deep sea tug made fast through a shoulder lead on the vessel's leeward side D. Towing Hawser from a deep sea tug through the centre lead forward and made fast on the nearest mooring bits forwar 111

DPKP

26. When connecting a tugboat, what speed do you think is best for your vessel to maintain during this operation? A. The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5 knots B. It is best to stop the vessel completely before connecting C. A tug may be connected at any convenient speed D. The speed should be more than 7 knots

27. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of a vessel when going astern? A. Between 1/4 of the ship's length from the stern and the rudder post B. 1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow C. Amidships D. Between amidships and 1/4 of the vessel's length from the bow

28. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of the vessel when going ahead? A. 1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow. B. 1/4 of vessel's length from the stern C. Amidships D. Normally varies dependant on the speed ahead

29. Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when escorting a ship through narrow waters would be considered the most effective in the event of loosing steering power? A. The tug made fast on a line through the centre lead astern. (figure 4). B. Tug running free alongside, ready to be made fast (figure 2) C. Tug made fast forward on either shoulder, ready to push (figure 3) D. The tug made fast on a line through the centre lead forward (figure 1)

112

DPKP

30. Why does a ship move laterally (sideward drift) when turning. A. Because the pivot point is not at the centre of the ship B. Because the turning moment is created by the rudder, which is positioned at the stern of the vessel C. The ship moves laterally because it always tries to continue in a straight line. D. The ship moves sidewards because of all the external forces on the vessels hull.

31. Would the indicated speed, as shown on a Ground Tracking Doppler Log, be suitable for berthing the vessel? A. The approach speed is too fast. B. The approach speed is essential to maintain steerage when coming alongside C. The speed requirements are decided by the pilot and should not be the concern of the OOW. D. The indicated speed would be a normal speed approaching a berth.

32. Your ship is approaching the berth as illustrated and has a right handed propeller and no thrusters. What could be a method to retain full control of the vessel as it comes alongside? A. Let go starboard anchor to about 1 shackle on deck B. Reduce speed by going astern on the engines. C. Let go port anchor to about 1 shackles on deck D. Full starboard rudder and stop engines

113

DPKP

33. As a probable result of being in collision with your vessel, the other vessel involved is on fire? What are your responsibilities to the other vessel? A. After checking the extent of the damage and welfare of your crew, if possible your vessel should standby and offer assistance, until being relieved of that obligation by the other vessel. B. There is no statutory requirement to provide assistance as the actions of that vessel were the primary cause of the collision C. Your vessel should manoeuvre close to the other vessel and aid the fire fighting operation. D. You should inform the nearest Coast Radio Station of the incident and if your damage is not serious, continue on your voyage.

34. Ship A is fully loaded with iron ore and is navigating in a coastal region when it is in collision with ship B, causing ship A to take in water in several holds. What is the best course of action by ship A to save the vessel and the cargo? A. Put the ship aground on a soft sandy bottom as soon as possible B. Attempt to stop the ingress of water by listing the ship over and bringing the damaged area of the hull out of the water. C. Call for tug boat assistance as soon as possible D. Inform the local coast radio station of the situation and ask for advice

114

DPKP

35. The bridge wheelman has not reported for duty and there is a suspected "Man Overboard" situation on your vessel. The ship has been searched and there is one seaman missing? The vessel turns round and retraces the course back, calling for assistance from other vessels in the vicinity. What should be the focal point for any search pattern to be established? A. Determine when the seaman was last sighted and concentrate the search

round

the

course

line

between the last sighting and present position, taking into account any prevailing current. B. The focus of the search should be from the present position as he probably went overboard when proceeding to the bridge for his watch. C. Determine the drift and leeway of own ship and take this deviation from track into account on the return course. The search should focus around this return track back to the last sighted position D. The last sighted position should be the focal point of any search pattern and all ships should keep a good lookout in that vicinity, moving outwards to the present position.

36. The engines have failed and will require at least 24 hours to be available as a reliable means of propulsion. Your vessel is about 20 miles off the coast in a tidal are What are the initial steps that should be taken to ensure the safety of the ship? A. Display NUC lights and investigate the tidal flow over the next 24 hours and the probable drift of the vessel. B. Display NUC lights and inform the nearest

Coast

Guard

of

you

predicament. C. Display NUC lights and determine if anchoring is possible D. Display NUC lights and send out a navigational warning to all other vessels of your position and situation 115

DPKP

37. The vessel is passing through the English Channel when the ARPA radars fail completely and navigation must continue without any operational radars. Should there be any changes to your passage plan or bridge procedures. Your vessel is equipped with an operational ECDIS A. Increase the officers on the bridge to allow greater use of visual navigation B. Change the passage plan to avoid areas of high density shipping, if possible C. Post extra lookouts D. No changes are necessary

38. You are Sen.Off.Deck / Duty officer onboard one of the vessels involved in a collision. What will your actions be following the collision? A. Make sure your vessel + crew are safe and then offer your assistance to the other vessel B. Continue the voyage to your destination C. Call the Company Office D. Start an argument with the other vessel about fault

39. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have been in a collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What would you do? A. Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors B. Leave the position as fast as possible C. Do nothing and wait for assistance D. Call the company, explain the situation and ask for orders

116

DPKP

40. You are witness to a collision between two other ships close to your vessel. What immediate action should you take? A. Nothing, just standby and wait to see if any assistance is require B. Contact one or both vessels involved in the incident and offer assistance. C. Send out a distress message on their behalf. D. Inform the local coast radio station of the incident and submit your name as a witness.

41. Your vessel has been in collision and it is uncertain whether the vessel has the required residual stability to remain afloat. After sounding the general alarm on board and informing the nearest Coast Radio Station of your situation, what other immediate steps should be taken? A. Complete soundings of all compartments to determine the number of compartments floode Check the vessels stability limitations within its statutory loadline requirements to determine if still adequate. B. Sound round the vessel and calculate the changes in stability due to the lost buoyancy, to determine if the final residual positive stability is sufficient to remain afloat. C. Monitor any gradual increase of draft, list and trim to determine the final of equilibrium. Ensure this is sufficient to remain afloat D. Prepare for abandoning ship and ensure that all ship's personnel are at their lifeboat stations.

117

DPKP

42. Your vessel has been in involved in a collision with an other vessel. As Master responsible for the ship and persons on board, what is the first step to take? A. Organise someone to assess the extent of damage and the residual stability of the vessel. B. Communicate with the other ship. C. Determine is there is any evidence of pollution. D. Determine any injuries or deaths of persons on board

43. Your vessel is involved in a collision with another vessel. What should you as Master tell the Master on the other vessel? A. Name; Port of registry; Port of destination of your vessel. B. Explain your actions prior to the collision and request details of actions taken by the other vessel which resulted in the collision. C. Ask if there is any assistance required by the other vessel. D. There should be no communication with the other vessel.

44. Your vessel is progressing within a Traffic Separation Scheme and receives a navigational warning of another vessel progressing the wrong way within the scheme. What actions should be taken on the bridge, if any? A. Use the Arpa for early identification of all other ship movements within the traffic lane and give rogue vessel a wide berth B. Take no actions but proceed with extra caution. C. Move out of the traffic lane towards the coast. D. Slow down your vessel and proceed with caution, posting extra lookouts

118

DPKP

45. When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is above the lower light you should __________. A. Come left B. Come right C. Continue on the present course D. Wait until the lights are no longer in a vertical line

46. When displayed under a single-span fixed bridge, red lights indicate __________. A. The channel boundaries B. That vessels must stop C. The bridge is about to open D. That traffic is approaching from the other side

47. You have replaced the chart paper in the course recorder. What is NOT required to ensure that a correct trace is recorded? A. Test the electrical gain to the thermograph pens B. Set the zone pen on the correct quadrant C. Line the course pen up on the exact heading of the ship D. Adjust the chart paper to indicate the correct time

48. You are approaching a swing bridge at night. You will know that the bridge is open for river traffic when __________. A. The fixed, green light starts to flash B. The amber light changes to green C. The red light is extinguished D. The red light changes to green

119

DPKP

49. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 120°T, 110 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285°T at 25 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA? A. 77 miles B. 82 miles C. 87 miles D. 93 miles

50. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be considered? A. The buoy should be considered to always be in the charted location. B. If the light is flashing, the buoy should be considered to be in the charted location. C. The buoy may not be in the charted position. D. The buoy should be considered to be in the charted position if it has been freshly painte

51. You are approaching a multiple-span bridge at night. The main navigational channel span will be indicated by __________. A. A quick flashing red or green aid to navigation B. A steady blue light in the center of the span C. 3 white lights in a vertical line in the center of the span D. A flashing green light in the center of the span

52. When approaching a preferred-channel buoy, the best channel is NOT indicated by the __________. A. Light characteristic B. Color of the uppermost band C. Shape of an unlighted buoy D. Color of the light

120

DPKP

53. When navigating a vessel, you __________. A. Can always rely on a buoy to be on station B. Can always rely on a buoy to show proper light characteristics C. Should assume a wreck buoy is directly over the wreck D. Should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position

54. A buoy with a composite group-flashing light indicates a(n) __________. A. Anchorage area B. Fish net area C. Bifurcation D. Dredging area

55. When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation? A. During calm weather only B. During daylight only C. Only when inside a harbor D. Only when fixed aids are not available

56. When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate __________. A. A shallow depth reading B. A zero depth reading C. No depth reading D. Two depth readings

57. When using an echo sounder in deep water, it is NOT unusual to __________. A. Receive a strong return at about 200 fathoms (366 meters) during the day, and one nearer the surface at night B. Receive a first return near the surface during the day, and a strong return at about 200 fathoms (366 meters) at night C. Receive false echoes at a constant depth day and night D. Have to recalibrate every couple of days due to inaccurate readings

121

DPKP

58. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 080°T, 100 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 265°T at 22 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA? A. 76 miles B. 69 miles C. 63 miles D. 56 miles

59. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying reefs and shoals? A. Approach charts B. General charts C. Sailing charts D. Coastal charts

60. Under the IALA - A Buoyage System, a buoy used as a port hand mark would not show which light characteristic? A. Isophase B. Quick flashing C. Long flashing D. Group Flashing (2 + 1)

61. Two navigational hazards are located near to each other, but each is marked by an individual cardinal buoyage system. The buoys of one cardinal system may be identified from the other system by __________. A. The differing light colors B. One system having odd numbers while the other system has even numbers C. One system using horizontal bands while the other system uses vertical stripes D. The difference in the periods of the light

122

DPKP

62. Buoys are marked with reflective material to assist in their detection by searchlight. Which statement is TRUE? A. A safe-water buoy will display red and white vertical stripes of reflective material. B. All reflective material is white because it is the most visible at night. C. A special-purpose mark will display either red or green reflective material to agree with its shape. D. A preferred-channel buoy displays either red or green reflective material to agree with the top band of color.

63. You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as your berth is not yet available. You are on a SW'ly heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe the range lights, as shown, on your starboard beam. You should __________. A. Ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the range while at anchor B. Drop the anchor immediately as the range lights mark an area free of obstructions C. Drop the anchor immediately as a change in the position of the range lights will be an indication of dragging anchor D. NOT drop the anchor until the lights are in line

64. To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable current, you should reach an entrance or strait at which time in relation to the predicted time of the favorable current? A. One hour after B. At the predicted time C. 30 minutes before D. 30 minutes before flood, one hour after an ebb

123

DPKP

65. In a narrow channel, you are underway on vessel "A" and desire to overtake vessel "B". After you sound two short blasts on your whistle, vessel "B" sounds five short and rapid blasts on the whistle. You should __________. A. Pass with caution on the port side of vessel "B" B. Hold your relative position, and then sound another signal after the situation has stabilized C. Answer the five short blast signal then stop your vessel until the other vessel initiates a signal D. Slow or stop and expect radical maneuvers from "B"

66. A vessel proceeding downstream in a narrow channel on the Western Rivers sights another vessel moving upstream. Which vessel has the right of way? A. The vessel moving upstream against the current B. The vessel moving downstream with a following current C. The vessel located more towards the channel centerline D. The vessel sounding the first whistle signal

67. You are overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel and wish to leave her on your starboard side. You may __________. A. Attempt to contact her on the radiotelephone to arrange for the passage B. Proceed to overtake her without sounding whistle signals C. Sound five short blasts D. All of the above

68. A vessel displaying a flashing blue light is __________. A. Transferring dangerous cargo B. A law enforcement vessel C. A work boat D. Engaged in a race

124

DPKP

69. Which statement is TRUE concerning narrow channels? A. You should keep to that side of the channel which is on your port side. B. You should avoid anchoring in a narrow channel. C. A vessel having a following current will propose the manner of passage in any case where two vessels are meeting. D. All of the above

70. Which term is NOT defined in the Inland Navigation Rules? A. Seaplane B. Restricted visibility C. Underway D. Vessel constrained by her draft

71. You have made your vessel up to a tow and are moving from a pier out into the main channel. Your engines are turning ahea What whistle signal should you sound? A. One prolonged and two short blasts B. Three long blasts C. One prolonged blast D. Five or more short rapid blasts

72. Under the Inland Navigation Rules, what is the meaning of the two short blasts signal used when meeting another vessel? A. "I am turning to starboar" B. "I am turning to port." C. "I intend to leave you on my starboard side." D. "I intend to leave you on my port side."

73. A power-driven vessel crossing a river on the Western Rivers has the right of way over __________. A. Vessels ascending the river B. Vessels descending the river C. All vessels ascending and descending the river D. None of the above 125

DPKP

74. Which lights are required for a barge, not part of a composite unit, being pushed ahead? A. Sidelights and a stern light B. Sidelights, a special flashing light, and a stern light C. Sidelights and a special flashing light D. Sidelights, a towing light, and a stern light

75. A power-driven vessel operating in a narrow channel with a following current on the Great Lakes or Western Rivers is meeting an upbound vessel. Which statement is TRUE? A. The downbound vessel has the right-of-way. B. The downbound vessel must initiate the required maneuvering signals. C. The downbound vessel must propose the manner and place of passage. D. All of the above

76. Your vessel is proceeding down a channel, and can safely navigate only within the channel. Another vessel is crossing your bow from port to starboard, and you are in doubt as to her intentions. Which statement is TRUE? A. The sounding of the danger signal is optional. B. The sounding of the danger signal is mandatory. C. You should sound two short blasts. D. You should sound one prolonged and two short blasts.

77. The stand-on vessel in a crossing situation sounds one short blast of the whistle. This means that the vessel __________. A. Intends to hold course and speed B. Is changing course to starboard C. Is changing course to port D. Intends to leave the other on her port side

126

DPKP

78. You are crossing the course of another vessel which is to your starboar You have reached an agreement by radiotelephone to pass astern of the other vessel. You MUST __________. A. Sound one short blast B. Sound two short blasts C. Change course to starboard D. None of the above

79. Passing signals shall be sounded on inland waters by __________. A. All vessels upon sighting another vessel rounding a bend in the channel B. Towing vessel when meeting another towing vessel on a clear day with a 0.6 mile CPA (Closest Point of Approach) C. A power-driven vessel when crossing less than half a mile ahead of another power-driven vessel D. All of the above

80. Your vessel is meeting another vessel head-on. To comply with the rules, you should exchange __________. A. One short blast, alter course to port, and pass starboard to starboard B. One short blast, alter course to starboard, and pass port to port C. Two short blasts, alter course to port, and pass starboard to starboard D. Two short blasts, alter course to starboard, and pass port to port

81. A fleet of moored barges extends into a navigable channel. What is the color of the lights on the barges? A. Red B. Amber C. White D. Yellow

127

DPKP

82. At night, a light signal consisting of two flashes by a vessel indicates __________. A. An intention to communicate over radiotelephone B. That the vessel is in distress C. An intention to leave another vessel to port D. An intention to leave another vessel to starboard

83. You are overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel and wish to leave her on your starboard side. You may __________. A. Proceed to overtake her without sounding whistle signals B. Attempt to contact her on the radiotelephone to arrange for the passage C. Sound four short blasts D. Any of the above

84. A barge more than 50 meters long is required to show how many white anchor lights when anchored in a Secretary approved "special anchorage area"? A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. None

85. You are on vessel "B" and vessel "A" desires to overtake you on your starboard side as shown. After the vessels have exchanged one blast signals, you should __________. A. Alter course to the left B. Slow your vessel until vessel "A" has passed C. Hold course and speed D. Alter course to the left or right to give vessel "A" more sea room 86. Which type of vessel is NOT mentioned in the Inland Navigation Rules? A. An inconspicuous, partly submerged vessel B. A seaplane C. An air-cushion vessel D. A vessel constrained by her draft

128

DPKP

87. You are operating a vessel through a narrow channel and your vessel must stay within the channel to be navigated safely. Another vessel is crossing your course from starboard to port, and you are in doubt as to her intentions. You __________. A. Must sound the danger signal B. Are required to back down C. May sound the danger signal D. Should sound one short blast to show that you are holding course and speed

88. Your vessel is meeting another vessel head-on. To comply with the rules, you should exchange __________. A. One short blast, alter course to the left, and pass starboard to starboard B. Two short blasts, alter course to the left, and pass starboard to starboard C. One short blast, alter course to the right, and pass port to port D. Two short blasts, alter course to the right, and pass port to port

89. Which indicates the presence of a partly submerged object being towed? A. A diamond shape on the towed object B. An all-round light at each end of the towed object C. A searchlight beamed from the towing vessel in the direction of the tow D. All of the above

90. The light used to signal passing intentions is a(n) __________. A. All-round white light ONLY B. All-round yellow light ONLY C. All-round white or yellow light D. Light of any color

91. Two vessels in a crossing situation have reached agreement by radiotelephone as to the intentions of the other. In this situation, whistle signals are __________. A. Required B. Not required, but may be sounded C. Required if crossing within half a mile D. Required when crossing within one mile

129

DPKP

92. Which statement is TRUE concerning the fog signal of a vessel 15 meters in length, anchored in a "special anchorage area" approved by the Secretary? A. The vessel is not required to sound a fog signal. B. The vessel shall ring a bell for 5 seconds every minute. C. The vessel shall sound one blast of the foghorn every 2 minutes. D. The vessel shall sound three blasts on the whistle every 2 minutes.

93.

Power-driven vessel, when leaving a dock or berth, is required to sound __________. A. Four short blasts B. One long blast C. One prolonged blast D. No signal is require

94. Vessels "A" and "B" are meeting on a river as shown and will pass about 1/4 mile apart. Which statement is TRUE? A. Both vessels should continue on course and pass without sounding any whistle signals. B. The vessels should exchange two blast whistle signals and pass port to port. C. The vessels should exchange two blast whistle signals and pass starboard to starboar D. The vessels should pass port to port and must sound whistle signals only if either vessel changes course.

95. Whistle signals shall be exchanged by vessels in sight of one another when __________. A. They are passing within half a mile of each other B. Passing agreements have been made by radio C. Course changes are necessary to pass D. Doubt exists as to which side the vessels will pass on

130

DPKP

96. You are on vessel "A" and vessel "B" desires to overtake you on the starboard side as shown. After the vessels have exchanged one blast signals you should __________. A. Alter course to the left B. Slow your vessel until vessel "B" has passed C. Hold course and speed D. Alter course to the left or right to give vessel "B" more sea room

97. Two vessels are meeting on a clear day and will pass less than half a mile apart. In this situation whistle signals __________. A. Must be exchanged B. May be exchanged C. Must be exchanged if passing agreements have not been made by radio D. Must be exchanged only if course changes are necessary by either vessel

98. You are approaching a sharp bend in a river. You have sounded a prolonged blast and it has been answered by a vessel on the other side of the ben Which statement is TRUE? A. Both vessels must exchange passing signals when in sight and passing within one-half mile of each other. B. No further whistle signals are necessary. C. The vessel downriver must stop her engines and navigate with caution. D. Both vessels must immediately sound passing signals whether or not they are in sight of each other.

99. Which statement is TRUE concerning a passing agreement made by radiotelephone? A. Such an agreement is prohibited by the Rules. B. A vessel which has made such an agreement must also sound whistle signals. C. Whistle signals must still be exchanged when passing within half a mile of each other. D. If agreement is reached by radiotelephone, whistle signals are optional.

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100. INLAND ONLY You are aboard the stand-on vessel in a crossing situation. You sound a one blast whistle signal. The give-way vessel answers with a two blast whistle signal. You should sound the danger signal and __________. A. Maintain course and speed as you are the stand-on vessel B. Come around sharply to port C. Take precautionary action until a safe passing agreement is made D. Maneuver around the stern of the other vessel

101. IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the starboard side of a channel would be marked by a __________. A. Green conical buoy B. Green can buoy C. Red can buoy D. Red conical buoy

102. What information is NOT found in the chart title? A. Survey information B. Scale C. Date of first edition D. Projection

103. When may the automatic identification system (AIS) be switched off? A. At anytime as long as it is properly logge B. At the Master's professional judgment. C. Only when the vessel is at anchor or in port. D. Under no circumstance.

104. You are plotting a running fix in an area where there is a determinable current. How should this current be treated in determining the position? A. The drift should be added to the ship's spee B. The course and speed made good should be determined and used to advance the LOP. C. The current should be ignore D. The set should be applied to the second bearing. 132

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105. The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 6 miles and a height above water of 18 feet (5.5 meters). Your height of eye is 47 feet (14.3 meters) and the visibility is 1.5 miles. At what approximate range will you first sight the light? A. 1.5 miles B. 2.0 miles C. 6.0 miles D. 12.7 miles

106. If several navigational lights are visible at the same time, each one may be positively identified by checking all of the following EXCEPT what against the Light List? A. Rhythm B. Period C. Intensity D. Color

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DPKP 6. Memeliharakeselamatanbernavigasidenganmenggunakaninformasi yang diperolehdariperalatandansistemnavigasiuntukmembantumembuat keputusanperintah. (Maintain safe navigation through the use of information from navigation equipment and systems to assist command decision making) 1.

SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations, Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies to which vessels? A. All vessels and on all voyages B. The Convention only applies to ships over a certain size C. It applies to ships of over a certain size engaged in International Voyages D. Over 10 000 dwt

2.

What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way? A. An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and followed by a competent bridge team. B. All navigational equipment fully functional. C. Bridge equipment effectively operating and being used efficiently D. The bridge equipment includes ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in full and effective operation

3.

What is the main purpose of VTS? A. Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in the vicinity. B. Provide local information to all vessels navigating in the area C. Improve the scheduling and traffic movement in the are D. Increase safety for ships participating in VTS

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4.

When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities over many hours, what management issues should the Master consider? A. All of these answers B. Lack of sleep and fatigue of bridge officers C. Fully manned engine room throughout the canal transit D. Suitable crew available for lock transits

5.

When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in discussing the passage plan with the pilot while he is there to use his local knowledge and advice on the navigation of the ship? A. A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in the same way as discussed with the bridge team when deep sea B. The passage is well established and known by the pilot and a plan is therefore not necessary C. A pilot is responsible for the navigation whilst on board and will be very familiar with what is required, therefore discussing the passage plan is not necessary D. The pilot would probably consider it unnecessary, be more interested in knowing the ship's characteristics and resist any passage planning discussions with the Master.

6.

Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"? A. Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger and includes both identification of the occurrence and the likelihood that it will happen. B. Risk is the term to identify a dangerous situation which will affect the ship C. Risk is the possibility that a dangerous situation is likely to occur D. Risk means something more dangerous than normal is likely to occur

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7.

Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in the event of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama Canal? A. The Panama Canal Authority B. The ship's Master C. The ship's company D. The Master and Pilot will agree the best course of action to be taken to resolve the emergency situation.

8.

You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking several other vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects would you consider when establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel? A. Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles visibility; traffic density; manoeuvrability of vessel; effectiveness of navigational equipment (ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and navigational hazards. B. Adjust my track to follow Route 1 or 2 illustrated and reduce speed down to half speed, approximately 8 knots C. Safe speed should be where the vessel can come to a stop within the visible range D. A safe speed is where a vessel can take proper and effective action to avoid collision and be stopped within an appropriate distance

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9.

Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship has a right-handed propeller and there is equal space either side of the ship (as illustrated). What would be the most suitable method to make the turn using as little space as possible? A. Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway, rudder hard to starboard and full ahead B. Full ahead, rudder hard to port C. Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard D. Rudder hard to starboard, full ahea Rudder hard to port, full astern. Repeating this manoeuvre until the turn has been made.

10. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a signal which could be sounded by a __________. A. Fishing vessel B. Vessel anchored C. Mineclearing vessel D. Vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel

11. In a crossing situation on international waters, a short blast by the give-way vessel indicates that the vessel __________. A. Is holding course and speed B. Is turning to starboard C. Intends to pass port to port D. Will keep out of the way of the stand-on vessel

12. What day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft? A. A black cone, apex upward B. A black cone, apex downward C. Two vertical black balls D. A cylinder

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13. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel __________. A. Engaged in towing B. Constrained by her draft C. Under sail D. All of the above

14. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning light signals? A. The time between flashes shall be about five seconds. B. The time between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds. C. The light signals are to be used when not using sound signals. D. All of the above

15. Under what circumstances would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged followed by one short blast? A. When overtaking in restricted visibility B. When overtaking in a narrow channel C. When overtaking on open waters D. When no other vessels are in the immediate area

16. In which case would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged followed by one short blast? A. When overtaking in restricted visibility B. When overtaking in a narrow channel C. When overtaking on open waters D. When no other vessels are in the immediate area

17. When vessels are in sight of one another, two short blasts from one of the vessels means __________. A. "I am altering my course to starboard" B. "I am altering my course to port" C. "I intend to change course to starboard" D. "I intend to change course to port"

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18. Which vessel may NOT exhibit two red lights in a vertical line? A. A vessel constrained by her draft B. A trawler fishing in close proximity to other trawlers C. A vessel aground D. A dredge

19. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters and will pass without changing course. Vessel "A" __________. A. Should sound two short blasts B. Should sound the danger signal C. Should sound one long blast D. Will not sound any whistle signals

20. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out of the way of all the others? A. A vessel constrained by her draft B. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver C. A vessel on pilotage duty D. A vessel engaged in fishing

21. Which vessel would NOT sound a fog signal of one prolonged and two short blasts? A. A vessel not under command B. A vessel constrained by her draft C. A vessel being towed D. A vessel sailing

22. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel, and you intend to pass along the vessel's port side. How should you signal your intention? A. No signal is necessary. B. Two prolonged blasts C. Two short blasts D. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts

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23. A vessel sounds two short blasts. This signal indicates the vessel __________. A. Intends to alter course to port B. Intends to pass starboard to starboard C. Is altering course to port D. Will alter course to port

24. A vessel sounds one short blast. This signal indicates the vessel __________. A. Intends to alter course to starboard B. Intends to pass starboard to starboard C. Is altering course to starboard D. Intends to pass port to port

25. You are underway in a narrow channel, and you are being overtaken by a vessel astern. After the overtaking vessel sounds the proper signal indicating his intention to pass your vessel on your starboard side, you signal your agreement by sounding __________. A. One short blast B. Two prolonged blasts C. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts D. One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast in that order

26. A sailing vessel is overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel, so as to pass on the power-driven vessel's port side. The overtaken vessel will have to move to facilitate passage. The sailing vessel is the __________. A. Stand-on vessel and would sound two short blasts B. Give-way vessel and would sound no whistle signal C. Stand-on vessel and would sound no whistle signal D. Give-way vessel and would sound two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts

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27. A vessel constrained by her draft may display __________. A. Three all-round red lights B. Two 225° red lights C. Three all-round blue lights D. Two 225° blue lights

28. Two power-driven vessels are meeting. A two blast whistle signal by either vessel means __________. A. "I intend to alter course to port" B. "I desire to pass starboard to starboard" C. "I desire to pass port to port" D. "I am altering course to port"

29. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside will display __________. A. A single white light forward B. Two masthead lights in a vertical line C. Two towing lights in a vertical line D. Two all-round red lights where they can best be seen

30. Which statement applies to a vessel "constrained by her draft"? A. She is severely restricted in her ability to change her course because of her draft in relation to the available depth of water. B. The term applies only to vessels in marked channels. C. She is designated as a "vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver". D. The vessel must be over 100 meters in length.

31. A whistle signal of one prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short blast, is sounded by a vessel __________. A. At anchor B. Towing a submerged object C. Being overtaken in a narrow channel D. In distress

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32. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor and you can see that other vessels are approaching. You should sound __________. A. Three short blasts when leaving the slip B. One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when the last line is taken aboard C. One prolonged blast only D. The danger signal

33. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor and you can see that other vessels are approaching. You should sound __________. A. Three short blasts when leaving the slip B. One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when the last line is taken aboard C. One prolonged blast only D. The danger signal

34. Which vessel is to keep out of the way of the others? A. A vessel constrained by her draft B. A vessel engaged in underwater operations C. A vessel engaged in trawling D. A vessel not under command

35. You are in sight of a power-driven vessel that sounds two short blasts of the whistle. This signal means that the vessel __________. A. Is altering course to port B. Is altering course to starboard C. Intends to leave you on her port side D. Intends to leave you on her starboard side

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36. You are operating a vessel in a narrow channel. Your vessel must stay within the channel to be navigated safely. Another vessel is crossing your course from starboard to port, and you are in doubt as to his intentions. According to Rule 9, you __________. A. May sound the danger signal B. Must sound one prolonged and two short blasts C. Should sound one short blast to indicate that you are holding course and speed D. Are required to back down

37. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters as shown and will pass without changing course. Vessel "A" __________. (DIAGRAM 17 ) A. Should sound two short blasts B. Should sound the danger signal C. Should sound one long blast D. Need not sound any whistle signals

38. If you sighted three red lights in a vertical line on another vessel at night, it would be a vessel __________. A. Aground B. Constrained by her draft C. Dredging D. Moored over a wreck

39. On open water two vessels are in an overtaking situation. The overtaking vessel has just sounded one short blast on the whistle. What is the meaning of this whistle signal? A. "I request permission to pass you on my port side." B. "I will maintain course and speed and pass you on your starboard side." C. "On which side should I pass?" D. "I am changing course to starboar"

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40. You are underway in fog and hear a fog signal consisting of one prolonged and two short blasts. It could be any of the following EXCEPT a vessel __________. A. Engaged in mineclearance B. Engaged in fishing C. Constrained by her draft D. Being towed

41. Which vessel shall avoid impeding the safe passage of a vessel constrained by her draft? A. A vessel not under command B. A fishing vessel C. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver D. All of the above

42. A signal of one prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast, in that order is given by a vessel __________. A. Engaged on pilotage duty B. In distress C. At anchor D. Being overtaken in a narrow channel

43. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of another and NOT in or near an area of restricted visibility? A. Four short blasts on the whistle B. One prolonged blast on the whistle C. One short blast on the whistle D. One short, one prolonged, and one short blast on the whistle

44. In addition to her running lights, an underway vessel constrained by her draft may carry in a vertical line __________. A. A red light, a white light, and a red light B. Two red lights C. Two white lights D. Three red lights 144

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45. Which vessel is NOT regarded as being "restricted in her ability to maneuver"? A. A vessel servicing an aid to navigation B. A vessel engaged in dredging C. A towing vessel with tow unable to deviate from its course D. A vessel constrained by her draft

46. When two vessels are in sight of one another and NOT in or near an area of restricted visibility, any of the following signals may be given EXCEPT __________. A. A light signal of at least five short and rapid flashes B. One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short whistle blasts C. Four short whistle blasts D. Two short whistle blasts

47. In a narrow channel, an overtaking vessel which intends to PASS on the other vessel's port side would sound __________. A. One prolonged followed by two short blasts B. One short blast C. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts D. Two short blasts

48. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a signal which would be sounded by a vessel __________. A. Overtaking another in a narrow channel B. Anchored C. Engaged in mineclearance D. Engaged in fishing

49. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel, and you intend to pass along the vessel's port side. How should you signal your intention? A. Two short blasts followed by two prolonged blasts B. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts C. Two prolonged blasts only D. Two short blasts only 145

DPKP

50. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel, and you intend to pass along the vessel's port side. How should you signal your intention? A. Two short blasts followed by two prolonged blasts B. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts C. Two prolonged blasts only D. Two short blasts only

51. You are underway in a narrow channel, and you are being overtaken by a vessel astern. After the overtaking vessel sounds the proper signal indicating his intention to pass your vessel on your starboard side, you signal your agreement by sounding __________. A. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts B. One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast C. One short blast D. Two prolonged blasts

52. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters and will pass without changing course. Vessel "A" should __________. A. Sound two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts B. Sound the danger signal C. Not sound any whistle signals D. Sound one long blast

53. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of another? A. One short blast on the whistle B. Four short blasts on the whistle C. One prolonged blast on the whistle D. One short, one prolonged, and one short blast on the whistle

54. The light which may be used with a vessel's whistle must be __________. A. Used when the whistle is broken B. A white light C. Used only at night D. Used prior to sounding the whistle 146

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55. Which statement is TRUE concerning light signals? A. The time between flashes shall be about five seconds. B. The light signals are to be used when not using sound signals. C. The time between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds. D. All of the above

56. While underway and in sight of another vessel, you put your engines full speed astern. Which statement concerning whistle signals is TRUE? A. You must sound three short blasts on the whistle. B. You must sound one blast if backing to starboar C. You must sound whistle signals only if the vessels are meeting. D. You need not sound any whistle signals.

57. While underway at night, a power-driven vessel of less than 7 meters in length, whose maximum speed which does not exceed 7 knots, may show __________. A. Sidelights combined in a single lantern, only B. An all-round flashing yellow light, only C. One all-round white light, only D. A lantern showing a white light exhibited in sufficient time to prevent collision, only

58. At night, a power-driven vessel less than 7 meters in length, with a maximum speed which does not exceed 7 knots, MUST show when underway at least __________. A. One white 360° light B. A white light on the near approach of another vessel C. Sidelights and a stern light D. The lights required of a vessel less than 12 meters in length

59. Lighting requirements in inland waters are different from those for international waters for __________. A. Barges being pushed ahead B. Vessels restricted in their ability to maneuver C. Vessels towing astern D. Barges being towed astern 147

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60. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside will display __________. A. Two towing lights in a vertical line B. A towing light above the stern light C. Two all-round red lights at the masthead D. Two masthead lights in a vertical line

61. BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A towing light __________. A. Flashes at regular intervals of 50-70 flashes per minute B. Is yellow in color C. Shows an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of not less than 180° nor more than 225° D. All of the above

62. A towing light is ____________ . A. Shown below the stern light B. White in color C. Displayed at the masthead D. A yellow light having the same characteristics as the stern light

63. A light used to signal passing intentions must be an __________. A. Alternating red and yellow light B. Alternating white and yellow light C. All-round white or yellow light D. All-round white light only

64.

A vessel constrained by her draft may display __________. A. Three all-round red lights instead of the lights required for a power-driven vessel of her class B. The same lights as a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver C. Three all-round red lights in addition to the lights required for a powerdriven vessel of her class D. The lights for a power-driven vessel which is not under command

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65. Which day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft? A. A black diamond B. A cylinder C. A black ball D. A black cone, apex upward

66. If at night a vessel displays three all-round red lights in a vertical line, during the day she may show __________. A. Two cones, base to base B. Three black balls in a vertical line C. A cylinder D. A cone, apex downward

67. A vessel displaying three red lights in a vertical line is __________. A. Restricted in her ability to maneuver B. Not under command C. Engaged in mineclearing operations D. Constrained by her draft

68. The International Rules of the Road apply __________. A. To all waters B. To any waters inside the territorial waters of the U.S. C. Only to waters where foreign vessels travel D. Upon the high seas and connecting waters navigable by seagoing vessels

69. Which statement applies to a vessel "constrained by her draft"? A. The term only applies to vessels in narrow channels. B. She is severely restricted in her ability to change her course because of her draft in relation to the available depth and width of navigable water. C. She is designated as a "vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver". D. The vessel must be over 100 meters in length.

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70. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel "constrained by her draft"? A. She is hampered because of her work. B. She is unable to maneuver due to some exceptional circumstance. C. She may be a vessel being towe D. She must be a power-driven vessel.

71. Which vessel is NOT "restricted in her ability to maneuver"? A. A vessel servicing an aid to navigation B. A vessel constrained by her draft C. A towing vessel with tow, unable to deviate from its course D. A vessel engaged in dredging

72. Your vessel is constrained by her draft and operating in a narrow channel. Another vessel is crossing your course from starboard to port. You are in doubt as to her intentions. According to Rule 9, you __________. A. Should sound one short blast to indicate that you are holding course and speed B. Must sound one prolonged blast C. May sound the danger signal D. Are required to back down

73. Your vessel is crossing a narrow channel. A vessel to port is within the channel and crossing your course. She is showing a black cylinder. You should __________. A. Hold your course and speed B. Not impede the other vessel C. Exchange passing signals D. Sound the danger signal

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74. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor. Visibility is restricte You should sound __________. A. One prolonged blast only B. One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when the last line is taken aboard C. One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when leaving the slip the danger signal

75. You are approaching another vessel and will pass safely starboard to starboard without changing course. You should __________. A. Hold course and sound no whistle signal B. Hold course and sound a two blast whistle signal C. Change course to starboard and sound one blast D. Hold course and sound one blast

76. Which statement is TRUE concerning a situation involving a fishing vessel and a vessel not under command? A. They are required to communicate by radiotelephone. B. If the vessel not under command is a power-driven vessel, she must keep clear of the fishing vessel. C. The fishing vessel must keep out of the way of the vessel not under comman D. Both vessels are required to take action to stay clear of each other.

77. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out of the way of all the others? A. A vessel constrained by her draft B. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver C. A vessel pushing a barge D. A vessel engaged in fishing

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78. Which vessel shall avoid impeding the safe passage of a vessel constrained by her draft? A. A vessel not under command B. A sailing vessel C. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver D. All of the above

79. A signal of intent must be sounded in international waters by __________. A. A vessel meeting another head-on B. A vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel C. A vessel crossing the course of another D. The give-way vessel in a crossing situation

80. While underway in fog, you hear a vessel ahead sound two prolonged blasts on the whistle. You should __________. A. Sound two blasts and change course to the left B. Sound only fog signals until the other vessel is sighted C. Sound whistle signals only if you change course D. Not sound any whistle signals until the other vessel is sighted

81. A towing vessel and her tow are severely restricted in their ability to change course. When making way, the towing vessel will show ONLY __________. A. The masthead lights for a towing vessel B. The lights for a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver C. Sidelights, stern light, and towing light D. All of the above.

82. You hear the fog signal of another vessel forward of your beam. Risk of collision may exist. You MUST __________. A. Take all way off, if necessary B. Stop your engines C. Begin a radar plot D. All of the above

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83. A fog signal of one short, one prolonged, and one short blast may be sounded by a __________. A. Vessel not under command B. Vessel at anchor C. Vessel towing D. All of the above

84. You hear the fog signal of another vessel forward of your beam. Risk of collision may exist. You MUST __________. A. Stop your engines B. Take all way off, if necessary C. Begin a radar plot D. All of the above

85. A vessel may enter a traffic separation zone __________. A. In an emergency B. To engage in fishing within the zone C. To cross the traffic separation scheme D. All of the above

86. In a traffic separation scheme, when joining a traffic lane from the side, a vessel shall do so __________. A. At as small an angle as possible B. As nearly as practical at right angles to the general direction of traffic flow C. Only in case of an emergency or to engage in fishing within the zone never

87. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme is forbidden to __________. A. Proceed through an inappropriate traffic lane B. Engaged in fishing in the separation zone C. Cross a traffic lane D. Enter the separation zone, even in a emergency

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88. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme is forbidden to __________. A. Proceed through an inappropriate traffic lane B. Engaged in fishing in the separation zone C. Cross a traffic lane D. Enter the separation zone, even in a emergency

89. To indicate that a vessel is constrained by her draft, a vessel may display, in a vertical line, __________. A. Three 360° red lights B. Two 225° red lights C. Three 360° blue lights D. Two 225° blue lights

90. In addition to other required lights, a power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside displays __________. A. Two all-round red lights in a vertical line B. Two yellow towing lights in a vertical line C. Two white masthead lights in a vertical line D. Two lights on the stern, one yellow and one white

91. Which statement is true concerning a vessel "constrained by her draft"? A. She must be a power-driven vessel. B. She is not under comman C. She may be a vessel being towe D. She is hampered because of her work.

92. When moving from a berth alongside a quay (wharf), a vessel must sound __________. A. Three short blasts B. A long blast C. A prolonged blast D. No signal is require

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93. You are in charge of a 250-meter freight vessel constrained by her draft proceeding down a narrow channel. There is a vessel engaged in fishing on your starboard bow half a mile away. According to Rule 9, which statement is TRUE? A. You are not to impede the fishing vessel. B. If you are in doubt as to the fishing vessel's intentions you may sound at least five short and rapid blasts on the whistle. C. You are to slow to bare steerageway until clear of the fishing vessel. D. You must sound one prolonged blast to alert the fishing vessel.

94.

The International Rules of the Road apply __________. A. To all waters which are not inland waters B. Only to waters outside the territorial waters of the United States C. Only to waters where foreign vessels travel D. Upon the high seas and connecting waters navigable by seagoing vessels

95.

A towing light is __________. A. Shown at the bow B. White in color C. Shown in addition to the stern light D. An all-round light

96. In a narrow channel, an overtaking vessel which intends to pass on the other vessel's port side would sound __________. A. One prolonged followed by two short blasts B. One short blast C. Two short blasts D. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts

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97. You are underway on the high seas in restricted visibility. You hear a fog signal of one prolonged and two short blasts. It could be any of the following EXCEPT a vessel __________. A. Minesweeping B. Engaged in fishing C. Constrained by her draft D. Being towed

98. A vessel displaying three red lights in a vertical line is __________. A. Not under command B. Aground C. Dredging D. Constrained by her draft

99. At night, a power-driven vessel underway of less than 7 meters in length where its maximum speed does not exceed 7 knots may show, as a minimum, __________. A. Sidelights and a stern light B. The lights required for a vessel more than 7 meters in length C. Sidelights only D. One all-round white light

100. In a narrow channel, a signal of intent which must be answered by the other vessel, is sounded by a vessel __________. A. Meeting another head-on B. Crossing the course of another C. Overtaking another D. Any of the above

101. When two vessels are in sight of one another, all of the following signals may be given EXCEPT __________. A. A light signal of at least five short and rapid flashes B. Four short whistle blasts C. One prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short whistle blasts D. Two short whistle blasts 156

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102. A power-driven vessel leaving a quay or wharf must sound what signal? A. Three short blasts B. A long blast C. A prolonged blast D. No signal is require

103. What whistle signal, if any, would be sounded when two vessels are meeting, but will pass clear starboard to starboard? A. One short blast B. Two short blasts C. Five or more short blasts D. No signal is require

104. In a narrow channel, a vessel trying to overtake another on the other vessel's port side, would sound a whistle signal of __________. A. One short blast B. Two short blasts C. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast D. Two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts

105. On open water, a power-driven vessel coming up dead astern of another vessel and altering her course to starboard so as to pass on the starboard side of the vessel ahead would sound __________. A. Two short blasts B. One short blast C. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast D. One long and one short blast

106. If a vessel displays three all-round red lights in a vertical line at night, during the day she may show __________. A. Three balls in a vertical line B. A cylinder C. Two diamonds in a vertical line D. Two cones, apexes together 157

DPKP

107. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel __________. A. Towing B. Constrained by her draft C. Under sail D. All of the above

108. Your vessel is crossing a narrow channel. A vessel to port is within the channel and crossing your course. She is showing a black cylinder. What is your responsibility? A. Hold your course and spee B. Sound the danger signal. C. Begin an exchange of passing signals. D. Do not cross the channel if you might impede the other vessel.

109. You are approaching another vessel and will pass starboard to starboard without danger if no course changes are made. You should __________. A. Hold course and sound a two blast whistle signal B. Hold course and sound no whistle signal C. Change course to the right and sound one blast D. Hold course and sound two prolonged and two short blasts

110. A fishing vessel is approaching a vessel not under comman Which statement is TRUE? A. The fishing vessel must keep clear of the vessel not under comman B. If the vessel not under command is a power-driven vessel, she must keep clear of the fishing vessel. C. They must exchange whistle signals. D. Both vessels are required to take action to stay clear of each other.

111. Which signal is required to be sounded by a power-driven vessel ONLY? A. A signal meaning, "I am altering my course to starboar" B. A signal meaning, "I intend to overtake you on your starboard side." C. A signal meaning that the vessel sounding it is in doubt as to the other vessel's actions. D. A signal sounded when approaching a ben 158

DPKP

112. The light which may be used with a vessel's whistle is to be __________. A. Used when the whistle is broken B. Used prior to sounding the whistle C. Used only at night D. A white light

159

DPKP 7. Memelihara keselamatan navigasi dengan menggunakan ECDIS dan sistem navigasi yang terkait untuk mendukung pengambilan keputusan perintah. (Maintain the safety of navigation through the use of ECDIS and associated navigation systems to assist command decision making) 1.

A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate methods of determining positions and include which of the following? A. All of these suggested answers B. Radar ranges and Parallel Indexing C. Bearings and ranges from coastal navigational marks D. Positions determined by GPS and plotted on the ECDIS

2.

Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS? A. Yes B. No C. Only if approved by the Flag State D. Only if approved by the owner

3.

Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or river, when under pilot? A. A passage plan is always required, irrespective of the length of the voyage, or if the ship is under pilot B. A passage plan is required for all deep sea passages, but not for transiting a canal under pilotage. C. A passage plan is required only when there is no pilot on board D. A passage plan is required from departure from port to arrival at the pilot station at the destination.

160

DPKP

4.

Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and embarkation/disembarkation of a pilot should be supervised by: A. A responsible Officer B. An experienced AB C. The Bosun D. The Sen.Off.Deck only

5.

SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations, Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies to which vessels? A. All vessels and on all voyages B. The Convention only applies to ships over a certain size C. It applies to ships of over a certain size engaged in International Voyages D. Over 10 000 dwt

6.

What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way? A. An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and followed by a competent bridge team. B. All navigational equipment fully functional. C. Bridge

equipment

effectively

operating and being used efficiently D. The bridge equipment includes ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in full and effective operation

161

DPKP

7.

What is the main purpose of VTS? A. Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in the vicinity. B. Provide local information to all vessels navigating in the area C. Improve the scheduling and traffic movement in the are D. Increase

safety

for

ships

participating in VTS

8.

When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities over many hours, what management issues should the Master consider? A. All of these answers B. Lack of sleep and fatigue of bridge officers C. Fully manned engine room throughout the canal transit D. Suitable crew available for lock transits

9.

When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in discussing the passage plan with the pilot while he is there to use his local knowledge and advice on the navigation of the ship? A. A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in the same way as discussed with the bridge team when deep sea B. The passage is well established and known by the pilot and a plan is therefore not necessary C. A pilot is responsible for the navigation whilst on board and will be very familiar with what is required, therefore discussing the passage plan is not necessary D. The pilot would probably consider it unnecessary, be more interested in knowing the ship's characteristics and resist any passage planning discussions with the Master. 162

DPKP

10. When initially setting up the GPS to provide positions for use with a paper chart, what Chart Datum should be selected? A. Select WGS84 and when plotting on the chart apply the stated corrections. B. Select the datum stated on the chart in use C. WGS78 and input the corrections stated on the chart into the GPS D. WGS84

and

plot

the

readout

position directly on the chart

11. When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following answers would most suitably cover the most critical aspects to be considered when deciding the courses to steer? A. The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The distances gained by sailing by great circle. The ship's draught and the loadline limits B. The anticipated weather with the possibility of encountering ice and the need for weather routing. The prevailing currents and their advantage to improved speeds C. The passage time to the destination; the anticipated bunkers used and the need to arrive within prescribed schedule D. The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased traffic density. The limitations of the ships draught and the loadline limits

163

DPKP

12. Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"? A. Risk

is

a

situation

involving

exposure to danger and includes both identification of the occurrence and the likelihood that it will happen. B. Risk is the term to identify a dangerous

situation

which

will

affect the ship C. Risk is the possibility that a dangerous situation is likely to occur D. Risk means something more dangerous than normal is likely to occur

13. While navigating using a paper chart marked WGS84 the OOW plots the ships position by four different methods and they all give slightly different positions. Which of the following would be considered the most accurate. A. Radar ranges from two radar destinctive headlands B. GPS set on WGS84 datum C. Bearing and distance from a navigation buoy close to the vessel D. Gyro

compass

bearings

from

two

lighthouses

14. Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in the event of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama Canal? A. The Panama Canal Authority B. The ship's Master C. The ship's company D. The Master and Pilot will agree the best course of action to be taken to resolve the emergency situation.

164

DPKP

15. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking several other vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects would you consider when establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel? A. Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles visibility; traffic density; manoeuvrability

of

effectiveness

navigational

of

vessel;

equipment (ARPA etc); state of sea

and

currents

and

navigational hazards. B. Adjust my track to follow Route 1 or 2 illustrated and reduce speed down to half speed, approximately 8 knots C. Safe speed should be where the vessel can come to a stop within the visible range D. A safe speed is where a vessel can take proper and effective action to avoid collision and be stopped within an appropriate distance

16. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship has a right-handed propeller and there is equal space either side of the ship (as illustrated). What would be the most suitable method to make the turn using as little space as possible? A. Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway, rudder hard to starboard and full ahead B. Full ahead, rudder hard to port C. Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard D. Rudder hard to starboard, full ahea Rudder hard to port, full astern. Repeating this manoeuvre until the turn has been made

165

DPKP

17. If the electronic chart is part of an ECDIS, it must display the minimum data required by IMO/IHO, to include all of the following EXCEPT __________. A. Hydrography B. Aids to navigation C. Tidal currents D. Regulatory boundaries

18. Which of the following must the electronic chart of an ECDIS display, as required by IMO/IHO? A. Hydrography B. Ferry routes C. Regulatory boundaries D. All of the above

19. ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats, which include __________. A. Vector only B. Raster only C. Vector and raster D. Imposed viewing

20. Raster-scan chart data is __________. A. The only format recognized by IMO/IHO B. Organized into many separate files C. Composed of files that are smaller than vector files D. A digitized "picture" of a chart in one format and one layer

21. Which of the following are data layer categories to be displayed on ECDIS? A. ECDIS warnings and messages B. Hydrographic Office data C. Notice to Mariners information D. All of the above

166

DPKP

22. Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on ECDIS? A. Notice to Mariners information B. ECDIS warnings and messages C. Ship hydrodynamic information D. Hydrographic Office data

23. The database resulting from (1) the transformation of the electronic navigational chart (ENC) by ECDIS for appropriate use, (2) the updates to the ENC by appropriate means, and (3) the additional data added by the mariner, is called the __________. A. Display base information B. Standard display information C. System electronic navigational chart D. Chart display information

24. The database information that should be shown when a chart is first displayed on ECDIS is the __________. A. Display base information B. Standard display information C. System electronic nautical chart D. Chart display information

25. The level of database information which cannot be removed from the ECDIS display and consists of information which is required at all times in all geographic areas and under all circumstances is the __________. A. Display base information B. Standard display information C. System electronic nautical chart D. Chart display information

167

DPKP

26. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases? A. When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded B. If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is going to cross a safety contour C. If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is going to cross the boundary of a prohibited area D. All of the above

27. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases? A. If the ship is going to reach a critical point on the planned route B. When the speed of a dangerous target exceeds a set limit C. If the ship's ETA has changed beyond the set limit D. All of the above

28. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases? A. When the speed of a dangerous target exceeds a set limit B. When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded C. If the ship's ETA has changed beyond the set limit D. None of the above

29. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the latest edition of information originated by a government-authorized hydrographic office and conform to the standards of (the) __________. A. International Maritime Organization B. International Hydrographic Organization C. NASA D. US Coast Guard

30. An ECDIS is required to display which information? A. Radar targets B. ARPA vectors C. Hydrographic data D. All of the above

168

DPKP

31. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the voyage track for the previous __________. A. 4 hours B. 6 hours C. 12 hours D. 24 hours

32. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals? A. Position B. Electronic navigational chart source C. Course made good history D. All of the above

33. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at a minimum, __________. A. An indication within 5 seconds if the specified HDOP has been exceeded B. A warning of loss of position C. A differential GPS status indication of the receipt of DGPS signals D. All of the above

34. Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy equivalent to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability? A. Transit B. Selective Availability C. Auto-correlation D. Anti-spoofing

35. The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by __________. A. DGPS, within a coverage area B. SPS, without selective availability C. PPS, without selective availability D. NAVSAT, using the Doppler-shift

169

DPKP

36. Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from several satellites simultaneously? A. Sequential B. Continuous C. Multiplex D. None of the above

37. Which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satellites does a GPS receiver need in order to provide an exact three-dimensional position? A. Five B. Four C. Three D. Two

38. An ECDIS is required to display which information? A. Soundings B. Waypoints C. Meteorological data D. Radar targets

39. An ECDIS is required to display which information? A. Water temperature B. Climatology data C. Speed of advance D. Depth contours

40. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals? A. Course made good history B. Estimated time of arrival C. Speed through the water D. Shaft RPM

170

DPKP

41. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at a minimum, __________. A. A warning of loss of position B. A cross-track error alarm C. An indication of a change in satellite configuration D. An alarm if engine speed is suddenly reduced

42. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at a minimum, __________. A. An alarm if engine speed is suddenly increased B. An alarm if a new position has not been calculated within the last two seconds C. An indication of a change in the number of satellites D. None of the above.

43. As a licensed Merchant Marine Officer you are expected to __________. A. Obtain a weather forecast before setting out from port B. Listen to weather forecasts on the radio while enroute C. Understand all broadcast weather warning information D. All of the above

44. NOAA VHF weather reports are continuously broadcast on VHF channels WX-1, WX-2 and WX-3 on a frequency of __________. A. 156.8, 157.1, 162.55 mhz B. 162.55, 162.00, 171.5 khz C. 162.55, 162.40, 162.475 mhz D. 2182, 2638, 2670 khz

45. Which of the following must an ECDIS system be able to perform? A. Conversion of "graphical coordinates" to "display coordinates" B. Transformation of local datum to WGS-'84 datum C. Calculation of true azimuth and distance between two geographical points D. All of the above

171

DPKP

46. ECDIS must be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT __________. A. Determine true bearing and distance between two geographical points B. Determine magnetic compass deviation C. Transform a local datum to the WGS-'84 datum D. Convert "graphical coordinates" to "display coordinates"

47. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the track for the previous __________. A. 4 hours B. 6 hours C. 12 hours D. 24 hours

172

DPKP 8. Ramalan cuaca dan kondisi laut. (Forecast weather and oceanographic conditions) 1. Wind velocity varies __________. A. Directly with the temperature of the air mass B. Directly with the pressure gradient C. Inversely with the barometric pressure D. Inversely with the absolute humidity

2. What wind reverses directions seasonally? A. Monsoon winds B. Hooked trades C. Jet stream D. Secondary winds 3. What wind reverses directions seasonally? A. Monsoon winds B. Hooked trades C. Jet stream D. Secondary winds

4. A strong, often violent, northerly wind occurring on the Pacific coast of Mexico, particularly during the colder months, is called __________. A. Tehuantepecer B. Papagayo C. Norther D. Pampero

173

DPKP

5. What will a veering wind do? A. Change direction in a clockwise manner in the Northern Hemisphere B. Circulate about a low pressure center in a counterclockwise manner in the Northern Hemisphere C. Vary in strength constantly and unpredictably D. Circulate about a high pressure center in a clockwise manner in the Southern Hemisphere

6. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence backing. In the Northern Hemisphere, this would indicate that it will __________. A. Shift in a clockwise manner B. Shift in a counterclockwise manner C. Continue blowing from the same direction D. Decrease in velocity

7. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence veering. In the Northern Hemisphere this indicates that the wind will __________. A. Shift in a clockwise manner B. Shift in a counterclockwise manner C. Continue blowing from the same direction D. Increase in velocity

8. You are enroute to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan, P.R. There is a fresh n'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter __________. A. Smoother seas and warmer water B. Steeper waves, closer together C. Long swells D. Cirrus clouds

174

DPKP

9. A local wind which occurs during the daytime and is caused by the different rates of warming of land and water is a __________. A. Foehn B. Chinook C. Land breeze D. Sea breeze

10. Which wind results from a land mass cooling more quickly at night than an adjacent water area? A. Coastal breeze B. Sea breeze C. Land breeze D. Mistral

11. A katabatic wind blows __________. A. Up an incline due to surface heating B. In a circular pattern C. Down an incline due to cooling of the air D. Horizontally between a high and a low pressure area

12. The most common form of solid precipitation is A. Snow B. Sleet C. Glaze Ice D. Hail 13. A cloud whose name has the prefix nimbo- or the suffix –nimbus is A. High B. Layere C. Precipitation-free D. Rain-producing

175

DPKP

14. What air masses generally move eastward, toward Europe? A. Maritime tropical Pacific B. Maritime tropical Atlantic C. Maritime polar Pacific D. Maritime polar Atlantic

15. Which Beaufort force indicates a wind speed of 65 knots? A. Beaufort force 0 B. Beaufort force 6.5 C. Beaufort force 12 D. Beaufort force 15

16. In reading a weather map, closely spaced pressure gradient lines would indicate __________. A. High winds B. High overcast clouds C. Calm or light winds D. Fog or steady rain

17. On the pole side of the high pressure belt in each hemisphere, the pressure diminishes. The winds along these gradients are diverted by the Earth's rotation toward the east and are known as the __________. A. Geostrophic winds B. Doldrums C. Horse latitudes D. Prevailing westerlies

18. Storms along a cold front are usually short-lived and sometimes violent, while storms along a warm front A. are short-lived and weak. B. produce precipitation over a large area, and are sometimes violent. C. are narrow, producing little rain and are always violent. D. are long-lived, but always weak.

176

DPKP

19. Which of the following statements describes what happens when the sun heats water and land? A. Land heats more slowly than water does. B. Water heats more slowly than land does. C. Water and land absorb heat from the sun at the same rate. D. Both absorb heat at the same rate, but water releases it faster.

20. Which wind pattern has the most influence over the movement of frontal weather systems over the North American continent? A. Subpolar easterlies B. Northeast trades C. Prevailing westerlies D. Dominant southwesterly flow

21. In the doldrums you will NOT have __________. A. High relative humidity B. Frequent showers and thunderstorms C. Steep pressure gradients D. Frequent calms

22. The dew point is the temperature at which the rate of condensation A. equals the rate of evaporation. B. exceeds the rate of evaporation. C. lowers the rate of evaporation. D. raises the rate of evaporation.

23. The area of strong westerly winds occurring between 40°S and 60°S latitude is called the __________. A. Polar easterlies B. Prevailing westerlies C. Roaring forties D. Jet streams

177

DPKP

24. The winds you would expect to encounter in the North Atlantic between latitudes 5° and 30° are known as the __________. A. Doldrums B. Westerlies C. Trades D. Easterlies

25. The West Wind Drift is located __________. A. Near 60°S B. On each side of the Equatorial Current C. In the North Atlantic between Greenland and Europe D. In the South Pacific near 5°S

26. The prevailing winds in the band of latitude from approximately 5°N to 30°N are the __________. A. Prevailing westerlies B. Northeast trade winds C. Southeast trade winds D. Doldrums

27. The winds with the greatest effect on the set, drift, and depth of the equatorial currents are the __________. A. Doldrums B. Horse latitudes C. Trade winds D. Prevailing westerlies

28. Continental polar, maritime polar, continental tropical, and maritime tropical are types of A. air fronts. B. air masses. C. air systems. D. air flow.

178

DPKP

29. Weather map symbols H and L indicate A. precipitation. B. temperature range. C. air pressure centers. D. wind velocity.

30. The belt of light and variable winds between the westerly wind belt and the northeast trade winds is called the __________. A. Subtropical high pressure belt B. Intertropical convergence zone C. Doldrum belt D. Polar frontal zone

31. Fog differs from clouds in that fog A. forms closer to the groun B. forms in saturated air. C. requires no condensation nuclei. D. contains many ice crystals.

32. Lightning causes a rapid expansion and collapse of the air that produces A. thunder. B. cyclones. C. hail. D. rain.

33. You are enroute to Savannah, GA, from Recife, Brazil. There is a strong n'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter __________. A. Cirrus clouds B. Long swells C. Smoother seas and warmer water D. Steeper waves, closer together

179

DPKP

34. Which of the following is not one of the three properties used by meteorologists to classify clouds. A. Basic, Shape B. Cloud, Composition C. Height, Ground D. Whether or not precipitation is generated 35. Fog and stratus clouds are most common during which of the following times of day. A. Late, evening B. Late, afternoon C. Early, morning D. Early, afternoon

36. Large-scale circulation systems, fronts, and thunderstorms are the primary source of which of the following cloud types. A. Middle and high clouds B. Low and middle clouds C. Low and high clouds D. High and middle clouds

37. High-cloud tops generally are limited by the height of the; A. Mesopause B. Stratopause C. Mesosphere D. Tropopause 38. The names of all three high-cloud genera contain which of the following words in some form. A. Alto B. Cumulus C. Cirrus D. Stratus

180

DPKP

39. The least common of the 10 cloud genera is: A. Cumulonimbus B. Cirrocumulus C. Altostratus D. Nimbrostratus

40. Which of the following would not be true concerning temperature change taking place in a parcel of air at the dry adiabatic lapse rate. A. The temperature rises as the parcel B. The parcel does not gain or receive heat from its surroundings C. Condensation does not occur during the process D. The temperarute falls as the parcel rises

41. Which of the following is true of a parcel of air but not true of theenvironment. A. Temperature values differ erratically from one level to the next B. Consists of different air molecules at each level C. Humidity values differ erratically from one level to the next D. Changes temperature with altitude at either the dry or moist adiabatic rates

42. Lenticular and stratiform clouds are caused in stable air by: A. Entrainment B. Surface heating C. Orographic lifting D. Buoyancy

43. Which of the following fog types is composed of unstable clouds. A. Radiation fog B. Evaporaton fog C. Advenction fog D. Orographic fog

181

DPKP

44. If your weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure area to be 100 miles due east of your position, what winds can you expect in the Northern Hemisphere? A. East to northeast B. East to southeast C. North to northwest D. South to southeast

45. The direction of the southeast trade winds is a result of the __________. A. Equatorial current B. Humidity C. Rotation of the earth D. Change of seasons

46. When facing into the wind in the Northern Hemisphere the center of low pressure lies __________. A. Directly in front of you B. Directly behind you C. To your left and behind you D. To your right and behind you

47. The steady current circling the globe at about 60°S is the __________. A. Prevailing Westerly B. Sub-Polar Flow C. West Wind Drift D. Humboldt Current

48. During the winter months, the southeast trade winds are __________. A. Stronger than during the summer months B. Weaker than during the summer months C. Drier than during the summer months D. Wetter than during the summer months

182

DPKP

49. If a weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure system to be 100 miles due east of you, what winds can you expect in the Southern Hemisphere? A. South-southwesterly B. North-northwesterly C. South-southeasterly D. North-northeasterly

50. The usual sequence of directions in which a tropical cyclone moves in the Southern Hemisphere is __________. A. Northwest, west, and south B. Southwest, south, and southeast C. North, northwest, and east D. West, northwest, and north

51. Severe tropical cyclones (hurricanes, typhoons) occur in all warm-water oceans except the __________. A. Indian Ocean B. North Pacific Ocean C. South Pacific Ocean D. South Atlantic Ocean

52. When a hurricane passes over colder water or land and loses its tropical characteristics, the storm becomes a(n) __________. A. High pressure area B. Extratropical low-pressure system C. Tropical storm D. Easterly wave

183

DPKP

53. You are attempting to locate your position relative to a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere. If the wind direction remains steady, but with diminishing velocity, you are most likely __________. A. In the right semicircle B. In the left semicircle C. On the storm track ahead of the center D. On the storm track behind the center

54. The rise and fall of the ocean's surface due to a distant storm is known as __________. A. Sea B. Waves C. Fetch D. Swell 55. What kind of weather would you expect to accompany the passage of a tropical wave? A. Heavy rain and cloudiness B. Good weather C. A tropical storm D. Dense fog

56. Tropical cyclones are classified by form and intensity. Which system does not have closed isobars? A. Hurricane B. Tropical disturbance C. Tropical depression D. Cyclone

184

DPKP

57. In the Northern Hemisphere, what type of cloud formations would you expect to see to the west of an approaching tropical wave? A. Cumulus clouds lined up in rows extending in a northeast to southwest direction B. High altostratus clouds in the morning hours C. Cirrostratus clouds lined up in rows extending in a northeast to southwest direction D. Cirrostratus clouds lined up in rows extending in a north to south direction

58. Weather systems in the middle latitudes generally travel from __________. A. North to south B. West to east C. East to west D. None of the above

59. In the Northern Hemisphere you are caught in the dangerous semicircle with plenty of sea room available. The best course of action is to bring the wind on the __________. A. Starboard bow and make as much headway as possible B. Starboard quarter, and make as much headway as possible C. Port quarter, and make as much headway as possible D. Port bow, and make as much headway as possible

60. Current refers to the __________. A. Vertical movement of the water B. Horizontal movement of the water C. Density changes in the water D. None of the above

185

DPKP

61. Monsoons are characterized by __________. A. Light, variable winds with little or no humidity B. Strong, gusty winds that blow from the same general direction all year C. Steady winds that reverse direction semiannually D. Strong, cyclonic winds that change direction to conform to the passage of an extreme low pressure system

62. In the Northern Hemisphere, your vessel is believed to be in the direct path of a hurricane, and plenty of sea room is available. The best course of action is to bring the wind on the __________. A. Starboard bow, note the course, and head in that direction B. Starboard quarter, note the course, and head in that direction C. Port quarter, note the course, and head in that direction D. Port bow, note the course, and head in that direction

63. What level of development of a tropical cyclone has a hundred mile radius of circulation, gale force winds, less than 990 millibars of pressure and vertically formed cumulonimbus clouds? A. A tropical disturbance B. A tropical depression C. A tropical storm D. A typhoon

64. The precession of the equinoxes occurs in a(n) __________. A. Easterly direction B. Westerly direction C. Northerly direction D. Southerly direction

65. A steep barometric gradient indicates __________. A. Calms B. Light winds C. Strong winds D. Precipitation 186

DPKP

66. A sea breeze is a wind __________. A. That blows towards the sea at night B. That blows towards an island during the day C. Caused by cold air descending a coastal incline D. Caused by the distant approach of a hurricane

67. What is the FIRST sign of the existence of a well developed tropical cyclone? A. Gale force winds from the north B. An unusually long ocean swell C. Steep, short-period waves and light wind D. Thunderstorms and higher than usual humidity

68. Temperature and moisture characteristics are modified in a warm or cold air mass due to __________. A. Pressure changes in the air mass B. Movement of the air mass C. The heterogeneous nature of the air mass D. Upper level atmospheric changes

69. The appearance of nimbostratus clouds in the immediate vicinity of a ship at sea would be accompanied by which of the following conditions? A. Rain and poor visibility B. Dropping barometric pressure and backing wind in the Northern Hemisphere C. High winds and rising sea D. Severe thunderstorms

70. Which condition exists at the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere? A. The north polar regions are in continual darkness. B. The Northern Hemisphere is having short days and long nights. C. The Southern Hemisphere is having winter. D. The Sun shines equally on both hemispheres.

187

DPKP

71. The flow of air around an anticyclone in the Southern Hemisphere is __________. A. Clockwise and outward B. Counterclockwise and outward C. Clockwise and inward D. Counterclockwise and inward

72. Uniform, grayish-white cloud sheets that cover large portions of the sky, and are responsible for a large percentage of the precipitation in the temperate latitudes, are called __________. A. Altostratus B. Altocumulus C. Cirrostratus D. Cirrocumulus

73. Anticyclones are usually characterized by __________. A. Dry, fair weather B. High winds and cloudiness C. Gustiness and continuous precipitation D. Overcast skies

74. Altocumulus clouds are defined as __________. A. High clouds B. Middle clouds C. Low clouds D. Vertical development clouds

75. A generally circular low pressure area is called a(n) __________. A. Cyclone B. Anticyclone C. Cold front D. Occluded front

188

DPKP

76. Cold water flowing southward through the western part of the Bering Strait between Alaska and Siberia is joined by water circulating counterclockwise in the Bering Sea to form the __________. A. Alaska Current B. Subarctic Current C. Kuroshio Current D. Oyashio Current

77. Which cloud type is normally associated with thunderstorms? A. Cirrus B. Stratus C. Cumulus D. Cumulonimbus

78. The circulation around a low pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is __________. A. Counterclockwise B. Variable C. Clockwise D. Anticyclonic

79. Recurvature of a hurricane's track usually results in the forward speed __________. A. Increasing B. Decreasing C. Remaining the same D. Varying during the day

80. All of the following are associated with cumulonimbus clouds EXCEPT __________. A. Steady rainfall B. Hail storms C. Thunderstorms D. Tornadoes or waterspouts 189

DPKP

81. In the Northern Hemisphere, an area of counterclockwise wind circulation surrounded by higher pressure is a __________. A. Low B. High C. Warm front D. Cold front

82. If the sky was clear, with the exception of a few cumulus clouds, it would indicate __________. A. Rain B. Hurricane weather C. Fair weather D. Fog setting in

83. Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of __________. A. Low barometric pressure B. High barometric pressure C. Steady barometric pressure D. Changing barometric pressure

84. The form of cloud often known as "mackerel sky" which is generally associated with fair weather is __________. A. Nimbostratus B. Stratus C. Cirrocumulus D. Cumulonimbus

85. When a low pressure area is approaching, the weather generally __________. A. Improves B. Worsens C. Remains the same D. Is unpredictable

190

DPKP

86. Clouds that form as small white flakes or scaly globular masses covering either small or large portions of the sky are __________. A. Cirrus B. Cirrostratus C. Altostratus D. Cirrocumulus

87. A cyclone in its final stage of development is called a(n) __________. A. Tornado B. Anticyclone C. Occluded cyclone or occluded front D. Polar cyclone

88. That half of the hurricane to the right hand side of its track (as you face the same direction that the storm is moving) in the Northern Hemisphere is called the __________. A. Windward side B. Leeward side C. Safe semicircle D. Dangerous semicircle

89. High clouds, composed of small white flakes or scaly globular masses, and often banded together to form a "mackerel sky", would be classified as __________. A. Cirrus B. Cirrocumulus C. Altostratus D. Cumulonimbus

90. The wind circulation around a high pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is __________. A. Counterclockwise and moving towards the high B. Counterclockwise and moving outward from the high C. Clockwise and moving towards the high D. Clockwise and moving outward from the high 191

DPKP

91. A thin, whitish, high cloud popularly known as "mares' tails" is __________. A. Altostratus B. Stratus C. Cumulus D. Cirrus

92. Good weather is usually associated with a region of __________. A. Low barometric pressure B. High barometric pressure C. Falling barometric pressure D. Pumping barometric pressure

93. The wind velocity is higher in the dangerous semicircle of a tropical cyclone because of the __________. A. Recurvature effect B. Extension of the low pressure ridge C. Wind circulation and forward motion of the storm D. Direction of circulation and pressure gradient

94. Which list of clouds is in sequence, from highest to lowest in the sky? A. Altostratus, cirrostratus, stratus B. Cirrostratus, altostratus, stratus C. Stratus, cirrostratus, altostratus D. Altostratus, stratus, cirrostratus

95. Warm air masses will generally have __________. A. Turbulence within the mass B. Stratiform clouds C. Heavy precipitation D. Good visibility

192

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96. A low, uniform layer of cloud resembling fog, but not resting on the ground, is called __________. A. Cumulus B. Nimbus C. Stratus D. Cirrus

193

DPKP 9. Merespon keadaan darurat navigasi (Respond to navigational emergencies ) 1.

As a probable result of being in collision with your vessel, the other vessel involved is on fire? What are your responsibilities to the other vessel? A. After checking the extent of the damage and welfare of your crew, if possible

your

vessel

should

standby and offer assistance, until being relieved of that obligation by the other vessel. B. There is no statutory requirement to provide assistance as the actions of that vessel were the primary cause of the collision C. Your vessel should manoeuvre close to the other vessel and aid the fire fighting operation. D. You should inform the nearest Coast Radio Station of the incident and if your damage is not serious, continue on your voyage.

2.

Ship A is fully loaded with iron ore and is navigating in a coastal region when it is in collision with ship B, causing ship A to take in water in several holds. What is the best course of action by ship A to save the vessel and the cargo? A. Put the ship aground on a soft sandy bottom as soon as possible B. Attempt to stop the ingress of water by listing the ship over and bringing the damaged area of the hull out of the water. C. Call for tug boat assistance as soon as possible D. Inform the local coast radio station of the situation and ask for advice

194

DPKP

3.

The bridge wheelman has not reported for duty and there is a suspected "Man Overboard" situation on your vessel. The ship has been searched and there is one seaman missing? The vessel turns round and retraces the course back, calling for assistance from other vessels in the vicinity. What should be the focal point for any search pattern to be established? A. Determine when the seaman was last sighted and concentrate the search

round

the

course

line

between the last sighting and present position, taking into account any prevailing current. B. The focus of the search should be from the present position as he probably went overboard when proceeding to the bridge for his watch. C. Determine the drift and leeway of own ship and take this deviation from track into account on the return course. The search should focus around this return track back to the last sighted position D. The last sighted position should be the focal point of any search pattern and all ships should keep a good lookout in that vicinity, moving outwards to the present position.

4.

The engines have failed and will require at least 24 hours to be available as a reliable means of propulsion. Your vessel is about 20 miles off the coast in a tidal are What are the initial steps that should be taken to ensure the safety of the ship? A. Display NUC lights and investigate the tidal flow over the next 24 hours and the probable drift of the vessel. B. Display NUC lights and inform the nearest

Coast

Guard

of

you

predicament. C. Display NUC lights and determine if anchoring is possible D. Display NUC lights and send out a navigational warning to all other vessels of your position and situation 195

DPKP

5.

The vessel is passing through the English Channel when the ARPA radars fail completely and navigation must continue without any operational radars. Should there be any changes to your passage plan or bridge procedures. Your vessel is equipped with an operational ECDIS A. Increase the officers on the bridge to allow greater use of visual navigation B. Change the passage plan to avoid areas of high density shipping, if possible C. Post extra lookouts D. No changes are necessary

6.

You are Sen.Off.Deck / Duty officer onboard one of the vessels involved in a collision. What will your actions be following the collision? A. Make sure your vessel + crew are safe and then offer your assistance to the other vessel B. Continue the voyage to your destination C. Call the Company Office D. Start an argument with the other vessel about fault

196

DPKP

7.

You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have been in a collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What would you do? A. Alarm

the

commence

rescue searching

centre

and

for

any

survivors B. Leave the position as fast as possible C. Do nothing and wait for assistance D. Call the company, explain the situation and ask for orders

8.

You are witness to a collision between two other ships close to your vessel. What immediate action should you take? A. Nothing, just standby and wait to see if any assistance is require B. Contact one or both vessels involved in the incident and offer assistance. C. Send out a distress message on their behalf. D. Inform the local coast radio station of the incident and submit your name as a witness.

197

DPKP

9.

Your vessel has been in collision and it is uncertain whether the vessel has the required residual stability to remain afloat. After sounding the general alarm on board and informing the nearest Coast Radio Station of your situation, what other immediate steps should be taken? A. Complete soundings of all compartments to determine the number of compartments floode Check the vessels stability limitations within its statutory loadline requirements to determine if still adequate. B. Sound round the vessel and calculate the changes in stability due to the lost buoyancy, to determine if the final residual positive stability is sufficient to remain afloat. C. Monitor any gradual increase of draft, list and trim to determine the final of equilibrium. Ensure this is sufficient to remain afloat D. Prepare for abandoning ship and ensure that all ship's personnel are at their lifeboat stations.

10. Your vessel has been in involved in a collision with an other vessel. As Master responsible for the ship and persons on board, what is the first step to take? A. Organise someone to assess the extent of damage and the residual stability of the vessel. B. Communicate with the other ship. C. Determine is there is any evidence of pollution. D. Determine any injuries or deaths of persons on board

198

DPKP

11. Your vessel is involved in a collision with another vessel. What should you as Master tell the Master on the other vessel? A. Name; Port of registry; Port of destination of your vessel. B. Explain your actions prior to the collision and request details of actions taken by the other vessel which resulted in the collision. C. Ask if there is any assistance required by the other vessel. D. There should be no communication with the other vessel.

12. Your vessel is progressing within a Traffic Separation Scheme and receives a navigational warning of another vessel progressing the wrong way within the scheme. What actions should be taken on the bridge, if any? A. Use

the

Arpa

for

early

identification of all other ship movements within the traffic lane and give rogue vessel a wide berth B. Take no actions but proceed with extra caution. C. Move out of the traffic lane towards the coast. D. Slow down your vessel and proceed with caution, posting extra lookouts.

13. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver shall __________. A. Turn off her sidelights when not making way B. When operating in restricted visibility, sound a whistle signal of two prolonged and one short blast C. Show a day-shape of two diamonds in a vertical line D. Keep out of the way of a vessel engaged in fishing

199

DPKP

14. A power-driven vessel at anchor, not fishing or otherwise restricted in its ability to maneuver, sounds her fog signal at intervals of not __________. A. More than one minute B. More than two minutes C. More than three minutes D. Less than two minutes

15. You are underway in reduced visibility. You hear the fog signal of another vessel about 20° on your starboard bow. Risk of collision may exist. You should __________. A. Alter course to starboard to pass around the other vessel B. Reduce your speed to bare steerageway C. Slow your engines and let the other vessel pass ahead of you D. Alter course to port to pass the other vessel on its portside

16. What day-shape would a vessel at anchor show during daylight? A. One black ball B. Two black balls C. Three black balls D. No signal

17. What day-shape would a vessel at anchor show during daylight? A. One black ball B. Two black balls C. Three black balls D. No signal

18. You are approaching a bend in a channel. You cannot see around the bend because of the height of the bank. You should __________. A. Stop engines and navigate with caution B. Stay in the middle of the channel C. Sound passing signals to any other vessel that may be on the other side of the bend D. Sound a whistle blast of 4 to 6 seconds duration 200

DPKP

19. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel of 150 meters in length, at anchor? A. She may show an all-round white light where it can best be seen. B. She must show all-round white lights forward and aft. C. The showing of working lights is optional. D. None of the above

20. Which vessel would be required to show a white light from a lantern exhibited in sufficient time to prevent collision? A. A 9-meter sailing vessel B. A rowboat C. A 6-meter motorboat D. A small vessel fishing

21. Barges being towed at night __________. A. Must be lighted at all times B. Must be lighted only if manned C. Must be lighted only if towed astern D. Need not be lighted

22. You sight another power-driven vessel dead-ahead showing both the red and green sidelights. The required action to take would be to __________. A. Carefully watch his compass bearing B. Start a radar plot in order to ascertain his course C. Alter your course to port D. Alter your course to starboard

23. You are underway in fog and hear one short, one prolonged, and one short blast in succession. What is the meaning of this signal? A. A vessel is in distress and needs assistance. B. A vessel is fishing, hauling nets. C. A vessel is at anchor, warning of her position. D. A vessel is towing.

201

DPKP

24. An anchored vessel on pilotage duty must show which light(s) at night? A. A stern light only B. Anchor lights only C. A white light over a red light only D. A white light over a red light and anchor lights

25. A vessel which is fishing is required to show sidelights and a stern light only when __________. A. Anchored B. Underway C. Dead in the water D. Underway and making way

26. What is a requirement for any action taken to avoid collision? A. When in sight of another vessel, any action taken must be accompanied by sound signals. B. The action taken must include changing the speed of the vessel. C. The action must be positive and made in ample time. D. All of the above

27. In the daytime, you see a large sailing vessel on the beam. You know that she is also propelled by machinery if she shows __________. A. A basket B. A black ball C. A black cone D. Two black cones

202

DPKP

28. Your power-driven vessel is stopped and making no way, but is not in any way disable Another vessel is approaching you on your starboard beam. Which statement is TRUE? A. The other vessel must give way since your vessel is stoppe B. Your vessel is the give-way vessel in a crossing situation. C. You should be showing the lights or shapes for a vessel not under comman D. You should be showing the lights or shapes for a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver.

29. For identification purposes at night, U.S. Navy submarines on the surface may display an intermittent flashing light of which color? A. Amber (yellow) B. White C. Blue D. Red

30. Vessels engaged in fishing may show the additional signals described in Annex II to the Rules when they are __________. A. Trolling B. Fishing in a traffic separation zone C. In a narrow channel D. In close proximity to other vessels engaged in fishing

31. Which vessel must show a masthead light abaft of and higher than her identifying lights? A. A 55-meter vessel fishing B. A 55-meter vessel trawling C. A 100-meter vessel not under command D. A 20-meter vessel engaged on pilotage duty

203

DPKP

32. While underway in a narrow channel, a vessel should stay __________. A. In the middle of the channel B. To the starboard side of the channel C. To the port side of the channel D. To the side of the channel that has the widest bends

33. Vessels of less than what length may not impede the passage of other vessels which can safely navigate only within a narrow channel or fairway? A. 10 meters B. 20 meters C. 30 meters D. 40 meters

34. A lantern combining the sidelights and stern light MAY be shown on a __________. A. Sailing vessel of 25 meters in length B. 20-meter vessel engaged in fishing and making way C. 25-meter power-driven vessel engaged in trolling D. 6-meter vessel under oars

35. The lights required by the Rules must be shown __________. A. From sunrise to sunset in restricted visibility B. At all times C. ONLY from sunset to sunrise D. Whenever a look-out is posted

36. Which vessel may carry her sidelights and stern light in a combined lantern on the mast? A. An 18-meter sailing vessel B. A 10-meter sailing vessel also being propelled by machinery C. A 25-meter sailing vessel D. All of the above

204

DPKP

37. A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway where other vessels may be hidden by an obstruction shall __________. A. Sound the danger signal B. Sound a prolonged blast C. Take all way off D. Post a look-out

38. You are approaching a vessel dredging during the day and see two balls in a vertical line on the port side of the dredge. These shapes mean that __________. A. You should pass on the port side of the dredge B. There is an obstruction on the port side of the dredge C. The dredge is not under command D. The dredge is moored

39. Which statement is TRUE concerning the light used to accompany whistle signals? A. It is mandatory to use such a light. B. The light shall have the same characteristics as a masthead light. C. It is used to supplement short blasts of the whistle. D. All of the above

40. Which vessel must sound her fog signal at intervals not to exceed one minute? A. A power-driven vessel underway, not making way B. A vessel constrained by her draft C. A vessel engaged in fishing, at anchor D. A vessel aground

41. By day, you sight a vessel displaying three shapes in a vertical line. The top and bottom shapes are balls, and the middle shape is a diamon It could be a __________. A. Vessel trolling B. Mineclearing vessel C. Trawler D. Vessel engaged in replenishment at sea

205

DPKP

42. You are heading due east (090°) and observe a vessel's red sidelight on your port beam. The vessel may be heading __________. A. Northwest (315°) B. North (000°) C. Southeast (135°) D. Southwest (225°)

43. Which vessel is, by definition, unable to keep out of the way of another vessel? A. Vessel engaged in fishing B. Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver C. Sailing vessel D. Vessel towing

44. Which vessel must exhibit forward and after masthead lights when underway? A. A 200-meter sailing vessel B. A 50-meter power-driven vessel C. A 100-meter vessel engaged in fishing D. All of the above

45. As defined in the Rules, a towing light is a yellow light having the same characteristics as a(n) __________. A. Masthead light B. All-round light C. Sidelight D. Stern light

46. A vessel underway and making way in fog shall sound every two minutes __________. A. One prolonged blast B. Two prolonged blasts C. One prolonged blast and three short blasts D. Three distinct blasts

206

DPKP

47. When anchoring a 20-meter vessel at night, you must show __________. A. One all-round white light B. Two all-round white lights C. One all-round white light and the stern ligh D. One all-round white light and a flare up light

48. According to the Navigation Rules, all of the following are engaged in fishing EXCEPT a vessel __________. A. Setting nets B. Trawling C. Using a dredge net D. Trolling

49. When a vessel sounds three short blasts on the whistle, this indicates that __________. A. Danger is ahead B. Her engines are going astern C. The vessel is not under command (broken down) D. All other vessels should stand clear

50. A vessel is overtaking when she approaches another from more than how many degrees abaft the beam? A. 0.0° B. 11.25° C. 22.5° D. 45.0°

51. What equipment for fog signals is required for a vessel 20 meters in length? A. Whistle only B. Bell only C. Whistle and bell only D. Whistle, bell, and gong

207

DPKP

52. What equipment for fog signals is required for a vessel 20 meters in length? A. Whistle only B. Bell only C. Whistle and bell only D. Whistle, bell, and gong

53. Sailing vessels are stand-on over power-driven vessels except __________. A. In a crossing situation B. In a meeting situation C. When they are the overtaking vessel D. On the inland waters of the U.S.

54. Which statement is TRUE concerning risk of collision? A. Risk of collision never exists if the compass bearing of the other vessel is changing. B. Proper use shall be made of radar equipment to determine risk of collision. C. Risk of collision must be determined before any action can be taken by a vessel. D. Risk of collision exists if the vessels will pass within half a mile of each other.

55. You are fishing at night, and you sight a vessel showing three lights in a vertical line. The upper and lower lights are red and the middle light is white. Which statement is TRUE? A. You must keep out of the way of the other vessel. B. The other vessel is responsible to keep out of your way. C. The other vessel is at anchor. D. The rule of special circumstances applies.

208

DPKP

56. Which vessel is to sound a fog signal of one prolonged followed by two short blasts? A. A vessel not under command B. A sailing vessel, underway C. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when carrying out her work at anchor D. All of the above

57. A vessel may exhibit lights other than those prescribed by the Rules as long as the additional lights __________. A. Do not interfere with the keeping of a proper look-out B. Are not the color of either sidelight C. Have a lesser range than the prescribed lights D. All of the above

58. Which statement is TRUE concerning a partly submerged vessel being towed? A. It must show a yellow light at each en B. It will show red lights along its length. C. A diamond shape will be carried at the aftermost extremity of the tow. D. All of the above

59. Your vessel enters fog. You stop your engines, and the vessel is dead in the water. Which fog signal should you sound? A. One prolonged blast every two minutes B. Two prolonged blasts every two minutes C. Three short blasts every two minutes D. One prolonged and two short blasts every two minutes

60. The term "power-driven vessel" refers to any vessel __________. A. With propelling machinery onboard whether in use or not B. Making way against the current C. With propelling machinery in use D. Traveling at a speed greater than that of the current

209

DPKP

61. In which situation do the Rules require both vessels to change course? A. Two power-driven vessels meeting head-on B. Two power-driven vessels crossing when it is apparent to the stand-o Vessel that the give-way vessel is not taking appropriate action C. Two sailing vessels crossing with the wind on the same side D. All of the above

62. A vessel towing where the tow prevents her from changing course shall carry __________. A. Only the lights for a vessel towing B. Only the lights for a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver C. The lights for a towing vessel and the lights for a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver D. The lights for a towing vessel and the lights for a vessel not under command

63. Which statement is TRUE concerning the danger signal? A. May be sounded by the stand-on vessel only B. Indicates that the vessel is in distress C. Is used to indicate a course change D. May be supplemented by an appropriate light signal

64. If a sailing vessel with the wind on the port side sees a sailing vessel to windward and cannot tell whether the other vessel has the wind on the port or starboard side, she shall __________. A. Hold course and speed B. Sound the danger signal C. Keep out of the way of the other vessel D. Turn to port and come into the wind

210

DPKP

65. Vessel "A" is on course 000°T. Vessel "B" is on a course such that she is involved in a head-on situation and is bearing 355°T, 2 miles away from vessel "A". To ensure a safe passing, vessel "A" should __________. A. Maintain course B. Alter course to port C. Alter course to ensure a starboard to starboard passing D. Maneuver to ensure a port to port passing

66. What is a vessel "restricted in her ability to maneuver"? A. A vessel not under command B. A vessel constrained by her draft C. A vessel underway in fog D. A vessel towing unable to deviate from her course

67. All of the following are distress signals under the Rules EXCEPT __________. A. A green star signal B. Orange-colored smoke C. Red flares D. The repeated raising and lowering of outstretched arms

68. The Rules state that vessels may depart from the Rules when __________. A. There are no other vessels around B. Operating in a narrow channel C. The Master enters it in the ship's log D. Necessary to avoid immediate danger

69. A vessel is towing and carrying the required lights on the masthea What is the visibility arc of these lights? A. 112.5° B. 135.0° C. 225.0° D. 360.0°

211

DPKP

70. Which situation would be a "special circumstance" under the Rules? A. Vessel at anchor B. More than two vessels meeting C. Speed in fog D. Two vessels crossing

71. You are approaching another vessel on crossing courses. She is approximately half a mile distant and is presently on your starboard bow. You believe she will cross ahead of you. She then sounds a whistle signal of five short blasts. You should __________. A. Answer the signal and hold course and speed B. Reduce speed slightly to make sure she will have room to pass C. Make a large course change, accompanied by the appropriate whistle signal, and slow down if necessary D. Wait for another whistle signal from the other vessel

72. You are approaching another vessel and are not sure whether danger of collion exists. You must assume __________. A. There is risk of collision B. You are the give way vessel C. The other vessel is also in doubt D. All of the above are correct.

73. Which vessel may use the danger signal? A. The vessel to starboard when two power-driven vessels are crossing B. A vessel engaged in fishing, crossing the course of a sailing vessel C. Either of two power-driven vessels meeting head-on D. All of the above

212

DPKP

74. What is the minimum sound signaling equipment required aboard a vessel 10 meters in length? A. A bell only B. A whistle only C. A bell and a whistle D. Any means of making an efficient sound signal

75. Which statement is TRUE regarding equipment for sound signals? A. A vessel of less than 12 meters in length need not have any sound signaling equipment. B. Any vessel over 12 meters in length must be provided with a gong. C. Manual sounding of the bell and gong must always be possible. D. Automatic sounding of the signals is not permitte

76. Which statement concerning an overtaking situation is correct? A. The overtaking vessel is the stand-on vessel. B. Neither vessel is the stand-on vessel. C. The overtaking vessel must maintain course and spee D. The overtaking vessel must keep out of the way of the other.

77. The Rules state that a vessel overtaking another vessel is relieved of her duty to keep clear when __________. A. She is forward of the other vessel's beam B. The overtaking situation becomes a crossing situation C. She is past and clear of the other vessel D. The other vessel is no longer in sight

78. Which statement is TRUE concerning fog signals? A. All fog signals for sailing vessels are to be given at intervals of not more than one minute. B. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel towe C. A pilot vessel underway and making way sounds the pilot identity signal and no other signal. D. A vessel aground may sound a whistle signal. 213

DPKP

79. Which day-shape would a vessel aground show during daylight? A. One black ball B. Two black balls C. Three black balls D. Four black balls

80. Which vessel must have a gong, or other equipment which will make the sound of a gong? A. A sailing vessel B. Any vessel over 50 meters C. Any vessel over 100 meters D. A power-driven vessel over 75 meters

81. A sailing vessel is proceeding along a narrow channel and can safely navigate ONLY inside the channel. The sailing vessel approaches a vessel engaged in fishing. Which statement is TRUE? A. The fishing vessel is directed not to impede the passage of the sailing vessel. B. The sailing vessel must keep out of the way of the fishing vessel. C. Each vessel should move to the edge of the channel on her port side. D. Each vessel should be displaying signals for a vessel constrained by her draft.

82. Day-shapes MUST be shown __________. A. During daylight hours B. During daylight hours except in restricted visibility C. ONLY between 8 AM and 4 PM daily D. Between sunset and sunrise

214

DPKP

83. Rule 14 describes the action to be taken by vessels meeting head-on. Which of the following conditions must exist in order for this rule to apply? A. Both vessels must be power-driven. B. They must be meeting on reciprocal or nearly reciprocal courses. C. The situation must involve risk of collision. D. All of the above

84. The stern light shall be positioned such that it will show from dead astern to how many degrees on each side of the stern of the vessel? A. 22.5° B. 67.5° C. 112.5° D. 135.0°

85. A vessel aground at night is required to show two red lights in a vertical line as well as __________. A. Not under command lights B. Restricted in her ability to maneuver lights C. Anchor lights D. Sidelights and a stern light

86. When towing more than one barge astern at night __________. A. Only the last barge on the tow must be lighted B. Only the first and the last barges in the tow must be lighted C. Each barge in the tow must be lighted D. Only manned barges must be lighted

87. Your vessel is aground in fog. In addition to the regular anchor signals, you will be sounding __________. A. Three strokes of the gong before and after the rapid ringing of the gong B. A blast on the whistle C. Three strokes of the bell before and after the rapid ringing of the bell D. No additional signals

215

DPKP

88. In a crossing situation, the vessel which has the other on her own starboard side shall __________. A. If the circumstances of the case admit, avoid crossing ahead of the other B. Change course to port to keep out of the way C. Reduce her speed D. All of the above

89. You are on vessel "A" in DIAGRAM 32, and hear vessel "B" sound a signal indicating her intention to overtake you. You feel it is not safe for vessel "B" to overtake you at the present time. You should __________. A. Sound five or more short rapid blasts B. Sound two short blasts C. Not answer the whistle signal from vessel "B" D. Sound three blasts of the whistle

90. Which vessel sounds the same fog signal when underway or at anchor? A. A sailing vessel B. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver C. A vessel constrained by her draft D. A vessel not under command

91. You are approaching a bend in a river where, due to the bank, you cannot see around the other side. A vessel on the other side of the bend sounds one prolonged blast. You should __________. A. Sound passing signals B. Not sound any signal until you sight the other vessel C. Sound a prolonged blast D. Sound the danger signal

92. Which vessel is "underway" according to the Rules? A. A vessel made fast to a single point mooring buoy B. A purse seiner hauling her nets C. A pilot vessel at anchor D. A vessel which has run aground 216

DPKP

93. When two power-driven vessels are crossing, the vessel which has the other to starboard must keep out of the way if __________. A. She is the faster vessel B. The situation involves risk of collision C. The vessels will pass within half a mile of each other D. Whistle signals have been sounded

94. Which signal may at some time be exhibited by a vessel trawling? A. Two white lights in a vertical line B. A white light over a red light in a vertical line C. Two red lights in a vertical line D. All of the above

95. Risk of collision is considered to exist if __________. A. Four vessels are nearby B. A vessel has a steady bearing at a constant range C. There is any doubt that a risk of collision exists D. A special circumstance situation is apparent

96. You are underway in low visibility and sounding fog signals. What changes would you make in the fog signal immediately upon losing propulsion? A. Begin sounding two prolonged blasts at two-minute intervals. B. Begin sounding one prolonged blast followed by three short blasts at twominute intervals. C. Begin sounding one prolonged blast followed by two short blasts at twominute intervals. D. No change should be made in the fog signal.

97. A power-driven vessel shows the same lights as a __________. A. Vessel engaged in towing, when not underway B. Vessel towing astern C. Sailing vessel D. Pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed, when they are rigidly connected in a composite unit 217

DPKP

98. Which vessel shall NOT show her sidelights? A. A fishing vessel that is not making way B. A sailing vessel which is becalmed C. A vessel engaged in underwater operations D. A vessel that is not under command making way

99. A vessel is overtaking when she can see which light(s) of a vessel ahead? A. Only the stern light of the vessel B. One sidelight and a masthead light of the vessel C. Only a sidelight of the vessel D. The masthead lights of the vessel

100. Which statement about the Navigation Rules is TRUE? A. The rules require vessels to comply with Traffic Separation Scheme regulations. B. The rules use the term "safe spee" C. The Rules permit a stand-on vessel to take action prior to being in extremis. D. All of the above are correct.

101. A "short blast" on the whistle has a duration of __________. A. 1 second B. 4 to 6 seconds C. 8 to 12 seconds D. 12 to 15 seconds

102. As defined in the Rules, the term "vessel" includes __________. A. Seaplanes B. Nondisplacement craft C. Barges D. All of the above

218

DPKP

103. A vessel shall slacken her speed, stop, or reverse her engines, if necessary, to __________. A. Avoid collision B. Allow more time to assess the situation C. Be stopped in an appropriate distance D. All of the above

104. An anchor ball need NOT be exhibited by an anchored vessel if she is __________. A. Under 50 meters in length, and anchored in an anchorage B. Over 150 meters in length C. Rigged for sail D. Less than 7 meters in length, and not in or near an area where other vessels normally navigate

105. A vessel that is not equipped with towing lights should show that it has a vessel in tow by_________________. A. Continuously sounding its horn B. Sounding one prolonged followed by two short blasts at intervals of not more than two minutes C. Shining a searchlight on the towline of the towed vessel D. None of the above; a vessel shall not engage in towing at night without proper navigation lights

106. While underway at night you are coming up on a vessel from astern. What lights would you expect to see? A. Red and green sidelights B. Two white lights C. One white light and red and green sidelights D. One white light

219

DPKP

107. What describes a head-on situation? A. Seeing one red light of a vessel directly ahead B. Seeing two forward white towing lights in a vertical line on a towing vessel directly ahead C. Seeing both sidelights of a vessel directly off your starboard beam D. Seeing both sidelights of a vessel directly ahead

108. A vessel anchored in fog may warn an approaching vessel by sounding __________. A. The whistle continuously B. One short, one prolonged, and one short blast of the whistle C. Five or more short and rapid blasts of the whistle D. Three distinct strokes on the bell before and after sounding the anchor signal

109. While underway in fog, you hear a vessel ahead sound two prolonged blasts on the whistle. You should __________. A. Sound two blasts and change course to the left B. Sound whistle signals only if you change course C. Sound only fog signals until the other vessel is sighted D. Not sound any whistle signals until the other vessel is sighted

110. You are operating in restricted visibility and hear a signal of a rapidly ringing bell followed by the rapid sounding of a gong. It could be a __________. A. 30-meter sail vessel at anchor B. 150-meter power-driven vessel aground C. Vessel in distress D. 300-meter power-driven vessel at anchor

111. A vessel being towed, if manned, shall sound a fog signal of __________. A. Two short blasts B. Three short blasts C. One prolonged and two short blasts D. One prolonged and three short blasts

220

DPKP

112. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall __________. A. Only anchor in the separation zone B. Cross a traffic lane at as small an angle as possible C. Avoid anchoring in areas near the termination of the scheme D. Utilize the separation zone for navigating through the scheme if she is impeding other traffic due to her slower speed

113. A proper look-out shall be maintained __________. A. Only at night B. Only during restricted visibility C. At night and during restricted visibility D. At all times

114. Risk of collision may be deemed to exist __________. A. If the compass bearing of an approaching vessel does NOT appreciably change B. Even when an appreciable bearing change is evident, particularly when approaching a vessel at close range C. If you observe both sidelights of a vessel ahead for an extended period of time D. All of the above

115. The Rules state that certain factors are to be taken into account when determining safe spee Those factors include __________. A. State of wind, sea, and current, and the proximity of navigational hazards B. Maximum attainable speed of your vessel C. Temperature D. Aids to navigation that are available

221

DPKP

116. Which vessel, when anchored at night, would NOT be required to show anchor lights? A. A power-driven vessel B. A vessel on pilotage duty C. A vessel dredging D. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver

117. A vessel not under command shall display __________. A. Two red lights at night and two black balls during daylight B. Two red lights at night and three black balls during daylight C. Three red lights at night and two black balls during daylight D. Three red lights at night and three black balls during daylight

118. A vessel engaged in fishing while at anchor shall sound a fog signal of __________. A. One prolonged and two short blasts at two-minute intervals B. One prolonged and three short blasts at two-minute intervals C. A rapid ringing of the bell for five seconds at one-minute intervals D. A sounding of the bell and gong at one-minute intervals

119. Underway at night you see the red sidelight of a vessel well off your port bow. Which statement is TRUE? A. You are required to alter course to the right. B. You must stop engines. C. You are on a collision course with the other vessel. D. You may maintain course and spee

120. Which vessel would sound a fog signal consisting of the ringing of a bell for 5 seconds? A. A vessel engaged in fishing, at anchor B. A vessel restricted in its ability to maneuver, at anchor C. A sailing vessel, at anchor D. A sailing vessel becalmed

222

DPKP

121. A vessel towing a barge astern would show, at the stern __________. A. Only a stern light B. A towing light above the stern light C. Two towing lights in a vertical line D. Two white lights in a vertical line

122. A fog signal consisting of one prolonged blast followed by four short blasts would indicate the presence of a __________. A. Vessel being towed B. Fishing vessel engaged in trawling C. Vessel at anchor warning of her location D. Power-driven pilot vessel on station underway

123. In addition to sidelights what light should a vessel being towed astern show? A. A stern light B. A masthead light C. Not under command lights D. Range lights

124. A pilot vessel may continue to sound an identity signal if she is __________. A. Aground B. At anchor C. Not under command D. Being towed

125. When two power-driven vessels are meeting head-on and there is a risk of collision, each shall __________. A. Stop her engines B. Alter course to starboard C. Sound the danger signal D. Back down

223

DPKP

126. A power driven vessel when towing and the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters shall exhibit during daylight hours where they can best be seen which of the following shapes? A. A diamond shape B. Two cones, apexes together C. A black ball D. One cone, apex upward

127. What is the minimum length of vessels required to show two anchor lights? A. 40 meters B. 50 meters C. 60 meters D. 70 meters

128. A vessel showing a rigid replica of the International Code flag "A" is engaged in __________. A. Diving operations B. Dredging C. Fishing D. Mineclearance operations

129. In determining "safe speed", all of the following must be taken into account EXCEPT the __________. A. Maximum horsepower of your vessel B. Presence of background lights at night C. Draft of your vessel D. Maneuverability of your vessel

130. You are aboard the give-way vessel in a crossing situation. What should you NOT do in obeying the Rules? A. Cross ahead of the stand-on vessel B. Make a large course change to starboard C. Slow your vessel D. Back your vessel 224

DPKP

131. A vessel, which does not normally engage in towing operations, is towing a vessel in distress. She __________. A. Need not show the lights for a vessel engaged in towing, if it is impractical to do so B. May show the lights for a vessel not under command C. Must show a yellow light above the stern light D. Must show the lights for a vessel towing

132. An all-round flashing yellow light may be exhibited by a(n) __________. A. Vessel laying cable B. Vessel towing a submerged object C. Vessel not under command D. Air cushion vessel

133. Working lights shall be used to illuminate the decks of a vessel __________. A. Over 100 meters at anchor B. Not under command C. Constrained by her draft D. Any of the above

134. Which vessel may show identifying lights when not actually engaged in her occupation? A. A fishing vessel B. A pilot vessel C. A mineclearance vessel D. None of the above

135. A pilot vessel may continue to sound an identity signal if she is __________. A. Underway, but not making way B. Aground C. Being towed D. Not engaged in pilotage duty

225

DPKP

136. If your vessel is the stand-on vessel in a crossing situation __________. A. You must keep your course and speed B. You may change course and speed as the other vessel must keep clear C. The other vessel must keep her course and speed D. Both vessels must keep their course and speed

137. A vessel proceeding along a narrow channel shall __________. A. Avoid crossing the channel at right angles B. Not overtake any vessels within the channel C. Keep as near as safe and practicable to the limit of the channel on her starboard side D. When nearing a bend in the channel, sound a long blast of the whistle

138. Which vessel would exhibit sidelights when underway and not making way? A. A vessel towing astern B. A vessel trawling C. A vessel not under command D. A vessel engaged in dredging operations

139. Which vessel is NOT to impede the passage of a vessel which can only navigate safely within a narrow channel? A. Any vessel less than 20 meters in length B. Any sailing vessel C. A vessel engaged in fishing D. All of the above

140. A tug is towing three manned barges in line in fog. The second vessel of the tow should sound __________. A. No fog signal B. One short blast C. One prolonged and three short blasts D. One prolonged and two short blasts

226

DPKP

141. The steering and sailing rules for vessels in restricted visibility apply to vessels __________. A. In sight of one another in fog B. Navigating in or near an area of restricted visibility C. Only if they are showing special purpose lights D. Only if they have operational radar

142. The Navigation Rules state that a vessel shall be operated at a safe speed at all times so that she can be stopped within __________. A. The distance of visibility B. 1/2 the distance of visibility C. A distance appropriate to the existing circumstances and conditions D. The distance that it would require for the propeller to go from full ahead to full astern

143. A towing vessel 35 meters in length, with a tow 100 meters astern, must show a minimum of how many masthead lights? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

144. BOTH INTERNATIONAL & INLAND What must be TRUE in order for a standon vessel to take action to avoid collision by her maneuver alone? A. She must be in sight of the give-way vessel. B. There must be risk of collision. C. She must determine that the give-way vessel is not taking appropriate action. D. All of the above

227

DPKP

145. A vessel being towed astern, where the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters, will exhibit __________. A. Two balls in a vertical line B. A diamond shape where it can best be seen C. A ball on each end of the tow D. No day-shape

146. For a stand-on vessel to take action to avoid collision she shall, if possible, NOT __________. A. Decrease speed B. Increase speed C. Turn to port for a vessel on her port side D. Turn to starboard for a vessel on her port side

147. You hear the fog signal of another vessel forward of your beam. Risk of collision may exist. You MUST __________. A. Reduce speed to bare steerageway B. Stop your engines C. Begin a radar plot D. All of the above

148. Two barges are being pushed ahead by a tugboat. Which statement is TRUE concerning lights on the barges? A. Each vessel should show sidelights. B. Each vessel should show at least one white light. C. The barges should be lighted as separate units. D. The barges should be lighted as one vessel.

149. Two barges are being pushed ahead by a tugboat. Which statement is TRUE concerning lights on the barges? A. Each vessel should show sidelights. B. Each vessel should show at least one white light. C. The barges should be lighted as separate units. D. The barges should be lighted as one vessel. 228

DPKP

150. The Rules state that a seaplane shall __________. A. Not be regarded as a vessel B. In general, keep well clear of all vessels C. Proceed at a slower speed than surrounding vessels D. When making way, show the lights for a vessel not under command

151. If practical, when shall a manned vessel being towed sound her fog signal? A. Immediately before the towing vessel sounds hers B. Immediately after the towing vessel sounds hers C. As close to the mid-cycle of the towing vessel's signals as possible D. At any time as long as the interval is correct

152. Your tug is underway at night and NOT towing. What light(s) should your vessel show aft to other vessels coming up from astern? A. One white light B. Two white lights C. One white light and one yellow light D. One white light and two yellow lights

153. A vessel conducting mineclearing operations will show __________. A. Three balls in a vertical line B. Two balls in a vertical line C. One ball near the foremast and one ball at each fore yard D. One diamond near the foremast head and one ball at each fore yard

154. A vessel sailing shall keep out of the way of all of the following vessels except a vessel __________. A. Not under command B. Engaged on pilotage duty C. Restricted in her ability to maneuver D. Engaged in fishing

229

DPKP

155. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel under oars? A. She must show a stern light. B. She is allowed to show the same lights as a sailing vessel. C. She must show a fixed all-round white light. D. She must show a day-shape of a black cone.

156. A power-driven vessel is underway and fishing with trolling lines. This vessel __________. A. Must keep out of the way of sailing vessels B. Must sound a one prolonged, two short blasts signal in restricted visibility C. Is the stand-on vessel when overtaking power-driven vessels D. All of the above

157. At night you sight a vessel displaying a single green light. This is a __________. A. Vessel at anchor B. Small motorboat underway C. Vessel drifting D. Sailing vessel

158. When two power-driven vessels are crossing, which vessel is the stand-on vessel? A. The vessel which is to starboard of the other vessel B. The vessel which is to port of the other vessel C. The larger vessel D. The vessel that sounds the first whistle signal

159. Which vessel must exhibit forward and after white masthead lights when making way? A. A 75-meter vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver B. A 100-meter sailing vessel C. A 150-meter vessel engaged in fishing D. A 45-meter vessel engaged in towing

230

DPKP

160. By radar alone, you detect a vessel ahead on a collision course, about 3 miles distant. Your radar plot shows this to be a meeting situation. You should __________. A. Turn to port B. Turn to starboard C. Maintain course and speed and sound the danger signal D. Maintain course and speed and sound no signal

161. A sailing vessel underway at night may show __________. A. A red light over a green light at the masthead B. A green light over a red light at the masthead C. Two white lights in a vertical line at the stern D. An all-round white light at the bow

162. A vessel engaged in trawling will show identification lights of __________. A. A red light over a white light B. A white light over a red light C. A green light over a white light D. Two red lights in a vertical line

163. What is required of a vessel navigating near an area of restricted visibility? A. A power-driven vessel shall have her engines ready for immediate maneuver. B. She must sound appropriate sound signals. C. If she detects another vessel by radar, she shall determine if risk of collision exists. D. All of the above

231

DPKP 10. Olah gerak dan penanganan kapal dalam segala kondisi. (Manoeuvre and handle a ship in all conditions) 1.

A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops moving through the water, having been steaming through a shallow water channel for several miles. The sheer may be strong and unexpected and is due to what reason? A. The large volume of water dragged behind the vessel continues to move forward and cause a strong turning moment on the stern of the vessel B. The

hydrodynamic

interaction

effects from the banks of the shallow water channel acts on the stern causing the vessel to sheer strongly C. The vessel stopping shifts the pivot point forward and creates a turning moment and results in the ship swinging towards the bank. D. The shallow water reduces the effectiveness of the rudder and when the vessel stops any applied rudder will become suddenly more effective.

2.

A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two tugs assisting and there is little wind or current affecting the vessel. What would be considered the best use of the tugs and at which position? A. Pushing on the ship's side and made fast in case the vessel's movement towards the berth requires reducing by the tug pulling off. B. Made fast Forward and Aft using the centre leads. C. Pushing on ship's side, but not made fast to allow the tug to move to another position if needed D. One tug made fast forward for pulling and the other pushing aft.

232

DPKP

3.

A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a narrow channel, using its own engines and assisted by the use of one tug. Where should the tug be connected to assist the ship in maintaining its course in the centre of the channel? A. Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern. B. Made fast on a line through the centre lead ahea C. Standing-by - Ready for use anywhere, as require D. Pushing alongside

4.

A ship experiences an interaction effect known as "Squat" when moving in shallow water. The amount of Squat is affected by the speed of the vessel through the water. If the speed through the water is HALVED what will be the change in the affect of "Squat" A. The squat effect will be reduced to a quarter of its original value B. The squat effect will also be halve C. There will be a significant change in the reduction of underkeel clearance, but the amount varies from ship to ship D. There will be very little change to the effects of Squat.

5.

A ship has turned a complete circle (360 degrees) in deep water at full ahead throughout the turn. The same ship, in the same conditions, is now to make a complete turn (360 degrees) at half ahead throughout the turn. Would there be any difference in the size (diameter) of the turning circle? A. No, the diameter of the turning circle would be almost the same. B. Yes, it would be a much smaller turning circle at half ahead C. Yes, it will be much larger turning circle at half ahea D. Yes, there would be a change of shape of the turning circle; it would have an increase in the transfer, but not the advance.

233

DPKP

6.

A tug is connected by a line to the bow of a ship. Will the bollard pull exerted by the tug be the same at any speed? A. No, when the ship's speed exceeds about 5 knots it will be expected that there will be a reduced pull exerted by the tug B. No, when the speed of the ship is increasing, the bollard pull exerted by the tug will also be increasing C. Yes, the bollard pull would normally be expected to be the same at any speed of the ship D. Yes for movement ahead, but when going astern the bollard pull would be expected to be at its greatest.

7.

A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence of a 1 knot beam current. At the first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the draught and at the second the underkeel clearance is only 0.5 times the draught. If the current exerted a force of 50 tonnes on the ship at the first jetty, what would be the approximate force exerted at the second if the draught is the same? A. 150 tonnes B. Unchanged, remains at 50 tonnes C. 25 tonnes D. 75 tonnes

8.

In shallow water a ship will experience "Squat". What are the principle reasons creating the effects of squat? A. There is an increase in the water velocity and a decrease of water pressure around the ship's hull B. There is a decrease in the water velocity and an increased of water pressure around the ship's hull C. There is an increased effect of gravity due to closeness of the sea-bed D. There are changes in the bow and stern pressure fields associated with the ships motion. 234

DPKP

9.

In the situation illustrated, a ship is proceeding in the centre of the channel and approaching a bend in a river. What helm would probably be required to safely round the bend and what other effects could be expected in this situation? A. The

heading

should

be

carefully

monitored, some port rudder may be required to start the swing, though starboard rudder may be required to balance any bank rejection. B. The wheel should be put hard over to port to keep the ship in the middle of the channel

and

the

heading

carefully

monitore C. A small amount of port helm would be required to get round the corner and the engines should be slowed down to give more time to the manoeuvre. The heading should be continually monitored D. The ship will round the corner without any helm being required, due to interaction and rejection by the river bank

10. In the situation illustrated, what should be the distribution of the power requirements from the tugs, if the ship is to be moved sideways without changing the heading?

Both tugs have similar bollard pull and are of conventional

propulsion. A. Much greater power on the forward tug than on the after tug while monitoring the gyro heading B. Much greater power on the aft tug than on the forward tug while monitoring the gyro heading. C. Equal power required by both tugs, but monitor the gyro heading to ensure sideward movement only D. It would be very difficult to predict the power requirements in this circumstance and it could only be found by observation.

235

DPKP

11. In the situation illustrated, what should be the power distribution of the tugs to maintain the ship sideways motion with only minor changes in the ship's heading? A. Considerably more power on the aft tug than the forward tug, while monitoring the ship's gyro heading B. Considerably more power on the forward tug than the after tug, while monitoring the ship's gyro heading C. Equal power on both tugs while monitoring the ship's gyro heading D. Full power on the forward tug and the after tug ceases to push, but continuously monitor the ship's gyro heading

12. It has been established by experience that the most successful method of double banking two vessels, when no tugs are available, is one of the following methods. Select which answer is considered the most successful metho A. When both vessels are underway, fig. 1 B. When the larger vessel is at anchor, fig. 2 C. When the smaller vessel is at anchor, fig. 3 D. When the larger vessel is stopped and drifting in the water, fig. 4

13. The bridge is informed by an eye-witness that a man has just fallen overboar Which of the following manoeuvres is the most appropriate action when the person is still close to the vessel? A. Williamson Turn B. Scharnow Turn C. Direct Turn D. Evinrude Turn

236

DPKP

14. The effective stability of a tug, when assisting a vessel to manoeuvre, can be decreased by hydrodynamic interaction with the ship it is assisting. Where is the most dangerous position of the tug relative to the ship, for this adverse affect to be found? A. The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches the bow rounding the forward shoulder of the larger vessel. B. The most dangerous position is when the tug is alongside the amidships section of the larger vessel. C. The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches the stern of the larger vessel and enters into its associated positive pressure fiel D. The most dangerous position is where the tug has made fast the towing spring and is then moving ahead of the larger vessel.

15. The effectiveness of a rudder is dependant on the flow of water past the rudder. If the rudder is put hard over when the ship is at full ahead in deep water, and then the engines are stopped, how much lift force remains? A. About 20 % B. About 50 % C. About 80 % D. About 5 %

16. The rudder is hard over when steaming at full ahead in shallow water. How much "lift force" remains when the engine is stopped? A. About 10 % B. About 50 % C. About 80 % D. There will be lift force remaining

237

DPKP

17. The ship is approaching shallow water where the Under Keel Clearance will reduce to about 0.25 of the ship's draught. Which of the following answers most accurately summarizes the aspects to be considered when deciding a suitable speed? A. All of the suggested answers B. A further reduction of underkeel clearance and possible changes of the ship's trim C. A reduced ability to stop the vessel and maintain steerage D. Touching the bottom if there is any swell and causing damage due to the wake or wash of the vessel

18. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots which suddenly increases to 60 knots. What will be the change of force exerted on the ship driving it off the jetty? A. The force will be Quadrupled B. The force will be Tripled C. The force will be Doubled D. The force will be Quintupled

19. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and the Doppler log shows a sideways motion to port at both forward and aft positions. Where would the "pivot point" be considered to be located? A. At a position outside the hull of the ship itself B. At a position aft of amidships C. At a position on the centreline, about 1/6 of the ship's length aft of the bow. D. At a position in the vicinity of the ship's centre of gravity

238

DPKP

20. What is understood by the term "Balanced Rudder"? A. A rudder with part of the rudder area forward of the turning axis, therefore reducing the load on the steering motor. B. A rudder with equal rudder area forward and aft of the turning axis, the turning axis being at the geometrical centre of the rudder area C. A rudder which is operated by two steering motors providing equal amounts of thrust to the rudder D. A rudder with an additional flap attached the training edge to improve the rudder efficiency

21. What will have a major effect on the performance of a tug when used to assist in the manoeuvring of a large vessel? A. The position of the tug relative to the ship's pivot point B. The experience of the tug crew. C. The use of the tug's wire instead of the ship's towing spring D. The length of the towing spring

22. What would be the correct understanding of the term "a ship is directionally unstable"? A. The ship requires continual application of the rudder to maintain a steady course. B. When the rudder is kept amidships, the ship will continue on a straight course C. The ship will only require small amounts of helm to maintain its course when steaming in a heavy seaway D. The ship has negative transverse stability (-GM) when proceeding on some specific courses 239

DPKP

23. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag force. When the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do you think remains if the rudder-angle is decreased to 20 degrees from hard over position (35 degrees)? A. About 80 % B. About 10 %. C. About 30 % D. About 50 %

24. When a vessel is moving in shallow water it will experience an effect known as "Squat". Which of the following statements most accurately specify the results of squat on the vessel? A. There will be a reduction of the vessel's underkeel clearance and a possible change of trim. B. There will be an increase in the vessels draught while moving through the water C. There will be a change of draught and a reduction in the spee D. If the speed of the vessel through the water is kept to "Slow Ahead" there will be no effect due to Squat.

25. When a vessel is to experience a long tow across an ocean, what would be the best system of connecting the tow? A. Wire from a deep sea tug connected to the ship's anchor chain. B. Wire from a deep sea tug through the forward centre lead of the ship and made fast onto several mooring bits on the forecastle C. Wire from a deep sea tug made fast through a shoulder lead on the vessel's leeward side D. Towing Hawser from a deep sea tug through the centre lead forward and made fast on the nearest mooring bits forwar

240

DPKP

26. When connecting a tugboat, what speed do you think is best for your vessel to maintain during this operation? A. The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5 knots B. It is best to stop the vessel completely before connecting C. A tug may be connected at any convenient speed D. The speed should be more than 7 knots

27. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of a vessel when going astern? A. Between 1/4 of the ship's length from the stern and the rudder post B. 1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow C. Amidships D. Between amidships and 1/4 of the vessel's length from the bow

28. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of the vessel when going ahead? A. 1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow. B. 1/4 of vessel's length from the stern C. Amidships D. Normally varies dependant on the speed ahead

29. Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when escorting a ship through narrow waters would be considered the most effective in the event of loosing steering power? A. The tug made fast on a line through the centre lead astern. (figure 4). B. Tug running free alongside, ready to be made fast (figure 2) C. Tug made fast forward on either shoulder, ready to push (figure 3) D. The tug made fast on a line through the centre lead forward (figure 1)

241

DPKP

30. Why does a ship move laterally (sideward drift) when turning. A. Because the pivot point is not at the centre of the ship B. Because the turning moment is created by the rudder, which is positioned at the stern of the vessel C. The ship moves laterally because it always tries to continue in a straight line. D. The ship moves sidewards because of all the external forces on the vessels hull.

31. Would the indicated speed, as shown on a Ground Tracking Doppler Log, be suitable for berthing the vessel? A. The approach speed is too fast. B. The approach speed is essential to maintain steerage when coming alongside C. The speed requirements are decided by the pilot and should not be the concern of the OOW. D. The indicated speed would be a normal speed approaching a berth.

32. Your ship is approaching the berth as illustrated and has a right handed propeller and no thrusters. What could be a method to retain full control of the vessel as it comes alongside? A. Let go starboard anchor to about 1 shackle on deck B. Reduce speed by going astern on the engines. C. Let go port anchor to about 1 shackles on deck D. Full starboard rudder and stop engines

242

DPKP

33. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________. A. Pump fuel oil from midships to the ends of the vessel B. Reduce speed C. Take a course which most eases the vessel D. All of the above

34. Which statement concerning the handling characteristics of a fully loaded vessel as compared with those of a light vessel is FALSE? A. A fully loaded vessel will be slower to respond to the engines. B. A fully loaded vessel will maintain her headway further. C. A light vessel will be more affected by the win D. A light vessel loses more rudder effect in shallow water.

35. Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do? A. If you cannot get clear immediately, lighten the ship by pumping all ballast overboar B. Run the engine full astern to keep from being set further onto the bar. C. Switch to the high suction for condenser circulating water, if it is submerge D. All of the above

36. The effect of wind on exposed areas of the vessel is most noticeable when __________. A. Backing B. Going slow ahead C. Going full ahead D. Turning

243

DPKP

37. Most of your vessel's superstructure is forwar How will the vessel lie when drifting with no way on? A. With the wind from ahead B. With the wind off the port beam C. With the wind off the starboard beam D. With the wind from abaft the beam

38. When steering a vessel, a good helmsman will __________. A. Use as much rudder as possible to keep the vessel on course B. Apply rudder to move the compass card towards the lubbers line when off course C. Repeat back to the watch officer any rudder commands before executing them D. Keep the rudder amidships except when changing course

39. The turning circle of a vessel making a turn of over 360 degrees is the path followed by the __________. A. Bow B. Bridge C. Centerline D. Center of gravity

40. The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of 180° has been completed, is called the __________. A. Advance B. Pivoting point C. Tactical diameter D. Kick

244

DPKP

41. Your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern sinks into a depression of its transverse wave system. What is this called? A. Broaching B. Fish tailing C. Squatting D. Parallel sinkage

42. You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which step is NOT a part of a Williamson Turn? A. Step 1: Come right full rudder until the vessel heads 150°T. B. Step 2: Stop the engines until clear of the man. C. Step 3: Shift the helm to left full rudder. D. Step 4: Continue with left rudder until on course 270°T.

43. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "transfer" means the distance __________. A. Gained in the direction of the original course B. Gained at right angles to the original course C. The ship moves sidewise from the original course away from the direction of the turn after the rudder is first put over D. Around the circumference of the turning circle

44. If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, which method is BEST? A. Place the eye from the forward line on the bollard and then place the eye from the second line directly over the first. B. It makes no difference how the lines are place C. Place the eye from either line on the bollard, and then bring the eye of the other line up through the eye of the first, and place it on the bollar D. Place both eyes on the bollard, in any manner, but lead both lines to the same winch head on the vessel and secure them on the winch.

245

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45. The distance a vessel moves parallel to the original course from the point where the rudder is put over to any point on the turning circle is called the __________. A. Advance B. Drift angle C. Pivoting point D. Transfer

46. When turning a ship in restricted space with a strong wind, it is normally best to __________. A. Go ahead on both engines with the rudder hard to one side, if on a twinscrew vessel B. Back down with the rudder hard to one side, if on a single-screw vessel C. Take advantage of the tendency to back to port, if on a twin-screw vessel D. Turn so that the tendency to back into the wind can be used, if on a singlescrew vessel

47. When heading on a course, you put your rudder hard over. The distance traveled parallel to the direction of the original course from where you put your rudder over to any point on the turning circle is known as __________. A. Advance B. Head reach C. Tactical diameter D. Transfer

48. The distance gained in the direction of the original course when you are making a turn is known as __________. A. Advance B. Drift C. Tactical diameter D. Transfer

246

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49. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are as liste Based on this data what is the transfer for a turn of 30°? D035dg A. 40 yards B. 140 yards C. 190 yards D. 230 yards

50. The turning circle of a vessel is the path followed by the __________. A. Tipping center B. Bow C. Outermost part of the ship while making the circle D. Center of gravity 51. The pivoting point of a vessel going ahead is __________. A. At the hawsepipe B. About one-third of the vessel's length from the bow C. About two-thirds of the vessel's length from the bow D. Near the stern

52. How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel? A. It pulls the bow toward the bank. B. It pushes the entire vessel away from the bank. C. It pulls the stern toward the bank. D. It heels the vessel toward the bank.

53. What does the helm command "shift the rudder" mean? A. Put the rudder over to the opposite side, the same number of degrees it is now. B. Put the rudder amidships and hold the heading steady as she goes. C. Shift the rudder control to the alternate steering metho D. Stop the swing of the ship.

247

DPKP

54. In stopping distances of vessels, "head reach" can best be described as the __________. A. Difference between the vessel's speed through the water at any instant and the new speed ordered on the telegraph B. Distance the vessel has actually run through the water since a change of speed was ordered C. Distance the vessel will run between taking action to stop her and being stationary in the water D. Speed at which a vessel should proceed to ensure that she will run a predetermined distance, once her engines have been stopped

55. Your vessel is port side to a pier with a spring line led aft from the bow. In calm weather, putting the engines ahead with the rudder hard left should bring __________. A. The bow in and the stern out B. Both the bow and stern in C. The bow out and the stern in D. Both the bow and stern out

56. You are the Master of a single-screw vessel. You are docking at a port which has no tugs available. You decide to drop the offshore anchor to help in docking. The amount of chain you should pay out is __________. A. 5 to 7 times the depth of the water B. 1 1/2 to 2 times the depth of the water C. Equal to the depth of the water D. You should NEVER use the anchor to help in docking

57. The helm command "meet her" means __________. A. Use rudder to check the swing B. Decrease the rudder angle which is on C. Steer more carefully D. Note the course and steady on that heading

248

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58. How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel? A. It pulls the bow toward the bank. B. It heels the vessel toward the bank. C. It pushes the entire vessel away from the bank. D. It pulls the stern toward the bank.

59. As a ship moves through the water, it drags with it a body of water called the wake. The ratio of the wake speed to the ship's speed is called __________. A. Propeller velocity B. Speed of advance C. Wake distribution D. Wake fraction

60. The term "Shift the Rudder" means __________. A. Put the rudder amidships B. Use right or left rudder C. Check, but do not stop the vessel from swinging D. Change from right to left or left or right

61. Which statement is TRUE concerning the vessel's slipstream? A. It has no effect on the steering of the vessel. B. It has no effect on the rudder when the helm is amidships. C. Its velocity is the same as that of the wake. D. The propeller gives it a helical motion.

62.

A vessel brought alongside should be fended off the towing vessel by __________. A. Crew members using their arms B. A boat hook C. Fenders D. No fending is necessary due to the rugged construction of most towing vessels.

249

DPKP

63. The helm command "shift your rudder" means __________. A. Double your rudder angle or go to full rudder B. Bring your rudder amidships C. Change from right rudder to left rudder, or vice versa, an equal number of degrees D. Check the swing of the vessel

64. As the propeller turns, voids are formed on the trailing and leading edges of the propeller blades causing a loss of propulsive efficiency, pitting of the blades, and vibration. These voids are known as __________. A. Advance B. Cavitation C. Edging D. Slip

65. "Hard right rudder" means __________. A. Put the rudder over to the right all the way B. Jam the rudder against the stops C. Meet a swing to the right, then return to amidships D. Put the rudder over quickly to 15° right rudder

66. "Ease the rudder" means to __________. A. Move the rudder slowly in the direction of the most recent rudder command B. Bring the rudder amidships C. Decrease the rudder angle D. Steer the course which is your present heading

67. The distance that a ship moves forward with each revolution of its propeller, if there is no slip, is called __________. A. Advance B. Head reach C. Pitch D. Transfer

250

DPKP

68. Sidewise force of the propeller tends to throw a vessel's stern to the right or left, depending on rotation. This force is caused by __________. A. Back current from the rudder B. Greater pressure on the right or left side of the propeller, depending on rotation C. Lower pressure on the right or left side of the propeller, depending on rotation D. Torque from the velocity and angle at which the surrounding water impinges upon the propeller blades

69. What does the helm command "shift the rudder" mean? A. Put the rudder amidships and hold the heading steady as she goes. B. Put the rudder over to the opposite side, the same number of degrees it is now. C. Shift the rudder control to the alternate steering metho D. Stop the swing of the ship.

70. A vessel is equipped with a single right-handed screw. With rudder amidships and calm wind, the vessel will most likely back __________. A. Straight astern B. To port C. To starboard D. In no particular direction

71. Generally, you can best keep a vessel under steering control when the vessel has __________. A. Headway B. Sternway C. No way on, with engines stopped D. No way on, with engines full ahead

251

DPKP

72. A towing vessel is tripped when __________. A. It is overtaken by the tow B. It is pulled sideways by the tow C. The weight of the towing hawser causes loss of maneuverability D. The propeller is fouled by the towing hawser

73. When backing down with sternway, the pivot point of a vessel is __________. A. At the bow B. About one-third of the vessel's length from the bow C. About one-quarter of the vessel's length from the stern D. Aft of the propellers

74. You are aboard a right-handed single-screw vessel with headway on. The engine is put full astern and the rudder hard left. What will the bow do? A. It will swing to the left, and will swing left faster as the vessel loses way. B. It will swing to the left, straighten out and then swing to the right as the vessel loses way. C. It will swing to the left without increasing or decreasing its swing. D. The bow will swing to the right

75. You are maneuvering a vessel with a right-hand propeller. The rudder is amidships. The vessel will generally back __________. A. To port B. To starboard C. In a straight line directly astern D. Downstream, the stern going in the direction of the current

76. The vertical motion of a floating vessel in which the entire hull is lifted by the force of the sea is known as __________. A. Surge B. Sway C. Heave D. Pitch

252

DPKP

77. The direction a vessel is pointed at any given time is the __________. A. Course B. Track C. Heading D. Course over the ground

78. Fetch is the __________. A. Distance a wave travels between formation and decay B. Stretch of water over which a wave-forming wind blows C. Time in seconds required for two crests to pass a given point D. Measurement of a wave's steepness

79. On mid-ocean waters, the height of a wind-generated wave is not affected by the __________. A. Water depth exceeding 100 feet B. Fetch C. Wind's velocity D. Duration of the wind

80. When steering a tow downstream around the shape of a sand bar, and staying on the proper side of the buoys, an operator should be cautious of __________. A. Eddies under the bar B. Swift current under the bar causing loss of control C. Cross-currents pushing the tow away from the bar D. Cross-currents pushing the tow into the bar

81. Where is the pivot point of a towboat with a tow ahead? A. One-third the length of the combined unit forward of the towboat B. One-third the length of the combined unit back from the head C. At the head of the towboat D. One-half the length of the combined unit

253

DPKP

82. A towboat has the same draft as the barges it is pushing ahea If the distance from the stern of the towboat to the head of the tow is 800 feet, where is the approximate location of the pivot point of the unit? A. At the head of the tow B. 250 feet from the head of the tow C. 400 feet from the head of the tow D. 600 feet from the head of the tow

83. You are pushing a tow ahead and passing close to another towboat which is pushing ahead in the same direction (you are overtaking). After the towheads pass close alongside __________. A. You will gain speed B. Both boats will gain speed C. The tows will tend to drift apart D. The tows will tend to drift together

84. The direction in which a vessel should be steered between two points is the __________. A. Course B. Heading C. Bearing D. Course over the ground

85. The type of current which will have the greatest effect on the course made good for your vessel is __________. A. One flowing in the same direction as your course steered B. One flowing in the opposite direction as your course steered C. One that flows at nearly right angles to your course steered D. A rotary current in which the direction of current flow constantly changes

254

DPKP

86. The speed of an ocean current is dependent on __________. A. The density of the water B. The air temperature C. The presence of a high pressure area near it D. Underwater soil conditions

87. You are steering a southerly course, and you note that the chart predicts an easterly current. Without considering wind, how may you allow for the set? A. Head your vessel slightly to the right B. Head your vessel slightly to the left C. Decrease your speed D. Increase your speed

88. You are standing the wheelwatch when you hear the cry, "Man overboard starboard side". You should instinctively __________. A. Give full left rudder B. Give full right rudder C. Put the rudder amidships D. Throw a life ring to mark the spot

89. Which statement about a tunnel bow thruster is TRUE? A. It provides lateral control without affecting headway. B. It is fully effective at speeds up to about six knots. C. It can be used to slow the ship in addition to backing down. D. It will allow you to hold a position when the current is from astern.

90. When underway and proceeding ahead, as the speed increases, the pivot point tends to __________. A. Move aft B. Move forward C. Move lower D. Remain stationary

255

DPKP

91. The turning circle of a vessel making a turn over 360 degrees is the path followed by the __________. A. Center of gravity B. Bow C. Bridge D. Centerline

92. The pivoting point of a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at sea speed is __________. A. Right at the bow B. One-third the length of the vessel from the bow C. One-half the length of the vessel from the bow D. Two-thirds the length of the vessel from the bow

93. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________. A. Pump fuel oil from midships to the ends of the vessel B. Reduce speed C. Take a course which most eases the vessel D. All of the above

94. The distance that a vessel travels from the time that the order to put engines full astern until the vessel is dead in the water is known as __________. A. Advance B. Head reach C. Surge D. Transfer

256

DPKP

95. Which shallow water effect will increase dramatically if you increase your ship's speed past its "critical speed"? A. Squatting B. Smelling the bottom C. Sinkage D. Bank cushion

96. Which statement concerning the handling characteristics of a fully loaded vessel as compared with those of a light vessel is FALSE? A. A fully loaded vessel will be slower to respond to the engines. B. A fully loaded vessel will maintain her headway further. C. A light vessel will be more affected by the win D. A light vessel loses more rudder effect in shallow water.

97. A vessel is entering port and has a Pilot conning the vessel. The Master is unsure that the Pilot is taking sufficient action to prevent a collision. What should the Master do? A. Nothing; the Pilot is required by law and is solely responsible for the safety of the vessel. B. State his concerns to the Pilot but do not interfere with the handling of the vessel. C. Recommend an alternative action and if not followed relieve the Pilot. D. Direct the Pilot to stop the vessel and anchor if necessary until the situation clears.

98. The effect of wind on exposed areas of the vessel is most noticeable when __________. A. Backing B. Going slow ahead C. Going full ahead D. Turning

257

DPKP

99. When steering a vessel, a good helmsman will __________. A. Use as much rudder as possible to keep the vessel on course B. Apply rudder to move the compass card towards the lubbers line when off course C. Repeat back to the watch officer any rudder commands before executing them D. Keep the rudder amidships except when changing course

100. The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of 180° has been completed, is called the __________. A. Advance B. Pivoting point C. Tactical diameter D. Kick

101. Your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern sinks into a depression of its transverse wave system. What is this called? A. Broaching B. Fish tailing C. Squatting D. Parallel sinkage

102. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "kick" means the distance __________. A. Around the circumference of the turning circle B. Gained at right angles to the original course C. Gained in the direction of the original course D. Or throw of a vessel's stern from her line of advance upon putting the helm hard over

258

DPKP

103. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "transfer" means the distance __________. A. Gained in the direction of the original course B. Gained at right angles to the original course C. The ship moves sidewise from the original course away from the direction of the turn after the rudder is first put over D. Around the circumference of the turning circle

104. If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, which method is BEST? A. Place the eye from the forward line on the bollard and then place the eye from the second line directly over the first. B. It makes no difference how the lines are place C. Place the eye from either line on the bollard, and then bring the eye of the other line up through the eye of the first, and place it on the bollar D. Place both eyes on the bollard, in any manner, but lead both lines to the same winch head on the vessel and secure them on the winch.

105. When turning a ship in restricted space with a strong wind, it is normally best to __________. A. Go ahead on both engines with the rudder hard to one side, if on a twinscrew vessel B. Back down with the rudder hard to one side, if on a single-screw vessel C. Take advantage of the tendency to back to port, if on a twin-screw vessel D. Turn so that the tendency to back into the wind can be used, if on a singlescrew vessel

106. When heading on a course, you put your rudder hard over. The distance traveled parallel to the direction of the original course from where you put your rudder over to any point on the turning circle is known as __________. A. Advance B. Head reach C. Tactical diameter D. Transfer

259

DPKP

107. You are on a large merchant vessel entering a port. There is a Pilot on board and he has the conn. Which statement is TRUE? A. The Pilot is solely responsible for the safe maneuvering of the ship only if he is required to be on board by law. B. The Master is responsible for the safe navigation of the ship and the Pilot is employed for his local knowledge. C. The Pilot is solely responsible for the internal working of the ship. D. The Pilot becomes solely responsible for the safe navigation of the vessel only if the Master relinquishes the conn.

108. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are as liste Based on this data what is the transfer for a turn of 30°? D035dg A. 40 yards B. 140 yards C. 190 yards D. 230 yards

109. While the Pilot is maneuvering the vessel to a dock, what is the primary responsibility of the watch officer? A. Judge the appropriateness of the Pilot's orders and countermand them if necessary B. Insure that helm and throttle orders given by the Pilot are correctly executed C. Record the bells and their times in the bell book D. Supervise the signaling and flag etiquette

110. The measurement of the amount of force a towing vessel is capable of applying to a motionless tow is called __________. A. Shaft horsepower B. Delivered horsepower C. Bollard pull D. Towrope pull

260

DPKP

111. Before a Master relieves a Pilot of the conn, the __________. A. Master should foresee any danger to the vessel on the present course B. Vessel must be in extremis C. Master should agree to sign a release of liability form D. Master must first request the Pilot to take corrective action

112. The pivoting point of a vessel going ahead is __________. A. At the hawsepipe B. About one-third of the vessel's length from the bow C. About two-thirds of the vessel's length from the bow D. Near the stern

113. You are standing the wheel watch on entering port and the Master gives you a rudder command which conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. What should you do? A. Ask the Pilot if he relinquishes control. B. Obey the Pilot. C. Obey the Master. D. Bring the rudder to a position midway between the two conflicting positions.

114. How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel? A. It pulls the bow toward the bank. B. It pushes the entire vessel away from the bank. C. It pulls the stern toward the bank. D. It heels the vessel toward the bank.

115. What does the helm command "shift the rudder" mean? A. Put the rudder over to the opposite side, the same number of degrees it is now. B. Put the rudder amidships and hold the heading steady as she goes. C. Shift the rudder control to the alternate steering metho D. Stop the swing of the ship. 261

DPKP 11. Mengoperasikan alat kendali (remote control) penataan tenaga pendorong serta sistem dan pelayanan permesinan. (Operate remote controls of propulsion plant and engineering systems and services ) 1. In a 4 cycle engine the in let value begins to open when the piston is on its.... A. Exhaust stroke. B. Suction stroke. C. Compression stroke. D. Power stroke.

2. In a 4 cycle engine the exhaust value opens while the piston is on its... A. Suction stroke B. Exhaust stroke C. Compression stroke D. Power stroke

3. In a naturally aspirated 4 cycle diesel engine the exhaust valve is open for a period of... A. 200 degrees. B. 190 degrees. C. 180 degrees. D. 250 degrees.

4. What are the indications of excessive cylinder clearance in a small diesel engine? I. Loss of power II. Misfiring III. White exhaust smoke IV. Excessive consumption of lube oil. A. 1.111 and IV B. I, II and IV C. I, II and III D. 11.111 and IV

262

DPKP

5. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the four stroke of the piston required to complete one cycle Which must take place in regular order. The second stroke...

A. Compresses the air. B. Is the power stroke. C. Draws off air in the cylinder. D. Expels the burned gases.

For Number 6–9

6. If the output of this auxiliary diesel increases, say by 30 %, how will the thermometer readings on the outlet side of engine and turbocharger change ? A. They will remain the same B. They will slightly increase (by `1 to 3 degrees C) C. They will be a greatly increase (by 6 to 7 degrees C) D. They will slightly decrease (by 1 to 3 degrees C)

7. How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine ? A. In series with the cylinders B. In tandem with the cylinders C. In parallel with the cylinders D. In line with the cylinders

8. How is pump 'V" driven ? A. By gears attached to the crankshaft B. By a hydraulic motor C. By an electric motor D. By gravity

9. What is the component marked 'V" ? A. The piston cooling pump B. The lub oil pump C. The sea water pump D. The fresh water pump 263

DPKP

10. How is the set pressure (opening pressure) on the safety value of a diesel engine adjusted ? A. By adjusting the distance of the valve cone B. By adjusting the lift height of the spindle C. By adjusting the spring pressure D. By fitting distance washers

11. What type of diesel engine is shown here ?

A. A two stroke crosshead type engine B. A two stroke trunk type engine C. A four stroke supercharged engine D. A four stroke trunk type engine

12. What type of scavenge system is in use in this diesel engine ?

A. Combined scavenging B. Loop scavenging C. A uniflow scavenge system D. Diverted scavenging

13. What type of turbocharger would be fitted to this engine ?

A. A radial inlet type B. A constant pressure type C. An impulse type D. A dual entry type

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DPKP

14. What type of diesel engine is shown here ?

A. A four stroke trunk type engine B. A four stroke flanged type engine C. A two stroke trunk type engine D. A two stroke suspended engine

15. How do the inlet and the exhaust value pushrods and rocker arms moue on this type of engine ?

A. Pneumatically lifted via cam activated air booster B. Indirectly lifted by cam via tumbler lever C. Hydraulically lifted by cam activated servo unit D. Directly lifted by the cams acting on pushrods

16. In this diagram if left is portside and right is starboard, during the taking of crankshaft positions the rotation is counterclockwise, in what position is the engine crankshaft now shown ?

A. Between P and S B. Between TS and TP C. Between TP and P D. Between S and TS

17. Which grade of fuel oil can be used in this kind of engine (built after 1990) ?

A. Marine diesel or distillate diesel oil B. Any of these C. Blend or intermediate fuel oil D. Heavy fuel oil

265

DPKP

18. In a trunk type piston, the downward combustion pressure on the gudgeon pin is composed of two forces. What are these forces ? A. Combustion pressure and crankshaft torque B. Side thrust force and linear force with the connecting rod C. Side thrust and rotating motion D. Exhaust pressure and rotational force

19. The fundamental difference between a 2-stroke and a 4-stroke engine is in the number of: A. Strokes in each combustion cycle. B. Combustion events occurring in each stroke. C. Piston strokes each one needs to complete a revolution. D. Piston strokes each one needs to complete a combustion cycle.

20. Mat part shown in this diagram ?

A. A liner B. A piston filter C. A rod D. A piston

21. The third stroke of four-stroke diesel engine is called the ... A. Air stroke. B. Power stroke. C. Expansion stroke. D. Compression stroke. 22. A diesel engine block is made of …... And does not permit welding. A. Mild steel B. Stainless steel C. Cast iron D. Tempered steel

266

DPKP

23. The best way to ensure engine speed governor stability is to allow a given ratio of ............ A. Stability. B. Compensation. C. Speed droop. D. Sensitivity.

24. Which part of the mechanical governor is manipulated by the servo-motor to increase or decrease engine speed ? A. The dashpot B. The linkage to the fuel rack C. The sensitivity band D. He compensating spring

25. In a 4 cycle supercharged diesel engine the exhaust value is open in the cycle for a period of........ A. 280 degree. B. 200 degree. C. 230 degree. D. 220 degree.

26. What do you call the instrument that measures the concentric position of the crankshaft or rotor Shaft in its bearing ? A. A Shafting gauge B. A Bridge gauge C. A Spirit level gauge D. A Dial gauge

27. The narrow band of speed variation through which the governor makes no correction and refers to the sensitivity of the governor is known as the A. Dead band B. Speed droop C. Isochronous band D. Sensitive band 267

DPKP

28. What type of strainer is used in a turbine lubrication oil system to remove metallic particles ? A. A Fuller's earth strainer B. A Simplex strainer C. A Metal edge strainer D. A Magnetic basket strainer

29. If this auxiliary diesel increases its output, say by 30 %, what will the readings of all the Thermometers on the outlet side of engine and turbocharger show ? A. They will slightly increase (1 to 3 degrees C). B. They will slightly decrease (1 to 3 degrees C). C. They will remain the same. D. There will greatly increase (6 to 7 degrees C).

30. A lubricating oil having a high viscosity index number would normally be used in which of the following situations? A. When the machinery operates over a wide temperature range. B. When the machinery operates over a wide temperature range. C. When the machinery operates at a very high temperature. D. When the machinery operates at a high load.

31. The Base Number of a lubricating oil is an indication of which of the following? A. The alkalinity of the oil. B. The Flash Point of the oil. C. Amount of contaminants in the lubricating oil. D. The viscosity of the oil.

32. The diagram shows a the symbol for a component from a hydraulic circuit. What component does it represent? A. A directional control valve. B. A throttle valve. C. A pressure relief valve. D. A check valve.

268

DPKP

33. There are two basic types of turbocharging systems used for supplying combustion air to marine diesel engines: constant pressure and pulse. What is the main difference between these two types of system? A. A constant pressure system has a larger volume exhaust gas receiver. B. A constant pressure system has a smaller volume exhaust gas receiver. C. A constant pressure system has the exhaust pipes from small groups of cylinders brought together and led directly to a turbocharger. D. A constant pressure system has a pressure controller fitted to the exhaust gas receiver to maintain the exhaust pressure.

34. What is meant by the term "two stage air compressor" ? A. A compressor in which the compressed air from the first stage is further compressed in the second stage before being delivered to the air receiver. B. A compressor in which the air is delivered to two separate air receivers each at different pressures. C. A two cylinder compressor in which half of the air is compressed in one cylinder and half in the other. D. A set of two compressors. The first compressor delivers low pressure air to an air receiver. The second further compresses the air for delivery to the working range.

35. What is the main effect on lubricating oil of operating for long periods at excessively high temperature? A. It will cause the oil to oxidise, increasing the viscosity. B. It will cause the oil to oxidise, reducing the viscosity. C. It will cause the oil to evaporate, increasing consumption. D. It will change the flashpoint of the oil.

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36. What is the main reson for keeping engine lubricating oil viscosity within recommended limits? A. To ensure the strength of the oil film is sufficient to keep lubricated surfaces apart. B. To reduce system pressure losses. C. To neutralise any acids that may form. D. It is not important

37. What would be the typical flash point of the lubricating oil in the main lubricating system of a diesel engine? A. 200-240 deg C B. 140-180 deg C C. Below 140 deg C D. Above 240 deg C

38. When referring to onboard oil treatments using a centrifuge, what is meant by the term purification? A. Separation of two insoluble liquids with different densities, and the removal of solids in the same process. B. Separation of solid contaminants from a liquid during the process. C. Separation of one insoluble liquid from another. D. It is a general term applied to a process for cleaning oil using a centrifuge.

39. Which factor influences the pumping capacity (flow) of a centrifugal pump the most? A. Total pressure head B. Liquid temperature C. Suction pressure D. Liquid density

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40. Which of the following changes would occur when the temperature of lubricating oil is reduced? A. Viscosity would increase. B. Flash point would increase. C. Concentration of contaminants would increase. D. Pour point would reduce.

41. Which of the following fluids usually has the lowest density at normal ambient temperatures? A. Lubricating oil. B. Heavy fuel oil. C. Sea water. D. Marine diesel oil.

42. Which of the following is not a principle of heat transfer utilised in an oil fired steam boiler? A. Forced convection. B. Natural convection. C. Conduction. D. Radiation.

43. Which of the given options characterizes a 2-stroke diesel engine ? A. A 2 stroke engine completes a full cycle every revolution. B. A 2 stroke engine always has 2 or more turbochargers. C. A 2 stroke engine has an air inlet valve in the cylinder cover. D. The piston always has a short skirt.

44. Which term is used to refer to the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one kilogram of any particular substance by one degree Celsius? A. Specific heat or specific heat capacity. B. Latent heat C. Coefficient of thermal expansion. D. Adiabatic heat 271

DPKP

45. Why are zinc anodes sometimes fitted to heat exchangers in seawater cooling systems? Why are zinc anodes sometimes fitted to heat exchangers in seawater cooling systems? A. To prevent corrosion of the metals used in the system. B. To prevent scale formation in the system. C. To prevent fouling of the system. D. To prevent marine growth in the system

46. Boiler water tests on a low pressure steam boiler show the chloride content to be 50 ppm. What action should be taken if any? A. No action is necessary. B. Increase the dosage of treatment chemicals. C. Blow down the boiler and reduce the dosage of treatment chemicals. D. Shut down the boiler and drain the water out before filling with fresh feed water.

47. Feed check valves for the main and auxiliary boilers are normally of the double shut off type with one screw lift valve and one screw down non-return valve. What is the main function of the non-return valve? A. To prevent the steam and water in the boiler from discharging out through the feed line if the feed line fractures or a joint in the line blows. B. To allow overhaul of the screw lift valve when the non-return valve is shut and the boiler is steaming. C. To prevent back pressure on the boiler feed pump.. D. To allow fine tuning of feed water flow to the boiler.

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48. From the statements given in the answer options, choose the one which is most accurate in relation to the operation of water-tube boiler and fire-tube boilers. A. Water-tube boilers are more efficient and generally contain less water than fire tube boilers. They are prone to major damage when run dry during operation. B. A firetube boiler has a much better capability to work at higher steam pressure. C. A watertube boiler can tolerate a short period of time without any water when the burner is operating. D. A firetube boiler does not require a non-return valve in the feedwater line.

49. How often should boiler water tests be carried out on a steam boiler? A. Every day. B. Every week. C. Every hour. D. Every hour.

50. Tests on the water in a low pressure boiler show the chloride level is 500 ppm. What action should be taken? A. Blow down boiler and check the condenser for leakage. B. Increase dosage of treatment chemicals. C. Increase feed water temperature. D. Decrease dosage of treatment chemicals.

51. Under what load condition would sootblowing of the boiler tubes be most beneficial? A. When the boiler is firing on high rate. B. When the boiler burner is off. C. When the boiler is firing on low rate. D. When the boiler is firing on medium rate.

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52. What action is required if boiler water tests confirm a ph value of less than 9? A. Increase the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until the ph value is back within normal range. B. Blowdown the boiler and refill with good feedwater. C. No action is required. D. Reduce the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until the ph is back within normal range.

53. What action should be taken if the boiler water tests show that the ph-value in the boiler water is slightly over 11.5? A. Blowdown the boiler and decrease the dosage of boiler water treatment chemicals. B. No action is required this is the normal level. C. Blowdown the boiler and Increase the dosage of boiler water treatment chemicals. D. Raise the boiler water level above normal to dilute the contents.

54. What is an effective means of measuring the total dissolved solids in boiler water? A. Conductivity test. B. Alkalinity test. C. Chloride test. D. Ph test

55. What is the correct range for the ph-value for the water in an oil fired steam boiler? A. 9 - 11. B. 4.5 - 7. C. Below 4.5 D. 7 – 9

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56. What is the main problem associated with oil in a steam boiler water system? A. It forms an insulating film on heat transfer surfaces with the risk of overheating. B. It causes corrosion of steel in the boiler. C. It increases scale deposits in the boiler. D. It causes the gauge glasses to become dirty preventing the operator from seeing the water level.

57. What is the main purpose of having a deaerator in a boiler feed water system? A. To remove oxygen and other dissolved gases from the feed water. B. To provide a dosage point for feed water treatment. C. To reduce the total dissolved solids in the feed water. D. To act as the primary feed heater.

58. What is the main purpose of the superheater vent valve on a high pressure steam boiler? A. To ensure a flow of steam through the superheater when raising steam pressure or when the boiler is not on-line. B. To remove air from the superheater. C. To remove water from the superheater. D. To control the superheater pressure during operation.

59. What is the potential effect on a steam boiler of having calcium based compounds present in boiler water and proper water treatment is not carried out? A. It will cause corrosion and scale deposits in the boiler. B. It will form passive layers on the metal surfaces in the boiler. C. It will reduce the TDS in the boiler. D. No negative effects are likely.

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60. What is the purpose of a scum valve often fitted to a steam boiler? A. To allow removal of any oil or impurities which collect on the surface of the water in the boiler steam drum. B. To allow removal impurities from the boiler feed-water C. To allow removal of sludge and mud which may collect in the bottom of the boiler water drum. D. To allow removal of oil from the surface of the feed water tank.

61. What is the purpose of an economiser as often fitted in a steam boiler plant? A. To heat the feed-water B. To desuperheat the steam C. To heat the fuel oil D. To heat the combustion air.

62. What is the purpose of refractory linings in an oil fired steam boiler furnace? A. To prevent excessive furnace heat losses and protect tubes and other fittings from overheating. B. To give added strength to the furnace. C. To support the steam drum. D. To ignite the burner during automatic operation.

63. What is the purpose of the flame scanner or 'magic eye' fitted to the burner unit of oil or gas fired steam boilers? A. To check that the flame is present during start up or normal operation of the burner; if not then fuel is shut off automatically. B. To check the colour of the flame. C. To control the combustion air supply to the boiler. D. To check the colour of the exhaust gas from the furnace.

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64. What temperature should a water sample be at before carrying out boiler water tests? A. At room temperature. B. As hot as possible. C. It makes no difference. D. At less than room temperature.

65. What would be the effect of a faulty steam trap on a fuel oil heater causing condensate to build up in the heat exchanger? A. Reduced heating capacity of the heater. B. An increase in fuel oil temperature. C. Excess pressure on the shell of the heat exchanger. D. Low water level in the boiler.

66. Where should a sample for boiler water test purposes be taken from? A. From the boiler water space. B. From the boiler steam space. C. From the boiler feed system. D. From the blowdown line.

67. After successful synchronising an incoming machine the kw and kvar loading are respectively transferred by the following controls: A. Speed governor and voltage regulator B. Current regulator and voltage regulator C. Voltage regulator and synchroscope D. Speed governor and load power factor

68. Alteration of the excitation voltage (or field current) of one alternator operating in parallel, will cause which change in that alternators output: A. Reactive load (kvar) B. Active load (kw) C. Frequency D. None of the mentioned alternatives 277

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69. Before taking insulation resistance readings of generator windings the automatic voltage regulators should be isolated and all semiconductor short circuited or disconnected in order to: A. Prevent damage to sensitive electronic components from high voltage tester B. Protect insulation resistance tester and leads from being damaged C. Prevent charging of capacitive components within the automatic voltage regulator causing false regulation when generator restarts D. Prevent operation of automatic voltage regulator during insulation testing

70. Consider a 450 volt, 859 kw rated generator has not been in operation for several weeks. Prior to starting, insulation resistance readings are taken. The minimum acceptable insulation resistance reading on the main stator winding to allow you to proceed with running the generator is: a. 1 000 000 Ohms b. 10 Ohms c. 1000 Ohms d. 10 000 Ohms

71. Generators work on the principle of electromagnetic induction. The internal e.m.f. Generated in the phase windings of an a.c. Generator is controlled by: A. The diesel speed and excitation current. B. The internal volt drop and the load current. C. The diesel speed, magnetising force and load current. D. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.

72. Regular (at least weekly) testing of the emergency generator must be performed to check: A. Its readiness to perform as specified. B. Its environmental noise factor during emergency fire-drills. C. Its voltage/current and prime mover characteristics. D. Its compliance with the shipbuilder's recommendations.

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73. Ship's generators must be synchronised before they can be connected to the same supply network. Prior to synchronising, the generator voltage and frequency are respectively adjusted by: A. AVR and speed governor B. Voltmeter and frequency meter C. Speed governor and load power factor controller D. Synchroscope and speed governor

74. The internal e.m.f. Generated in the phase windings of a lightly loaded a.c. Generator is controlled by: A. The prime mover speed and excitation current. B. The internal volt drop and the load current. C. The prime mover and load current. D. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.

75. The two instruments necessary for generator synchronising are: A. Voltmeter and synchroscope B. Kw meter and frequency meter C. Amp-meter and volt-meter D. Synchroscope and kvar-meter

76. Which group of electrical services are likely to be supplied from an emergencygenerator? A. Steering gear and engine room alarm system B. Engine room lighting and bow thruster C. Galley and air conditioning D. Sound powered telephone system

77. With two alternators running in parallel, and one is to be disconnected. The first step is to: A. Remove the load from the alternator to be stopped B. Make sure the load is evenly shared C. Trip the main circuit breaker 279

DPKP

D. Increase the frequency on the switchboard 78. What is the meaning of “H.S. PUMPS” ?

A. Hele-Shaw pumps B. Higgins-Simpson pumps C. Hydraulic solenoid pumps D. Hydrostatic solenoid pumps 79. What is the function of the values “PR” fitted between the two after and the two forward cylinders ?

A. To act as automatic by-pass valves when the steering gear is stopped B. To be opened to allow emergency steering. C. To act as safety valves to absorb shock and avoid damage D. To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump

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80. When will the Hele-Shaw pump commence pumping action ?

A. As soon as the electric motor is started B. As soon as point “Z” moves C. As soon as the telemotor pump is started D. As soon as the pilot system is started on the bridge

81. What is part No 3 ? A. The rudder B. The poop C. The transom D. The stern

82. What is the shaft called to which the propeller is fastened ?

A. The main engine shaft B. The intermediate shaft C. The tail shaft D. The stern shaft

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83. How is the propeller fitted on the drive shaft, so as to avoid it from slipping ? A. It is locked into slots on the drive shaft B. It is bolted on the flange of the drive shaft C. A key is fitted between propeller and drive shaft D. Wires are fitted through the securing holes of shaft and propeller

84. What part is fitted under the propeller cone ? (Left triangular part of the propeller in the drawing)

A. The propeller nut B. The propeller seal C. The propeller locking bar D. The oil filling pipe

85. Of what kind commonly named metal is the stern tube lining composed of ?

A. Tin B. Aluminium brass C. Lead D. White metal

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86. How is the stern tube bearing lubricated ?

A. By the main stern supply pump B. It turns in an oil bath C. By grease D. By graphite

87. What is the shape of stern tube seals (forward and aft) ? A. They are square in form and diagonally cut B. They are round in form and in one piece (0-ring type) C. They are lip seals and in one piece D. They are flat gaskets between flanges

88. Which are the stern tube bearing parts on this type of stern tube? A. The cylindrical steel tube aft B. The forward and the aft bearing bushes (liners) C. The cylindrical steel tube with white metal lining and oil bath D. The forward and aft plummer blocks

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89. When a command is given to this steering gear, what happens ?

A. The spring "S" will be compressed or elongated B. The “HS” pumps will start pumping C. Point "X" will turn around point "Y", moving "Z" and the control rod D. The valves 'PR" will activate, building up hydraulic pressure

90. What is the purpose of spring "S" fitted between point "Y" and the Trunion block of the steering gear ? A. To avoid sudden movements and overload B. To elongate and compress and keep point "Y" in place C. To absorb the clearance of the Trunion with the rod "X-Y" D. Ensuring flexibility by absorbing vibrations and clearances

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91. What is to be checked during a drydocking period to ensure that any upward movement of the rudder will be contained and damage to the steering gear will be avoided ?

A. The pallister bearing clearance B. The upper and lower pintle jumping bar clearances C. The rudder plugs D. The rudder stock carrier bearing clearance

92. Which action of the steering gear pumps is feasible ?

A. Pressure to cylinders A and D, return oil from B and C B. Pressure to cylinders A and B, return oil from C and D C. Pressure to cylinders A and C, return oil from B and D D. Pressure to cylinder A, return oil from D

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93. During normal operations, the command rod ''C" pushes point “Z” and the control rod off centre so that the "HS" pumps start pumping and the settering gear moves. When will it stop moving ?

A. When the command rod "C" stops moving B. When the command rod ''C" moves in opposite direction C. When the rudder angle indicator corresponds to the command D. When the trunion point "Y" pushes point “Z” back in the centre

94. This electric circuit is part of the Steering Gear Control System, in which the output is either 1 or 0 as either solenoid 1or 2 is energized. It is an example of what kind of circuit ?

A. Two (2) double resistor circuits balanced by the solenoids B. Two (2) Potentiometers with amplifier relays C. A booster aggregate D. A Wheatstone Bridge

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95. The first potentiometer of this electric command system is located on the bridge. By what mode of steering will it be given a command ?

A. By automatic steering via the gyro B. By hand steering C. By any of these steering methods D. By push button steering

96. What will the output be to the solenoids of the steering gear depending potentiometers stands if : BRIDGE IIGHER THAN RUDDER = A stand, RUDDER HIGHER THAN BRIDGE = B stand, RUDDER EQUAL TO BRIDGE = O stand ?

A. O-stand = output 0, A-stand =S1 is 1, B-stand = S2 is 1 B. O-stand = output 1, A-stand =S1 is 1, B-stand = S2 is 1 C. O-stand = S1+S2, A stand = S1, B stand = S2 D. O-stand = output 1, A-stand =S1 is 0, B-stand = S2 is 0

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97. This steering gear telemotor system is drawn in the neutral position, rudder amidship. This means that ………….? A. Neither solenoid “S1" or "S2"is energised B. The double check valves are blocked C. The capacity control is at zero D. Pump “P” is not pumping

98. What is the purpose of the double check valves fitted in this telemotor system ?

A. To maintain the set pressure in the system B. To keep the rudder locked in the desired position C. To avoid pipe rupture due to sudden movements D. To avoid oil blockage and stickiness

99. What is the purpose of the capacity control on the telemotor of a steering gear ?

A. To keep the oil delivery quantity to the telemotor ram constant B. To keep the electric capacity between parameters (absorption) C. To keep the outlet pressure and capacity to react constant D. To keep the oil delivery quantity of the pump constant

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100. Under what circumstances is this steering control system energised / operational?

A. By any of the above B. By hand steering C. By automatic gyro steering D. By push-button steering

101. Mat is the purpose of the 3-way cock part No 7 in the stern tube oil circuit ?

A. To drain the oil from the stern tube and sample B. To remove air from the system C. To fill oil in the system D. To change over from main to forward stern tube sealing circuit

102. Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above the sea water level ?

A. To ensure lubrication of the after stern tube seal B. To avoid sea water entering the stern tube C. To ensure lubrication of the forward stern tube seal D. To avoid oil being spilled overboard

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103. What would loss of vacuum indicate on a bilge pump? A. Bilge empty B. Discharge value closed. C. Pump impeller choked. D. Suction strainer blocked.

104. What is the usual method of reducing delivery pressure on a gear pump? A. Bylining an orifice in the discharge line B. By throttling the suction value C. By adjusting the internal spring loaded pressure relief value D. By throttling the discharge value

105. Flow is air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented? A. Special packing in the stuffing box. B. An air seal line from the compressed airline. C. The air pump fitted to the pump D. A water seal line to the packing gland

106. From the following pump capacities, which would be most suitable for the domestic fresh water System? A. 20 m3/hour x 25 metres B. 0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres C. 40 m3/hour x 55 metres D. 5 m3/hour x 50 metres

107. Where what be the most likely service for a multi stage centrifugal pump? A. Fuel oil transfer B. Boiler feed pump C. Hydraulic winch power pack D. Bilge and ballast 290

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108. At would you rate the capacity of this type of pump? A. 10 to 15 m3/hour B. 50 to 250 m3/hour C. 5 to 7.5 m3/hour D. 15 to 25 m3/hour

109. For which service would a gear pump be most suitable? A. Engine cooling water circulating. B. Engine lub oil pressure supply. C. Bilge pumping D. Boiler feed water supply.

110. Reciprocating pumps are most suited to pumping which medium? A. Liquids mixed with solids. B. Pumping liquids against a high head pressure. C. Liquids having high air content. D. Transferring liquids at very high flow rates.

111. Worm and worm wheel distinguish between what pump components? A. The rounded and the bellow gear. B. The tangential gear and the straight shaft gear. C. The driving and driven shaft gears D. The long shaft gear and the stub shaft gear.

112. What service are centrifugal pumps most suitable for? A. Where liquids are not excessively viscous. B. Where the liquid has a high temperature. C. Where liquids are extremely viscous. D. Where there is a high air content.

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113. When assembling an 'Endless Screw"type pump what results from insufficient axial or radial Clearance? A. The shaft seal will loosen due to vibrations. B. The pump will not pump. C. Wear down and shaft deformation will be caused due friction stress. D. The pump will not deliver correct pressure.

114. When starting a centrifugal pump what condition would be adopted to reduce the initial load? A. Suction and discharge valves closed. B. The discharge value closed. C. The suction value closed. D. The suction value throttled.

115. What would be the main reason for a centrifugal pump's performance deteriorating over time? A. Cavitation of the impeller. B. Wear of the pump housing. C. Near of the gland neck bush. D. Excessive wear between impeller and wear ring.

116. Would you do on first starting a gear if pumping cold oil? A. Ease off the spring loaded pressure relief valve. B. Throttle the suction value C. Start/stop the pump frequently D. Start the pump with values closed and gradually open.

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117. What is the most obvious reason for drop in electrical load on a ballast pump? A. Malfunction of the electrical motor B. Tank being transferred into is full. C. Pump no longer pumping liquid. D. Malfunction of the pump.

118. What is the most commonly used packing for value glands? A. Mechanical shaft seal. B. Preformed lip seals C. Carbon sealing rings. D. Soft gland packing.

119. Why does the fluid pass through the value from beneath the value lid? A. The valve is easier to open. B. There is less scouring of the value seat at partial openings. C. There is less restriction to flow in this direction. D. With the value closed the delivery pressure is isolated from the gland.

120. What jointing material is used on engine exhausts or superheated steam lines? A. Solid copper joints. B. Wire reinforced asbestos joints. C. Preformed neoprene joints D. General purpose asbestos joints.

121. How is expansion allowed for in large diesel engine exhausts? A. Sliding securing mounts. B. Selection of materials and construction to minimize expansion. C. Fitting of steel bellows pieces. D. Sliding section of piping.

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122. Where would you find a duplex fitter unit? A. In starting air piping B. In fuel oil piping C. In bilge piping D. In sea water piping 123. Where would you find a thermostatic control valve? A. Hydraulic ring main supply system. B. Fuel oil system. C. Engine jacket water cooling system. D. Engine lub oil system.

124. How does a 'quick closing' value operate? A. The value can only be opened and closed hydraulically. B. An independent mechanism closes the value. C. The value bridge is collapsed remotely allowing the value o close. D. A retaining collar is released allowing the value to close.

125. Where would you always find Screw Down Non-Return valves fitted? A. Bilge suction valves B. Fuel tank valves C. Ballast tank valves D. Fire main isolating valves

126. What is the first check if difficulty is encountered with pumping bilges and high suction? A. Check suction strainers and valves. B. Open sea suction value to prime pump C. Clean the oiliwater separator. D. Inspect pump internals for wear

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127. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells? A. They would restrict the pumping of bilge wells. B. Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging C. Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room. D. Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded

128. How are cargo hold bilge wells covered to prevent solids from entering them? A. By perforated plating B. There is no covering C. By steel grid plates bolted in place D. By very fine mesh grids

129. What type of valve is fitted to cargo bilge lines at the Engine Room bulkhead? A. Non-return screw down valves B. Screw lift valves C. Butterfly valves D. Gate valves

130. What is the purpose of a cofferdam? A. To provide a barrier space between tanks containing different liquids. B. As a watertight barrier. C. As an emergency storage space for bilge water. D. As a collection space for leaking pipe work

131. If the value wheel of an extended spindle value is free, but the value seems to be not moving, what would you check first? A. Whether the value is dirty. B. If there is excess pressure on the value. C. Check that the value is not broken. D. Check to see if the value spindle is being turned. 295

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132. According to regulations, on board ships it is necessaryto have PUMP REDUNDANCY. What does this mean? A. A stand-by pump must be available for each pump separately B. All pumps in the engine room are duplicated C. Two identical pumps must be fitted for each circuit. D. All essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility 133. What generator cooling is sometimes used in dry-docking? A. Ship's sanitary system. B. Ballast pumps. C. Circulating fore or aft peak tanks. D. Circulating fresh water tanks.

134. In a centrifugal general service pump how are suction and discharge sections separated? A. Neoprene lip seals B. Machineable sealing rings. C. Labyrinth seals. D. Mechanical garter spring seals.

135. If a serious cavitation problem is experienced effecting the pump casing and impeller badly, the Shape and design of which pump part could be altered and why? A. The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence. B. The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity. C. The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller. D. The shape of the outlet pipe to dampen turbulence

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136. Why is an isolating value fitted on the fire main from the engine room? A. To maintain pressure on the fire main with the pump not running B. To isolate the pump for repairs. C. In case there is a fire restricted to the engine room D. To isolate the engine room and enable the emergency fire pump to supply the deck.

137. What could cause overheating after pump overhaul, it is verified that assembly is correct? A. Insufficient liquid supply to the pump B. Obstruction on the discharge side C. The pump is not bled off properly D. Misalignment of the shaft

138. What maximum oil content must oiliwater separators generally discharge? A. 600ppm B. 1000ppm C. 100ppm D. 50ppm

139. What maximum oil content may be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'? A. 0ppm B. 25ppm C. 50ppm D. L5ppm

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140. Under what circumstance may untreated bilges be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'? A. Only in a case of emergency. B. If the bilges are only to be lowered and not pumped right out. C. When proceeding Full Ahead. D. During the hours of darkness.

141. What happens if the separator oil content exceeds the equipment allowable level? A. A visible alarm. B. The discharge is dumped to the bilge C. An audible alarm. D. The pump is stopped and an alarm sounds.

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12. Plan And Ensure Safe Loading, Stowage, Securing, Care During Voyage And Unloading Of Cargoes. 1. A bulk cargo is loaded and the cargo stow has been left with an excessive peak height; what could be the result of this situation? A. Excessive stresses on tank top B. Damage to hatch covers C. Excessive

stresses

on

transverse

bulkheads D. Excessive cargo sweat

2.

A bulk cargo vessel is found to be 4.0 centimetres over her maximum loadline draft after loading; what should be the actions of the master? A. Order the pumping out of fresh water or ballast until the maximum allowed loadline is achieved. B. Record a lower draught and sail C. Inform the port authorities and sail D. There is not a problem as over loading is permitted

3.

A bulk carrier is to carry a full deck cargo of packaged timber; to what regulations must the vessel comply? A. IMO Code of Practice for the carriage of Timber Deck cargoes B. International Code for the carriage of Dangerous Goods C. Grain Regulations D. Marine Pollution Regulations

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4.

During a pre-loading survey prior to loading grain on a Bulk Carrier, very small amount of the previous grain cargo is

found in a cargo hold; what is the

significance of this situation? A. The vessel may fail the pre-load survey and be declared off-hire B. The affected cargo hold should be left empty C. The cargo hold can be cleaned while other holds are loaded D. The remaining cargo from the previous voyage can be ignored

5.

How should mild steel slabs be loaded in a bulk carrier? A. Interlocked across the entire cargo hold with the longitudinal axes athwartships B. Interlocked up to the hopper tank plating with the longitudinal axes athwartships C. Interlocked across the entire cargo hold with the longitudinal axes fore and aft D. Interlocked up to the hopper tank plating with the longitudinal axes fore and aft

6.

What are the advantages of ballasting double bottom ballast tanks by gravity filling on a Bulk Carrier? A. There is minimum pressure head on the tank top and pumps are not required B. Ballasting is done more quickly C. Free surface effect is eliminated D. Ballasting can be done without any supervision

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7.

What could happen if a bulk vessel failed to display placards notifying the crew of the disposal of garbage within and outside Special Areas? A. The vessel could be detained by port state control authorities B. The vessel could be detained by its flag Administration C. The

classification

society

concerned could suspend the vessel's

International

Pollution

Prevention

Oil (IOPP)

Certificate D. The ship owner could be penalized by the P. & I. Club concerned

8.

What governs the disposal of dry bulk cargo residues at sea? A. MARPOL regulations B. SOLAS 74/88 regulations C. Convention on the Prevention of Marine Pollution by Dumping of Wastes and Other Matter D. The Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk Cargoes

9.

What is essential to ensure that efficient stripping of ballast tanks on a Bulk Carrier can be achieved? A. A good stern trim is maintained during de- ballasting operations B. A trim by the bow is required C. The vessel must be maintained at an even keel D. The trim of the vessel is not important

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10. What is the possible concern if fuel tanks on a Bulk Carrier, which are close to cargo spaces containing grain, are excessively heated? A. The grain cargo may be heated and damaged B. The cargo may liquefy C. The grain cargo may produce methane gas D. No damage should occur

11. What is the purpose of a draught survey before and after loading on a Bulk Carrier? A. To ascertain the actual weight of cargo loaded B. The calculate the stability of the vessel C. To calculate the deadweight of the vessel D. To calculate light displacement of the vessel

12. What measures should be taken in order to avoid flammable gases forming on top of coal cargoes on a Bulk Carrier? A. Ventilation to be carried out as indicated in the IMO solid Bulk Cargo Code B. Ventilation to be continuous? C. Cargo not to be ventilated? D. Cargo to be ventilated by opening hatch covers at sea?

13. What must be ensured, prior to receiving a bulk cargo of iron ore on a Bulk Carrier? A. Cargo hold bilge suctions must be satisfactorily tested B. Cargo hold paintwork must be intact C. Cargo hold ventilation systems must be satisfactorily tested D. Cargo hold tank tops must be pressure-tested

14. What publication must be carried on a vessel carrying dry bulk cargoes? A. IMO Solid Bulk cargo Code or IMO Solid Bulk? B. International Tankers and Terminal Code? C. Classification Society Grain Rules? D. Charters' Solid Bulk Cargoes Code? 302

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15. When considering how to deal with cargo residues during hatch cleaning at sea on a Bulk Carrier, what is the most careful consideration? A. Consult MARPOL handbook and the vessels Safety Management System (SMS) for guidance B. There are no restrictions on discharge of cargo residues to sea C. Follow actions of previous crews D. Check procedures and Arrangements manual

16. Which of these covers the rules and regulations for General Average on a Bulk Carrier? A. The York Antwerp rules B. The Hague rules C. The Hague Visby rules D. The Hamburg rules

17. Which special regulations cover transportation of grain on a Bulk Carrier? A. IMO Grain Rules? B. Classification Society Rules? C. Statutory Regulations? D. Port State Regulations?

18. Which special regulations cover transportation of solid Bulk cargoes? A. IMO Bulk Cargoes Code (BC) and the IMO International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargo Code( IMSBC) B. The cargo securing manual C. The timber deck cargo code published by IMO D. Classification Society Rules

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19. Why do structural steel products often shift or collapse in a bulk carrier's cargo holds? A. Because the irregular shape of the cargo holds results in void spaces B. Because of inadequate dunnage placed over the tank top C. Because of using inadequately sized lasing wires D. Because of dunnage, provided at every tier of the cargo, not having been aligned

20. Why is air draught an important consideration when loading bulk cargoes on Bulk Carriers? A. Because of movement of the bulk cargo loader or unloaders B. Because of variations in under keel clearances whilst alongside the berth C. Because of the vessel's movement whilst berthing or unberthing D. Because the vessel may pass under a bridge(s) whilst approaching or leaving the berth

21. A container vessel has lost several dangerous goods containers overboard. The master must report this loss of container incident to: A. The nearest Coastal state. B. The Flag state. C. The ship owner. D. Vessels in the immediate vicinity.

22. A heavy piece of machinery is loaded on deck of a container vessel, stowed across several flat rack containers. The most appropriate method for lashing such cargo would be by: A. Taking all lashings to the flat-rack lashing points. B. Taking all lashings to the hatch top. C. Taking all lashings to the hatch coamings, pillars and lashing bridges. D. Taking some of the lashings to flat-racks and rest to hatch tops.

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23. Besides normal loads, the lashings of the containers stowed at the outboard part of the deck stow are additionally subjected to: A. The effect of wind on the containers. B. Transverse accelerating load condition, leading to loss of GM. C. The effect of green seas breaking over the containers. D. Lack of support from adjacent columns of containers.

24. Best location to stow containers loaded with Calcium Hypochlorite would be: A. On deck, away from sources of heat. B. Away from reefer units, below deck. C. Under deck, away from sources of heat. D. Abaft the accommodation.

25. Bulk liquid cargoes carried in flexi-tank containers are considered dangerous: A. When the associated material safety data sheet shows a constituent(s) listed in the IMDG Code. B. When declared as a non-hazardous chemical. C. When declared as bulk liquid foodstuff. D. When the shipper instructs that the container be carried on-deck only.

26. During a loaded winter passage across the North Atlantic, the master of a container vessel would be most concerned with: A. The added weight of icing on container stacks, leading to loss of GM. B. The presence of icebergs leading to hazard of navigation. C. Temperature

differential

between

air

and

seawater, leading to shell plating damage. D. High wind and waves leading to speed reduction and high fuel consumption.

305

DPKP

27. During a loaded winter passage across the North Atlantic, the master of a container vessel would be most concerned with: A. Metacentric height of the vessel. B. Current wave conditions. C. Transverse distribution of container stack weights. D. Hull form of the vessel.

28. For guidance on lashing arrangement of containers on-board the vessel, the most important document to refer is: A. The Cargo Securing Manual. B. The Code for the Safe Practice for Cargo Stowage and Securing. C. The company's ISM handbook. D. The Stability Manual.

29. On multi-purpose vessels, responsibility for the stowage and securing of containers is: A. Determined by the clauses of the charter-party. B. Provided as per advice from the Supercargo. C. Always upon the attending cargo surveyor. D. Always upon the charterer of the vessel.

30. The Code of Safe Practice for Cargo Stowage and Securing was prepared to give guidance for: A. Preparation and content of the Cargo Securing Manual. B. Securing of deck cargoes. C. Securing of cargoes in hazardous ocean areas. D. Port State Control Officers when carrying out ship inspections.

306

DPKP

31. The dangers associated with carriage of empty tank containers is that: A. They may contain flammable cargo residue. B. They may not be declared as being empty. C. They could explode if their vents are closed. D. They are prone to collapse.

32. The direction of wave encounter that is most likely to cause a parametric roll condition on large container ships is: A. Head seas. B. Beam seas. C. Just forward of the beam seas. D. Following or quartering seas.

33. The most appropriate measure to reduce the build-up of ice on containers during a sea passage is to: A. Reduce speed, whilst maintaining course. B. Increase speed, whilst maintaining course. C. Have the crew remove the ice. D. Heave to and wait for ambient temperature to rise to safe levels.

34. The most appropriate method for adjusting the trim on a container vessel would be: A. By internal shift of ballast. B. By internal shift of cargo containers. C. By internal shift of fuel oil. D. By jettisoning of containers.

307

DPKP

35. What is the master's position if he is asked to load a container that is incorrectly manifested, but which is believed to contain dangerous goods, about which insufficient information is supplied? A. He has the authority to refuse it. B. He must load it, but immediately advise his operations

department

and

request

full

information. C. If it it approved by the operations department, he can assume all safety checks have been carried out and should load it. D. He must load it, but ensure it is placed in a safe loaction, to which there is immediate access in the event of an emergency.

36. When taking action to deal with under-deck cargo spillage on container ships, reference must be made to: A. The ems Guide. B. The ISPS Code. C. SOLAS Chapter V – Safety of navigtaion. D. The ship's Contingency plan.

37. With regards to carriage of Calcium Hypochlorite in containers, as per IMDG Code it is not allowed to: A. Pack and ship the cargo in bags. B. Ship in open top half containers on deck. C. Ship in Intermediate Bulk Containers (ibcs). D. Carry the cargo transport units under deck.

308

DPKP

38. A chemical tanker may be granted, by the Government of the receiving Party, an exemption from carrying out a mandatory prewash provided that the: A. Unloaded tank is to be reloaded with the same substance or another substance compatible with the previous one and that the tank will not be washed or ballasted prior to loading. B. Unloaded tank will be washed outside a special area. C. Vessel temporarily has defective tank cleaning equipment and the prewash will be carried out at the first available opportunity after repairs have been completed and the tank will not be loaded or ballasted before that time. D. Vessel's stripping system can reduce the residues to less than 10 litres in the relevant tank and its associated piping.

39. A tank which contained a category "X" product must undergo a prewash before leaving port in compliance with MARPOL.

The resulting residues shall be

discharged to a reception facility until the concentration of the substance in the effluent, as indicated by analysis of samples of the effluent taken by the authorized surveyor has reached a level of: A. 0.1% by weight. B. 0.1% by volume. C. 0.2% by weight. D. 0.3% by volume.

40. As per MARPOL, for control of discharge of Noxious Liquid Substances, the area(s) designated as “Special Areas” are: A. The Antarctic. B. The Mediterranean Sea, Baltic Sea, Black Sea, Red Sea, "Gulfs" Area, Gulf of Aden, Oman Area of the Arabian Sea, Southern South African Waters, Antarctic and North-West European Waters. C. The Baltic Sea, the Black Sea and Antarctic. D. The Wider Caribbean Region including the Gulf of Mexico and the Caribbean Sea, Southern South African Waters and North-West European Waters.

309

DPKP

41. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank on a chemical tanker which has been washed to such an extent that the ballast contains less than 1 ppm of the substance previously carried may be discharged into the sea without regard to the discharge rate, ship's speed and discharge outlet location, but under certain conditions, which require: A. That the vessel is not less than 12 miles from the nearest land and is in water that is not less than 25 metres deep. B. That the vessel is not less than 50 miles from the nearest land and is proceeding on route. C. That the discharge is passed through the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment and a visual watch is maintained on the vessel's wake. D. Provided the ship is underway and a sample of the ballast water has been drawn from the tank and is stored on board, there are no additional conditions to be imposed on such a discharge.

42. Cargo residues of certain chemical substances are permitted to be removed by ventilation. This may be carried out provided that: A. The cargo discharged has a vapour pressure greater than 5 kpa at 20 degrees Celsius. B. The cargo discharged has a vapour expansion coefficient of at least 1.025. C. The vessel's ventilation system is capable of delivering a minimum of 20 changes of atmosphere per hour within the compartment. D. The volume of the tank does not exceed 1750 cubic metres, the maximum remaining residues are less than 75 litres and ventilation is additionally possible directly down the pumpstack.

310

DPKP

43. Definitive information on whether a particular cargo is classified as a “Noxious Liquid Substance” (other than products provisionally assessed) can be obtained from: A. The pollution category column of chapters 17 or 18 of the International Bulk Chemical Code (IBC Code). B. The pollution category of chapter 17 (only) of the International Bulk Chemical Code (IBC Code). C. The product groups within the list of cargoes contained in the Chemical Data Guide for Bulk Shipment by Water. D. The Procedures and Arrangements Manual.

44. If a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is to be cleaned by recirculation with a low flash or static accumulator product: A. The tank must be inerted to less than 8% oxygen content. B. The product must be allowed settling time within the tank before recirculation is commenced. C. All lids and other penetrations must be securely closed before recirculation is commenced. D. The tank must already have been cleaned to Water White Standard to ensure no hazardous reaction with cargo residues. 45. In respect of a chemical tanker, carrying category “X”, “Y” & “Z” Noxious Liquid Substances, the term “Clean Ballast” as defined in the IBC Code means: A. Ballast water carried in a tank which, since it was last used to carry a cargo containing a substance in category "X","Y" or "Z", has been thoroughly cleaned and the residues resulting there from have been discharged and the tank emptied in accordance with the appropriate requirements of Annex II. B. Ballast water introduced into a tank permanently allocated to the carriage of ballast or cargoes other than oil or Noxious Liquid Substances as variously defined in the Annexes of the MARPOL Convention and which is completely separate from the cargo and oil fuel systems. C. Ballast water carried in a tank which has been previously washed in accordance with the requirements of the Procedures and Arrangements Manual. 311

DPKP

D. Ballast water that is free of all cargo residues and slops.

46. In the event of an accidental or other exceptional discharge into the sea of a Noxious Liquid Substance or mixture containing such a substance, an entry shall be made in the Cargo record Book, which shall include: A. Time of occurrence Approximate quantity, substance(s) and Category(ies) Circumstances of discharge or escape and general remarks. B. Date of occurrence Position (latitude and longitude) Estimated quantity and category(ies) Extract from Master's Log Book detailing the incident. C. Position at start and stop of accidental discharge Time at start and stop of accidental discharge Reason for accidental discharge D. Name of Person in Charge of operation at time of accidental discharge. Date and Time of occurrence Name of Responsible Person, and Master of the vessel Statement of Responsible Person, and Master of the vessel Approximate quantity and category of product discharged Identity of nearest sovereign State and Authority of that State contacted with applicable report reference.

47. The ‘dew point’ of a liquid chemical can be defined as: A. The temperature at which a gas is saturated with respect to a condensable component, as in operational terms is seen at the point when air is saturated with moisture. B. The temperature at which a condensable component is saturated with respect to a gas, as in operational terms is seen at the point when moisture no longer detectable in air. C. The temperature at which dry-ice melts in Acetone. D. The temperature at which a saturated gas exhibits condensation.

312

DPKP

48. The carriage of a new Noxious Liquid Substance not yet listed in the IBC Code may be considered possible, provided it is achieved through a ‘tri-partite” agreement between: A. The Port State of the Shipper / the Flag State of the Carrier / the Port State of the Receiver. B. The Shipper / the Receiver / the Operator or Charterer. C. The IMO / the Port State of the Shipper / the Port State of the Receiver. D. The Flag State of the Shipper / the Flag State of the Charterer / the Flag State of the Receiver.

49. The chemical term for a substance used as an additive to start a chemical reaction and speed up the cleaning of a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is: A. Catalyst. B. Reactant. C. Accelerant. D. Reagent.

50. The document which confirms whether a chemical tanker is authorised to carry a particular Noxious Liquid Substance, is called: A. The (International) Certificate of Fitness. B. The IBC Code. C. MARPOL. D. The International Pollution Prevention Certificate for the Carriage of Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk. 51. The tank cleaning requirements for a Category “X” substance on a chemical tanker constructed after 01 January 2007, require the vessel to carry out: A. Prewash / strip to 75 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water / minimum 7 knots, proceeding en route / discharge below waterline. B. Prewash / strip to 100 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water / minimum 7 knots, proceeding en route / discharge below waterline. C. Prewash for solidifying or high viscosity substances / strip to 75 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water / minimum 7 knots, proceeding en route / discharge below waterline. 313

DPKP

D. Strip to 75 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water / minimum 7 knots, proceeding en route / discharge below waterline.

52. Vegetable Oils as per MARPOL are classified under: A. Category "Y". B. Category "Z". C. Category "OS" - other substances. D. Category "A".

53. What is the name given to the risk assessment programme developed by OCIMF, under which tankers are inspected and the results made available to potential charterers through a database of records? A. The Ship Inspection Report Programme (SIRE). B. The Chemical Distribution Institute (CDI) Inpsectionprogramme. C. The Enhanced Survey Programme. D. The Tanker Inspection and Reporting System (TIRS).

54. When cleaning a cargo tank after carriage and discharge of Sulphuric Acid, it is important to ensure that: A. Once cleaning commences, large quantities of washing water can be delivered as quickly as possible, so that the acid is quickly diluted. B. Once cleaning commences, washing water must be introduced in a controlled manner, allowing time for the acid and water to mix slowly and thoroughly before the rest of the tank surfaces are flushed. C. A mixture of hot fresh water and Sodium Hydroxide solution (50/50) is prepared beforehand and then circulated around the tank, rapidly neutralising any remaining acid. D. Any acid remaining in the sump should first be ejected and the tank ventilated for a minimum of 30 minutes before the introduction of any water, ensuring that there are insufficient acid residues to create any dangerous reaction.

314

DPKP

55. When small amounts of cleaning additives (detergent products) are added to water in order to facilitate the washing of tanks which previously contained liquid chemicals, must be ensured that: A. No additives containing Pollution Category "X" components shall be used, except those components that are readily biodegradable and present in a total concentration of less than 10% of the cleaning additive.

No

restrictions additional to those applicable to the tank due to the previous cargo shall apply. B. The discharge shall be governed by the provisions of Annex I or II, which would apply to the additive had it been carried as cargo. Tank washing procedures involving the use of such additives shall be set out in the Procedures and Arrangements Manual and approved by the vessel's Flag State Administration. C. No conditions apply provided not more than 200 litres per 1000 cubic metres of tank volume is used in any one washing operation. D. If the additive contains Pollution category "X" products and more than 200 litres is used in the washing operation for a single cargo tank, then a prewash to shore must be carried out

56. You are to load a number of chemical cargoes in Rotterdam in December, for eventual discharge in Australia, after the ship has called at Singapore and Malaysia. None of the cargoes on board at any stage of the voyage require heating. None of the tanks to be discharged in Singapore and Malysia will require hot washing after discharge. When determining the filling limits of the tanks containing the Australian cargoes, you will need to consider that: A. The maximum anticipated temperature that the cargoes will reach bearing in mind ambient air and sea temperatures to be encountered on passage, so that any expansion does not result in overflow. B. The accuracy of the tank level monitoring systems in potentially sub-zero conditions. C. The anticipated cargo loss due to the projected evaporation rates as the vessel passes through the tropics. D. The potential damage to tank coating in the upper areas of any tanks which are not fully loaded due to the duration of exposure to cargo vapour. 315

DPKP

57. A greater number of lashings may generally be required to secure cargo forward on deck compared with amidships under deck of a General Cargo Vessel, because: A. The dynamic stresses on the lashing are much greater in the forward areas of the vessel. B. The forward of the vessel is subjected to more rolling conditions. C. Heavier cargo is generally stowed forward. D. The roll period is greater forward.

58. A loaded General Cargo ship is bound from Brazil to Rotterdam during winter time. During the voyage, ventilation in cargo spaces should: A. Be carried out during voyage, as the vessel is moving from warm to colder areas. B. Should not be carried out as the vessel is moving from a cold area to a warmer area. C. Should occasionally be carried out as the vessel is moving from a cold area to a warmer area. D. Would only be carried out once, just before discharging the cargo.

59. Additional lashings on general cargoes must be considered when: A. Heavy weather is anticipated for the planned voyage. B. Passing through the Summer Zone in winter months. C. Passing through the Tropical Zone in winter months. D. After the vessel has started to encounter heavy weather conditions.

60. For a General Cargo ship not specifically designed for carriage of containers, the maximum stowage height for containers on deck is limited to: A. One container high. B. Two container high. C. The height of the wheelhouse. D. Three container high.

316

DPKP

61. For a General Cargo ship to load Dangerous Goods in packaged form, it must have on board a: A. Document of Compliance for carriage of dangerous goods. B. SOLAS Safety Equipment Certificate. C. Document of Authorization for the carriage of bulk IMDG Cargoes. D. Safety Construction Certificate for carriage of IMDG cargoes in packaged form.

62. For special category spaces on board general cargo ship, the minimum required air changes per hour should be: A. 6 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

63. Information on the forces that may cause cargo shifting on a general cargo vessel may be available by referring to: A. The Cargo Stowage and Security (CSS) Code. B. The ship's stability manual. C. The Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk Cargoes (BC Code). D. The Cargo Securing Manual (CSM).

64. On a voyage from cold to hot climate countries, the ventilation of cargo holds of a General cargo ship should: A. Not be carried out at all. B. Be carried out continuously during the voyage. C. Be carried out during the day time only. D. Be carried out during the night time only.

317

DPKP

65. On a voyage from hot to cold climate countries, the ventilation of cargo holds of a General cargo ship should: A. Be carried out continuously during the voyage. B. Not be carried out at all. C. Be carried out during the day time only. D. Be carried out during the night time only.

66. The IMO Cargo Stowage and Securing Code (CSS) indicates in the 'Rule of Thumb', the total strength of the lashings on each side of a heavy lift; what is the stated value ? A. The Maximum Securing load of the lashings must equal the weight of the cargo unit. B. The Maximum Securing load of the lashings must equal the

50%

weight of the cargo unit. C. The Maximum Securing load of the lashings must equal twice the weight of the cargo unit. D. The Maximum Securing load of the lashings must equal five times the weight of the cargo unit.

67. The minimum information to that must be provided be given on a dangerous goods declaration on a General Cargo Vessel should be: A. IMO Class, UN Number, Gross weight, number of units of cargo, Proper Shipping Name. B. IMO Class, weight, cargo brand name, stowage requirement. C. Gross and net weight, volume of cargo, proper shipping name. D. UN Number, Volume of units, stowage requirements, weight, centre of gravity.

318

DPKP

68. The most important consideration when planning the lashing system for a particular sea route on a General Cargo Vessel is: A. Transverse accelerations. B. The breaking strength of lashing materials. C. Encountering heavy weather. D. The size and weight of general cargo items to be loaded.

69. The segregation requirements for Dangerous Goods to be loaded on a General Cargo ship may be obtained by referring to: A. The IMO International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code. B. The IMO Bulk cargo Code. C. The Cargo Securing manual. D. IMO SOLAS Handbook.

70. The two main considerations when choosing an appropriate paint for a cargo space of a General Cargo vessel would be: A. Light reflective and compatible with edible cargoes. B. Corrosion

resistant

and

heat

resistant. C. Low odour and heat resistant. D. Easy to clean and dark in colour.

71. Which of these can be loaded in the same hold of a General Cargo Vessel, as steel coils? A. Steel rebars B. Hygroscopic cargoes C. Chemicals D. Fertilizers

319

DPKP

72. How can you best demonstrate in an audit that you follow company cargo handling procedures? A. By being able to provide comprehensive and verifiable

documentary

records

of

cargo

operations. B. By requesting that an audit takes place during cargo operations. C. By providing a summary of out-turn figures for the auditor. D. By providing a summary of incident and lost time figures for the auditor that reflects a successful and trouble-free system on board.

73. If all indications are that a cargo has been received without damages, irregularities or short shipment and the phrase "apparent good order and condition" is entered on the Bill of Lading, what type of Bill is this said to be? A. A clean Bill of Lading. B. An endorsed Bill of Lading. C. A Bill of Lading completed for shipment. D. A Due Title Bill of Lading.

74. What may be issued by the shipper to indicate that a vessel or her operators will not be held responsible for any damage that may arise from the carrier issuing a clean Bill of Lading, even though the Mate's receipt is marked as "unclean", such as may apply to atmospheric corrosion on steel plates that have been waiting in a port facility for some time awaiting shipment? A. A Letter of Indemnity. B. A Letter of Credit. C. An absolution clause in the shipping documents. D. An addendum to the Bill of Lading.

320

DPKP

75. What term is applied to the compensation payment by the charterer that is due when a vessel is unable to load / discharge her cargo within the allowed and contracted time? A. Demurrage. B. Deferment. C. Discretion. D. Contractual penalty discount.

76. What type of Bill of Lading covers "door to door" shipment? A. A Through Bill of Lading. B. An Ocean Bill of Lading. C. A Destination Bill of Lading. D. A Multi-Phase Bill of Lading.

77. When conducting a risk assessment for a shipboard work activity, what are the two elements to be considered? A. The potential severity of harm and the likelihood that harm will occur. B. The chance of an incident re-occuring and the potential effects of an loss. C. The time available to complete the task and the resources to hand. D. The available manpower and their experience in this type of work.

78. According to SIGTTO publications, what is a typical accuracy for LNG pressure measurement equipment? A. +/- 0,0015 bar (which will apply within the MARVS of the tank) B. +/- 1,00 bar (which will apply within the MARVS of the tank) C. +/- 0,50 bar (which will apply within the MARVS of the tank) D. +/- 0,0005 bar (which will apply within the MARVS of the tank) 321

DPKP

79. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what is the minimum number of "Firemen’s outfits" required to be carried on an LNG carrier with a cargo capacity above 5,000 m3? A. 5 sets B. 4 sets C. 2 sets D. 3 sets

80. Carbon dioxide, CO2, can solidify and form dry ice at low temperatures. What is the solidifying temperature of CO2? A. Approximately minus 78.5 C B. Approximately minus 87.5 C C. Approximately minus 30.5 C D. Approximately minus 60.5 C

81. Does MARPOL apply to LNG carriers? A. Yes, MARPOL applies to all ship types.. B. No, MARPOL only applies to oil tankers. C. Yes, but only annex IV. D. Yes, but only annex V.

82. Does the Oil Pollution Act, 1990 (OPA90) apply to vessels engaged in carrying liquefied natural gas (LNG)? A. Yes, OPA90 applies to all ships. B. No, OPA90 applies only to oil tankers. C. Only if the vessel is carrying HC-products. D. OPA90 only applies to non-American flag vessels.

322

DPKP

83. Due to the very low carriage temperatures for LNG the thermal conductivity, k value, is an important property of the insulation material used in cargo containment systems. For a given rate of heat leakage across the insulation, which of the following statements is true? A. The higher the k value the thicker the insulation needs to be. B. The higher the k value the thinner the insulation needs to be. C. The rate of heat leakage is unaffected by the thickness of the insulation. D. The k value depends on the thickness of the insulation material.

84. During cargo tank gassing up and cooling down operations on an LNG carrier which of the given options, regarding temperature, needs to be observed? A. Never allow temperature of the insulation to fall below the safe minimum temperature. B. Always control the outlet temperature of methane from the vaporiser. C. Always control the vaporisers so that the temperature of methane vapour is lower than existing tank atmosphere temperature. D. Always control the temperature in the shore supply line.

323

DPKP

85. Having water vapour in an LNG carriers cargo tanks prior to loading cargo is unacceptable due to ice formation at low carriage temperatures. How can water vapour in the tank atmosphere be removed prior to the cooling down and loading operation? A. By displacing the tank atmosphere with pre-dried inert gas. B. By displacing the tank atmosphere with fresh air. C. By displacing the tank atmosphere with warm inert gas direct from a combustion type inert gas generator. D. By displacing the tank atmosphere with heated air.

86. What is the approximate normal daily cargo "boil off" rate for an LNG carrier of 125000 cubic metre cargo capacity? A. From 0,15 % to 0,20 % per day of total cargo. B. From 0,30 % to 0,35 % per day of total cargo. C. From 0,01 % to 0,05 % per day of total cargo. D. From 0,75 % to 0,80 % per day of total cargo.

87. What is the normal procedure for cooling down the a cargo tank prior to loading LNG? A. Introducing liquid LNG into the tank slowly through the spray lines. B. Introducing liquid LNG into the bottom of the tank. C. Introducing liquid LNG into the tank quickly through the liquid header. D. Introducing liquid LNG into the tank through a heater.

88. What is the typical accuracy for onboard LNG temperature measurement systems? A. +/- 0.2 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C B. +/- 0.5 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C C. +/- 1.0 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C D. +/- 0.7 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C 324

DPKP

89. Which of the gas groups, identified by SIGTTO, in 'Liquid Gas Handling Principles on Ships and in Terminals', does LNG belong to? A. Saturated Hydrocarbons B. Unsaturated Hydrocarbons. C. Chemical Gases D. Mixed Saturated and Unsaturated Hydrocarbons. \ 90. Which term is usually used to describe the compressor that collects the boil-off from the header connected to each cargo tank of an LNG carrier? A. The low-duty compressor. B. The fuel-feed compressor. C. The high-duty compressor. D. The medium-duty compressor.

91. Why is nitrogen used for the inerting of hold spaces and interbarrier spaces on LNG carriers? A. Because the carbon dioxide in combustion generated inert gas would

freeze

when

in

close

proximity to the cargo. B. Because of the high oxygen content of combustion generated inert gas. C. Because of the high temperature of combustion generated inert gas. D. Because of the high humidity in combustion generated inert gas.

92. With reference to preparations of LNG carrier cargo tanks for cargo loading operations, how can it be determined that the cool down operation is complete? A. When temperature monitor, or liquid level gauge, shows that liquid is forming in the bottom of the cargo tank. B. When the outlet temperature from the spray header reaches minus 10 C. C. When the temperature at the compressor vapour manifold reaches minus 25 C. D. When vapour temperature from the HD compressor reaches minus 40 C. 325

DPKP

93. Before loading a refrigerated cargo of LPG the cargo tanks must be cooled down slowly in order to minimise thermal stresses for the vessel and the cargo containment system. What is the generally accepted cooling down rate? A. 10 degrees C per hour. B. 5 degrees C per hour. C. 15 degrees C per hour. D. 20 degrees C per hour.

94. Cargo tanks on an LPG carrier can be inerted using either inert gas from a combustion type inert gas generator or by using nitrogen. Is gassing up of an inerted cargo tank with LPG allowed when the tank contains combustion generated inert gas? A. Yes, but only if the atmosphere has an oxygen content of less than 5% by volume and the charter allows it. B. Yes, it is always allowed if the atmosphere of the inerted tank has an oxygen content of less than 5% by volume. C. Yes, but only if the atmosphere has an oxygen content of less than 1% by volume and the charter allows it. D. No, it is never allowed; the inert gas must first be replaced by oxygen free nitrogen.

95. During pre-entry checks of an enclosed space onboard a liquefied gas carrier it is necessary to check the condition of the atmosphere. If the gas detection equipment to be used for the checks included a catalytic type combustible gas indicator, an absorption type toxic gas detector and a paramagnetic type oxygen analyser, which would be the preferred order for the checks? A. Oxygen

content

followed

by

hydrocarbon gas content and then toxic gas content. B. Hydrocarbon gas content followed by oxygen content and then toxic gas content. C. Hydrocarbon gas content followed by toxic gas content and then oxygen content. D. Toxic gas content followed by hydrocarbon gas content and then oxygen content 326

DPKP

96. IMO publishes a number of Codes relating to the carriage of bulk cargoes including the IGC Code for liquefied gas carriers. What is the main purpose of the IGC Code? A. To provide an international standard for the construction of, and equipment for, gas carriers to ensure the safe carriage of liquefied gases in bulk. B. To

provide

national

standards

for

the

construction of, and the equipment for, gas carriers to ensure the safe carriage of liquefyed gases in bulk C. To provide international standards regarding the maximum vessel size and the minimum manning levels for gas carriers to ensure safe carriage of liquefied gases in bulk. D. To provide guidance to the oil and gas companies as to which gases can be carried in liquefied state.

97. Inhibitors are often added to liquefied gas cargoes prior to loading to prevent or slow down polymerisation. An inhibitor information form or certificate must be provided by the cargo shipper to the vessel. What sort of information must this certificate contain about the inhibitor in addition to the technical name and quantity added? A. Expected lifetime of the inhibitor, temperature limitations affecting the lifetime of the inhibitor and the date the inhibitor was added. B. Expected lifetime of the inhibitor, name of person who added the inhibitor

and

the

temperature

limitations affecting the lifetime of the inhibitor C. Date the inhibitor was added, the name of the person that added it and expiry date of the inhibitor D. Expected lifetime of the inhibitor and the date the cargo tanks were inhibited 327

DPKP

98. Is it permitted to load fully refrigerated propane directly onto a fully pressurised LPG carrier without additional conditioning of the cargo or cargo spaces? A. Only if the cargo containment system is designed for temperatures of minus 48 degrees C or less. B. Only if the vessel is equipped with cargo cooling plant C. Only if the loading rate is kept below 100m3/h. D. Fully refrigerated propane can be loaded directly onto this type of vessel under any circumstances

99. It is necessary for personnel to enter a liquefied gas carrier cargo tank to clean up some dust and other loose debris. What are the permit requirements before entry into the tank is allowed? A. Both Enclosed Space Entry and Cold Work Permits are required. B. Both Enclosed Space Entry and Hot Work Permits are required. C. Both Enclosed Space Entry Permit and a Gas Free Certificate are required. D. Only an Enclosed Space Entry Permit is required.

100. Liquefied gas cargoes will expand as the temperature increases and therefore tanks are not allowed to be filled to 100%. What is the maximum allowable filling limit for the cargo tanks on liquefied gas carriers? A. Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 98% on gas carriers. B. Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 95% on gas carriers. C. Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 92% on gas carriers. D. Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 90% on gas carriers.

328

DPKP

101. What is the full title of the IMO code which applies to all gas carriers built after 1986? A. The International Code for the Construction and Equipment of Ships Carrying Liquefied Gases in Bulk (the IGC Code) B. The

International

Code

for

Ships

Carrying

Liquefied Gases in Bulk (the IGC code) C. The Code for Existing Ships Carrying Liquefied Gases in Bulk (the Existing Ship Code) D. The Code for the Construction and Equipment of Ships Carrying Liquefied Gases in Bulk (the GC Code)

102. What is the main reason for adding inhibitors to some liquefied gas cargoes such as ethylene oxide and vinyl chloride? A. To prevent polymerisation of the cargo. B. To reduce the boil-off rate of the cargo. C. To reduce the toxicity of the cargo. D. To control the temperature of the cargo.

103. What is the requirement for the atmosphere in the hold spaces surrounding cargo tanks that require a secondary barrier when carrying LPG cargoes? A. The hold spaces must be kept in an inert condition whenever there is cargo in the cargo tanks. B. The hold spaces must be filled with clean dry air at all times. C. The hold spaces must be filled with cargo vapour whenever there is cargo in the cargo tanks. D. The hold spaces must be kept in an inert condition at all times even when the cargo tanks are empty.

329

DPKP

104. What method should be used to discharge a semi-pressurised gas carrier if there is a break down on the cargo discharge pump? A. By pressurising the vapour space of the cargo tank using a vaporiser and cargo compressor to force liquid cargo ashore. B. By using a portable submersible pump to empty the affected tank C. By using the cargo compressor to pump the cargo vapour ashore as it boils off. D. By using the inert gas system to pressurise the cargo tank and force the liquid cargo ashore.

105. When a ship is switching from ammonia to LPG virtually all traces of vapours must be removed. What is the allowable concentration of ammonia vapour in the tank prior to loading the next cargo? A. Less than 20 parts per million. B. Less than 50 parts per million. C. Less than 100 parts per million. D. Less than 5 parts per million.

106. Which certificate is issued to LPG and other liquefied gas carriers in accordance with the IGC code? A. The Certificate of Fitness is issued in accordance with the IGC code B. The Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate is issued in accordance with the IGC code. C. The

Cargo

Ship

Safety

Construction Certificate is issued in accordance with the IGC code D. The International Load Line Certificate is issued in accordance with the IGC code 330

DPKP

107. With some liquefied gas cargoes special conditions must be met before they can be loaded into a cargo tank. Is it permitted load ammonia into an inerted cargo tank? A. Only if the tank is inerted with nitrogen. B. Only if the tank is inerted with combustion generated inert gas. C. Ammonia cannot be loaded into any tank with an inert atmosphere. D. Ammonia can be loaded into any inerted tank containing either inert gas or nitrogen.

108. A VLCC is to anchor in a depth of 80 meters in open water with moderate swell running. How many shackles of anchor chain should be used to aid a safe anchorage? A. 11 shackles B. 6 shackles C. 8 shackles D. 3 shackles

109. After the last entry being made, the retention period of an oil record book on board must be: A. Not less than 3 years after the date of the last entry. B. Not less than 5 years after the date of the last entry. C. Exactly 3 years from the date of the first entry. D. Until the next port where it may be handed over to the Port State Authority.

331

DPKP

110. Any person who can assume overall charge of the ships crude oil washing operation must have: A. At least

12 months appropriate

experience on oil tankers, have participated in at least two COW programmes

and

be

fully

knowledgeable of the contents of the

Operations

and

Equipment

Manual. B. At least three months experience on tankers, have participated in at least six washing operations and be aware of the procedures associated with the completion of the Oil Record Book. C. At least six months experience on tankers, be knowledgeable of the cleaning procedures and equipment applicable on board the vessel and be able to fully demonstrate understanding of the operation of the ODME equipment. D. At least 12 months equivalent experience on a tanker of any type, provided at least three washing operations have been witnessed in a supernumerary capacity and be able to demonstrate full knowledge of Annex I of MARPOL.

111. As per MARPOL, Oil Record Book Part II, Cargo/Ballast Operations, must be carried and completed on oil tankers of: A. 150 gross tonnes and above. B. 400 gross tonnes and above. C. Any size, as long as they are classified as tankers. D. 50 gross tonnes and above.

332

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112. As per MARPOL, the contents of lines and pumps on an oil tanker at completion of discharge must be: A. Drained and then pumped either ashore, or to a cargo tank or slop tank on board. B. Cleared to shore by the use of compressed air. C. Drained directly (and only) to shore. D. Discharged ashore or retained on board as per the pre-discharge agreement made between the ship and shore.

113. As per requirements of the International Convention for the Control and Management of Ship's Ballast Water and Sediments, oil tankers must have a plan on board to achieve: A. 95% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port. B. 100% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port. C. 25% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port. D. 80% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port.

114. As per the OCIMF Ship to Ship Transfer Guide (Petroleum) guidelines, both vessels engaged in the cargo transfer operation shall: A. Have their main engines ready and available for immediate use B. Have their duty engineers on stand-by so as to prepare the engines if required for use at any time C. Their officer of the watch manning the bridge at all times, with engines on 30-minutes notice of readiness. D. Their main engines on 1 hour readiness of readiness

333

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115. As per the US Code of Federal Regulations, the current Oil Transfer Procedures for a vessel carrying out discharge in US ports must be: A. Available on board, legibly printed in a language or languages easily understood by personnel engaged in the

transfer

operation

and

permanently posted or available at a place where crew members can see and use them. B. Available on board, legibly printed in the English and Spanish languages and permanently posted in the wheelhouse of the vessel. C. Available on board, in hard-copy or electronic format, to the OOW in a language with which he is familiar. D. Available to the crew members, upon request from the terminal representatives .

116. Crude Oils required by MARPOL to be specifically listed in a tanker's Crude Oil Washing manual as unsuitable for COW are: A. Those with high pour point or viscosity. B. Those with high basic sediment and water content. C. Those with highbenzene content. D. Those on the IMO Oil Tanker Technical Committee COW banned list.

117. Depending on density or API, an error measurement of 0.1 degree Fahrenheit in a tank containing 50,000 cubic metres (314,491 barrels) of oil will result in which of the following volumes? A. 25 cubic metres (157 barrels). B. 35 cubic metres (220 barrels). C. 7 cubic metres (44 barrels). D. 16.5 cubic metres (104 barrels).

334

DPKP

118. For a vessel proceeding enroute, located more than 50 nm from nearest land outside a special area and having in operation its ODME, the maximum instantaneous rate of oil discharge (from washings of cargo tanks) in to the sea is: A. 30 litres per nautical mile. B. 300 litres per nautical mile. C. 60 litres per nautical mile. D. 0.03 litres per nautical mile.

119. On board an oil tanker, slop tanks may be used for the carriage of oil: A. When not being used for the carriage of slops and are included in the total cargo capacity of the vessel. B. Only

under

exceptional

circumstances and are not included in the total cargo capacity of the vessel. C. Only on clean ballast tankers and are only included in the total cargo capacity of this type of vessel. D. Only by agreement between the shipper, receiver and charterer. They are not normally included in the total cargo capacity of the vessel. 120. Prior to discharging cargo from an oil tanker, ‘line displacement’ or ‘line pressing’ must be conducted to ensure: A. The verification of the shore line for calculation purposes. B. The calibration of the ship's flow meter. C. Balancing of a rigid cargo arm. D. Testing of the automatic shut-down arrangements in the shore line system.

335

DPKP

121. The details of an internal transfer of oil must be entered in the Oil Record Book: A. At all times whenever such an operation is carried out B. Only is more than 25% of the total cargo volume is transferred C. Only if required by the specific instructions of the owners or Flag State of the vessel D. Only is such transfer has taken place within a port

122. The ideal maximum viscosity at which aromatic crude oil cargoes are best discharged at, is: A. 250 cst (250 mm2/s) B. 450 cst (450 mm2/s) C. 45 cst (45 mm2/s) D. 1,250 cst (1,250 mm2/s)

123. The maximum permitted oxygen content in the inert gas main when inerting a cargo oil tank prior to gas freeing is: A. 5% by volume. B. 8% by volume. C. 12% by volume. D. 2% by volume.

124. The ODME printouts for tank cleaning operations must be retained on board for a minimum period: A. Of 3 years. B. Of 5 years. C. Till the end of the voyage in which the ODME operation took place D. Of 12 months.

336

DPKP

125. The recommended guideline for avoiding the risk of electrostatic potential in a mist produced by using oil and water during Crude Oil Washing operations is that: A. Before washing begins, any tank that is to be used as a source of oil for Crude Oil Washing should be partly discharged to remove any water that has settled out during the voyage. The discharge of a layer of at least 1 metreis necessary for this purpose. B. As washing begins, any water observed in the stream should be diverted to a slop tank, before Crude Oil Washing af any cargo compartment is commenced. C. If a slop tank is to be used to supply oil to drive a Crude Oil Washing operation in a cargo tank, then that slop tank must not have contained slops with a water content of more than 2%. D. Crude Oil Washing, where the oil source is stored in a slop tank or other tank that has previously contained slops, should be avoided.

126. To correctly report an oil spill in US waters: A. The person in charge must report the spill to the National Response Center or, if not practicable, to the Environmental Protection Agency regional office or local U.S. Coast Guard Marine Safety Office. This must be done immediately that person has knowledge of the spill. B. The person responsible for the spill must report preliminary details to the appropriate State Police within 30 minutes of the accidental discharge taking place. C. The person or persons in charge must submit a full report of the incident through the vessel's agent to the appropriate authorities within 24 hours of the incident. D. The master of the vessel responsible for the spill must advise the Environmental Protection Agency National Incident Reporting Center (or the appropriate regional office) within 2 hours of the incident being reported to that person. 337

DPKP

127. What do we mean with a IOPP certificate? A. With IOPP certificate we mean International

Oil

Pollution

Prevention certificate and the ship is classed to prevent oil pollution B. With IOPP certificate we mean International Prevention

Oil certificate

Pollution and

the

certificate prevent oil pollution from the ship C. With IOPP certificate we mean International Oil Pollution Prevention certificate and it is to prevent oil pollution D. There isn’t any IOPP certificate on gas carriers

128. When discharging dirty ballast from an oil tanker at a high flow rate with main cargo pumps, the instantaneous rate of discharge of oil is calculated by formula: A. Instantaneous rate of discharge (l/nm) = oil content (ppm) x flow rate (m3/h) / speed (knots) x 1,000 B. Instantaneous rate of discharge (l/nm) = oil content (ppm) x 1,000 / flow rate (l/h) x speed (knots) C. Instantaneous rate of discharge (l/h) = oil content (ppm) x flow rate (l/h) / speed (knots) x 10,000 D. Instantaneous rate of discharge (ml/nm) = oil content (ml/nm) x flow rate (l/m) / speed (knots) x 100

338

DPKP

129. When internally transferring any oil cargo within the vessel, the correct procedure would be to: A. Obtain

permission

charterers

and

from

the

document

all

operations fully in the Oil Record Book. B. Obtain

permission

from

the

receivers and retain all e-mail correspondence for the attention of the cargo surveyors. C. Transfer no more than 5% of the total cargo volume at any one time. D. Transfer the cargo, and then make an appropriate entry in the deck log book. 130. Within the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System, an ‘overboard discharge control’ is defined as: A. A

device

which

automatically

initiates the sequence to stop the overboard discharge of the effluent in alarm conditions and prevents the discharge throughout the period the alarm prevails. B. A system which monitors the discharge into the sea of oily ballast or other oil-contaminated water from the cargo tank areas. C. A facility which prevents the initiation of the opening of the discharge valve or the operation of other equivalent arrangements before the monitoring system is fully operational. D. A system which receives automatic signals of oil content, flow rate, ship's speed, ship's position, date and time.

339

DPKP

131. A hazard is is a source of potential harm or damage or a situation with potential for harm or damage. Risk is determined based on evaluation of two elements. Which two elements? A. The likelihood that a hazard may occur and the consequences of the hazardous event B. The likelihood that a hazard may occur

and

the

financial

consequences for the Company C. The likelihood that a hazard may occur and the available personal protective equipment we have onboard D. The consequences of the hazardous event and the available personal protective equipment we have onboard

132. How frequently should the PA-system (Public Address) be tested? A. Every week B. Every day C. Every year D. Every second year

133. How often shall abandon ship- and fire drills take place on board passenger ships? A. Weekly B. Bi-weekly C. Monthly D. At least two abandon ship drills and one fire drill every month

340

DPKP

134. How often shall drills for the operation of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves and closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in passenger ships? A. Weekly B. Daily C. Every two weeks D. Every month

135. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board? A. In a separate locker. The locker shall be clearly marked, locked and ventilated. B. In a locker preferably on boat deck. The locker shall be clearly marked. C. N the central store or in the engine room D. In a gas-tight locker close to the bridge

136. Personnel on board passenger vessels must undergo training courses before they can be part of the safe manning and assigned to emergency duties on board. What is minimum training requirement for all personnel? A. Basic Safety Training Course and Crowd

&

Crisis

Management

Training Course B. Basic Safety Training Course and Company Specific Familiarisation Course C. Basic Safety Training Course D. No Training Course is required as long as the personnel have relevant experience

341

DPKP

137. SOLAS regulations require surveys of ships to be carried out at certain times and at certain intervals. Which of the following surveys apply to passenger ships only? A. Periodical survey every 12 months B. Periodical survey every 24 months C. Periodical survey every 6 months D. A survey before the commence of each voyage

138. The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) covers detailed

regulations to prevent various sources of ship

generated pollution. Annex I - VI deals with regulations for the prevention/ control of pollution from: A. Harmful Substances in Packaged Form,

Sewage,

Air

Pollution,

Garbage, Oil and Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk B. Oil, Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk,

Harmful

Substances

in

Packaged Form, Sewage, Garbage and Ballast Water C. Proper Pollution Prevention Training D. All Harmful Substances we have onboard

139. What information is required on passengers prior to departure? A. All persons on board shall be counted and details of persons who have declared a need for special care or assistance in emergency situations shall be recorded and communicated to the Master B. Details and number of persons who have declared a need for special care or assistance in emergency situations shall be recorded and communicated to the Master C. It is sufficient to count the number of passengers prior to departure 342

DPKP

D. The safety officer shall count the number of passengers

140. What is important to prepare prior to a helicopter operation? A. Make sure all loose deck equipment at helicopter deck is stowed away and secured. B. To light up the area for pick-up C. To increase the speed of the vessel D. To stop the vessel completely

141. What is the purpose of Material Safety Data Sheets? A. To provide all personnel including emergency

personnel

with

procedures for handling or working with that substance in a safe manner B. To provide personnel in deck- and engine department with procedures for handling or working with that substance in a safe manner C. To provide the safety officer with procedures for handling or working with that substance in a safe manner D. To determine if the substance is flammable or not

142. What necessary precautions should be taken before entering a tank or an enclosed space? A. Make sure that the tank/ enclosed space is gas free, ventilated and the oxygen content is measured. O2 content shall be 21% before entering the tank/ enclosed space B. Use a breathing apparatus if the oxygen level is below 21% C. Remember to have a colleague standing by to assist you if any problems D. Bring a flashlight and put on safety shoes

343

DPKP

143. Which international convention deals with maritime safety and safety equipment onboard ro-ro passenger vessels? A. SOLAS B. MARPOL C. STCW D. ISM

144. Who is responsible to ensure that all personnel on board are provided with suitable Personal Protective Equipment where it is needed? A. The Company/ employer B. The Master C. The safety officer D. The Head Department

145. You are burning garbage containing plastics. What shall you do with the ashes from the vessel's incinerator? A. Discharge the ashes to a shore facility B. Discharge

the

ashes

at

sea

providing you are more than 25 nautical miles offshore C. Discharge at sea providing you are not in any river or estuary D. Nothing, ashes from any substance which

is

incinerated

can

be

discharged over board

344

DPKP

146. A cellular container vessel is to load frozen ice cream in containers. Space is available either in the hold or as a deck stow. Select, from the options given, the most suitable stowage position, with the reason, for this cargo. A. The deck stow as it is less sensitive to temperature in the event of a mechanical problem. B. The deck stow as it is more accessible for checking the status lights on the reefer panel. C. The hold as it is more sheltered from the effects of bad weather. D. The hold as it is more accessible for maintenance and repair in the event of a mechanical problem.

147. A conventional reefer vessel operating a Controlled Atmosphere (CA) is approaching the port of discharge in Northern Europe. Which is the most suitable action to take from the options given? A. Turn off the CA plant and thoroughly ventilate the cargo spaces under CA with fresh air just prior to arrival. B. Continue to apply CA until the hatches are opened to maintain the condition of the cargo. C. Continue to apply CA throughout the discharge to maintain the condition of the cargo. D. Turn off the CA plant just prior to the start of discharge operations.

345

DPKP

148. A reefer vessel is loading a cargo of fruit alongside in a South African port. During loading another vessel arrives at an adjacent berth to have its cargo discharged after having been towed in following a fire onboard which had resulted in abandonment. What should concern the Master of the reefer vessel most about the situation? A. That the cargo may be contaminated by the smell of smoke and the products of combustion from the damaged vessel. B. The damaged vessel is unmanned and may not be cared for properly. C. The cargo being discharged from the damaged vessel may be in poor condition and may contaminate the loading vessel's cargo. D. The speed of cargo operations may be hindered due to the discharge of cargo from the damaged vessel.

149. A reefer vessel is to load a cargo of plantains and bananas. Due to space restrictions both have to be loaded into a common space. The usual delivery temperature for bananas is about 13 degrees Celsius and for plantains it is 7 degree Celsius. What would be the best delivery temperature for the mixture of these two fruits? A. 13 C as plantains are less sensitive to the consequences of a higher delivery temperature. B. 7 C as plantains are more sensitive to the higher delivery temperature of the bananas. C. 10 C as this is the mean temperature of the two cargoes and they would both carry satisfactorily at this temperature. D. Adjust the set point of the delivery temperature to 7 C for 12 hour periods and 13 C for the intervening 12 hour periods.

346

DPKP

150. A reefer vessel is to load a part cargo of frozen beef hocks (large joints of beef, usually quarters, not packed in cartons). In deciding which would be the most appropriate space on a conventional reefer vessel, which of the given options would be the preferred choice? A. 1C deck as this is the narrowest space on the vessel and will best constrain the cargo from any possible movement during the voyage. B. 4A deck as this is the largest square space on the vessel and will allow good access and air flow for the cargo. C. Any space will be acceptable as this is a hard frozen cargo and relatively easy to handle and carry. D. A cargo space low in the vessel as this cargo has a relatively high stowage factor.

151. A reefer vessel, which is about to carry a palletised cargo, has to have available sufficient cargo equipment including air bags (dunnage bags), air lines and valves, cargo slings, wooden dunnage, nails, etc. These items are required to ensure a quick loading operation and a successful passage. Complete the following statement from the options given. "Air bags are particularly important in that …. A. … they reduce the movement of the pallets and prevent short circuiting of the air flow." B. … they are quick and easy to deploy." C. … they protect the pillars and the vent trunking against damage during heavy weather." D. … they secure the pallets against movement during the passage."

152. A situation arises where there is insufficient fruit cargo available to fill a cargo space. There is a cooler arrangement (cooler/evaporator/brine nest/fans) positioned at one end of the cargo space. Select, from the options given, the best method for stowage of the fruit. A. Start at the end with the cooler arrangement and work away from the cooler. B. Start at the opposite end to the cooler arrangement and work towards the cooler. C. Start from one side of the space. D. Start from the centre of the space and work towards both ends. 347

DPKP

153. A situation exists where a cargo of palletised fruit is being loaded to capacity on a conventional reefer vessel. In order to load all of the available cargo it is proposed to break down some of the pallets and place the loose cartons on top of the pallets; there is just enough space to accommodate this below the deckhead. From the options given which is the most suitable action to take? A. Reject the plan as the reduced gap at the top of the stow will restrict the return air flow. B. Accept the plan in order to carry all of the cargo. C. Reject the plan as the extra handling will incur greater stevedoring costs. D. Reject the plan as the charter is to carry only palletised cargo.

154. A standard convention for a 4 deck reefer vessel is to designate the decks A to D from upper to lower deck. Decks A and B common as are C and D with a gas tight seal between B and C. Apples are to be carried in decks C and D with bananas in A and B. Which of the options is the best to avoid the risk of crossover of temperature and respiration between the two cargoes? A. Create a pressure differential with a higher pressure in decks C and D. B. Create a pressure differential with a higher pressure in decks A and B. C. Run the cargo fans intermittently in one of the spaces. D. Operate the two spaces at equal pressures as the cargoes are compatible.

155. After discharge of any refrigerated cargo a thorough inspection of the vessel should be carried out before presenting the vessel for loading the next cargo. Amongst the reasons for this is to ensure that any traces of or residues from the previous cargo are removed. This is particularly so if a fruit or meat cargo is to be loaded after a fish cargo has been carried. Select, from the options given, the main reason for this requirement. A. Fish is strong smelling and the odour may contaminate the next cargo. B. Fish is usually carried frozen and there may be some damage to the insulation. C. Fish can be oily and may leave an oily residue in the cargo space. D. Ventilating with fresh air may only remove the odour temporarily and it will build up again if residues are present.

348

DPKP

156. Apart from temperature there are few differences between carrying cargoes of chilled meat, minus 1 degree Celsius, and frozen meat, minus 18 degrees Celsius. A key difference is that for frozen meat the cooling fans are operated at half speed or some are switched off whereas for chilled meat the fans are run constantly at full speed. Select, from the options given, the main reason for this difference in fan operation. A. The chilled meat is more sensitive to damage and therefore tighter temperature control is necessary. B. The fans may be damaged if they were run at full speed delivering very cold air to the frozen cargo. C. Running the fans at full speed would generate too much heat which may affect the frozen meat. D. It is an energy saving measure since chilled meat cargoes do not require as much cold air.

157. In preparing a reefer vessel for loading the next cargo a careful inspection of the cargo spaces should be carried out. All required maintenance and the repair of any damage identified during the inspection should be completed prior to loading. Select, from the options given, the most appropriate action to be taken when the maintenance and any repairs are completed. A. Make a detailed record of all maintenance and repairs carried out for presentation to the supervisor at the loading port as proof that the vessel is in an acceptable condition for loading the cargo. B. Keep a record of all the repairs in the planned maintenance schedule. C. Don't bother recording anything as this type of work is considered routine. D. Keep a record of the hours worked as a basis for a claim against the previous charterers.

349

DPKP

158. On some trades fruit cargoes may be subjected to 'in-transit cold treatment' also known as cold treatment. From the options given which is the main purpose of this cold treatment? A. To maintain a specified minimum temperature for a prescribed time period to kill off any fruit fly which may be present when loading the cargo. B. To ensure that the fruit is carried as cold as possible without damaging the fruit. C. To achieve uniform quality of the fruit at discharge. D. To maintain the temperature of the fruit within very tight tolerances.

159. Reefer vessels form part of the 'cold chain' in the transport of perishable goods from the producer to the consumer. There are times when hatches have to remain open in less than perfect conditions, for example strong winds. There are steps that can be taken however to mitigate the effects of this on cargo that has already been loaded. Which of the options given could be considered to be the most important measure to counter the effect of such conditions? A. Cover the stow with a Tenasco (heavy plastic) sheet where possible to protect it from the wind. B. Run the cargo fans continuously during cargo operations. C. Reduce the air delivery temperature. D. Refrain from ventilating the cargo with fresh air.

160. With the exception of some citrus fruits and bananas, fruit is usually pre-cooled to the required carriage temperature prior to loading on a reefer vessel. In order to protect the cold chain, and to maintain the temperature of the fruit, a minimum exposure time to ambient conditions during loading is necessary. What action should the deck officers take during loading to achieve this minimum exposure time? A. Close the hatches and apply cooling to the cargo already loaded during any break in cargo operations that exceed 30 minutes. B. Close the hatches and apply cooling to the cargo already loaded during any overnight break in cargo operations. C. Close the hatches for any break in cargo operations that exceed 60 minutes. D. Request that the stevedores work faster to minimise loading time. 350

DPKP

161. A Standard Ro-Ro unit weighing 18mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft direction and lashed by belts of SWL 2mt. Using the general rule How many lashing belts should be used to secure the unit? A. 9 on each side B. 11 on each side C. 11 on each side D. One fore every securing point on the unit

162. A standard Ro-Ro unit weighing 2mt is to be loaded fore and aft and lashed by belts of SWL 0.6mt. Using the general rule How many lashing belts should be used to secure the unit? A. 4 on each side B. 4 in total C. 4 in total D. 10 in total

163. On a roro vessel, a ro-ro unit weighing 2mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft direction and lashed by belts of SWL 0.6mt. How many lashing belts should be used to secure the unit? A. 4 on each side B. 4 in total C. 4 in total D. 10 in total

164. On a roro vessel, a vehicle weighing 50mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft direction and lashed by chains/turnbuckles of SWL 5mt. By the general Rule How many sets of chains/turnbuckles should be used to secure the unit? A. At least 10 per side B. At least 10 in total C. At least 10 in total D. At least 15 per side

351

DPKP

165. On a roro vessel, how often should a dangerous goods stowage plan be produced A. Every time you load a dangerous cargo B. Every time you load any cargo C. Every time you load any cargo D. You only ever produce one

166. On a roro vessel, if the vessel is loaded by stevedores, who is responsible for the lashing of the cargo A. The vessel is responsible for cargo as soon as it crosses the ramp including its securing B. The Stevedores who loaded the ship C. The Stevedores who loaded the ship D. The cargo owners

167. On a roro vessel, what dangers are associated with using a steep loading ramp? A. The ends of ro-ro units can be damaged B. The ramp's hoisting wires can be damaged C. It will not be possible to drive vehicles off the ramp D. The ramp may slide off the pier

168. On a roro vessel, what instruction should be given to the crew about unlashing of cargo prior to arrival at the berth A. This can only be done when the bridge gives permission and no unit stowed on a ramp or incline can be unlashed. Provided the company allow it. B. The crew can start unlashing without the permission from the bridge C. The crew can start unlashing without the permission from the bridge D. You can remove half the lashings on any unit when the bridge give permission

352

DPKP

169. On a roro vessel, what must be considered when planning the loading of ro-ro cargoes on ramps? A. SWL and loading limit of the ramp and Minimum clearances for the operation of ramp doors B. The extent of lashings due to the ramp slope C. The extent of lashings due to the ramp slope D. Cargo volumes

170. On a roro vessel, what must be ensured onboard the vessel prior to commencing cargo? A. Cargo hold ventilation systems are operational B. That all cargo is ready for loading C. That all cargo is ready for loading D. That the vessel has been cleared by immigration

171. On a roro vessel, what standing instruction should be given to prevent a blackout on board? A. Check with the duty engineer before switching on motors, fans or other machinery B. Check with the duty engineer before correcting the vessel's list C. Switch off lights in idle cargo holds D. Use the minimum number of deck lights at night

172. On a roro vessel, what standing instruction should be given to protect the Ramps when loading ro-ro units? A. Units whose weights exceed the ramp load density/SWL must not be loaded B. Damaged units should be rejected for loading C. Damaged units should be rejected for loading D. All ro-ro units must be thoroughly checked for damage prior to the loading ramp

353

DPKP

173. On a roro vessel, what stowage factors should be taken into account when planning the loading of cars? A. The longitudinal and athwartship distances between the cars B. Cargo dimensions C. Cargo volumes D. Cargo characteristics

174. On a roro vessel, which of the following is not required in the pre-stowage plan? A. Checking communications equipment B. The operation of gas-tight and watertight doors C. Assigning crew duties D. Stowage and securing of specialised cargoes

175. On a roro vessel, which of the ships trading certificates details the type and location that dangerous goods are allowed to be stowed onboard A. Certificate of compliance for the carriage of Dangerous goods B. Safety Equipment certificate C. Safety Equipment certificate D. The Cargo Ship Safety construction certificate

176. On a roro vessel, which of these situations will result in an emergency shutdown of cargo operations? A. Any of the listed situations B. Failure of the cargo hold ventilation system C. Failure of the cargo hold ventilation system D. The vessel developing a sudden and unexpected list

354

DPKP

177. On a roro vessel, which regulations require supervising the embarkation of persons on board ship? A. The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code B. The Safety Of Life At Sea (SOLAS) Convention C. Standards of Training Certification and Watch-keeping (STCW) Code D. International Labour Organization (ILO) standards

178. Under SOLAS, what are the minimum required air changes per hour for 'Special Category Spaces' on a roro vessel,? A. 10 B. 20 C. 15 D. 8

179. What must not be obstructed when planning the loading of ro-ro cargoes? A. Access to fire-fighting equipment B. Fixed cargo lashing points C. Ships' bracket connections to the deck D. In-built non-skid bars

180. A hazard is is a source of potential harm or damage or a situation with potential for harm or damage. Risk is determined based on evaluation of two elements. Which two elements? A. The likelihood that a hazard may occur and the consequences of the hazardous event B. The likelihood that a hazard may occur and the financial consequences for the Company C. The likelihood that a hazard may occur and the available personal protective equipment we have onboard D. The consequences of the hazardous event and the available personal protective equipment we have onboard 355

DPKP

181. How can the Master ensure that all cargo loading doors, bow visors, weathertight ramps etc. Are locked and secured before the ship proceeds on any voyage? A. By having an effective system of supervision and reporting of the closing and opening of doors. Time of closing and opening of doors shall be entered in the log-book. B. By having experinced officers and crew to supervise the closing and opening of doors. Time of closing and opening of doors shall be entered in the log-book. C. Automatic systems will alarm you if the doors are not properly secured. D. The bosun is always responsible to check the watertight integrity before the ship proceeds on any voyage.

182. How frequently should the PA-system (Public Address) be tested? A. Every week B. Every day C. Every year D. Every second year

183. How often shall abandon ship- and fire drills take place onboard ro-ro passenger vessels? A. Weekly B. Bi-weekly C. Monthly D. At least two abandon ship drills and one fire drill every month

356

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184. How often shall drills for the operation of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves and closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in passenger ships? A. Weekly B. Daily C. Every two weeks D. Every month

185. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board? A. In a separate locker. The locker shall be clearly marked, locked and ventilated. B. In a locker preferably on boat deck. The locker shall be clearly marked. C. In the central store or in the engine room D. In a gas-tight locker close to the bridge

186. On most ro-ro passenger ships there is no requirement to carry out drills with the passengers. What is the most effective ways of informing embarking passengers about the emergency procedures? A. Information on boarding cards, public announcement on departure, posters in public areas and cabins, safety video running continuously B. Posters in public areas and cabins, safety video running continuously C. Safety video and folders in tax free shops D. Information from the crew

357

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187. Personnel on board ro-ro passenger vessels must undergo training courses before they can be part of the safe manning and assigned to emergency duties on board. What is minimum training requirement for all personnel? A. Basic Safety Training Course and Crowd

&

Crisis

Management

Training Course B. Basic Safety Training Course and Company Specific Familiarisation Course C. Basic Safety Training Corse D. No Training Course is required as long as the personnel have relevant experience

188. The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) covers detailed

regulations to prevent various sources of ship

generated pollution. Annex I - VI deals with regulations for the prevention/ control of pollution from: A. Harmful Substances in Packaged Form,

Sewage,

Air

Pollution,

Garbage, Oil and Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk B. Oil, Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk,

Harmful

Substances

in

Packaged Form, Sewage, Garbage and Ballast Water C. Proper Pollution Prevention Training D. All Harmful Substances we have onboard

358

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189. What information is required on passengers prior to departure? A. All persons on board shall be counted and details of persons who have declared a need for special care or assistance in emergency situations shall be recorded and communicated to the Master B. Details and number of persons who have declared a need for special care or assistance in emergency situations shall be recorded and communicated to the Master C. It is sufficient to count the number of passengers prior to departure D. The safety officer shall count the number of passengers

190. What is important to prepare prior to a helicopter operation? A. Make sure all loose deck equipment at helicopter deck is stowed away and secured. B. To light up the area for pick-up C. To increase the speed of the vessel D. To stop the vessel completely

191. What is the purpose of Material Safety Data Sheets? A. To provide all personnel including emergency

personnel

with

procedures for handling or working with that substance in a safe manner B. To provide personnel in deck- and engine department with procedures for handling or working with that substance in a safe manner C. To provide the safety officer with procedures for handling or working with that substance in a safe manner D. To determine if the substance is flammable or not 359

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192. What necessary precautions should be taken before entering a tank or an enclosed space? A. Make sure that the tank/ enclosed space is gas free, ventilated and the oxygen content is measured. O2 content

shall

be

21%

before

entering the tank/ enclosed space B. Use a breathing apparatus if the oxygen level is below 21% C. Remember to have a colleague standing by to assist you if any problems D. Bring a flashlight and put on safety shoes

193. Which international convention deals with maritime safety and safety equipment onboard ro-ro passenger vessels? A. SOLAS B. MARPOL C. STCW D. ISM

194. Who is responsible to ensure that all personnel on board are provided with suitable Personal Protective Equipment where it is needed? A. The Company/ employer B. The Master C. The safety officer D. The Head Department

360

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195. You are burning garbage containing plastics. What shall you do with the ashes from the vessel's incinerator? A. Discharge the ashes to a shore facility B. Discharge the ashes at sea providing you are more than 25 nautical miles offshore C. Discharge at sea providing you are not in any river or estuary D. Nothing, ashes from any substance which is incinerated can be discharged over board

196. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo such as iron ore concentrate; what would be the possible stability conditions produced? A. The vessel will normally have a large intact

metacentric height

(GM) and have a fast roll period B. The vessel will normally have a small intact metacentric height (GM) and have a slow roll period C. The vessel will be tender and have a poor curve of righting levers. D. The vessel may have a list

197. A cargo hatch cover seal on a Bulk Carrier is known to be damaged and not weather tight prior to sailing; what is the legal significance of this situation? A. The vessel may well be judged to be un-seaworthy; this could invalidate some certification and hull and machinery insurance B. There are no legal concerns over this C. The vessel is still seaworthy but repairs must be carried out at next port D. The vessel may have its classification affected

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198. Before a solid bulk cargo is loaded, the Master and shore representative must agree a loading plan which covers which of the following aspects? A. All of the items specified in the possible answers B. Maximum permissible forces and moments on the ship C. Quantity and rate of loading the cargo D. Sequence of loading

199. How are cargoes on self-unloading bulk carriers fed to the vessel's conveyor belts during discharge? A. Via hydraulically-operated hopper gates at the bottom of each hold B. Via mechanically-operated hopper gates at the bottom of each hold C. By gravity through mechanical hopper gates at the bottom of each hold D. Via remote-controlled hopper gates at the bottom of each hold

200. The high level water ingress alarm in number 1 hold of a Bulk Carrier activates in bad weather at sea; what would be the actions of a prudent Master? A. Sound general alarm, muster ships crew and transmit a Mayday call and message. B. Investigate

when

the

weather

improves C. The alarms could be faulty and should be ignored D. Assess all spaces for signs of damage if weather conditions permit

362

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201. Under international regulations for a Bulk Carrier, who needs to be trained in the use of oxygen analysis and gas detection equipment? A. The ship's crew B. The master C. The master and chief engineer D. All cargo watch-keeping officers

202. What does the IMSBC Code emphasise with reference to the exposure of personal to the dust created when carrying some bulk cargoes? A. A high standard of personal hygiene B. The restricted loading of certain cargoes which may be excessively dusty C. The code does not make any reference to this hazard D. The responsibility of the Master to ensure that staff are wearing the correct clothing

203. What extent of hatch cover spares should be available on board a Bulk Carrier at all times? A. Specimen fittings shown in the hatch cover manufacturer's manual B. Rubber packing and hatch cleat washers for one panel section C. Rubber packing and hatch cleat washers for two panel sections D. Rubber packing hatch cleat washers and glue for two panel sections

204. What height of water above the inner bottom will activate the cargo hold high level alarm on a Bulk Carrier A. Any height above 2.0m B. Any more than 2.2m C. Any more than 2.5m D. Any more than 2.8m

363

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205. What is the maximum period between the sampling/testing of the moisture content of a solid bulk cargo and the loading of that cargo into a bulk carrier? A. A maximum for seven (7) days, when there has been no change in the moisture content due to rain or snow B. It

must

always

be

conducted

immediately before loading C. A test is not required each time of loading D. Testing must be carried out on a random sampling basis.

206. What must be specified when ordering gas detection equipment when used in association with bulk carriers? A. That the instrument is suited for its purpose of application B. That the instrument complies with international regulations C. That the instrument can measure flammable atmospheres D. That the instrument can measure methane and hydrogen when used in lowoxygen atmospheres

207. What specific data must be displayed on the loading instruments carried on bulk carriers of 150m or more in length? A. The shear forces exerted on the hull structure associated with the entered loaded weight distribution B. The segregation requirements of the cargoes carried. C. The ultimate strength of main deck plating D. The permeability of the cargo carried in the cargo holds

208. Where are cargo hold water level detectors required to be fitted on bulk carriers? A. At the after end of each cargo hold B. At the forward end of each cargo hold C. In cargo hold bilges D. At the port and starboard midship sections of each cargo hold 364

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209. Which of the following is a warning sign of a faulty hydraulic hatch cover system on a Bulk Carrier? A. A fall in the hydraulic header tank level B. The presence of dust and cargo particles around the piston gland C. Noisy hatch cover operations D. Dry greasing points

210. Who needs to be trained in the use of oxygen analysis and gas detection equipment? A. The entire ship's crew B. The Master C. The Master and Chief Engineer D. Cargo watch-keeping officers

211. Why do bulk cargo carriers need to carry oxygen analysis and gas detection equipment? A. Because of enclosed or confined space entry requirements B. Because it is good practice to have this equipment on board C. Because the equipment is required under the International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargoes (IMSBC) Code D. Because the equipment is required under MARPOL

365

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212. Why do the cargo holds of a self-unloading bulk carrier have a "W" shaped cross section? A. So that during discharge the cargo will automatically fall onto the underlying conveyor belts B. So that cargoes are self-trimming during loading C. To make it easier for cargo to be discharged by grabs D. To reduce the extent of tank top damages when discharging cargo

213. A vessel has lost several containers overboard during a voyage. Upon arrival into port, she is being inspected by the attending surveyors. The most important item to be checked during this inspection would be: A. Certificates of approval related to lashing equipment used to secure those containers. B. The vessel's Safety Construction certificate. C. The vessel's Class certificate. D. The on-board cargo lashing inventory.

214. An inspection in the amidships area of the weather deck of a Panamax container vessel has revealed cracks in the hatch coamings. It is extremely important to urgently inspect the: A. Longitudinals in the double bottom tanks in the amidships half length of the vessel. B. Stiffening in the forepeak tank at approximately water line level. C. Transverse bulkhead beneath the bridge front. D. Transverse bulkhead immediately aft of the engine room.

366

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215. For a ships loading computer to be safely used for loading planning and stress calculations, it must be approved by: A. A Classification Society. B. IT Department of Ship owner. C. Hull and Machinery Insurers of the vessel. D. The Port State where vessel is currently loading.

216. On a container vessel, flexitanks are used for: A. The carriage of non-hazardous liquids, in bulk. B. The carriage of hazardous liquids, in bulk. C. The carriage of liquid cargoes that do not have a Proper Shipping Name. D. The carriage of liquid cargoes of a particular specific gravity.

217. Racking forces imposed on a container would likely cause the greatest deflection to: A. The door end of the container. B. The closed end of the container. C. The base of the container. D. The corner posts of the container.

218. Shock loads in a container lashing system are generally caused by: A. Loose cargo lashings. B. Resonant rolling. C. Ship vibrations. D. Ship torsion.

219. The correct weight of a wrongly declared container may be best indicated by: A. Strain gauges fitted to the shore gantry cranes. B. The container CSC plate. C. The tare weight stamped on the container. D. The ship's loading computer.

367

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220. The most appropriate way of dealing with twist-locks suffering from excessive wear and tear is to: A. Isolate them from use and dispose them appropriately. B. Repair them in the ships workshop, and then re-use. C. Land them ashore for repair. D. Get them surveyed by Class prior re-use.

221. The most dangerous consequence of the corrosion and wear down of container stools on weather deck/hatch tops of a container vessel would be: A. Collapse of the deck stool, leading to lashings becoming slack. B. Uneven loading of the container on the deck. C. Twist locks not being able to be fully closed. D. Twist locks not being able to be removed after discharge.

222. The most effective method of dealing with an under-deck cargo space fire on board a container ship, is to: A. Deploy the fixed firefighting system. B. Tackle the fire locally with fire hoses. C. Turn the vessel off the wind to reduce the relative wind strength. D. Boundary cool the cargo hold from the deck.

223. The most important function of a buttress fitting on a container vessel is: A. To transfer forces from the container stow to the ships structure. B. To maintain a uniform level stow across the tier of containers. C. To avoid excess load placed on the tank top. D. To ensure an even distribution of weight throughout the stack.

224. What contributes to wear-down of twistlocks on a container vessel? A. The continuous action of longitudinal forces. B. Careless handling by stevedores. C. Improper greasing procedures. D. Continuous use with containers exceeding 40' in length.

368

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225. What items of container securing equipment must be used in conjunction with buttresses? A. Double stacking cones or link plates. B. Twistlocks. C. Single stacking cones. D. Single stacking cones and bridge fittings.

226. When planning the loading of containers, the planning officer must refer to: A. The Cargo Securing Manual (CSM). B. The Safety of Life at Sea Convention (SOLAS). C. The Cargo Stowage and Security (CSS) Code. D. MARPOL 73/78 Annex IV.

227. "Passivation" is a restorative process periodically applied to stainless steel tanks on a chemical tanker. What effect does this process have on the steel surface? A. It restores and reforms the passive Chromium Hydroxide surface layer. B. It restricts active corrosion on the surface steel. C. It restores the surface steel to an even and smooth finish, thereby encouraging

drainage

during

discharge. D. It causes a chemical reaction, which produces a new inert Chromium Oxide layer on the surface of the steel.

228. A cargo pumproom or other enclosed space which contains cargo handling equipment on a chemical tanker shall be fitted with a mechanical ventilation system, capable of being controlled from outside the space. What is the minimum number of atmosphere changes per hour, based on the total volume of the space, that such a system must deliver? A. Not less than 30 changes per hour. B. Not less than 10 changes per hour. C. If the ventilation is permanent, it shall deliver at least 20 changes per hour; 369

DPKP

if it involves part recirculation, then it shall deliver at least 30 changes per hour. D. There is no specified minimum number of changes, provided it is running continuously throughout any cargo operation.

229. Basic manual dew point measurement devices are commonly used by surveyors when monitoring the dryness of a cargo tank prior to loading a liquid chemical product. Which of the descriptions below is a summary of how the measurement is carried out? A. A small quantity of Acetone is placed into the device and dry-ice is progressively added to it to steadily reduce the temperature. A sample of the atmosphere in the tank is continuously drawn through the device, passing over the polished or mirrored surface of the container. When the first drop of mositure (dew) is observed to form on the polished surface, the temperature of the Acetone bath is noted. Reference may be required to tables to correct the reading for desired parameters. B. A quantity of Acetone is placed into the device and dry-ice is progressively added to it to steadily reduce the temperature. A sample of the atmosphere in the tank is continuously pumped through the liquid. Bubbles will be seen to reach the surface of the bath until the dew point is reached. When the flow of bubbles ceases, the temperature of the Acetone is noted. Reference may be required to tables to correct the reading for desired parameters. C. A small quantity of dry-ice is placed into the device, submerged in deionized water. A sample of the atmosphere in the tank is continuously drawn through the device, passing across a reagent filter. When the dew point is reached, this reagent filter will change colour from white to green, indicating saturation. The temperature of the deionized water is noted at this time and corresponds to the dew point. Reference to correction tables is required to correct the reading for barometric pressure. D. A small quantity of Methanol is placed into the device and dry-ice is progressively added to it to steadily reduce the temperature. A sample of the atmosphere in the tank is continuously drawn through the device, passing over the surface of the Methanol. When the first signs of evaporation are observed (smoke rising from the surface), the temperature of the Methanol 370

DPKP

is noted. Reference may be required to tables to correct the reading for calculation purposes.

230. Chemical tankers of 20,000 tonnes DWT or above, with a keel laid on or after 1st July 1986, when carrying flammable products with a flashpoint not exceeding 60 degrees Celsius, such as those listed in chapters 17 and 18 of the International Bulk Chemical Code, are exempt from the requirement to be fitted with and use an inert gas plant provided certain conditions are met.

Which of the following is a

summary of those conditions? A. The cargo tank does not exceed 3000 cubic metres capacity / each tank washing machine nozzle does not exceed 17.5 cubic metres per hour delivery rate / the total wash water input to the tank from all tank washing machines does not exceed 110 cubic metres per hour. B. The cargo tank is greater than 3000 cubic metres capacity / each tank washing machine nozzle is capable of delivering a minimum of 17.5 cubic metres per hour / the total wash water input to the tank from all tank washing machines must be at least 110 cubic metres per hour. C. The cargo tank does not exceed 1250 cubic metres capacity / each tank washing machine nozzle does not exceed 12.5 cubic metres per hour delivery rate / the total wash water input to the tank from all tank washing machines does not exceed 90 cubic metres per hour. D. The cargo tank is greater than 1250 cubic metres capacity / the number of tank washing machines in use at any one time must be such that no more than 17.5 cubic metres per hour is delivered / the minimum quantity of wash water delivered in the washing operation must be greater than 110 cubic metres.

231. High level and high-high level alarms must be tested at the tank for proper operation within 24 hours of the start of cargo transfer on a chemical tanker. What acceptable alternative is there to this requirement? A. That a function test is carried out by means of an automatic self-test and circuit monitoring facility within the alarm system. B. There is no alternative to this requirement. The test must be conducted at the tank location and the audible and visual alrams sighted. The results must 371

DPKP

be logged accordingly. C. That a function test is carried out on completion of cleaning operations following discharge. D. That a programme of maintenance, including selective function tests, exists within the vessel's Planned maintenance System, provided all such level alarms are tested at least once within a period of three months.

232. How would you determine whether a particular cargo transfer hose was compatible with the chemical product to be transferred? A. Refer to the product entry in the hose manufacturer's chemical resistance chart. B. Check the product classification mark stamped on the flange collar of the hose. C. Check the colour of the hose against the general classification code in the IBC Code. D. There will be no need to check. If the hose has been supplied to a chemical tanker, it will have been certified for the transfer of all chemical products.

233. 118. If your chemical tanker is equipped with high velocity venting valves, at what minimum height above the weather deck or catwalk should they be installed? A. 3 metres B. 2.5 metres C. 4.5 metres D. 6 metres

234. In a typical shipboard de-humidifier plant as may be found on a modern chemical tanker, operating on a "rotating bed" principle, what names are given to the two parts of the rotating bed? A. The "process sector" and the "reactivation sector". B. The "inbound sector" and "outbound sector". C. The "active sector" and the "dormant sector". D. The "live sector" and the "reserve sector".

372

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235. The IBC Code prescribes certain design conditions for a cargo heating or cooling system fitted to a chemical tanker. What does it require in respect of pressure within such a system, for any condition other than when it is empty? A. That a higher pressure can be maintained within the system than the maximum pressure head that could be exerted by the contents of the cargo tank on that system. B. That a lower pressure will be maintained within the system than the actual pressure head that is being exerted by the contents of the cargo tank on that system. C. That the system must be fitted with automatic control valves that will maintain the inlet pressure at not less than 0.2 bar above the return pressure. D. That an automatic alarm is fitted to alert the operator when the pressure within the system drops to within 0.2 bar of the pressure measured at the lowest located cargo pressure sensor within the tank.

236. The specified maximum working pressure of a cargo hose in service on a chemical tanker should be at least which of the following? A. 10 bar gauge. B. 12 bar gauge. C. 5 bar gauge. D. 1/3 design burst pressure.

237. To what pressure will a new length of cargo hose be tested by a manufacturer prior to its supply to a vessel for service onboard a chemical tanker? A. Not less than one and a half times its specified maximum working pressure, but not more than two-fifths of its bursting pressure. B. Not more than one and a half times its specified maximum working pressure, but not less than two-fifths of its bursting pressure. C. Not less than one and a half times its nominal bursting pressure, but

not

more than four-fifths of its specified maximum working pressure. D. 2 times its designed working pressure, but not more than three-fifths of its nominal bursting pressure.

373

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238. What temperature defines "hot" water in the context of tank washing on a chemical tanker? A. At least 60 degrees Celsius. B. At least 70 degrees Celsius. C. At least 40 degrees Celsius. D. A minimum of 10 degrees Celsius above the discharge temperature of the cargo.

239. When a submerged centrifugal cargo pump is being run at too high a speed during discharge of a viscous chemical cargo, the pump may start racing, causing a heat build-up around the suction, possible localised solidification of the cargo and consequent damage to the pump. What term is applied to this problem? A. Cavitation. B. Gravitation. C. Aggregation. D. Synthesis.

240. Which of the following is a summary of the features of a "controlled tank venting system" as may be found on a chemical tanker? A. PV valves are fitted to limit the pressure or vacuum in the tank; no shut-off valves may be fitted either above or below the PV valves; provision may be made to by-pass the PV valves under certain operating conditions; such a system shall consist of a primary and secondary means of allowing full flow of vapour, except that the secondary system may be replaced by pressure sensors fitted within the tank. B. PV valves are fitted to limit the pressure or vacuum within the tank; the PV valves shall be capable of being isolated or by-passed; the system shall be supplemented by pressure sensors within the cargo tank. C. The system permits vapour recovery via a collection manifold which may be connected to a shore reception facility. D. The system is fitted to a tank used for cargoes having a flash point not exceeding 60 degrees Celsius and is fitted with a device to prevent the passage of flame into the cargo tank.

374

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241. You are carrying a bulk cargo of Phosphoric Acid. Which components of the cargo pumps may be damaged as a result of discharging this particular cargo and why? A. The cargo seals may be damaged from the abbrasive effect of any sediment. B. The outer casing may be corroded by the unstable impurities within the acid. C. The impeller veins may be damaged as a result of the relatively high density of the cargo if the pumps are run at too high a speed. D. The valves in the associated piping may be distorted by pressure surges created by cavitation as the acid is discharged

242. A five yearly thorough survey of cargo gear on a General Cargo vessel should be carried out by: A. A classification society surveyor. B. The master. C. A deck officer designated by the master. D. A marine surveyor appointed by the company.

243. A General Cargo vessel has a 50 tonne SWL heavy lift derrick and a load of 48 tonnes is to be loaded. The lifting gear of slings and spreader bar weighs 4 tonnes. In this case, it would be correct to state that: A. The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the lifting gear will exceed the SWL by two tonnes. B. The load can be loaded because the load itself is less than the SWL of the derrick. C. The load can be loaded because the SWL can sometimes be exceeded by small amounts in cargo operations, since the Breaking Load of the slings is much higher. D. The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the lifting gear must be at least 10% less than the SWL of the derrick.

375

DPKP

244. During a pre-loading survey on board a General Cargo ship, the most efficient method of testing the weather tightness of the hatch covers is considered to be: A. Ultra sonic test. B. Chalk test. C. Visual inspection. D. Hose test.

245. During cargo watch on a General Cargo ship, if the OOW informs you that the condition of the discharge equipment such as slings and shackles being used by the stevedores is unsuitable for use, you should: A. Inform stevedores of concern and protest by letter. B. Continue

discharge

as

planned

and

inform

Designated

Person

Ashore(DPA). C. Refuse to discharge and inform the local agents. D. Provide ships equipment to discharge.

246. Information about the maximum point loading in cargo holds and on decks of a General Cargo Vessel may be obtained from: A. Ships Capacity plan. B. General Arrangement plan. C. Docking plan. D. Planned maintenance schedules.

247. On a general cargo ship, operating the heavy lift derricks with the boom close to horizontal could result in: A. Excessive stresses acting on parts of the derrick system. B. The operator having a restricted view of the lifting operation. C. Sudden loss of stability of the vessel. D. Damage to the cargo by ship structures.

376

DPKP

248. On a General Cargo ship, the most likely cause of a hatch cover hydraulic system to deteriorate would be: A. Due to dust and cargo particles lodged around the piston seals. B. Due to repeated hatch cover operations. C. Due to hatch cover operations in high summer temperatures. D. Due to ice accretion on piston jackets.

249. On a General Cargo vessel, a 16T derrick should be tested to a proof load of: A. 20T B. 18T C. 22T D. 24T

250. Prior to loading cotton on a General Cargo vessel, it is important to ensure that: A. The cargo hold fire-fighting system is thoroughly examined. B. The holds are inspected for signs of previous cargo residues. C. Tank tops should be sheathed. D. The cargo hold ventilation system is thoroughly examined.

251. Prior to loading general cargo on a General Cargo vessel, with regard to lashing wires, terminations, shackles, turnbuckles, pad eyes and D rings etc., you must make sure that: A. They must all be certified and be visually inspected for any apparent damage. B. They must all be visually inspected. C. They must all be certified. D. Lashing wires must be new whereas other accessories may be certified.

377

DPKP

252. Proper guidance on the stowage and securing of general cargo may be obtained by referring to: A. IMO Code of practice for stowage and securing of cargoes. B. IMO Code of Practice for Bulk and General Cargoes. C. International Load Line Regulations. D. IMO Code of Practice for maintaining stowage safety on cargo ships.

253. The lifting plant on a General Cargo vessel be proof load tested: A. When equipment is new, every five years and after repairs or major modifications. B. Only after initial installation of equipment. C. Only when major repairs have been carried out to the equipment. D. Every four years and after major repairs and modifications.

254. The main purpose of a hatch cover ventilator grill on a General Cargo vessel is: A. To prevent sparks entering the cargo hold. B. To prevent the ventilator fans from damage. C. To prevent moisture from entering the hold. D. To act as a strength member inside the ventilation shaft. 255. The ship’s lifting plant must be proof load tested and all parts thoroughly examined at intervals not exceeding: A. 5 years B. 3 years C. 1 year D. 6 months

378

DPKP

256. When general cargo is damaged during heavy weather on a General Cargo vessel, it must be ensured that the damage is inspected by the: A. Surveyor representing the vessel's P. & I. Club. B. Class surveyor. C. Surveyor representing the vessel's hull & machinery underwriters. D. Surveyor representing the consignee.

257. According to "Summary of minimum requirements" in the IGC Code, what is the requirement for vapour detection for methane (LNG) cargoes? A. Flammable vapour detection. B. Toxic vapour detection. C. Flammable and toxic detection. D. Oxygen analyser.

258. According to the IMO Gas Code, what is the requirement for the number of sets of portable gas detection equipment that must be carried onboard an LNG carrier? A. There must be at least two sets. B. There must be at least one set. C. Sets of portable gas detection equipment are only required to be carried when there is no fixed installation. D. It is only necessary to carry a portable oxygen analyser.

259. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what are the maximum time intervals for sampling and analysing samples from the permanent installed gas detection system on a LNG carrier? A. 30 minutes. B. 20 minutes. C. 45 minutes. D. 10 minutes.

379

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260. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what is the required number of temperature indicating devices in the cargo tanks of an LNG carrier? A. At least two devices in each tank. B. At least three devices in each tank. One placed at the bottom of the tank, one in the middle of the tank and one near the top of the tank. C. One device in each tank. D. There is no requirement for the number of devices.

261. Gas carrier type A and B cargo tanks have a MARVS of less than 0.7 barg? What is the liquid and vapour connection shut off valve requirement for this type of tank according to the IMO gas codes? A. Single shut-off valves with manual closing facility. B. Double remote operated shut off valves. C. One manually operated globe valve and one remotely operated valve. D. Double butterfly valves fitted in series.

262. LNG tankers are often fitted with fixed water spray system for fire protection purposes for deck areas, deck tanks, deck manifolds and pipelines. What is the minimum required flow rate of water per minute for horizontal and vertical surfaces to ensure adequate, uniform coverage of these areas? A. 10 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces and 4 litre/m2 per minute for vertical surfaces. B. 20 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces and 10 litre/m2 per minute for vertical surfaces. C. 100 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces and 50 litre/m2 per minute for vertical surfaces. D. 50 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces and 25 litre/m2 per minute for vertical surfaces.

380

DPKP

263. Select, from the options given, the one that best describes a requirement of the remotely controlled valves fitted in the ESD (Emergency Shut-Down) systems on an LNG carrier? A. They must be fail-safe. B. They must be pneumatically operated. C. They must be hydraulically operated. D. They must be electrically operated.

264. Some LNG carriers are fitted with a water glycol system for heating the cofferdam spaces next to cargo tanks when the vessel is loaded. What is the purpose of this heating system? A. To maintain the temperature inside the space above 5 degrees C to protect the steel. B. To maintain the temperature inside the space at approximately 25 degrees C to prevent the fuel tanks from cooling down too much. C. To maintain the temperature inside the space at approximately 15 degrees C to protect the insulation. D. To maintain the temperature inside the space at below minus 5 degrees C to reduce cargo vaporisation.

265. What is the minimum requirement with respect to pressure relief valves on the cargo tanks of an LNG carrier where the individual tanks are over 20 cubic metres capacity? A. Two valves. B. One valve. C. Three valves. D. There is no such requirement.

381

DPKP

266. What is the preferred method of accommodating expansion in cargo pipeline systems on LNG carriers? A. Use expansion loops. B. Use sliding couplings. C. Use expansion bellows. D. Use Viking Johnson expansion couplings.

267. What is the purpose of the "forcing vaporizer" found in some LNG carrier cargo plants? A. To provide gas for burning in the boiler. B. To displace inert gas from cargo tanks. C. For initial heating in the insulating spaces. D. To discharge cargo without a vapour return from shore.

268. When LNG is used as fuel a double wall piping system must be used in the engine room. What condition should the annular space between the concentric pipes be maintained in when the fuel system is in service? A. Filled with nitrogen at a pressure greater than the LNG fuel pressure. B. Filled with nitrogen at a pressure less than the LNG fuel pressure. C. Filled with nitrogen at a partial vacuum. D. Maintained at a full vacuum.

269. Which kind of cargo pumps are the most commonly used in cargo systems for LNG carriers? A. Submerged electric motor pumps. B. Hydraulic driven submerged pumps. C. Electric driven screw pumps. D. Hydraulic driven screw pumps.

382

DPKP

270. Which line can be utilized to prevent line surge when starting the main pumps of a LNG carrier's cargo system? A. The condensate spray line. B. The inert gas line. C. The vent line. D. The aeration pipes.

271. Which of the following insulation materials that are used in the cargo containment systems for LNG carriers has the highest diffusion resistance? A. Polyurethane foam. B. Balsa wood. C. Perlite. D. Mineral wool.

272. A chlorine carrier must be equipped with a chlorine absorption plant connected to the cargo tanks and cargo lines. This requirement includes the provision of gas detectors for the spaces and areas around the cargo containment system and the absorption plant outlet. What is the recommended setting for the visual and audible alarms of the gas detectors? A. 5 ppm. B. 10 ppm. C. 15 ppm. D. 20 ppm.

273. Cargo heaters are frequently used when discharging refrigerated LPG cargoes into pressurised shore tanks. What would be a typical "heating range" required from a heater for discharge of fully refrigerated propane? A. From - 45 C to - 5 C. B. From - 55 C to - 15 C. C. From - 35 C to + 5 C. D. From -25 C to +15 C.

383

DPKP

274. Cargo hoses intended for liquefied gas carriers have to be prototyped tested before being approved. When new hoses of an already approved type are received onboard they also need to be pressure tested before being put into service. What are the IMO Gas Code requirements for such hoses before they are put into service? A. Not less than 1.5 times the specified maximum

working

pressure

or

more than two fifths of bursting pressure at ambient temperature. B. Not less than 1.5 times the specified maximum working pressure or more than two fifths of bursting pressure at the expected cargo carriage temperature. C. 5 times the specified maximum working pressure at ambient temperature. D. 5 times the specified maximum working pressure at expected cargo carriage temperature.

275. LPG carriers rely heavily on the compressors fitted as part of the reliquefaction plant. Screw and reciprocating types are widely used. Which type of reciprocating compressor is most common as a cargo compressor? A. Double acting, single stage, oil free compressor. B. Double acting, single stage, oil lubricated piston compressor. C. Single acting, single stage, oil free piston compressor. D. Double acting, two stage, oil free compressor.

276. Most reliquefaction plants on LPG carriers use a direct cooling system. Which of the statements given in the options best describes a direct cooling cycle? A. Cargo vapours are drawn off by a compressor, compressed, condensed than passed through an expansion valve back to the tank. B. Cargo liquid is pumped to a condenser where it is cooled by seawater and then passed through an expansion valve back to the cargo tank. C. Refrigerant gas is passed through a cooling coil in the cargo tank vapour space which cools the cargo vapour below the dew point turning it back into 384

DPKP

liquid cargo. D. All direct cooling systems require a refrigerant gas cooled vapour condenser so that the lowest possible temperature is achieved to change the vapour back to the liquid state.

277. Some liquefied gas carriers are fitted with nitrogen generating equipment, often of the membrane module design. What would be the expected purity of the nitrogen produced by such equipment? A. 95 to 97% pure nitrogen. B. 100% pure nitrogen. C. 90 to 92% pure nitrogen. D. 87 to 89% pure nitrogen.

278. The IMO Gas Codes require that all liquefied gas carrier cargo tanks are fitted with pressure relief valves. Pilot operated relief valves are frequently used, particularly with refrigerated cargoes. What is the main advantage of using pilot operated relief valves rather than simple spring loaded types for refrigerated liquefied gas cargoes tanks? A. They ensure accurate operation at the very low cargo carriage pressures. B. They ensure accurate operation at the very low cargo carriage temperatures. C. The set pressure can be adjusted to above MARVS if problems occur with the reliquefaction plant. D. When pilot operated valves are used only one valve per cargo tank is required irrespective of tank size.

279. The reliquefaction plant for cargo cooling of liquefied gas cargoes can operate on either a direct or indirect cycle. On which liquefied gas cargoes must indirect cycle cargo cooling plant be used according to the IMO Gas Codes? A. Cargoes such as chlorine, ethylene oxide and propylene oxide for which the vapours cannot be compressed due to temperature restrictions. B. LPG cargoes being carried in north European waters during winter time C. All liquefied cargoes in north European waters during winter time D. Cargoes such as butadiene and vinyl chloride which need two stage cycle with intercooling. 385

DPKP

280. There are a number of standard reliquefaction plants commonly fitted onboard LPG and other liquefied gas carriers. What type of reliquefaction plant is required for a cargo of Ethylene Oxide? A. Indirect cycle. B. Cascade direct cycle. C. Two-stage direct cycle. D. Single-stage direct cycle.

281. There are strict rules governing the placement and category of electrical equipment allowed in certain areas of liquefied gas carriers. One such category is that of flameproof enclosures. What is a flameproof enclosure? A. One which can withstand the pressure build-up during an internal ignition of a flammable mixture and is designed to cool any flames occurring within the enclosure to below the ignition temperature. B. One which is maintained under positive pressure so preventing the formation of a flammable mixture. C. One in which the equipment has such low electrical power that there is insufficient energy to ignite a flammable mixture and cause a flame. D. One which is filled with inert gas to prevent formation and possible ignition of a flammable mixture.

282. What is the main disadvantage of using oil free, screw type compressors for the reliquefaction plant of an LPG carrier? A. The compressor has to run at very high speeds to compensate for internal leakage. B. The compressor rotor elements wear quickly as they have no lubrication. C. The compressors quickly overheat. D. The compressor bearings wear out very quickly.

386

DPKP

283. What is the purpose of an automatic shut-down system fitted onboard most liquefied gas carriers and how is it initiated? A. To prevent overfilling of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a high level sensor in the cargo tank. B. To prevent overfilling of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a back-pressure switch in the cargo loading line. C. To prevent cargo tanks from being overcooled. It is initiated by a temperature switch on the cargo cooling plant. D. To prevent overpressure of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a pressure switch in the cargo tank.

284. What is the purpose of the purge gas condenser fitted to some liquefied gas carrier reliquefaction plants? A. It is used to condense out any cargo vapours which have passed through the main condenser with incondensable gases. B. It is used to condense out any nitrogen or inert gas that has collected in the main condenser. C. It is used to condense all of the cargo vapours that have been used in purging a cargo tank. D. It is used to generate the cargo vapours required for purging the cargo tanks.

285. When measuring the liquid level in the cargo tank of a liquefied gas carrier a number of different corrections may be necessary to get a true reading. Why do readings obtained from a float type ullage tape sometimes require a 'tape correction'? A. The length of tape in contact with very cold cargo vapours may contract. B. The float may become heavier and partly sink due to liquid cargo absorption. C. The vessel may not be on an even keel when the readings are taken. D. The vessel may have a list when the readings are taken.

387

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286. Which type of reliquefaction plant can have the cooling coil placed directly in the vapour space of the cargo tank? A. One type of the indirect cycle reliquefaction plants. B. The cascade direct cycle reliquefaction plant. C. The single-stage direct cycle reliquefaction plant. D. The two-stage direct cycle reliquefaction plant. 287. A “Pellistor” is: A. It is an electrical sensor unit fitted in a flammable gas detector for measuring hydrocarbon vapours and air mixtures to determine whether the mixture is within the flammable range B. It is the common term applied to the metal,

ceramic

or

other

heat-

resisting material which can cool even an intense flame below the temperature required for ignition, as utilised in a flame arrester C. It is the electrical sensor which detects low pressure in an Inert Gas generating control system D. It is the reactive element in an oil / water interface detector

288. According to 33 CFR 156, for oil tankers trading in US waters, the minimum requirement for testing of cargo transfer hoses and associated piping system are: A. That no leakage occurs under static liquid pressure of at least 1.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure. B. That no leakage occurs under static liquid pressure of at least 1.25 times the maximum allowable working pressure. C. That no leakage occurs under dynamic fluid pressure of less than 1.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure. D. That no leakage occurs at the nominal anticipated working pressure.

388

DPKP

289. After passing through the scrubbing tower of an inert gas system, the approximate level of carbon dioxide in the inert flue gas should be: A. 13% B. 1% C. 3% D. 21%

290. An oil tanker with a defective Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment may be allowed by a Port State Authority to trade for: A. One

ballast

voyage

before

proceeding to a repair port. B. One ballast and one loaded voyage, provided no cleaning operations are carried out. C. An indefinite period as long as the owners can demonstrate they have ordered the spare parts for repairs. D. One year, provided that the vessel is scheduled for a dry-dock during the next 12 months.

291. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning machine with a rotational speed of 1 rpm and a selected pitch angle of 1.5 degrees is used to perform a bottom wash with a vertical angle from 40 degrees to 0 degrees for 1.5 cycles (3 passes). If the throughput of the machine at design pressure is 90 m3/hr, what will be the washing time and quantity of crude oil required? A. 40 minutes and 60 cubic metres of oil. B. 30 minutes and 45 cubic metres of oil. C. 48 minutes and 70 cubic metres of oil. D. 36 minutes and 48 cubic metres of oil.

389

DPKP

292. As per IMO requirements, the mechanical ventilation system of the cargo pump room shall be capable of making: A. At least 20 air changes per hour B. At least 30 air changes per hour C. At least 40 air changes per hour D. At least 50 air changes per hour

293. As per OPA 90 requirements, a vessel over 400 feet (121.9 metres) in length must carry oil spill clean-up gear to be able to handle oil spillages of: A. 12 barrels (1.91 cubic metres). B. 15 barrels (2.38 cubic metres). C. 5 barrels (0.79 cubic metre). D. 1 barrel (0.16 cubic metre). 294. Fluid driven eductors operate on Bernoulli’s principle, which states that: A. The speed of a moving fluid increases as the pressure in the fluid decreases. B. The volume of a fluid increases as the pressure in it decreases.The increase in pressure at the eductor inlet is inversely proportional to the decrease in pressure as measured at the discharge orifice. C. The discharge rate is inversely proportional to the pressure applied in the drive inlet. 295. Ship’s cargo pump room alarm must be automatically activated when levels of hydrocarbon gas concentration are: A. No higher than 10% of LEL. B. No higher than 15% of LEL. C. No higher than 20% of LEL. D. No higher than 5% of LEL.

390

DPKP

296. The automatic stripping systems fitted on some of the centrifugal cargo pumps operate on the principle that: A. If cargo vapour can be stopped from entering the cargo pump suction inlet, the flow will continue without cavitation. B. If the suction is fitted low enough in the cargo oil tank and a specified minimum

trim

is

maintained,

suction will be available until the tank is completely discharged. C. By automatically reducing the rate at which oil cargo enters the cargo pump, such that no vapour is lifted along with the liquid, there will be no loss of suction. D. By the optimum size and positioning of the suction inlet that feeds the automatic stripping system, the cargo oil tank is discharged to the maximum possible extent.

297. The calibration of the ODME is carried with the use of: A. Fresh water. B. The product being carried on that voyage. C. Approved bio-degradable light oil D. Sea water.

298. The difference between the absolute pressure of a liquid at the inlet to a cargo pump and the vapour pressure of the liquid is called the: A. Net Positive Suction Head Available. B. Net Positive Suction Head Requirement. C. Residual Suction Head Pressure. D. Effective Suction Head Pressure.

391

DPKP

299. The inert gas system shall be capable of delivering inert gas to the cargo tanks at the rate of: A. At least 125% of the maximum discharge capacity. B. At least 150% of the maximum discharge capacity. C. At least 200% of the maximum discharge capacity. D. Equal to the cargo discharge capacity.

300. The typical amounts of sulphur dioxide gas in flue gas produced when burning high sulphur content fuels would be: A. 2,000 ppm B. 200 ppm C. 4,000 ppm D. 850 ppm

301. The usual pressure and vacuum levels at which the P/V valves on board an oil tanker are required to activate are: A. Pressure: 1 psi (0.069 bar) Vacuum: 0.5 psi (0.034 bar) B. Pressure: 3.2 psi (0.22 bar) Vacuum: 1 psi (0.069 bar) C. Pressure 7 psi (0.048 bar) Vacuum: 1 psi (0.069 bar) D. Pressure: 0.5 psi (0.034 bar) Vacuum: 0.2 psi (0.014 bar)

302. When in-service testing a hose used for cargo transfer on an oil tanker (and for which the elongation of the hose assembly when new was greater than 2.5%), the maximum permitted elongation before the hose must be withdrawn from service should be: A. Not more than 1.5 times the temporary

elongation

measured

when the hose assembly was new, as

documented

in

the

manufacturer's certificate. B. Not

less

temporary

than

1.5

elongation

times

the

measured

when the hose assembly was new, as documented in the manufacturer's certificate. 392

DPKP

C. Not more than 1.5 times the temporary elongation measured at the previous in-service test, as documented in the ship's annual test record. D. Not more than 1.25 times the temporary elongation measured when the hose assembly was last tested, as documented in the appropriate certificate.

303. When tank cleaning hoses are tested for electrical continuity, they must display a reading of: A. Not greater than 6 ohms per metre length. B. Not more than 10 ohms per metre length. C. At least 8 ohms per metre length. D. It depends on the manufacturer's recommendations.

304. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the navigation bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be identified in the emergency plans? A. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts threatening the safety of the ship and the security of its passenger

and

crew,

Pesonnel

accidents, Cargo-related accidents, Emergency assistance to other ships B. Fire,

Evacuation,

Personnel

accidents

Pollution, and

Ship

Security C. Evacuation, Fire, Pollution and Man-Over-Board D. Man-Over-Board, Evacuation and Fire

393

DPKP

305. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger cabins. Which information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency instructions? A. The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals B. Escape routes and alarm signals C. Name of cabin attendant D. Where to find thermal protective aids

306. Here do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for lifesaving appliances? A. Life-Saving Apliance Code (LSA Code) B. SOLAS C. ISM Code D. Safety Management System

307. How many lifejackets are required in a passenger cabin? A. Same number as beds in the cabin B. At least 2 C. Twice the number of beds in the cabin D. Non, they will be handed out at the muster station

308. How many rescue boats should be provided on passenger ships of 500 gross tons and above? A. Two, one on each side of the ship B. Two, and at least one of the rescue boats shall be a Fast Rescue Boat C. One Fast Rescue Boat D. None

394

DPKP

309. How many two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatus shall be provided on board a passenger ship of 500 gross tonnage and upwards? A. 3 B. 2 C. One for each survival craft D. It is required to have a fixed two-way VHF fitted in a survival craft

310. Is it required that the PA-system (Public Address) is connected to a back-up power sypply? A. Yes, the public address system shall be connected to the emergency source of power B. Yes, only if the voyage is more than 12 hours C. No, the crew will inform the passengers in case of any black out or power failure D. No

311. Is it required to have supplementary emergency lighting on board passenger ships? A. Yes, all passenger public spaces and alleyways shall be provided with supplementary electric lighting B. No, portable battery operated lamps shall be provided in alleyways and public spaces C. No, passengers should bring their own flashlights D. No, reflective marking indicates the escape routes

395

DPKP

312. One water fog applicator is required for each pair of breathing apparatus on board which type of ship? A. Passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers B. Chemical tankers C. Tankers D. Passenger ships fitted with car decks

313. Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1 lifejacket per person + 10% for children. In addition to this, how many lifejackets have to be stowed in conspicuous places on deck or at the muster stations? A. 5% extra B. 10% extra C. 25% extra D. 50% extra

314. Passenger ships shall either carry automatically self-righting liferafts or canopied reversible liferafts. What does it mean that a liferaft is automatically self-righting? A. The liferaft will automatically turn back into an upright position when it is empty of people B. The liferaft will automatically turn back into an upright position when it is fully loaded with people C. One person can manage to turn the liferaft back into an upright position D. It means the same as self-righting lifeboats

315. What is the minimum number of independently driven fire pumps that must be provided on passenger ships of 4000 tons gross tonnage and upwards? A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5

396

DPKP

316. What is the minimum number of lifebuoys that shall be provided with self-igniting lights an self-activating smoke signals? A. 2 B. 4 C. 50% of the total number of lifebuoys D. At least 1

317. What is the name of this unit? A. A hydrostatic release unit B. A liferaft release unit C. An antistatic release unit D. A slip hook

318. What is the purpose of an evacuation analysis? A. To identify and eliminate, as far as practicable, congestion which may develop during an abandonment B. To ensure the ship can be evacuated in less than 30 minutes C. To

provide

port

state

control

inspectors with reports D. To provide the passengers with written results of the analysis

319. What is the time limit for abandonment of passenger ships? A. 30 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given B. 15 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given C. 2 hours from the time the abandon ship signal is given D. There is no time limit

397

DPKP

320. Where do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for fire safety systems? A. Fire Safety Systems Code (FSS Code) B. SOLAS C. ISM Code D. Safety Management System

321. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board passenger ships? A. From the navigation bridge and in at least one other location B. Navigation bridge C. Captain's- and Chief Officer's office D. Captain's office

322. Which one of the listed requirements for passenger ships regarding personal lifesaving appliances do not correspond to present regulations? A. All lifejackets shall be fitted with a whistle, a light and a smoke signal B. Ro-ro passenger ships shall carry at least 2 lifebuoys provided with self-igniting lights an self-activating smoke signals C. All lifejackets shall be fitted with reflex, a whistle and a light D. The 5% extra lifejackets carried on board have to be stowed in conspicuous places on deck or at the muster stations?

398

DPKP

323. As part of the decommissioning process for old reefer vessels they are sent to a recycling yard where any refrigerant remaining in the refrigeration system is dealt with. Which one of the actions given in the options needs to be carried out in preparation for delivery of a vessel to a recycling yard? A. Make

a

careful

note

of

the

quantities of gas onboard and note this in the Ozone depletionrecord Book prior to discharging the gas into recovery bottles. B. Make

a

careful

note

of

the

quantities of gas onboard prior to arrival at the yard and note this in the Ozone Depleting Record Book. C. Make a careful note of the quantities of gas onboard and note this in the Ozone Depleting Record Book before discharging the gas to atmosphere. D. Discharge the gas to atmosphere prior to arrival to minimise handling costs at the recycling yard.

324. As well as having temperature sensors located in the cargo holds some reefer vessels are also fitted with ethylene sensors. Why is it useful to have information regarding the ethylene content in a reefer vessel cargo hold when carrying fruit cargoes? A. Some fruit cargoes are sensitive to ethylene and the quality of the cargo can deteriorate as they may over-ripen. B. The ethylene content can be used as a guide as to when air change fans need to run. C. The ethylene content is beneficial to perishable cargoes in transit so the content needs to be monitored in case the level falls. D. The ethylene content must be maintained to help ripen the fruit during the sea voyage.

399

DPKP

325. Data loggers are a vital part of the temperature control and monitoring system on a reefer vessel. In a situation where the data logger fails several days before the end of the voyage it is still necessary to maintain control of and monitor cargo temperatures. How could an accurate, portable thermometer be used to the best effect, to achieve this, in such a situation? A. Use the thermometer to check and control the delivery air temperature by inserting it in the delivery air ducting close to the evaporators. B. Use the thermometer to check and control the return air temperature by holding it in the return air space on top of the cargo. C. Use the thermometer to check the pulp temperature by entering the cargo space and placing it in the centre of the stow. D. Use the thermometer to maintain the delivery air settings as they were prior to the data logger breaking down.

326. Despite setting what appears to be the correct delivery air temperatures in accordance with shipper's instructions, large cargo loss claims can still occur when operating reefer vessels. Which of the options given is likely to help avoid the majority of these large claims? A. By confirming the temperature scale that the shipper is using in his carriage instructions, Fahrenheit or Celsius. B. By confirming that the shipper is supplying to a market that works in Fahrenheit or Celsius. C. By confirming that the vessel plant is calibrated in the same temperature scale that the shipper is quoting. D. By confirming the whether the shipper is referring to the delivery air or pulp temperature of the cargo.

400

DPKP

327. Many fruit cargoes are carried refrigerated and also under controlled atmosphere (CA) conditions. A situation develops where there is a problem with the main reefer plant that will take several hours to repair but the CA system is still operation. Which of the statements given in the options is the most accurate in these circumstances? A. The CA plant is only an adjunct for the refrigeration plant and therefore there should be concern about the condition of the cargo. B. The CA plant will take care of the cargo without the refrigeration plant and therefore there is no further action required and no need for concern. C. The CA plant could be used to increase the levels of carbon dioxide in the cargo space which will be sufficient to preserve the fruit. D. The CA plant could be used to increase the levels of nitrogen in the cargo spaces which will be sufficient to preserve the fruit.

328. Many reefer vessels are fitted with controlled atmosphere systems (CA). There are a number of different systems available but generally they all work by introducing nitrogen into the cargo space. Select, from the options given, the main reason why nitrogen is generally the gas chosen for controlling the atmosphere in the cargo spaces of a reefer vessel. A. Nitrogen displaces the oxygen in the cargo space and allows the respiration of the fruit to be controlled. B. Nitrogen is the most plentiful gas available. C. Nitrogen remains as a gas at all temperatures used in refrigerated transport. D. Nitrogen is inert and there is no risk of creating a flammable mixture in the cargo space.

401

DPKP

329. Most fruit cargoes carried under refrigeration require introduction of fresh air into the cargo space to remove any excess carbon dioxide and ethylene produced by respiration of the cargo and sensors are fitted to detect these gases. Shipper's instructions will often indicate 'constant air change' as a requirement for a cargo. Why, even though this is a crude method for controlling the cargo space atmosphere, is this type of instruction given? A. Some cargoes are very sensitive to ethylene levels and it may be difficult to accurately measure the low levels that would affect a cargo. B. It is the standard method and it is always done that way for simplicity. C. As much fresh air as possible should always be introduced into the cargo space throughout the voyage to maintain cargo quality. D. Fresh air helps to acclimatise the cargo to the prevailing ambient conditions.

330. On a conventional reefer vessel is possible to ventilate the cargo spaces with fresh air using fans and trunkings. One of the reasons for using fresh air ventilation is to control the relative humidity within the cargo space. Select the option which best completes the following statement. "It is beneficial to be able to control the relative humidity within the cargo space because fruit cargoes should be kept… A. …relatively moist to avoid the cargo dehydrating during the passage." B. … relatively dry to avoid the formation of fungus in the vent trunkings during the passage." C. …relatively dry to avoid deterioration of the packaging during the passage." D. ... As dry as possible to avoid build up of mould during the passage."

331. On a reefer vessel air is passed over the cooling coils before entering the cargo hatch via trunking to cool the cargo. It is important to ensure that the cooling coils are clear of any material such as plastic sheeting or bags. Why is this so important? A. The plastic may interfere with the air flow over the cooling coils and subsequently the cooling of the cargo. B. The plastic sheeting may be picked up by and foul the cooling fans. C. The plastic material may block scuppers and bilges. D. The plastic material may affect condensation forming on the cooling coils.

402

DPKP

332. Prior to loading a reefer cargo it is good practise to carry out an 'ice test' of the temperature sensors within the cargo space. Part of the test is to immerse the sensors in a test bucket of known temperature, usually zero degrees Celsius as this is the melting point of ice. Which of the options is correct in relation to preparing the test bucket? A. Insulated ice buckets should be filled with ice cubes approximately 2 centimetres square and a small quantity of distilled water to produce an icewater mixture. The ice cubes should be produced from clean distilled water. B. Insulated ice buckets should be filled with ice cubes approximately 2 centimetres square which have been made from clean distilled water. C. Insulated ice buckets should be filled with ice produced in the vessel's low temperature chamber. A hole the exact size of the sensor should be drilled into the ice and the sensor inserted into the hole to give a rapid test process. D. Insulated ice buckets should be filled with crushed ice purchased in bulk from a shore supplier.

333. Refrigerated cargo spaces are fitted with temperature sensors and in some cases carbon dioxide sensors. From the options given select the one which best completes the following statement. "Monitoring the carbon dioxide content in a cargo space loaded with fruit can be useful because… A. … increasing levels indicate that the fruit may be starting to ripen." B. … its presence indicates that the fruit is ripe." C. … low levels indicate that there are insufficient numbers of air changes." D. … its presence indicates that the fruit is still not ripe."

334. Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. "A conventional reefer vessel operating with a controlled atmosphere plant must have cargo spaces which… A. … have a gas tight seal." B. … have a minimum number of deckhead and bulkhead penetrations." C. … have the normal bulkhead and deckhead penetrations required for a reefer compartment." D. … are fitted with variable speed fans."

403

DPKP

335. The data logger on a reefer vessel normally records temperatures for air delivery, air return and cargo pulp. How would the air delivery and return temperatures be expected to vary during the first few days of carrying a cargo of citrus fruit which had not been pre-cooled before loading? A. The difference between the two temperatures would steadily reduce. B. The difference between the two temperatures would steadily increase. C. The difference between the two temperatures would remain constant. D. The two temperatures would remain constant 336. To correctly interpret the readings on the printout from a reefer vessel’s cargo data logger it is essential to have some knowledge of the location of the temperature sensors. Where would the temperature sensor for the delivery air to a cargo hold be expected to be located? A. In the air flow path from the cooling coils, about 3 metres from the coils. B. In the air flow path from the cooling coils, but at the opposite end of the cargo space to the coils. C. Just above the cooling coils where the air returns from the cargo space. D. Near the centre of the cargo space.

337. What should be done with the data logger printouts after completing the discharge of a refrigerated cargo? A. They should be retained onboard for a minimum of 2 years. B. They should be retained onboard indefinitely. C. They can be discarded once the discharge is completed. D. They should be handed over to the cargo receiver.

338. During sea passage on a roro vessel, how would you know if gasoline vapours were escaping from vehicles? A. By using flammable gas detectors in the vehicle decks B. By sense of smell C. By using oxygen meters in the vehicle decks D. By using carbon monoxide meters in the vehicle decks

404

DPKP

339. On a roro vessel, to what should you pay very close attention, when inspecting the structure and condition of movable car decks? A. Cracks in way of deck supports B. General condition of the portable deck C. Safety markings on the portable deck D. Abrasions over the deck surface

340. On a roro vessel, what additional securing arrangements should be used when loading a vehicle on an incline or fixed Ramp A. The Vehicle should also be chocked under its wheels B. Double the normal lashings should be used C. Lashings should be checked to make sure they are really tight D. None

341. On a roro vessel, what is Maximum Securing Load? A. The load capacity of a device used to secure cargo on board B. The combined capacity of several devices used to secure an item of cargo on board C. The safe working load of a device used to secure cargo on board D. The combined safe working loads of various devices used to secure an items of cargo on board

342. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of 'D' rings? A. 50% of the breaking strength B. 25% of the breaking strength C. 35% of the breaking strength D. 40% of the breaking strength

343. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of fibre ropes? A. 33% of the breaking strength B. 25% of the breaking strength C. 30% of the breaking strength D. 40% of the breaking strength

405

DPKP

344. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of mild steel shackles? A. 50% of the breaking strength B. 40% of the breaking strength C. 35% of the breaking strength D. 25% of the breaking strength

345. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of reusable use wire ropes? A. 30% of the breaking strength B. 25% of the breaking strength C. 35% of the breaking strength D. 40% of the breaking strength

346. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of single use wire ropes? A. 80% of the breaking strength B. 65% of the breaking strength C. 70% of the breaking strength D. 75% of the breaking strength

347. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of web lashings? A. 50% of the breaking strength B. 60% of the breaking strength C. 55% of the breaking strength D. 65% of the breaking strength

348. On a roro vessel, when should a trailer horse be taken out of service A. If there is any damage to the wheel or spring, the frame is rusted or distorted or the pads are worn out B. Every 6 months for routine maintenance C. Once per year D. Never you use them until they collapse

406

DPKP

349. On a roro vessel, where can you find the validity of web lashings A. On the certificate supplied with the equipment B. On the bridge C. In the cargo office D. It does not have one they last forever

350. On a roro vessel, where will escaping gasoline vapourssettle in a cargo hold? If the forced ventilation system is shut down A. At the lowest levels B. At deckhead level C. In ventilator shafts D. At all levels

351. What must you ensure when using portable slopes to discharge ro-ro units? A. They must be exactly aligned with the units' tyres B. They must be new C. They must be free of dirt D. The surfaces must be of the fish-bone type

352. When lowering a roro Cargo Side or Stern Ramp what must be ensured ? A. The vessel is securely moored and there is nothing beneath the ramp B. The ramp must be lowered by the duty officer only C. The ramp must be lowered at the minimum speed D. The ramp surface must be clean

407

DPKP

353. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the navigation bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be identified in the emergency plans? A. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts threatening the safety of the ship and the security of its passenger

and

crew,

Pesonnel

accidents, Cargo-related accidents, Emergency assistance to other ships B. Fire,

Evacuation,

Personnel

accidents

Pollution, and

Ship

Security C. Evacuation, Fire, Pollution and Man-Over-Board D. Man-Over-Board, Evacuation and Fire

354. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger cabins. Which information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency instructions? A. The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals B. Escape routes and alarm signals C. Name of cabin attendant D. Where to find thermal protective aids

355. How many lifejackets are required in a passenger cabin? A. Same number as beds in the cabin B. At least 2 C. Twice the number of beds in the cabin D. None, they will be handed out at the muster station

408

DPKP

356. How many rescue boats should be provided on ro-ro passenger ships of 500 gross tons and above? A. Two, and at least one of the rescue boats shall be a Fast Rescue Boat B. Two Fast Rescue Boats, one on each side of the ship C. One Fast Rescue Boat D. None providing the ship has lifeboats

357. How many two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatus shall be provided on board a ro-ro passenger ship of 500 gross tonnage and upwards? A. 3 B. 2 C. One for each survival craft D. It is required to have a fixed two-way VHF fitted in a survival craft

358. Is it required that the PA-system (Public Address) is connected to a back-up power sypply? A. Yes, the public address system shall be connected to the emergency source of power B. Yes, only if the voyage is more than 12 hours C. No, the crew will inform the passengers in case of any black out or power failure D. No

409

DPKP

359. Is it required to have supplementary emergency lighting on board ro-ro ships? A. Yes, all passenger public spaces and alleyways shall be provided with supplementary electric lighting B. No, portable battery operated lamps shall be provided in alleyways and public spaces C. No, passengers should bring their own flashlights D. No, reflective marking indicates the escape routes

360. Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1 lifejacket per person + 10% for children. In addition to this, how many lifejackets have to be stowed in conspicuous places on deck or at the muster stations? A. 5% extra B. 10% extra C. 25% extra D. 50% extra

361. Ro-ro passenger ships shall either carry automatically self-righting liferafts or canopied reversible liferafts. What does it mean that a liferaft is automatically selfrighting? A. The liferaft will automatically turn back into an upright position when it is empty of people B. The liferaft will automatically turn back into an upright position when it is fully loaded with people C. One person can manage to turn the liferaft back into an upright position D. It means the same as self-righting lifeboats

410

DPKP

362. What is the minimum number of independently driven fire pumps that must be provided on passenger ships of 4000 tons gross tonnage and upwards? A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5

363. What is the minimum number of lifebuoys that shall be provided with self-igniting lights an self-activating smoke signals? A. 2 B. 4 C. 50% of the total number of lifebuoys D. At least 1

364. What is the purpose of an evacuation analysis? A. To identify and eliminate, as far as practicable, congestion which may develop during an abandonment B. To ensure the ship can be evacuated in less than 30 minutes C. Provide port state control inspectors with reports D. To provide the passengers with written results of the analysis

365. What is the time limit for abandonment of ro-ro passenger ships? A. 30 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given B. 15 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given C. 2 hours from the time the abandon ship signal is given D. There is no time limit

411

DPKP

366. What is this? A. A hydrostatic release unit B. A liferaft release unit C. An antistatic release unit D. A slip hook

367. Where do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for fire safety systems? A. Fire Safety Systems Code (FSS Code) B. SOLAS C. ISM Code D. Safety Management System

368. Where do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for lifesaving appliances? A. Life-Saving Apliance Code (LSA Code) B. SOLAS C. ISM Code D. Safety Management System

369. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board ro-ro passenger ships? A. From the navigation bridge and in at least one other location B. Navigation bridge C. Captain's- and Chief Officer's office D. Captain's office

412

DPKP

370. Which one of the listed requirements for passenger ships regarding personal lifesaving appliances do not correspond to present regulations? A. All lifejackets shall be fitted with a whistle, a light and a smoke signal B. Ro-ro passenger ships shall carry at least 2 lifebuoys provided with selfigniting lights an self-activating smoke signals C. All lifejackets shall be fitted with reflex, a whistle and a light D. The 5% extra lifejackets carried on board have to be stowed in conspicuous places on deck or at the muster stations?

413

DPKP

13. Memeriksa dan melaporkan kecacatan dan kerusakan ruang muat, tutup palka dan tangki tolak bara (Inspect and report defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks ) 1.

A bulk cargo declaration shows that the iron ore to be loaded has an angle of repose of 45 degrees; what does this indicate? A. The cargo pile is stable and unlikely to shift B. The cargo pile will be very unstable C. The cargo should not be accepted to load D. The cargo may self-heat

2.

A bulk cargo has a stowage factor (S.F) of 1.50 cubic metres per metric tonne (m3/mt). If 1000 tonnes are to be loaded what volume will this cargo occupy? A. 1500 cubic metres ( m3) B. 15000 cubic metres (m3) C. 1000 cubic metres D. 3000 tonnes

3.

A bulk cargo is loaded and the shore cargo figure is 10 000 tonnes; the chief officer calculates 9 500 tonnes have been loaded; what should the Master do? A. Ask for a draft survey to be carried in the presence of P& I Club representative B. No action to be taken C. Bills of Lading to be signed "Clean" by Master. D. Inform Designated Person Ashore( DPA)

4.

A bulk cargo of Coal is to be loaded in Australia for Europe; the coal is declared as having a high moisture content (but less than the transportable moisture Limit (TML)); what must the Master ensure? A. All cargo hold bilges are sounded daily and the amount of water logged; the bilges can then be pumped out. B. The bilges must not be pumped out C. The bilges must be pumped out regularly D. The bilges should have been sealed prior to loading 414

DPKP

5.

A bulk cargo of steel coils is loaded and a number of the coils are noted by the Chief Officer to be rusted; what must the Master ensure? A. Clause the Bill of Lading with the reference numbers of the rusty coils and so make the Bill of Lading a "dirty" Bill. B. No action needs to be taken. C. Steel coils to be discharged D. Cargo temperatures measured on voyage

6.

A bulk coal cargo is to be loaded and the moisture content is declared as 19 ; the transportable moisture limit of the cargo is declared as 15, what should the Master do? A. Refuse to load the cargo unless the vessel is specially designed for the carriage of cargo which may liquefy B. Load the cargo as the moisture limits are within acceptable limits C. Load cargo and ventilate on passage to remove water D. Load part cargo only

7.

A heavy metal concentrate bulk cargo has a moisture content of 16 and a transportable moisture limit of 18, what should the Master do? A. Load the cargo as the moisture content is within acceptable limits B. Refuse to load the cargo as the moisture

content

is

outside

acceptable limits C. Seek advice from charterers and owners D. Request additional moisture tests to be done

415

DPKP

8.

What hazards are associated with the carriage of wood pellets in bulk? A. Oxygen depletion and generation of carbon monoxide in cargo and communicating spaces B. Possible dust explosion due to excessive ventilation C. Spontaneous combustion and self-heating D. Possible liquefaction of cargo, en route

9.

What is mean by bulk Grain cargoes have a low angle of repose? A. Liable to shift B. Unlikely to shift C. Always stable D. Likely to produce toxic gas

10. What is the primary hazard associated with the carriage of a bulk cargo of salt on a Bulk Carrier? A. The only possible hazard is associated with ingress of water into the hold and a loss of stability B. There are no special hazards associated with this cargo C. This

cargo

maybe

liable

to

spontaneous combustion D. The cargo may be liable to self heat.

11. When loading a bulk cargo of cement the specific gravity and flow characteristics are dependant on what criteria? A. The volume of air in the cargo B. The volume of water in the cargo C. They are fixed and the cargo has a stowage factor of 0.5 cubic metres/tone D. The bulk density is standard at 900 kg/cubic meter 416

DPKP

12. When loading a bulk cargo of Coal the ship must be fitted with appropriate instruments to measure the concentration of what gases within the cargo space? A. The gases specified in all of these answers B. The concentration of Methane only C. The concentration of Oxygen only D. The

concentration

of

Carbon

Monoxide only

13. When should a master agree to accept a bulk cargo of concentrates? A. When he is fully satisfied that the actual moisture content of the cargo is less than the Transportable Moisture Limit (TML) B. Once the actual moisture content of the cargo has been declared by the shipper C. As soon as the cargo holds have been passed for loading D. After a laboratory analysis of the cargo has been carried out

14. A container full of scrap metal is being loaded, and you sight water dripping from it. You should: A. Reject the container. B. Ensure that the container is stowed below deck. C. Ensure that the container is stowed on deck. D. Load the container and note protest.

417

DPKP

15. A typical hazard associated with the carriage of ammonium nitrate is: A. Explosion. B. Environmental pollution. C. Loss of ship stability. D. Spontaneous combustion.

16. Although not required by the IMDG Code, on a container vessel, carrying Calcium Hypochlorite under refrigeration is beneficial so as to: A. Prevent the cargo temperature increasing into the danger zone. B. Maintain a continuous air flow through the cargo. C. Maintain a record of the temperature of the cargo. D. Ensure the cargo is shipped in a clean container.

17. Carriage of wet scrap steel borings, turnings and swarf in containers is generally considered dangerous, because: A. It can spontaneously ignite. B. This type of cargo will corrode the container. C. The moisture will cause a huge increase in the weight of the cargo. D. The cargo will not dry out en route enroute.

18. Containerised scrap metal fire is best extinguished by: A. Smothering. B. Dousing with seawater. C. Allowing cargo to smoulder. D. Cooling with freshwater.

19. Exposure to moderate concentrations of ammonia may cause: A. Choking and possible loss of eyesight. B. Loss of memory. C. Instant death. D. Instant unconsciousness.

418

DPKP

20. Fire in a container carrying chemicals is difficult to extinguish, because: A. Heat is often produced due to chemical reactions within the cargo. B. Water, if used, will always cause a chemical fire to flare up. C. Such

containers

containing

chemicals are always inaccessible. D. Chemical

fires

always

spread

instantaneously to other containers.

21. If a tank container of liquid ammonia is engulfed in fire, it is recommended: A. To allow ventilation. B. To restrict ventilation. C. Not to use water to cool the container. D. Not to use dry chemical to extinguish the fire.

22. Stack allowable weights on a container vessel should not be exceeded because this can cause: A. Failure of the corner posts of the containers stowed at the bottom of the stack. B. The lashings to be overloaded. C. The GM tov become excessive leading to high roll accelerations. D. Torsional effects on the hull.

23. The most important consideration, in terms of stress, when planning stowage of containers on a container vessel would be: A. Distribution and weight of the containers. B. Distribution of the containers only. C. Weight of the containers only. D. The vessel's draft and trim.

419

DPKP

24. "Noxious Liquid Substances which, if discharged into the sea from tank cleaning or deballasting operations , are deemed to present a hazard to either marine resources or human health or cause harm to amenities or other legitimate uses of the sea and therefore justify a limitation on the quality and quantity of the discharge into the marine environment". Such substances are: A. A

category

"Y"

substance

as

identified in MARPOL Annex II. B. A

category

"X"

substance

as

identified in MARPOL Annex II. C. An NLS as defined in ISGOTT, revision V. D. A liquid cargo that is prohibited for carriage in vessels other than type 1 chemical tanker, as defined in the IBC Code.

25. After the discharge of Lube Oils, Lube Oil Additives, Phthalates and Olefins and before the loading of "high-spec" cargoes on a chemical tanker, the test that might be expected to produce unsatisfactory results during initial wall-wash analysis would be: A. Hydrocarbons. B. Non-volatile matter. C. Odor. D. Color.

26. As per MARPOL 73/78, coal slurry, clay slurry, dextrose solution and molasses are classified as: A. "OS" (Other substances)" B. Category Y C. Category Z D. Category X

420

DPKP

27. In discussing the properties of Noxious Liquid Substances, the criteria for defining Threshold Limit Value (TLV) is: A. The time-weighted concentration of a substance to which a worker may be repeatedly exposed for a normal 8 hour working day and 40 hour week without adverse health effects. B. The maximum concentration of a vapour to which a worker may be repeatedly exposed for a maximum of 12 hours per day, 5 days per week without serious health effects. C. The maximum concentration of harmful vapour to which a worker may be exposed for a period of 15 minutes up to 4 times within any 24 hour period without adverse respiratory effects. D. The concentration of a vapour expressed as a percentage of the oxygen content of an environment in which a fit human-being can work continuously for a period of 8 hours.

28. It is considered especially necessary to continue to ventilate the tank and to continuously monitor the atmosphere when working inside a cargo compartment which still contains vegetable oil residues, because: A. The decomposing residues continue to release hazardous gases, reducing the levels of oxygen in the tank and making the atmosphere potentially dangerous. B. Forced ventilation will create a hard "skin" on the residues, making them safer to stand on. Testing the atmosphere will indicate when this skin has formed, as no further vapours will be released. C. Vegetable oils are commonly washed using very hot water.

Forced

ventilation will make the temperature inside the compartment better to work in. Monitoring the atmosphere will indicate if the humidity is increasing. D. For a tank which has contained vegetable oils, if it is continuously ventilated an Enclosed Space Entry Permit is not required. However, for anyone entering the compartment without a permit in place, they must carry an oxygen meter which continuously monitors the atmosphere.

421

DPKP

29. MARPOL 73/78 defines ‘solidifying substances’ as: A. A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a melting point of less than 15°C which is at a temperature of less than 5°C above its melting point at the time of unloading, or in the case of a substance with a melting point equal to or greater than 15°C which is at a temperature of less than 10°C above its melting point at the time of unloading. B. A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a melting point of less than 20°C which is at a temperature of less than 10°C above its melting point at the time of unloading, or in the case of a substance with a melting point equal to or greater than 20°C, is at a temperature of less than 15°C above its melting point at the time of unloading. C. A noxious liquid which will crystallise and eventually bond into solid form at ambient, or less than ambient temperatures unless an external heat source is applied. D. A noxious liquid substance which will crystallise and eventually bond into solid form if exposed to an external heat source. 30. MARPOL 73/78 defines a ‘high viscosity substance’ as: A. A noxious liquid substance in category "X" or "Y" with a viscosity equal to or greater than 50 mpa.s at the unloading temperature. B. A noxious liquid substance in category "Y" with a viscosity equal to or greater than 100 mpa.s at 37.8 degrees Celsius. C. A noxious liquid substance of any category with a pour point of greater than 37.8 degrees Celsius. D. Any noxious liquid substance, the residues of which cannot be stripped from a cargo compartment and its associated piping and pumping system to equal to or less than 75 litres.

422

DPKP

31. The IMO Code requires protection against spillage of the most dangerous products (ethyl ether, antiknock lead compounds such as TML and TEL etc) by prescribing that: A. They shall be carried in cargo tanks independent of the ships hull structure? B. They shall be carried in tanks surrounded by water ballast? C. They shall be carried only in centre tanks having double bottoms? D. The cargo shall not have a height in any tank above that of the vessel's waterline?

32. Which of the following groups of chemical cargoes is particularly susceptible to polymerisation, especially through exposure to heat? A. Monomers. B. Aliphatic Amines. C. Paraffins. D. Aldehydes.

33. You are to carry a cargo of Phenol across the North Atlantic in winter time. What precaution will you take with the double bottom tank located under the cargo tank containing the Phenol? A. It should be empty, to avoid cold water contacted the structure around the product because Phenol has a relatively high melting point. B. It should be inerted, because Phenol has a very low Flash Point. C. It should be continuously vented to avoid the build up of condensation on the structure around the product. D. It is not necessary to take any additional precautions with the double bottom tank because it is part of an entirely separate pumping system.

423

DPKP

34. You have just loaded a cargo of Toluene on a chemical tanker and are about to clear the lines into the ship. The one particular hazard that must be noted about this product would be that: A. It is a static accumulator and settling time must be allowed before gauging. B. It has a relatively low density. Tanks which are close to maximum filling are especially liable to overflow during the line clearing operation unless the flow of blowing medium is strictly controlled. C. It has a relatively high freezing point and additional line blowing will be required to ensure the vessel's lines are completely clear. D. It is a carcinogen but has a relatively high odor threshold value. Personnel may not readily detect any vapour that is ejected through the vent risers and should therefore use filter masks while this operation is in progress.

35. A P - H type Mollier diagram or chart is often used when dealing with LNG cargoes. What is the main information that can be obtained from a Mollier diagram? A. Information about the exact values of the pressure, density, specific volume and dryness fraction of the vapour when both the enthalpy and temperature are known. B. Information about the exact values of

pressure,

enthalpy,

specific

volume and dryness fraction of the vapour when only the temperature is known. C. Information about the exact values of enthalpy, specific volume and dryness fraction of the vapour when the pressure and temperature are known. D. Information about the variation in vapour temperature for a known pressure.

424

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36. An important physical property of LNG is the saturation vapour pressure. What is the IMO definition of the term "saturated vapour pressure"? A. The pressure at which a vapour is in equilibrium with its liquid at a specified temperature. B. The pressure at which all of the liquid becomes vapour. C. The pressure at which all of the vapour returns to the liquid state. D. A vapour mixture which has an equal mass of each of the different vapours in the mixture.

37. During a normal voyage heat is transferred to the LNG cargo through the cargo tank insulation which causes some boil off of the cargo. This boil off changes the composition of the LNG as more of the lighter components will vaporise. Which component of the LNG cargo is likely to have a lower than original percentage on arrival at the discharge port? A. Methane. B. Ethane. C. Butane. D. Pentane.

38. LNG is often considered as an ideal gas when looking at the physical properties and characteristics. With reference to the physical properties of gas mixtures which of the given options is the SIGTTO definition of the term 'mole'? A. The mass that is numerically equal to the molecular mass. B. The volume occupied by one molecular mass in grams. C. A graphic method of representing the heat quantities contained in air. D. A substance capable of causing cancer.

425

DPKP

39. LNG is one of the liquefied gases transported by sea. What is the IMO's definition of liquefied gases? A. Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding 2.8 bar absolute at +37.8 C and certain other chemicals listed in the Gas Codes. B. Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding 2.8 bar absolute at +100 C and certain other chemicals listed in the Gas Codes. C. Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding 2.8 bar absolute at +73.8 C and certain other chemicals listed in the Gas Codes. D. Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding 8.2 bar absolute at +37.8 C and certain other chemicals listed in the Gas Codes.

40. What is a typical composition of LNG (Arabian Gulf LNG)? A. Methane 91% - Ethane 6% - Propane 3% B. Methane 100% C. Methane 80% - Ethane 15% - Propane 5% D. Methane 75% - Ethane 12% - Propane 13%

41. What is the relative liquid density of Methane? A. 0.427 B. 0.583 C. 0.554 D. 0.624

42. A number of substances are carried as cargoes on liquefied gas carriers. Of those given in the options, which is the most reactive, and therefore least compatible, with other liquefied gas cargoes? A. Chlorine B. Methane C. Ethylene D. Propane 426

DPKP

43. Ethylene is normally carried on fully refrigerated liquefied gas carriers at its atmospheric boiling point. What is the approximate atmospheric boiling point of ethylene? A. Minus 104 degrees C B. Minus 162 degrees C C. Minus 48 degrees C D. Minus 10 degrees C

44. Hydrate formation may be a problem with some LPG cargoes. The hydrates may enter cargo pumps, block lubricating passages, unbalance impellers and seize bearings. What is the most common practice to prevent such problems? A. Inject a small quantity of freezing-point depressant into the pump. B. Increase the cargo temperature. C. Slow down the pumping rate. D. Hydrates can be avoided by using cargo filters

45. Polymerisation may be a problem with some liquefied gas cargoes such as vinyl chloride and ethylene oxide. What is the definition of polymerisation? A. Polymerisation is when single molecules

of

the

same

compound join together to form a new compound usually with a higher viscosity. B. Polymerisation is when molecules of two or more different compounds join together to form a new compound. C. Polymerisation is when the molecules of a compound split and form a new compound. D. Polymerisation is when liquids cool down and become more viscous.

427

DPKP

46. The 'Critical Temperature' is important when dealing with liquefied gas cargoes. What is the IMO Gas Codes' definition of the term 'Critical Temperature'? A. It is the temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied by pressure alone. B. It is the temperature at which a cargo of liquefied gas must be carried. C. It is the temperature at which liquefied gas cargoes give off flammable vapours. D. It is the temperature at which vapours from a liquefied gas cargo will selfignite.

47. The densities of most hydrocarbon gas mixtures which evolve from normal petroleum products are greater than the density of air. What would be the approximate relative density of a mixture of 50% by volume of air and propane relative to 100% air? A. 1.25 B. 2.0 C. 1.55 D. 1.8

48. What is the main reason that LPG boil-off gas is unsuitable for use in the vessel's fuel supply? A. LPG vapour is heavier than air at atmospheric

conditions

and

represent a risk as they may accumulate in machinery spaces. B. LPG is too expensive to use as fuel. C. LPG vapour is too difficult to ignite. D. Reliquefaction of LPG vapour is a simple process and is a cheaper option than burning the boil-off gas in the boiler.

428

DPKP

49. When butadiene is carried as a liquid gas cargo it usually has inhibitors added. One reason for this is to minimise the formation of polymers. What is the other reason for adding inhibitors to this particular cargo? A. To scavenge any oxygen that may be present to prevent peroxide formation. B. To prevent an exothermic reaction of the cargo C. To minimise pressure build up in the cargo tank. D. To maintain the solubility of water in the cargo at low temperatures.

50. Which publication contains detailed information, in the form of material safety data sheets, relating to the chemical and physical properties and associated hazards of the most commonly transported liquefied gases, including LPG? A. The ICS Tanker Safety Guide (Liquefied Gases) B. The IGC code C. The International Certificate of Fitness D. The IBC Code

51. Why must inert gas from a combustion-type generator never be used when preparing the cargo tanks of a liquefied gas carrier for a cargo of ammonia? A. Because inert gas from this type of generator contains carbon dioxide which reacts with ammonia to form carbamates. B. Because inert gas from this type of generator has a high water content which can react with ammonia to produce high pressure conditions. C. Because the high oxygen content in inert gas from this type of generator will form a flammable mixture with ammonia. D. Because the high temperature of the inert gas from this type of generator may ignite the ammonia.

429

DPKP

52. When preparing the cargo tanks of an LNG carrier for loading it is important to consider the dew point of the vapour mixtures present in the tank. What is the definition of the "dew point" of a vapour mixture containing water vapour? A. The dew point is the temperature at which the water vapour begins to condense as the temperature decreases. B. The dew point is the pressure at which the water vapour begins to condense

as

the

temperature

decreases. C. The dew point is the temperature at which the water vapour begins to evaporate as the temperature decreases. D. The dew point is the temperature at which all of the water vapour has completely condensed.

53. Which of the given options is the approximate value of the flammable range for Methane measured as a percentage volume in air? A. 5.3 - 14.0% by volume. B. 2.6 - 12.4% by volume. C. 3.5 - 13.0% by volume D. 1.4 - 10.8% by volume

54. A petroleum product is considered “Non-Volatile” when: A. With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C or above (closed cup method), these liquids normal

produce, ambient

equilibrium

gas

when

at

any

temperature, concentrations

below the Lower Flammable Limit. B. With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C or below (closed cup method), these liquids produce, when equal to or below any ambient temperature, gas 430

DPKP

concentrations of less than 5% by volume. C. With a Flashpoint of 37.8 degrees C or above (open cup method), these liquids produce, when at any normal ambient pressure, equilibrium gas concentrations below the Lower Flammable Limit. D. With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C or above (open cup method), these liquids produce, when at any normal ambient temperature, equilibrium gas concentrations above the Upper Flammable Limit.

55. Anti-static additives are used to treat fuel oil cargoes so as to: A. Ensure they become non-accumulator of static charge. B. Ensure they become an accumulator of static charge. C. Ensure their relaxation time after loading is extended. D. Ensure they become mildly magnetic during the voyage.

56. At which of the following concentrations of Hydrogen Sulphide would dizziness, headache, nausea, etc. Occur within 15 minutes of exposure, followed by loss of consciousness and possibly death, after 30-60 minutes of exposure? A. 500-700 ppm. B. 50-70 ppm. C. 1,000 - 2,000 ppm. D. 200-300 ppm.

57. Besides danger of vapour inhalation by crewmembers, if Hydrogen Sulphide is present in high concentrations in crude oil, it can also cause: A. Corrosion. B. Polymerisation. C. Acid build-up. D. Settling and layering.

58. The approximate API gravity of Arabian Light Crude is: A. 33 degrees. B. 27 degrees. C. 30 degrees. D. 40 degrees. 431

DPKP

59. The approximate density ratio of undiluted gas, in relation to air, from a typical crude oil is: A. 1.5 times that of the air. B. Twice that of the air. C. 0.8 times that of the air (assuming atmospheric pressure above 1000 mb). D. 1.8 times that of the air.

60. The name given to compounds consisting solely of carbon and hydrogen atoms joined together by single bonds is: A. Saturated hydrocarbons. B. Sour crude. C. Unsaturated hydrocarbons. D. Alkadienes.

61. The Vapour Pressure of crude oils is determined by the: A. The Reid Closed Test method. B. The Crude Open Test Method. C. The API Open Cup Laboratory Method. D. The ASTM Elementary Assessment Method.

62. When an inhibitor is added to an oil cargo, the items mentioned on the accompanying certificate include: A. Inhibitor name; amount added; date added;

period

precautions exceeds

that

if

of

efficiency;

voyage period;

length eventual

temperature limitation. B. Inhibitor class; amount added; date of expiry; minimum period of optimum efficiency; precautions to be taken when added; minimum temperature requirement. C. Inhibitor name; percentage applied; date of expiry; precautions to be taken on voyage and interval of application; maximum temperature at which 432

DPKP

continuously effective. D. Inhibitor class; percentage blended; date added; maximum period of efficiency and applicable temperature limits; maximum storage period on board; contact number of manufacturer.

63. When carrying certain cargoes (e.g. Aviation Turbine Oils) it is important to carefully monitor ship’s tanks during passage, because these cargoes can: A. Release oxygen, which they may have absorbed during the refining process, into the ullage spaces of ship’s cargo tanks B. Release acidic effluents which may make the entire cargo go off-spec resulting in financial claims C. Release acids during tropical sea area transit, which may result in increased corrosion of the ships tanks and internals D. Release vapours which may cause vapour contamination of the entire cargo

64. When carrying out oil cargo calculations, the relationship between absolute and gauge pressure is: A. Absolute pressure = gauge pressure + barometric pressure. B. Gauge pressure = absolute pressure + barometric pressure. C. Absolute pressure = gauge pressure x 0.947 barometric pressure. D. Gauge pressure = barometric pressure / atmospheric pressure

433

DPKP

65. When describing the characteristics of oil cargoes or oil/water slops, a ‘mercaptan” is: A. A colourless, odorous gas, with a smell similar to rotting cabbage and which is generated naturally by the degredation of natural organisms, as may be found where water has remained under oil for a long time. B. A chemical additive blended with crude oil to inhibit the natural "rotton egg" smell associated with certain grades. C. The component of hydrocarbon-based cargoes which is formed from Merolion Carbonized Tannin. D. A device fitted to a cargo pump which automatically alerts the operator once traces of water start to be detected during discharge. 66. When referring to crude oil petroleum products, “volatility” means: A. Their tendency to produce gas. B. Their tendency to ignite. C. Their ability to resist ignition. D. A measure their vapour pressure.

67. Which of the following type of crude oil requires special consideration in terms of carriage and cleaning? A. Paraffinic Crude. B. Sweet Crude. C. Medium Crude. D. Reconstituted Crude.

68. With reference to chemistry of petroleum cargoes, if 'Alkanes' are saturated hydrocarbons, then unsaturated hydrocarbons are: A. Alkenes. B. Alkanes. C. Pentenes. D. Octanes. 434

DPKP

69. With reference to oil cargo characteristics, ‘cloud point’ is: A. The temperature at which a liquid hydrocarbon begins to congeal and take on a cloudy appearance, due to the bonding of constituent paraffin compounds. B. The temperature at which an oil product begins to emit vapours which can be observed in a spectroscope due to the volume of solid particles extracted during evaporation. C. The surface pressure at which vapours from an oil cargo overcome gravity and friction and are expelled from the containing compartment. D. The depth within a cargo above which no waxy solids are entrained.

70. With reference to oil cargoes, their wax content is generally referred to as: A. The percentage of paraffinic wax by volume, based on a representative sample of the crude oil. B. The observed volume percentage of waxy deposits found in a cargo tank after discharge in relation to the total volume of cargo previously carried. C. The percentage of wax remaining in an oil product after distillation. D. The amount of additive in an oil product, expressed in ppm, designed to inhibit solidification at lower temperatures.

71. At what latest time shall doors, side scuttles, gangway doors, cargo- and coaling ports and other openings which are to be kept closed watertight at sea be closed at the start of the voyage? A. Before leaving the port B. Before entering open waters C. Before leaving the pilot station D. Before leaving the berth

435

DPKP

72. Cross-flooding fittings shall be operable from:

A. Above the bulkhead deck B. The bridge C. The engine room D. The section where the unsymmetrical flooding occurs

73. How many separate means of escape from passengers and crew spaces should it be in each zone? A. Two B. One C. Three D. Four

74. How often shall watertight doors in main transverse bulkheads which is in use at sea be operated (tested)? A. Daily B. Weekly C. Every two weeks D. Every month

75. In which cases shall side scuttles in passenger ships be so constructed that they cannot be opened without the consent of the master of the ship? A. Where the sills of the side scuttles are below the margin line B. Where the sills are mounted below the bulkhead deck C. Where the sills of the side scuttles are less than 500 mm above the deepest load line 436

DPKP

D. Where the height of the side scuttles go through more than two decks

76. Is there any requirements regarding double bottom for large passenger ships? A. Yes, in ship of 76 m in length and upwards, a double bottom shall be fitted amidships, and shall extend to the fore and after peak bulkheads, or as near thereto as practicable. B. Yes, in ships of 76 m in length and longer, a double bottom shall be fitted amidships, and extend to the fore and aft not less that ¼ of the ship length. C. Yes, a double bottom shall be fitted amidship D. No, a double bottom is not required

77. What is a passenger ship according to SOLAS regulations? A. A ship which carries more than 12 passengers B. A ship which is arranged and fitted for carriage of persons which are not members of the ship's crew C. A ship which carries passengers only D. A purpose-built passenger ship carrying persons only on defined lines or routes

78. When are power-operated watertight sliding doors (class 3 doors) compulsory for all watertight doors aboard passenger ships? A. Where the ship has passenger spaces below the bulkhead deck B. Where one or more doors are situated below deepest load line C. When the ship is certified for more than 150 passengers D. Where the ship is fitted with through-going car decks

437

DPKP

79. When there is doubt about the freshness of the atmosphere in enclosed or confined spaces, what action should be taken? A. Arrangements should be made for testing of the atmosphere to ensure maintenance of 21% oxygen and a carbon monoxide content below 50 ppm in the atmosphere of the space B. Open both bow- and stern doors C. Supply filter masks to all crew working on ro-ro deck D. Ro-ro decks are always ventilated in advance of an operation

80. Cargoes of frozen beef and chilled beef have approximate carriage temperatures of minus 18 and minus 1 degree Celsius respectively. Greater care is required when carrying chilled beef as it is more sensitive to deviations from, and requires finer control of, its recommended carriage temperature. Which option best completes the following statement? "This additional care is worthwhile because… A. …chilled beef commands a much higher price in the market." B. ...carrying chilled beef is a modern innovation." C. …chilled beef is healthier for consumers." D. …chilled beef can be kept longer than frozen beef."

81. Certain live refrigerated cargoes such as fruit, salad, vegetable and plant cargoes are sensitive to ethylene during shipment. Select the option which best completes the following statement. "Ethylene is described as a gas which … A. ...is a natural fruit ripening hormone." B. …can cause any type of refrigerated cargo to ripen." C. …can cause a fruit cargo to ripen if it is present in a large concentration." D. …is beneficial for the carriage of certain types of fruit." 438

DPKP

82. During loading of bananas the fruit should be visually inspected frequently to check the quality and for any indications as to its physiological development. Which one of the options given would indicate that the fruit is in suitable condition for shipment? A. The bananas have a uniform green colour with relatively sharp ridges along the length. They can be snapped or broken with sap clinging between the broken parts. B. The bananas are green with a yellow hue. They are not really hard and do not break cleanly. C. The bananas are yellow with small black spots on the skin. They cannot be snapped but the skin can be peeled off. D. The bananas are green in colour with patches on the shoulder from the effects of sunshine and have relatively sharp ridges along the length. They can be snapped with sap clinging to the broken parts.

83. It is possible to successfully mix certain types of refrigerated cargo in the same space if they are compatible. Sometimes apparently dissimilar cargoes can be successfully mixed. Which one of the combinations given in the options could be successfully carried as a mixed cargo in the same cargo space? A. Oranges and apples. B. Oranges and bacon. C. Oranges and butter. D. Oranges and rock lobster.

84. Most perishable cargoes are presented for shipment pre-cooled to the correct carriage temperature. If the cargo is not pre-cooled or has warmed up due to the cold chain being broken it can result in increased metabolic rates. Which of the given options would be the most difficult to deal with if such a situation occurred during a sea passage? A. The heat produced by the cargo. B. The carbon dioxide produced by the cargo. C. The trace gases produced by the cargo. D. The water produced by the cargo. 439

DPKP

85. Refrigerated cargoes are generally easy to secure for a sea passage when compared to some bulk, timber and project type cargoes. The cargo must be stowed so that it will not shift during the voyage and so that a good air flow can be maintained through the cargo. Which one of the given options is most likely to result in this required outcome and a successful carriage? A. A tight uniform stow which forces air through the cargo. B. A tight uniform stow but with vertical gaps in the cargo for air flow. C. A loose uniform stow. D. The stow is unimportant as it is only the temperature in the hold which determines whether or not the cargo is carried successfully.

86. Some perishable cargoes which are normally carried refrigerated can also be carried non-refrigerated even on a long sea passage. This requires that the commodity is suitably packed and correctly ventilated during transport. Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. "The type of cargo most suited for a sea passage under ventilation only would be… A. …onions." B. …pineapples." C. …grapes." D. …strawberries."

440

DPKP

87. Strawberries are a sensitive cargo with a relatively short carriage life and can only be carried on short sea passages. They are often irradiated for transport. Select the true statement from the options given relating to the effect of irradiation. A. The main effect of irradiating strawberries prior to transport is that it kills off any bacteria on the fruit. B. The main effect of irradiating strawberries prior to transport is that it improves the colour of the fruit. C. The main effect of irradiating strawberries prior to transport is that it kills any flies on the fruit. D. A cargo of irradiated strawberries must be stowed well away from the crew accommodation to reduce the possible effects of cobalt 60 radiation.

88. When considering how non-containerised perishable cargoes such as bananas and grapes are presented for loading the temperature of the cargo is important. Which one of the statements included in the options is correct? A. Bananas

are

loaded

at

field

temperature while grapes are precooled. B. Grapes

are

loaded

at

field

temperature while bananas are precooled. C. Bananas and grapes are both loaded at field temperature. D. Bananas and grapes are both loaded pre-cooled.

441

DPKP

89. In roro Cargo Planning What should be considered for the location of stowage of a heavy loads such as transformer, locomotive or work boats? A. The stability of the vessel, access to the location and the SWL of the stowage location B. The discharge port rotation C. Day of the week D. Requests from the stevedore

90. In roro Cargo planning where should you look to find information on securing cargos A. In the vessels approved Cargo Securing Manual B. On the bulkhead in the ships office C. On the internet D. In the maintenance guide for the cargo securing equipment onboard

91. In roro cargo securing which of the following can be used as a general rule for deciding lashing requirements of a cargo unit A. The total of the MSL values of the securing devices on each side of a unit of cargo (port as well as starboard) should equal the weight of the unit. B. Total MSL for all securing devices should equal the weight of the cargo C. Total MSL for all securing devices should be at least half the weight of the cargo D. Put one lashing on each corner

92. On a roro vessel in a wet climate what can happen to wheeled cargoes? A. Lashings can become slack over time and the cargo is more likely to shift due to the wet weather B. The lashings will become clean because of the water C. Sticking of wheels to deck plating D. The ship's paintwork flaking and falling onto the cargo

442

DPKP

93. On a roro vessel, how should caterpillar crawlers stowed on hatch covers be secured? A. By means of wire ropes or chains secured to the hatch covers and to the main deck from all four sides of the unit B. By means of wire ropes secured to the hatch covers from all four sides of the unit C. By means of wire ropes secured to the main deck from all four sides of the unit D. By means of wire ropes secured to the hatch coamings

94. On a roro vessel, what should be done first when cargo has shifted at sea on a roro vessel and re-lashing is not possible? A. Alter course and/or speed to reduce the accelerations and prevent further damage B. Go Faster to outrun the problem C. Nothing can be done carry on the same D. Take action to improve stability

95. On a roro vessel, what should be done when cargoes that transmit stack loads are to be loaded onto the vessel's decks or hatch covers? A. Stow the cargo on timbers of sufficient thickness so as to distribute the stack load B. Weld additional steel plates to the deck and/or hatch covers where stack loads are transmitted C. Stow the full length of cargo on any timbers reguardless of their D. Load the cargo under-deck instead

96. On a roro vessel, what should one consider prior to loading machinery with caterpillar crawlers on the hatch covers? A. Maximum permissible loading of the hatch covers and the horizontal restraint of hatch covers and coamings B. Maximum permissible loading of the hatch covers C. The horizontal restraint of hatch covers D. The horizontal restraint of hatch coamings 443

DPKP

97. What kind of damage is most likely when Ro-Ro cargoes come into contact with fuel oil spilt/left on roro decks ? A. Tyre and bodywork damages B. Tyre damage C. Meltdown of internal plastic areas D. Damage to vehicles' engines

98. Where should a Ro-Ro unit that requires protection from heat and large temperature variations be stowed? A. Under-deck away from bulkheads, fuel tanks, heating coils and uninsulated machinery B. On deck away from the accommodation C. Anywhere under-deck D. Anywhere along the side of the main deck

99. At what time should lashings be released? A. Lashings should not be released for unloading before the ship is secured at the berth, without the Master's express permission. B. Lashings should be released when the ship enters enclosed waters. C. The crew can release lashings prior to arrival to avoid any delays. D. As soon as the weather conditions are favourable, lashings can be released.

444

DPKP

100. How can you arrange for safe movement of passengers on ro-ro decks? A. Passengers should be warned of vehicle movements when entering or crossing car or vehicle decks. They should preferably keep to walkways while moving about the ship. B. Passengers should stay in their cars until loading is completed. They should keep to walkways when leaving the car. C. Passengers are responsible for their own safety while moving about ro-ro decks. D. It is easy, only drivers are allowed to stay in the car during loading and unloading.

101. Normally ventilation fans in enclosed ro-ro spaces must be run continuously whenever vehicles are on board, why? A. An

increased

number

of

air

changes may be required when vehicles are being loaded or unloaded, or where flammable gases or liquids are stowed in closed ro-ro spaces B. It is better to run the fans continuously instead of testing the atmosphere C. It is easier for the crew, they don't have to think about starting and stopping of fans D. The manufacturer of the fans recommends continuous operation to reduce maintenance cost

445

DPKP

102. What is the procedure if a tank lorry containing dangerous goods is not clearly marked? A. Refuse to load the vehicle B. Ask the driver to write a declaration of contents and load the vehicle C. As long as the driver looks ok, load the cargo D. Load it, usually tank lorries are not clearly marked

103. What type of cargo shall always be secured? A. Freight vehicles carrying dangerous goods and adjacent vehicles should always be secured. B. Tank lorries should always be secured. C. No cargo or vehicles have to be secured if the weather conditions are favourable. D. The driver must ask the crew to secure the vehicle and its cargo

104. When there is doubt about the freshness of the atmosphere in ro-ro cargo spaces, what action should be taken? A. Arrangements should be made for testing of the atmosphere to ensure maintenance of 21% oxygen and a carbon monoxide content below 50 ppm in the atmosphere of the space B. Open both bow- and stern doors C. Supply filter masks to all crew working on ro-ro deck D. Ro-ro decks are always ventilated in advance of an operation

446

DPKP

105. Which of the following international regulations is normally used when handling dangerous goods? A. IMDG code B. SOLAS code C. HB code D. KLMNG code

106. Who should operate ships' ramps, car platforms, retractable car decks and similar equipment? A. Only

competent

persons

authorised by a responsible ships' officer, in accordance with the company's work instructions. B. Only the ships' officers. C. Bosun and the loading officer D. All crew working on ro-ro deck

107. How often shall a survey for renewal of cargo ship safety construction certificate be carried out? A. Every fifth year with a periodical survey every 12. Month. B. Every year C. Every fourth year provided the lifesaving appliances are inspected annually. D. Every second year

108. If extensive repair to the superstructure has been carried out, it will affect the: A. Load line certificate B. Ship's safety certificate C. Safety construction certificate D. Ship's trading certificate

447

DPKP

109. What kind of permanent documentation is required for personnel assigned specific dutys and responsibilities related to cargo or cargo equipment on , for example, a liquefied tanker? A. A tankerman certificate B. A tankerman certificate or sea service for at least 6 months C. Documentation of the prescribed courses D. Documentation of sea service on tankers for at least 6 months

110. On General Cargo ships, cargoes such as logs, fish meal, scrap metal and bales of cotton commonly tend to cause: A. Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds. B. Large instantaneous fires. C. Heavy amounts of ship's sweat. D. Spontaneous combustion.

111. Steel coils when loaded on a General Cargo ship tend to be subjected to: A. Crushing and distortion. B. Bending. C. Tearing. D. Chemical reactions between the steel banding and outer envelope.

112. The carriage of bagged Ammonium Nitrate in cargo holds of a General Cargo vessel is associated with: A. Risk of explosion B. Spontaneous combustion C. Corrosion of steelwork D. Build up of carbon dioxide gas

113. The carriage of logs on General Cargo vessels tends to cause: A. Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds. B. Increased levels of oxygen in the cargo holds. C. Moisture absorption in the cargo holds. D. Spontaneous combustion.

448

DPKP

114. When hot rolled steel coils are loaded on General Cargo ships, it may be correct to state that: A. They must not be exposed to salt water contamination. B. They can be loaded in heavy rain. C. They must always be shipped in stainless steel envelopes. D. They must always be loaded wrapped in water-proof plastic sheet.

115. A five yearly thorough survey of cargo gear on a General Cargo vessel should be carried out by: A. A classification society surveyor. B. The master. C. A deck officer designated by the master. D. A marine surveyor appointed by the company.

116. During a pre-loading survey on board a General Cargo ship, the most efficient method of testing the weather tightness of the hatch covers is considered to be: A. Ultra sonic test. B. Chalk test. C. Visual inspection. D. Hose test.

117. A General Cargo vessel has a 50 tonne SWL heavy lift derrick and a load of 48 tonnes is to be loaded. The lifting gear of slings and spreader bar weighs 4 tonnes. In this case, it would be correct to state that: A. The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the lifting gear will exceed the SWL by two tonnes. B. The load can be loaded because the load itself is less than the SWL of the derrick. C. The load can be loaded because the SWL can sometimes be exceeded by small amounts in cargo operations, since the Breaking Load of the slings is much higher. D. The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the 449

DPKP

lifting gear must be at least 10% less than the SWL of the derrick.

118. During cargo watch on a General Cargo ship, if the OOW informs you that the condition of the discharge equipment such as slings and shackles being used by the stevedores is unsuitable for use, you should: A. Inform stevedores of concern and protest by letter. B. Continue

discharge

as

planned

and

inform

Designated

Person

Ashore(DPA). C. Refuse to discharge and inform the local agents. D. Provide ships equipment to discharge.

119. Information about the maximum point loading in cargo holds and on decks of a General Cargo Vessel may be obtained from: A. Ships Capacity plan. B. General Arrangement plan. C. Docking plan. D. Planned maintenance schedules.

120. On a general cargo ship, operating the heavy lift derricks with the boom close to horizontal could result in: A. Excessive stresses acting on parts of the derrick system. B. The operator having a restricted view of the lifting operation. C. Sudden loss of stability of the vessel. D. Damage to the cargo by ship structures.

121. On a General Cargo ship, the most likely cause of a hatch cover hydraulic system to deteriorate would be: A. Due to dust and cargo particles lodged around the piston seals. B. Due to repeated hatch cover operations. C. Due to hatch cover operations in high summer temperatures. D. Due to ice accretion on piston jackets.

450

DPKP

122. The main purpose of a hatch cover ventilator grill on a General Cargo vessel is: A. To prevent sparks entering the cargo hold. B. To prevent the ventilator fans from damage. C. To prevent moisture from entering the hold. D. To act as a strength member inside the ventilation shaft. 123. The ship’s lifting plant must be proof load tested and all parts thoroughly examined at intervals not exceeding: A. 5 years B. 3 years C. 1 year D. 6 months

124. When general cargo is damaged during heavy weather on a General Cargo vessel, it must be ensured that the damage is inspected by the: A. Surveyor representing the vessel's P. & I. Club. B. Class surveyor. C. Surveyor

representing

the

vessel's

hull

&

machinery underwriters. D. Surveyor representing the consignee.

125. What kind of damage is most likely when Ro-Ro cargoes come into contact with fuel oil spilt/left on roro decks ? A. Tyre and bodywork damages B. Tyre damage C. Meltdown of internal plastic areas D. Damage to vehicles' engines

451

DPKP

126. Where should a Ro-Ro unit that requires protection from heat and large temperature variations be stowed? A. Under-deck away from bulkheads, fuel tanks, heating coils and uninsulated machinery B. On deck away from the accommodation C. Anywhere under-deck D. Anywhere along the side of the main deck

452

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13. Pengangkutan muatan berbahaya (Carriage of dangerous goods)

1.

A Cargo Ship Construction Certificate has a validity of: A. 5 years B. 4 years C. 3 years D. 2 years

2.

IMO recommendations on allowance for water absorption in timber deck cargoes on a General Cargo Vessel state that: A. 15% additional weight should be used in stability calculation for the arrival condition. B. 25% additional weight should be used in stability calculation for the arrival condition. C. 5% additional weight should be used in stability calculation for the arrival condition. D. 10% additional weight should be used in stability calculation for the arrival condition.

3.

On a General Cargo ship which of the following statements is correct? A. Cold rolled steel coils must never be loaded in rain B. Cold rolled steel coils may be loaded in rain C. Cold rolled steel coils are always shipped in stainless steel envelopes D. Cold rolled steel coils may be loaded in rusty condition

453

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4.

On General Cargo ships, cargoes such as logs, fish meal, scrap metal and bales of cotton commonly tend to cause: A. Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds. B. Large instantaneous fires. C. Heavy amounts of ship's sweat. D. Spontaneous combustion.

5.

Steel coils when loaded on a General Cargo ship tend to be subjected to: A. Crushing and distortion. B. Bending. C. Tearing. D. Chemical reactions between the steel banding and outer envelope.

6.

The carriage of bagged Ammonium Nitrate in cargo holds of a General Cargo vessel is associated with: A. Risk of explosion B. Spontaneous combustion C. Corrosion of steelwork D. Build up of carbon dioxide gas

7.

The carriage of logs on General Cargo vessels tends to cause: A. Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds. B. Increased levels of oxygen in the cargo holds. C. Moisture absorption in the cargo holds. D. Spontaneous combustion.

8.

When hot rolled steel coils are loaded on General Cargo ships, it may be correct to state that: A. They must not be exposed to salt water contamination. B. They can be loaded in heavy rain. C. They must always be shipped in stainless steel envelopes.

454

DPKP

D. They must always be loaded wrapped in water-proof plastic sheet.

9.

Which of the following cargoes can normally be loaded next to each other in the same space of a General Cargo vessel? A. Drums of cement and steel pipes B. Drums of cement and bagged milk powder C. Pallets of pesticides and bagged grain D. Rolls new carpets and drums lubricating oils

10. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to IMDG Class 4 (flammable solids) cargoes loaded on a General Cargo vessel? A. The

goods

require

protection

against movement and can only be loaded if a cargo declaration is supplied by the shipper B. The cargo can be stowed anywhere on the vessel C. The cargo is not covered by the requirements of the IMDG Code D. The goods can only be carried in the forward part of the vessel

11. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to IMDG cargo, loaded on a General cargo vessel, that is also classed as a Marine Pollutant A. Cargo must be loaded in a protected location and preferably under deck if IMDG Code allows B. Cargo of this type can be loaded anywhere on board the vessel C. This cargo can only be loaded on deck D. This cargo can only be loaded under deck

455

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12. As understood within the IMDG Code, what is an "article"? A. A device that contains a dangerous substance or mixture of substances. B. A form that contains important information

about

a

hazardous

substance. C. A device that is responsible for initiating a dangerous reaction. D. Something that is packed within a freight container.

13. In conjunction with which two sets of international regulations should the IMDG Code be read for security purposes? A. Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS and Part A of the ISPS Code. B. Part B of the ISPS Code and Chapter II of the Maritime Transport and Offshore Facilties Act. C. Chapter V of SOLAS and Annex II of MARPOL. D. IMO NVIC 24 and 46 CFR 2.05

14. In discussing segregation, the IMDG Code defines what it means by the term "separated from". Which of the following is that definition? A. In different compartments or holds when

stowed

"under

deck".

Provided an intervening deck is resistent to fire and liquid, a vertical separation may be accepted as equivalent. For "on deck" stowage, this segregation means a distance of at least 6 metres. B. Effectively segregated so that the incompatible goods cannot interact dangerously in the event of an accident, but may be transported in the same compartment or hold or on deck, provided a horizontal separation, projected vertically, of 3 metres is obtained. Either in a vertical or horizontal separation: if the intervening decks are not resistant to fire and liquid, then 456

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only in a longitudinal separation is acceptable. For "on deck" stowage, this means a distance of at least 12 metres. This distance also applies to one package stowed "on deck" and another in an upper compartment. C. Either in a vertical or horizontal separation: if the intervening decks are not resistant to fire and liquid, then only in a longitudinal separation is acceptable. For "on deck" stowage, this means a distance of at least 12 metres. This distance also applies to one package stowed "on deck" and another in an upper compartment. D. With an intervening compartment, being both a vertical and horizontal separation. Provided an intervening deck is resistant to liquid and fire, a vertical separation of 6 metres is acceptable.

For "on deck" stowage, this

segregation means a distance of at least 12 metres irrespective of compartment divisions.

15. One particular group of hazardous goods is highlighted by the IMDG Code as potentially being the most dangerous for carriage. Which of the following is it? A. Organic peroxides. B. Liquefied gases. C. Infectious substances. D. Toxic substances.

16. Substances, materials and articles shall be stowed as indicated in the Dangerous Goods List of the IMDG Code, in accordance with a series of stowage categories. How are those categories designated? A. 5 categories, labelled A-E. B. 10 categories, numbered 1-10. C. 10

categories,

lattered

A-K

(excluding I). D. Three categories, numbered I, ii and iii.

457

DPKP

17. The Classes drawn up by the UN Committee of Experts for the safe handling of hazardous substances, as listed in the IMDG Code, are drawn up on the basis of which of the following criteria? A. The type of hazard they present. B. Selective laboratory tests commissioned by the Committee. C. Alphabetical order. D. Chronological order in which they have been assessed.

18. The reporting of incidents involving harmful substances and / or marine pollutants is regulated under which international guidelines? A. Protocol I of MARPOL. B. Annex II to SOLAS 1974. C. Appendix B of the Supplement to the IMDG Code. D. The UN Convention on the Reporting of Accidents and Incidents which Present a Hazard to the Marine Environment 2004.

19. Where should placards be located on a freight container? A. One on each end and one on each side. B. One on each end (only). C. One on each side (only). D. One of the back end and one on one of the sides (only).

458

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20. Which of the following is a definition of the "Proper Shipping Name", as found in the IMDG Code? A. The name to be used in any documentation

relating

transportation

of

the

to

the

dangerous

substance, material or article, such as on forms, labels and placards. B. The

name

assigned

by

the

manufacturer to a material, substance or article for the purposes of shipment. C. The correct chemical name of a potentially hazardous material, as identified from the Chemical Cargo List. D. The name under which a dangerous material, substance or article is described for export purposes in the country of loading.

21. Which of these definitions is that of a "Marine Pollutant" under the IMDG Code? A. A substance which is subject to the provisions

of

Annex

III

of

MARPOL. B. A substance which is subject to the provisions of Chapter V of SOLAS 1974, as amended. C. Any substance which is deemed hazardous

to

the

marine

environment D. A substance which, because of its tendency to degrade in seafood, or because of its hazard potential to the aquatic environment is subject to the provisions of Annex I of MARPOL, as amended, and carried by sea accordingly.

459

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22. Which of the following international regulations is normally used when handling dangerous goods? A. IMDG code B. SOLAS code C. HB code D. KLMNG code

460

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15. Pengendalian trim, stabilitas dan tegangan (Control trim, stability and stress ) 1.

For a container stowed in a position equidistant from the roll and pitch axes of a ship, what will quarter the acceleration forces acting on it? A. Doubling the roll period B. Doubling the pitch period C. Halving the roll period D. Halving the pitch period

2.

How are ship's stability characteristics affected by Parametric Rolling? A. By the constant change of underwater hull geometry as waves travel past the ship B. By the virtual loss of GM C. By the development of a negative GM D. By an increase in the angle of pitch

3.

What does heaving result in? A. Vertical accelerations acting along container corner posts B. Shearing of container twistlocks C. Longitudinal accelerations acting on hatch pontoons D. Tipping of containers

4.

What is the disadvantage of using High Tensile Steel (HTS) in ship construction? A. Enhanced vibration in HTS areas B. Failure without warning C. Low elasticity D. Diminished cargo carrying capacity

5.

What is the primary cause of fatigue damage to the hull girder? A. The number of repeated stress cycles B. Repeated plastic deformation of the hull C. Panting stresses D. Resonant rolling 461

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6.

What roll amplitude is generally used by classification societies in calculating rolling forces? A. 24 - 30 degrees B. 37 - 42 degrees C. 30 - 36 degrees D. 18 - 24 degrees

7.

What would indicate the onset of Parametric Rolling? A. When the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll period of the ship B. When twice the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll period of the ship C. When wave heights experienced from either quarter exceed 6 meters D. When wave heights experienced from the bows exceed 6 meters

8.

When do vertical accelerations acting on containers reach their maximum values? A. When a ship changes direction at its extreme angle of pitch B. When a ship is at its extreme angle of pitch and roll simultaneously C. When a ship surges D. During resonant rolling

9.

When does wind force cause heeling moments on a container ship? A. When the on-deck containers present a certain profile to the wind direction B. Whenever wind speeds exceed 60 knots C. Whenever wind speeds exceed 70 knots D. When on-deck containers are block-stowed

10. Why would a very large container vessel pitch more than a feeder vessel? A. Because pitching varies with ship’s length B. Because very large container vessels are more exposed to open sea conditions C. Because vessel pitching varies with propeller pitch D. Because container stacks on large container vessels are more exposed to wind forces 462

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11. A Bulk Vessel is to load a cargo of grain; pre loading calculations show that IMO stability criteria cannot be achieved; the vessel should do which of the following? A. The grain surfaces in some or all of the cargo spaces must be secured B. The cargo can still be loaded C. An exemption certificate must be applied for D. An exemption certificate must be applied for

12. A loaded bulk carrier experiences heavy ice accretion on deck forward, what are the major concerns of the changes in stability? A. Reduction of metacentric height (GM) and loss of freeboard forward B. Excessive trim by the stern C. Increase in metacentric height (GM) D. Reduction of speed and additional fuel consumption

13. After discharging a high density cargo a serious crack is found in an upper ballast tank amidships of a Bulk Carrier; what must the Master do? A. Inform Designated Person Ashore (DPA)

and call in Classification

Society B. Note the dimensions of the crack and measure regularly C. Proceed on ballast voyage without ballast in this tank D. Repair

with

cement

box

or

temporary welded patch until next drydock

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14. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 155m in length constructed in 2000 and carrying cargo of density 1010 kg/cu.m., which cargo hold should be able to withstand flooding? A. Any cargo hold B. The foremost cargo hold C. The aftermost cargo hold D. The midships cargo hold

15. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 180m in length constructed in 2001 and carrying cargo of density 1,780 kg/m3, or above, which cargo hold is strengthened to withstand flooding? A. The foremost cargo hold B. The aftermost cargo hold C. The midships cargo hold D. The ballast hold

16. Large bulk carriers are more likely to suffer from cracks in structure in which of the following parts of the vessel? A. Around hatch corners and upper ballast tanks amidships B. In number 1 and number 2 holds C. In after peak area D. On bottom plating in the after part of the vessel

17. On a hold inspection of a Bulk Carrier it is noted that a number of transverse frame beam knees are slightly distorted; what is the significance of this? A. This indicates the vessel is suffering racking stress and is potentially serious B. There are no concerns with this observation C. This is an indication of excessive bending moment stress D. The distorted areas should be painted

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18. The vessel is instructed to load alternate holds when chartered to carry a high density cargo. What reasons could be given by the master to refuse to do this? A. IMO do not recommend alternate loading of cargo holds with high density cargoes. B. The trim of the vessel will not be satisfactory. C. Cargo space cleaning after discharge will be excessive. D. The summer deadweight will not be achieve

19. What are the effects of a bulk vessel loading a high density cargo resulting in a large metacentric height (GM)? A. Have a fast roll period and possibly suffer racking stresses B. Have a slow roll and large righting levers C. Have a slow roll and very small righting levers D. Suffer torsional stresses and have small righting levers

20. What differences in design are there between a standard cargo hold and a cargo hold which can also be used for ballast on a Bulk Carrier? A. The ballast hold hatch cover must

be

fitted with additional securing devices B. There is no differences in design C. This hold does not have ventilators D. The coamings are much lower on the ballast hold

21. What must by carefully checked when loading a bulk carrier to maximum draft A. The minimum bow height must be maintained B. The vessel is trimmed by the stern on completion, C. The vessel is trimmed by the head on completion D. The vessel should have a stern trim of 2.0 metres by stern. 465

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22. What would a cracked cross-deck plating found during a loaded passage on a bulk carrier indicate? A. That shear forces have been exceeded B. That the vessel is due for survey C. That failure of the shell plating is imminent D. That bulkhead failure is imminent

23. Which of the below structures of bulk carriers are considered critical? A. Upper and lower connection of main side frames B. Longitudinal deck plating outside hatches C. The girders D. Forecastle deck

24. Which plan shows the position of the vertical and longitudinal centres of gravity for each cargo compartment of a Bulk Carrier? A. Vessel stability book B. Line drawing C. Capacity Plan D. Shell expansion

25. Which plan shows the position of the vertical and longitudinal centres of gravity for each cargo compartment of a Bulk Carrier? A. Vessel stability book B. Line drawing C. Capacity Plan D. Shell expansion

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26. A chemical tanker intended to transport products with appreciably severe environmental and safety hazards which require significant preventative measures to preclude escape of such cargo, usually of double-hull construction, with a variety of tank sizes / capacities is rated as: A. A type II chemical tanker, as per the IBC Code. B. A type I chemical tanker as per the IBC Code. C. A parcel chemical tanker as per the IACS Construction Regulations. D. A chemical tanker for the purposes of the 1996 IMO directive MEPC/2.12 cir On Mandatory Reporting Requirements for Ships Carrying Dangerous or Polluting Goods.

27. A cofferdam, a pumproom or an empty tank, located between cargo tanks containing cargoes or cargo residues which might react with each other in a hazardous manner, are all acceptable methods of segregation in chemical tanker stowage according to the IBC Code. For this purpose, it may also be acceptable to have: A. An intervening cargo tank containing a mutually compatible cargo or cargo residues. B. A common bulkhead, provided it is at least 10 mm thick. C. A common bulkhead, provided it overlaps for less than 15% of the length of the bulkhead on the larger tank. D. A cruciform joint, separating two tanks diagonally.

28. As per IBC Code, the information contained in the loading and stability information booklet, which must be supplied to the master of a chemical tanker, shall include: A. Details of typical service and ballast conditions, provisions for evaluating other conditions of loading and a summary of the ship's survival capabilities, together with sufficient information to enable the master to load and operate the ship in a safe and seaworthy manner. B. Summary details of light ship and fully loaded conditions and of a representative part-loaded condition, with examples of calculations of typical pre-departure stability conditions and an example of a damage stability calculation to enable the master to determine survival capability in the event of an emergency involving a breach of the hull. 467

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C. Certificates confirming the testing and calibration of tank gauging equipment, the ship's stability computer program and the accuracy of draft and loadline marks. D. Details of service and ballast conditions for loading based on the range of products which a vessel is certified to carry, incorporating the maximum permissible DWT, the maximum permissible SG of any product, the maximum permissible trim and any structural constraints that will impact a loading condition.

29. As per the IBC Code, an independent tank on a chemical tanker is defined as: A. One which is not contiguous with, or part of the hull structure. B. One which forms part of the ship's hull and structure and which is normally essential to the structural completeness of the ship's hull. C. One which is not subject to the requirements of the IBC Code in respect of the loading and carriage of hazardous liquid cargoes. D. One which can be loaded with hazardous liquid chemicals that can not be carried in integral cargo tanks.

30. Not counting actual capacity or structural and cargo specific limitations, the IBC Code states that for a single tank on a type 3 chemical tanker: A. There is no applicable filling restriction. B. A restriction of 1250 cubic metres shall apply. C. A restriction of 3000 cubic metres shall apply. D. A restriction of 1750 cubic metres shall apply.

31. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced by amendment to MARPOL and IBC Code, it has become mandatory for vegetable oils to be carried in: A. Double hull tankers. B. Integral cargo tanks only. C. Tanks fitted with heating coils or in-line heat exchangers only. D. IMO type II chemical tankers only.

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32. The design pressure for a cargo compartment on a chemical tanker to meet the definition and requirements of a “pressure tank” must be: A. Greater than 0.7 bar gauge. B. Less than 0.7 bar gauge. C. At least 1.0 bar gauge. D. At least 2.1 bar gauge.

33. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 1 chemical tanker as per the IBC Code is: A. 1250 cubic metres. B. 3000 cubic metres. C. 750 cubic metres. D. 2400 cubic metres.

34. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 2 chemical tanker as per the IBC Code is: The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 2 chemical tanker as per the IBC Code is: A. 3000 cubic metres B. 2400 cubic metres C. 3400 cubic metres D. 2750 cubic metres

35. The minimum permissible distance measured horizontally between the ship's shell plating and the outer side bulkhead of the first cargo compartment on a type II chemical tanker is: A. Not less than 760 mm. B. Not less than moulded breadth / 15. C. Not less than moulded breadth / 5. D. Not less than 1250 mm.

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36. A General Cargo vessel develops an angle of loll while loading a heavy item of deck cargo alongside the jetty. You should immediately: A. Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and fill small ballast tank on low side of vessel. B. Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and fill small ballast tank on high side of vessel. C. Stop cargo, increase FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and fill small ballast tank on high side of vessel. D. Stop cargo, increase FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and empty small ballast tank on low side of vessel.

37. A General Cargo vessel is deemed to be cargo worthy when: A. The hatch covers and/or hatch pontoons are weather tight. B. All her certificates are in order. C. The vessel's Safety Construction Certificate is vali D. The hatch covers and/or hatch pontoons are watertight.

38. A general cargo vessel is loading to its Summer Marks. Upon completion of loading, the final level of the water would be at: A. The top of the summer load line mark. B. The bottom of the summer load line mark. C. The top of the winter mark. D. The mid point between the summer and the tropical mark.

39. A general cargo with a large metacentric height (GM) would be expected to have: A. A fast roll period and large righting levers (GZ Levers). B. A fast roll period and small righting levers (GZ Levers). C. A long roll period and large righting levers. D. A long roll period and small righting levers (GZ Levers).

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40. Prior to loading heavy lift cargoes on a General Cargo Vessel, it must be ensured that: A. There are

minimum free surface moments in

tanks. B. All double-bottom tanks are empty. C. The vessel has a small metacentric height( GM). D. The vessel is listed to the side to which the load is to be lifte

41. The IMO Convention that is not applicable to a general cargo vessel when it is carrying timber deck cargoes is: A. The International Tonnage Convention. B. SOLAS 74/78. C. The International Convention on Load lines. D. MARPOL 73/78.

42. The value of GZ is no longer able to be calculated using GM Sine Angle of Heel formula at? A. Larger angles of heel. B. 5 degrees angle of Heel. C. Small angles of heel. D. Ess than 5 degrees angle of heel to the side of the heavy loa

43. The value of the GZ lever at small angles of heel on a General Cargo Vessel can be denoted by the formula: A. KM - KG x Sin angle of heel. B. KN - Corrected KG x Sin angle of heel. C. KN - KG x Sin angle of list. D. KM - Corrected KG x Sin angle of list.

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44. When loading heavy lift cargoes on a general cargo vessel, positive stability can be maintained by: A. Completely filling the ship's double bottom tanks and continuously monitoring the loading operation. B. Completely filling those double bottom tanks below the cargo hold where heavy cargo is being loade C. Monitoring the vessel's stability during the loading operation and not allowing the vessel to list on the side of the loa D. Listing the vessel to the opposite side to which the load is being lifte

45. Which type of material is normally used in the construction of a cargo tank designed for transporting LPG at atmospheric pressure? A. Carbon-Manganese steel. B. 9% Nickel steel. C. Stainless steel. D. Aluminium.

46. An Oil tanker experiences large bending moments and therefore the deck scantlings must be maintained within "x" length amidships, where "x" is: A. 0.4 Length B. Half Length C. 0.6 of the Length D. Quarter of the Length

47. As per MARPOL, the formula for calculating the minimum draft amidships for crude tankers in ballast condition is: A. 2.0 + 0.02L B. 2.0 + 0.002L C. 2.0 + 0.15.l D. 2.0 + 0.0015L

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48. Every oil tanker of 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above delivered on or after 1 February 2002 shall comply with intact stability whereby it must have a minimum GM (metacentric height) in port of: A. Not less than 0.15 m B. Not less than 0.015 m C. Not less than 0.25 m D. Not less than 0.10 m

49. The disadvantages of large double bottom tanks on a double hull oil tanker are: A. Increased free surface effect and reduced

transverse metacentric

height. B. Increased

longitudinal

bending

moments and transverse metacentric height. C. Increased likelihood of the vessel suddenly developing

severe trim

and list. D. Potential hazards relating to damage to internal structure and pipelines.

50. The scantling draft of an oil tanker fitted with segregated ballast tanks is: A. The draught for which the structural strength of the ship has been designed B. The maximum draught determined by the Loadline Rules C. The minimum draught amidships when in ballast condition D. The draught on which the fundamental design parameters are based

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51. What is the purpose of girders in the tank? A. They support the stiffeners and also take up some of the sea forces B. They transfer all the sea forces acting on the plating C. They transfer all the cargo forces acting on the plating D. They support the stiffeners

52. What are the main elements in a damage control plan? A. Boundaries

of

the

watertight

compartments for decks and holds. Position of controls for opening and closing of watertight compartments. Arrangement for correction of list due to flooding. B. Arrangements for correction of list due to flooding within 15 minutes C. Instructions and procedures for reporting damage to the Company D. A damage control plan is the same as an emergency plan

53. What arrangement may be installed in passenger ships to reduce unsymmetrical flooding in damaged condition? A. Cross flooding arrangement B. Ballast trimming system C. Separate trim tanks D. Self acting ballast trimming arrangement

54. What is the full name of the International Convention dealing with stability of passenger ships? A. The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea B. SOLAS C. International Safety Management code D. ISPS 474

DPKP

55. What is the result of a large metacentric height? A. The ship will roll violently. B. The ship will have a long roll perio C. Bending moment will increase. D. The center of gravity will move upwards.

56. What measures regarding ship stability should be taken in order to make passenger ships able to withstand critical damage? A. Maintain sufficient intact stability B. Damaged stability to be increased by use of water ballast C. Avoid overloading the ship D. Damaged stability to be increased by weight redistribution.

57. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and excessive heel angels in damaged condition are installed in passenger ships, what is the maximum angle of heel after flooding but before equalization? A. 15 degrees B. 10 degrees C. 20 degrees D. 30 degrees

58. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strenght? A. The Master B. The Shipping Company and the Classification Society C. The Flag State Administration D. The Shipyard

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59. Achieving a good air flow through the various cargo compartment of a reefer vessel is a principal design aim of a Naval Architect. Which of the options given represents the optimum cargo space shape? A. A square space as would be found in a midships lower deck. B. A narrow tapered space as would be found in a forward lower deck. C. A flared space that would be found in a forward upper deck.

60. A long oblong space as would be found in an after upper deck. Conventional reefer vessels are usually designed with fine lines and large flared bows. Consequently, in adverse weather conditions, especially from forward of the beam, the navigating officers need to be mainly aware of which of the given options? A. This type of vessel is prone to large hull deflections which may result in structural damage. B. That the main engine governor may not be effective when the vessel pitches heavily. C. That the bow is ideal for keeping the forward decks dry and clear of water. D. That the vessel design means that high speeds can be maintained and the perishable cargo can be delivered in good condition.

61. Earlier cellular reefer vessels were constructed with a 'porthole system' for supplying refrigerated air via ducting to containers. Modern vessels are designed to supply only electrical power to integral containers. Select the main reason for this change in design to the vessels and containers from the options given. A. The

'porthole'

system

design

was

extremely complex and construction costs were high. B. Ducted containers had to be transhipped to their final destination after discharge and still required refrigeration for that part of the supply chain C. A large amount of refrigerant gas was required to operate the 'porthole' system. 476

DPKP

D. The introduction of more powerful diesel engines onto these vessels meant they had sufficient electrical capacity to supply the integral type containers.

62. Earlier reefer vessels designed and built for liner trade usually had two or three tween decks approximately 2 to 2.5 metres in height and deep lower holds approximately 4 to 5 metres deep. Modern designs usually incorporate more decks each approximately 2.3 metres in height. What is the main reason for this fundamental design change? A. There is an almost universal use of standard height pallets. B. The increased proportion of chilled as opposed to frozen cargoes that are carrie C. The increased number of container vessels has reduced the tendency to carry general cargo outbound from Europe or North America to Australia and New Zealand on reefer vessels. D. It is easier to construct vessels with shallow decks.

63. How is the size of a reefer vessel normally referenced? A. By the cubic foot capacity. B. By the pallet capacity. C. By the grain capacity. D. By the Suez Canal tonnage.

64. In some reefer trades cargoes of chilled horse meat carcasses are stowed hanging from deckhead rails in refrigerated locker spaces. What position should the centre of gravity be assumed to be at when carrying out the stability calculations for a vessel with such a stow? A. At the deckhead of the lockers. B. At the mid-height of the hanging carcasses. C. At the point indicated for the lockers in the approved stability handbook. D. At the point indicated for the lockers in the approved stability handbook with an arbitrary adjustment to take account of the centre of mass of the hanging carcasses.

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65. Select from the options given the one which best completes the following statement. "Reefer vessels, loaded with a homogenous cargo, usually operate with a small GM due to the fact that… A. …they are designed with fine lines and the biggest cargo spaces are at the top of the holds." B. …they are designed with small fuel tanks." C. …they are designed that way to produce a gentle rolling motion." D. …they usually have large deck cranes."

66. Two conventional reefer vessels are being considered for a charter that involves the transhipment at sea, or at anchor, of a cargo of frozen squid, as weather permits. Both vessels have 4 holds, vessel A has high speed, 10 tonne deck cranes and vessel B has 5 tonne, union purchase derricks. Which of the vessels, if any, would be best suited to this type of operation? A. Vessel B would be more suitable as the derricks will give more control of the operation at sea or at anchor. B. Vessel A would be more suitable as the high speed cranes would allow the operation to be completed more quickly. C. Neither vessel would be suitable as none of the cargo handling equipment fitted could be used at sea or at anchor. D. Vessel A would be more suitable as the greater lift capacity of the cranes would allow bigger pallets to be transhippe

67. If properly secured what benefits do high sided car carriers have over other ship types regarding seaworthiness? A. They can roll to very large angles without taking in water B. They are not easily damaged in heavy weather C. Their large reserve buoyancy prevents

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capsizing D. They can pitch to very large angles without taking in water viathe ramp doors

68. On a roro vessel, in addition to longitudinal, transverse and vertical accelerations what else must be taken into account when calculating the external forces acting on a cargo unit? A. Longitudinal and transverse forces by wind pressure B. Longitudinal and vertical forces by wind pressure C. Vertical and transverse forces by wind pressure D. Longitudinal forces by sea sloshing

69. What special design feature is attributed to roro vessels which are only car carriers? A. A very large windage area B. A stern ramp C. Solid ballast D. A small GM when fully loaded

70. When will a ro-ro vessel pitch heavily? A. When wave lengths are equal to the ship's length B. When wave lengths are equal to twice the ship's length C. When wave lengths are equal to half the ship's length D. In confused seas

71. Why are pure roro car carriers considered as being high risk design vessels where their stability is concerne A. Because they can easily capsize if there is ingress of water or ballast operations are not handled correctly B. Because they have few internal bulkheads C. Because they have few internal bulkheads D. Because of the relatively small clearance between waterline and stern ramp sill when fully loaded

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72. Why is it important in a roro vessel to ensure that cargo is loaded in a uniform way A. To prevent high sheer forces

and bending

moments on the vessel during the loading / discharge operations B. Because it looks better and image is important C. Because it looks better and image is important D. Because it makes it harder to lash the cargo correctly if you don't

73. What is the result of a "high metacentric height"? A. The vessel will roll violently? B. The vessel will have a great bending moment? C. The vessel will roll slowly or be unstable? D. The vessel's tweendeck heights is too high?

74. What is usually the effect on G when the ship is damaged? A. It is unchanged B. It first rises then lowers C. It lowers D. It rises

75. What type of dynamic forces may cause indent in plating on forecastle deck and main deck in way of pillars inside forecastle? A. Pressure forces caused by green water on deck B. Slamming in way of flat bottom forward of light draught C. Impact pressure forces in way of abrupt or flared bow D. Forces created by waves on the forecastle

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76. Which of the following requirements regarding on board stability data corresponds to present regulations? (NSCL 4/12.1) A. A calculation example showing the use of "KG" limitation curves. B. Drawings and caculations documenting the stability of the ship, both in intact and all possible damage condition. C. A calculation example showing use of "GM" limitation curves. D. Stability data produced by stability calculation instruments.

77. Which of the following requirements to ships stability for normal operation corresponds to present regulations? (NSCL 4/12.2) A. The ship is loaded in such a manner that adequate stability is achieved in all loading condition. B. Unless otherwise stated in the approved stability calculation, the total weight of the deck cargo shall not exceed 50 metric tons. C. Centre of gravity shall be calculated with accuracy better than 5 percent. D. In waters with the danger of icing, loading of deck cargo must be approved by competent authority.

78. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strength? A. The master. B. The management company. C. The classification society. D. The flag state administration.

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79. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo such as iron ore concentrate; what would be the possible stability conditions produced? A. The vessel will normally have a large intact

metacentric height

(GM) and have a fast roll period B. The vessel will normally have a small intact metacentric height (GM) and have a slow roll period C. The vessel will be tender and have a poor curve of righting levers. D. The vessel may have a list

80. What specific data must be displayed on the loading instruments carried on bulk carriers of 150m or more in length? A. The shear forces exerted on the hull structure associated with the entered loaded weight distribution B. The segregation requirements of the cargoes carrie C. The ultimate strength of main deck plating D. The permeability of the cargo carried in the cargo holds

81. Where are cargo hold water level detectors required to be fitted on bulk carriers? A. At the after end of each cargo hold B. At the forward end of each cargo hold C. In cargo hold bilges D. At the port and starboard midship sections of each cargo hold

82. Which of the following describes the term couple? A. Two equal forces acting on a body in opposite directions along the centerline of the Vessel B. A point through which all of the upward forces affecting a vessel are considered to act. C. Two equal forces acting on a body in opposite directions and along parallel lines. 482

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D. None of the above.

83. The side to side, bodily motion of a vessel is known as

.

A. Yawing B. Pitching C. Heaving D. Swaying 84. Which motion of the vessel does a ship’s officer most easily control through transverse stability stowage? A. Swaying B. Rolling C. Yawing D. Pitching

85. In the diagram on the right, which of the following represents the righting arm? A. GM B. GZ C. BM D. ZM

86. In the diagram onthe right, the distance between the points B and M is known as: A. Metacentric Height B. Metacentric Radius C. Height of the Metacenter D. Buoyancentric Metadistance

87. Which of the following is true of a vessel in a neutral stability condition? A. G is below M B. G is abovem C. G is at the same height as B D. G is at the same height as M

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88. An inclination of a vessel due to negative stability is known as

.

A. Angle of Heal B. Angle of Loll C. Angle of List D. Angle of Doom

89. The geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the center of A. Hydrodynamics B. Flotation C. Gravity D. Buoyancy

90. The ratio of the volume of displacement to a block having length, breadth and draft of the vessel Is known as the vessel’s

.

A. Area of the water plane B. Block coefficient C. Water plane coefficient D. Volume ratio 91. Morrish’s Formula is used to determine

.

A. Metacentric Height B. Height of the Center of Buoyancy C. Height of the Center of Gravity D. Metacentric Radius

92. Which of the following best describes the moment of inertia about the longitudinal axis? A. The measure of a ship’s resistance to heaving. B. The measure of a ship’s resistance to rolling. C. The value of the metacentric radius divided by the displacement. D. The ratio of the area of the water plane to the product of the length and breadth of the Vessel.

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93. At large angles of inclination, the transverse metacenter will

.

A. Remain fixed on the transverse centerline. B. Move below the center of buoyancy. C. Move off of the transverse centerline. D. Move down while staying on the transverse centerline.

94. On the attached hydrostatic curves, what is the value of KM when the draft is 18 feet? A. 9.5 feet B. 19.5 feet C. 31.2 feet D. 26.1 feet

95. Which of the following is true of synchronous rolling? A. It occurs when the natural rolling of the vessel is the same as the ocean wave perio B. It occurs when the natural rolling period of the vessel differs from the ocean wave perio C. It occurs when the vessel is rolling in calm waters. D. It occurs when two vessels have the same natural rolling perio

96. The point at which all vertically downward forces of weight are considered to be concentrated is the

.

A. Metacenter B. Center of gravity C. Center of buoyancy D. Righting arm 97. When a cargo with a KG above the KG of the vessel is discharged, the vessel’s center of gravity will

.

A. Move downward B. Move upward C. Remain in its original location D. Move toward the center of gravity of the cargo. 485

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98. One long ton is equivalent to

.

A. 2000 pounds B. 1000 kilograms C. 2 short tons D. 2240 pounds

99. A vessel with a GM of 4 feet is inclined to 10 degrees. What is the value of the righting arm? A. 2.3 feet B. 0.7 feet C. 1.4 feet D. 10.6 feet

100. If a vessel is inclined due to an external force, assuming that weight on the vessel remain fixed, you would expect

.

A. G and B to both move B. G to move and B to remain fixe C. G and B to remain fixe D. G to remain fixed and B to move.

101. Which of the following would represent the height of the center of gravity on a vssel? A. KM + GM B. KB + BM –KG C. KM –GM D. KB + GM

102. The metacentric height of a vessel is the distance from: A. The keel to the metacenter B. The enter of buoyancy to the metacenter C. The center of gravity to the metacenter D. The center of gravity to the center of buoyancy

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103. What measures the stability of a vessel at all angles of inclination? A. KG B. The righting moment C. GM D. BM

104. The number of long tons necessary to change the mean draft of a vessel 1 inch is known as the A. Moment to trim 1 inch B. Tons per inch immersion C. Area of the water plane D. Block coefficient

105. If a load is suspended from the hook of a crane. What effect does that have on a vessel’s stability? A. The weight acts upon the vessel at it’s actual height above the keel. B. The weight acts upon the vessel from the position of the base of the crane on the vessel’s Deck. C. The weight acts upon the vessel from the head of the crane D. The weight acts upon the vessel from the spot on the deck directly below the suspended Weight 106. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “stiff ship?” A. A small GM B. A long rolling period C. Neutral stability D. A large GM

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16. Memantau dan mengawasi pelaksanaan persyaratan ketentuan yang berlaku, dan langkah-langkah yang diambil untuk menjamin keselamatan jiwa di laut, keamanan dan perlindungan lingkungan laut. (Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and measures to ensure safety of life at sea, security and the protection of the marine environment) 1.

A Cargo Ship Equipment Certificate will be issued for: A. 5 years with control every 12 months B. 2 years with control every 6 months C. 3 years D. 4 years

2.

Are there any exceptions from OPA-90 A. Yes, transit passage through US waters to a non US port B. Yes, if the vessel calls a US port for only a short stop C. No exceptions D. Yes, close to any US naval base

3.

For a ship operating or calling in US waters, COTP can request (OPA-90) A. Unannounced drills at any time B. Participation in all announced drills C. Maximum one drill a year D. Maximum two drills a year

4.

For how long is the health certificate valid for a seafarer above the age of 18? A. One year. B. Two years. C. No time limit. D. Three months.

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5.

For what period of time is the protection and environment committee elected? A. 1 - 2 years. B. 3 - 4 years. C. 5 - 6 years. D. 8 years.

6.

For which of the following ships, is the MARPOL convention applicable? A. For all listed vessels. B. For tankers and other vessels carrying persistent oil as cargo. C. For all vessels except passenger vessels. D. For all vessels except those engaged in coastal trade.

7.

For which ships is the SOLAS convention applicable? A. For all vessels. B. For all vessels except passenger vessels. C. For passenger vessels only. D. For tankers and other vessels carrying persistent oil as cargo.

8.

How frequent should reports from protection and environmental work be send to shore based management? A. Annually. B. Biannually. C. Every three years. D. Not mandatory to send reports.

9.

How many annexes do we find in MARPOL and what is the content of annex 1? A. We find 6 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 is the regulations for the prevention of pollution by oil B. We find 5 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 is the regulations for the prevention of pollution by sewage C. We find 4 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 regulations for the prevention of pollution by garbage D. We find 1 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 regulations for the prevention 489

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of pollution by chemicals.

10. If pollution takes place, what would you do immediately? A. Report to relevant authorities. B. Inform the manager. C. Start clean-up operations. D. Inform the vessel's agent.

11. In case of pollution in US waters, do you always have to notify the National Response Center (OPA-90) A. Yes, within thirty (30) minutes B. Yes, within three (3) days C. No, not if the local US State Authority is correctly notified D. No, only the shipowner can notify NRC

12. In relation ot OPA 90, Which of the following statement is correct? A. COTP-zones may have additional rules and regulations B. OPA-90 specify rules and regulations for all COTP-zones C. After implementation of OPA-90 there are no area specific rules and Regulations D. OPA-90 specify all oil cargo related rules and regulations

13. In US waters "Oil Pollution Act of 1990" was activated in August 1993. What is the main issue for the introduction of the act? A. To prevent oil spills in US waters? B. To enforce owners to use equipment of higher standards that those of today? C. To encourage owners to build double hull vessels for trading US waters? D. To improve safety measures onboard?

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14. MARPOL - Annex IV. Prevention of Pollution by Sewage from ships. What do you understand by the word "Sewage"? A. Drainage/waste from toilets/urinals. B. Mixture of sea water/oil. C. Waste from galley. D. Waste from synthetic materials.

15. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the oily water separator which was previously certified for 100 ppm be changed to: A. 15 ppm B. 50 ppm C. 25 ppm D. 10 ppm

16. OPA-90 is referring to a Qualified Individual (QI) A. QI is an authorised individual, situated in the US, and contracted by the owner or operator of the vessel B. QI is the owner’s contingency leader C. QI is representing the USCG D. An individual certified by USCG to handle oil spills

17. What are the functions of a flag state administration? A. They have

responsibility for setting,

monitoring and enforcing standards of safety and pollution prevention on vessels flying the countries flag B. They have responsibility for ensuring that ships are properly registered C. The have responsibility for ensuring that ships are correctly manned and that crews' terms and conditions of employment are met satisfactorily D. The maintain a record of all ship and their crews, and produce statistics involving ships from their country.

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18. What can lead to "Unlimited responsibility" (OPA-90) A. Wilful misconduct, gross negligence and violation of Federal Safety B. Only gross negligence C. Only wilful misconduct D. Wilful misconduct and gross negligence

19. What does STCW deal with? A. STCW deals with minimum recommendation of education for seafarers and minimum standards for training centre and schools B. STCW deals with minimum recommendation for training centre and schools C. STCW deals with recommendation for training centre and schools and type of education for seafarers D. STCW deals with training centre and schools and standards for watch keepers

20. What does the abbreviation SOLAS mean? A. International Convention for the Safety of Lives at Sea B. International Agreement for Security of Load and Ships C. International Conference for Security of Loads aboard Ships D. International Rules for Safe Ocean Lines and Sailingroutes

21. What does the abbreviation STCW stand for? A. The International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping of Seafarers B. Seafarer's Training and Competence of Watchkeepers C. The

International

Convention

of

Ship's

Trading,

Chartering and Waybills D. The International Shipowners, Transport and Cargo Work Convention

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22. What does the term OIL mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations? A. All of the mentioned B. Fuel oil C. Sludge D. Oil refuse

23. What IMO conventions take care of the human safety at sea? A. It is the SOLAS conventions that take care of the human safety at sea B. It is the MARPOL conventions that take care of the human safety at sea C. It is the STCW 78/95 that take care of the human safety at sea D. There isn’t any conventions that take care of the human safety at sea

24. What is a "passenger" according to SOLAS regulations? A. Every person other than the Captain and the members of the crew or other persons employed or engaged onboard the ship in the business of that ship. B. Everyone who travels with a passenger ship C. Any person holding a ticket and travelling with a passenger ship D. Any person paying their voyage regardless of ship type

25. What is full form of VRP (OPA-90) A. Vessel Response Plan B. Vessel Report Plan C. Vessel Response Procurement D. Vessel Reporting Procedures

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26. What is SOPEP? A. A Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan B. A Ship-Owners Permitted Entry Plan C. A Shipboard Oil Pollution Exemption Procedure D. A Seafarer's Offical Pension and Employment Payment scheme

27. What is the alcohol content in the blood permissible under US legislation before it is defined as intoxication? A. 0,04 % B. 0,07 % C. 0,01 % D. 0,1 %

28. What is the maximum oil content in the sludge/ bilge water allowed to be pumped over board during a voyage? A. 30 litres per nautical mile B. 20 litres per nautical mile. C. 40 litres per nautical mile. D. 60 litres per nautical mile.

29. What is the status of the rules of the SOLAS convention? A. Mandatory. B. Supplementary to classification rules. C. Should be consulted when the vessel is in distress. D. Must be regarded as guidelines.

30. What is the top priority if an incident occurs in US waters (OPA-90) A. Safety of ship and crew B. Protection of the environment C. Prevention of oil pollution D. Any immediate action to prevent loss of time

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31. What must be done if the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) should fail during a ballast voyage? A. All of the mentioned must be performed B. The failure must be noted in the Oil Record Book C. The failure must be repaired D. If the failure cannot be repaired onboard, the ODME must be repaired before the ship commences its next voyage

32. What rules and regulations are regulating the watch keeping routines in the engine room? A. Both STCW and Class rules B. International Standard for Training and Watch keeping (STCW) C. Class Rules D. SOLAS

33. What would happen if, when a ship is under-going a Port State Inspection, certificates were invalid or missing A. Rectification would be required before sailing B. The ship would be allowed to sail to the next port and rectification would take place then C. The ship would be detained indefinitely D. The deficiencies would be recorded in the ship's register and the ship allowed to sail

34. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible? A. Any one involved in the operation B. Captain only C. Shipowners only D. Officers only

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35. Where is OPA-90 applicable? A. Within

200 nm of US waters including

Guam, Hawaii, Alaska and San Juan B. Within US waters C. 200 nm off US coast D. 200 nm off coast of California

36. Where is the Safety Certificates for ships to be kept? A. In the Captain's office B. In the Owner's office C. In the Captain's safe D. Posted up in a prominent place onboard the ship

37. Where should the placard you are shown be located, according to U.S. Coast Guard regulations ? (Title 33-Navigation and Navigable waters, § 155.440 ) A. Both in a conspicuous place in each machinery space and in a conspicuous place at the bilge and ballast pump control station B. In the wheelhouse C. In a conspicuous place in each machinery space D. In a conspicuous place at the bilge and ballast pump control station

38. Which IMO convention takes care of the human safety at sea ? A. The SOLAS convention B. The MARPOL convention C. The STCW 78/95 D. There isn't any conventions that take care of the human safety at sea

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39. Which international convention deals with fire-fighting equipment etc. A. SOLAS B. MARPOL C. Load Line convention D. CRISTAL

40. Which international convention deals with pollution prevention? A. MARPOL. B. SOLAS. C. STCW. D. ISGOTT.

41. Which international organization is preparing conventions and rules for seafaring nations? A. International Maritime Organization (IMO) B. International Labor Organization (ILO) C. International Marine Association (IMA) D. International Ocean Safety Organization (IOSO)

42. Which organization or administration is responsible for surveys and inspections of ships, and the issue of Safety Certificates? A. Government Authorities of the Flag State B. International Maritime Organization (IMO) C. International Labor Organization (ILO) D. Ships Classification Associations (Lloyd's, American Bureau of Shipping, The Norwegian Veritas, Germanische Lloyd's, etc.)

43. Who are responsible for safe working conditions onboard? A. Master, Chief Engineer & Chief Officer. B. The individual person. C. The safety officer. D. The officer of the watch.

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44. Who is responsible for keeping the required official publications onboard? A. The master. B. The radio officer. C. The owner. D. The authorities.

45. Who is responsible for the vessel's radio station and mandatory radio routines? A. The master. B. The owners. C. The radio officer. D. Statutory authorities.

46. Who is responsible that regulatory working hours are not exceeded? A. The master and department heads. B. The individual person. C. The bosun and the second engineer. D. The safety officer.

47. Your vessel has been involved in a collision, which has resulted in a heavy oil leakage. Who should be called to handle pollution claims and damages? A. The P & I Club's nearest representative. B. The Leading Hull Underwriter's nearest Average Agent. C. The Classification Society's representative. D. Flag state representative.

48. What governs the disposal of dry bulk cargo residues at sea? A. MARPOL regulations B. SOLAS 74/88 regulations C. Convention on the Prevention of Marine Pollution by Dumping of Wastes and Other Matter D. The Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk Cargoes

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49. When considering how to deal with cargo residues during hatch cleaning at sea on a Bulk Carrier, what is the most careful consideration? A. Consult MARPOL handbook and the vessels Safety Management System (SMS) for guidance B. There are no restrictions on discharge of cargo residues to sea C. Follow actions of previous crews D. Check procedures and Arrangements manual

50. "Noxious Liquid Substances which, if discharged into the sea from tank cleaning or deballasting operations , are deemed to present a hazard to either marine resources or human health or cause harm to amenities or other legitimate uses of the sea and therefore justify a limitation on the quality and quantity of the discharge into the marine environment". Such substances are: A. A category "Y" substance as identified in MARPOL Annex II. B. A category "X" substance as identified in MARPOL Annex II. C. An NLS as defined in ISGOTT, revision V. D. A liquid cargo that is prohibited for carriage in vessels other than type 1 chemical tanker, as defined in the IBC Code.

51. A tank which contained a category "X" product must undergo a prewash before leaving port in compliance with MARPOL.

The resulting residues shall be

discharged to a reception facility until the concentration of the substance in the effluent, as indicated by analysis of samples of the effluent taken by the authorized surveyor has reached a level of: A. 0.1% by weight. B. 0.1% by volume. C. 0.2% by weight. D. 0.3% by volume.

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52. As per MARPOL 73/78, coal slurry, clay slurry, dextrose solution and molasses are classified as: A. "OS" (Other substances)" B. Category Y C. Category Z D. Category X 53. MARPOL 73/78 defines ‘solidifying substances’ as: A. A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a melting point of less than 15°C which is at a temperature of less than 5°C above its melting point at the time of unloading, or in the case of a substance with a melting point equal to or greater than 15°C which is at a temperature of less than 10°C above its melting point at the time of unloading. B. A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a melting point of less than 20°C which is at a temperature of less than 10°C above its melting point at the time of unloading, or in the case of a substance with a melting point equal to or greater than 20°C, is at a temperature of less than 15°C above its melting point at the time of unloading. C. A noxious liquid which will crystallise and eventually bond into solid form at ambient, or less than ambient temperatures unless an external heat source is applied. D. A noxious liquid substance which will crystallise and eventually bond into solid form if exposed to an external heat source. 54. MARPOL 73/78 defines a ‘high viscosity substance’ as: A. A noxious liquid substance in category "X" or "Y" with a viscosity equal to or greater than 50 mpa.s at the unloading temperature. B. A noxious liquid substance in category "Y" with a viscosity equal to or greater than 100 mpa.s at 37.8 degrees Celsius. C. A noxious liquid substance of any category with a pour point of greater than 37.8 degrees Celsius. D. Any noxious liquid substance, the residues of which cannot be stripped from a cargo compartment and its associated piping and pumping system to equal to or less than 75 litres. 500

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55. As per MARPOL, for control of discharge of Noxious Liquid Substances, the area(s) designated as “Special Areas” are: A. The Antarctic. B. The Mediterranean Sea, Baltic Sea, Black Sea, Red Sea, "Gulfs" Area, Gulf of Aden, Oman Area of the Arabian Sea, Southern South African Waters, Antarctic and North-West European Waters. C. The Baltic Sea, the Black Sea and Antarctic. D. The Wider Caribbean Region including the Gulf of Mexico and the Caribbean Sea, Southern South African Waters and North-West European Waters.

56. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank on a chemical tanker which has been washed to such an extent that the ballast contains less than 1 ppm of the substance previously carried may be discharged into the sea without regard to the discharge rate, ship's speed and discharge outlet location, but under certain conditions, which require: A. That the vessel is not less than 12 miles from the nearest land and is in water that is not less than 25 metres deep. B. That the vessel is not less than 50 miles from the nearest land and is proceeding on route. C. That the discharge is passed through the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment and a visual watch is maintained on the vessel's wake. D. Provided the ship is underway and a sample of the ballast water has been drawn from the tank and is stored on board, there are no additional conditions to be imposed on such a discharge. 57. In respect of a chemical tanker, carrying category “X”, “Y” & “Z” Noxious Liquid Substances, the term “Clean Ballast” as defined in the IBC Code means: A. Ballast water carried in a tank which, since it was last used to carry a cargo containing a substance in category "X","Y" or "Z", has been thoroughly cleaned and the residues resulting there from have been discharged and the tank emptied in accordance with the appropriate requirements of Annex II. B. Ballast water introduced into a tank permanently allocated to the carriage of ballast or cargoes other than oil or Noxious Liquid Substances as variously defined in the Annexes of the MARPOL Convention and which is 501

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completely separate from the cargo and oil fuel systems. C. Ballast water carried in a tank which has been previously washed in accordance with the requirements of the Procedures and Arrangements Manual. D. Ballast water that is free of all cargo residues and slops.

58. In the event of an accidental or other exceptional discharge into the sea of a Noxious Liquid Substance or mixture containing such a substance, an entry shall be made in the Cargo record Book, which shall include: A. Time of occurrence Approximate quantity, substance(s) and Category(ies) Circumstances of discharge or escape and general remarks. B. Date of occurrence Position (latitude and longitude) Estimated quantity and category(ies) Extract from Master's Log Book detailing the incident. C. Position at start and stop of accidental discharge Time at start and stop of accidental discharge Reason for accidental discharge D. Name of Person in Charge of operation at time of accidental discharge. Date and Time of occurrence Name of Responsible Person, and Master of the vessel Statement of Responsible Person, and Master of the vessel Approximate quantity and category of product discharged Identity of nearest sovereign State and Authority of that State contacted with applicable report reference.

59. Vegetable Oils as per MARPOL are classified under: A. Category "Y". B. Category "Z". C. Category "OS" - other substances. D. Category "A".

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60. The reporting of incidents involving harmful substances and / or marine pollutants is regulated under which international guidelines? A. Protocol I of MARPOL. B. Annex II to SOLAS 1974. C. Appendix B of the Supplement to the IMDG Code. D. The UN Convention on the Reporting of Accidents and Incidents which Present a Hazard to the Marine Environment 2004.

61.

When small amounts of cleaning additives (detergent products) are added to water in order to facilitate the washing of tanks which previously contained liquid chemicals, must be ensured that: A. No additives containing Pollution Category "X" components shall be used, except those components that are readily biodegradable and present in a total concentration of less than 10% of the cleaning additive.

No

restrictions additional to those applicable to the tank due to the previous cargo shall apply. B. The discharge shall be governed by the provisions of Annex I or II, which would apply to the additive had it been carried as cargo. Tank washing procedures involving the use of such additives shall be set out in the Procedures and Arrangements Manual and approved by the vessel's Flag State Administration. C. No conditions apply provided not more than 200 litres per 1000 cubic metres of tank volume is used in any one washing operation. D. If the additive contains Pollution category "X" products and more than 200 litres is used in the washing operation for a single cargo tank, then a prewash to shore must be carried out.

62. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced by amendment to MARPOL and IBC Code, it has become mandatory for vegetable oils to be carried in: A. Double hull tankers. B. Integral cargo tanks only. C. Tanks fitted with heating coils or in-line heat exchangers only. D. IMO type II chemical tankers only.

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63. Which of these definitions is that of a "Marine Pollutant" under the IMDG Code? A. A substance which is subject to the provisions of Annex III of MARPOL. B. A substance which is subject to the provisions of Chapter V of SOLAS 1974, as amended. C. Any

substance

which

is

deemed

hazardous to the marine environment. D. A substance which, because of its tendency to degrade in seafood, or because of its hazard potential to the aquatic environment is subject to the provisions of Annex I of MARPOL, as amended, and carried by sea accordingly.

64. Does MARPOL apply to LNG carriers? A. Yes, MARPOL applies to all ship types.. B. No, MARPOL only applies to oil tankers. C. Yes, but only annex IV. D. Yes, but only annex V.

65. Does the Oil Pollution Act, 1990 (OPA90) apply to vessels engaged in carrying liquefied natural gas (LNG)? A. Yes, OPA90 applies to all ships. B. No, OPA90 applies only to oil tankers. C. Only if the vessel is carrying HC-products. D. OPA90 only applies to non-American flag vessels

66. An oil tanker with a defective Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment may be allowed by a Port State Authority to trade for: A. One ballast voyage before proceeding to a repair port. B. One ballast and one loaded voyage, provided no cleaning operations are carried out.

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C. An indefinite period as long as the owners can demonstrate they have ordered the spare parts for repairs. D. One year, provided that the vessel is scheduled for a dry-dock during the next 12 months.

67. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning machine with a rotational speed of 1 rpm and a selected pitch angle of 1.5 degrees is used to perform a bottom wash with a vertical angle from 40 degrees to 0 degrees for 1.5 cycles (3 passes). If the throughput of the machine at design pressure is 90 m3/hr, what will be the washing time and quantity of crude oil required? A. 40 minutes and 60 cubic metres of oil. B. 30 minutes and 45 cubic metres of oil. C. 48 minutes and 70 cubic metres of oil. D. 36 minutes and 48 cubic metres of oil.

68. As per OPA 90 requirements, a vessel over 400 feet (121.9 metres) in length must carry oil spill clean-up gear to be able to handle oil spillages of: A. 12 barrels (1.91 cubic metres). B. 15 barrels (2.38 cubic metres). C. 5 barrels (0.79 cubic metre). D. 1 barrel (0.16 cubic metre).

69. The calibration of the ODME is carried with the use of: A. Fresh water. B. The product being carried on that voyage. C. Approved bio-degradable light oil D. Sea water

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70. After the last entry being made, the retention period of an oil record book on board must be: A. Not less than 3 years after the date of the last entry. B. Not less than 5 years after the date of the last entry. C. Exactly 3 years from the date of the first entry. D. Until the next port where it may be handed over to the Port State Authority.

71. As per MARPOL, Oil Record Book Part II, Cargo/Ballast Operations, must be carried and completed on oil tankers of: A. 150 gross tonnes and above. B. 400 gross tonnes and above. C. Any size, as long as they are classified as tankers. D. 50 gross tonnes and above.

72. As per MARPOL, the contents of lines and pumps on an oil tanker at completion of discharge must be: A. Drained and then pumped either ashore, or to a cargo tank or slop tank on board. B. Cleared to shore by the use of compressed air. C. Drained directly (and only) to shore. D. Discharged ashore or retained on board as per the pre-discharge agreement made between the ship and shore.

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73. As per requirements of the International Convention for the Control and Management of Ship's Ballast Water and Sediments, oil tankers must have a plan on board to achieve: A. 95% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken onboard at the previous port. B. 100% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken onboard at the previous port. C. 25% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port. D. 80% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port.

74. One purpose of the US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is to …………. A. To restrict the trade of foreign nations. B. Limit the access of tankers to US waters C. Create an international pollution regime. D. Enhance the preparedness of shipboard and shore based personnel in the event of a pollution incident.

75. All tank vessels under OPA 90 are required to carry on board spill recovery equipment of sufficient capacity to …………… A. Accommodate oil spilt on deck. B. Combat a worst case spill. C. Accommodate oil spilt in the Engine Room. D. Clean up an accidental spill up to 500 barrels. 76. Tools for mitigation include the ships fire hoses. Fire hoses may be used to … A. Prevent floating oil from escaping downstream. B. Disperse floating oil. C. Wash oil off the cargo deck. D. Wash oil from the dock.

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77. During oil spill clean up, booming strategies are most effective to contain spills in ……… A. Rough weather conditions in open sea. B. Areas close to response centers. C. Areas with waves with medium swells and significant height. D. Calm weather conditions in coastal waters. 78. The costs of cleaning up a major oil spill can ………… A. Greatly exceed the cost of the oil it self. B. All of these. C. Cost ship owners and operators their assets. D. Lead to prosecution of those involved.

79. The intentional discharge of 10,000 gallons of oil into the sea is best described as A. An operational spill. B. A casualty spill. C. Willful misconduct. D. A worst case scenario.

80. OPA 90 response times for salvage and lightering contractors are calculated from the time of …………. A. The go ahead signal from the Coast Guard B. Reaching the pollution scene C. The call out D. The occurrence of the oil spill

81. Under OPA 90 regulations, each part of the cargo oil or bunkering system not used during fuel transfer or cargo oil transfer must be secured ………….. A. With a blank flange. B. By securing the manual values tight and padlocking the value wheels. C. With a cement box. 508

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D. By locking the hydraulic actuators to the respective line values. 82. Under OPA 90, all verbal reports regarding an oil spill should be followed …… A. By obtaining feedback about the action taken and by repeated verbal reports are to be made if new information is available. B. Up in writing to facilitate clear communications C. By the course of action and repeated verbal reports are to be made if new information is available. D. By obtaining feedback about the action taken. 83. Most landfills in the United States will not accept ……….. A. Residue from smelting plants. B. Rock debris. C. Ashes. D. Oil soaked materials.

84. Under OPA 90, concerning the activation of the OSRO or Oil Spill Response Organisation, which of the statements below is true ? A. The ships staff alone is to activate the OSRO directly within 30 minutes after the spill after which the USCG is informed B. The Harbour Master's office is to activate the OSRO immediately C. The P & I club is to activate the OSRO within 24 to 48 hours D. The shore management is able to activate the OSRO

85. In event of an oil spill, mooring lines can be used as an interim containment barrier …………. A. Around cargo oil and bunkering manifolds. B. To avoid oil spilled on the deck from escaping overboard via the fish plate openings. C. To keep an oil slick from escaping downstream. D. To contain small oil spills on the open deck.

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86. Most important in monitoring the loading or bunkering rate is ………….. A. To keep a close eye on the manifold pressure. B. To keep close radio contact with the jettybarge. C. The remote control gauging system is to be observed. D. That tanks should be sounded very regularly.

87. A tank vessel owner or operator can ensure he has met the planning criteria of the OPA 90 A. Employing an OSRO. B. Contracting sufficient resources to meet the tiered planning guidelines for each area in which the ship is trading. C. Trading only in high volume ports. D. Having response equipment on board.

88. Which major port is not a high volume port ? A. Port Angeles B. St. Croix C. Mobile D. New York.

89. When reporting an oil spill to the National Response Center and a recorded message is heard and you are placed on hold, your alternate contact should be … A. The nearest U.S. Coast Guard Captain of the Port. B. The local directory operator. C. The National Transportation Safety Board. D. Your head office

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90. The penalty for failure to immediately notify the appropriate U.S. Government agency of an oil spill is……… A. Partial liability. B. Unlimited liability. C. A fine of not more than U.S $ 10,000 and/or one year in prison. D. Ten years in prison.

91. To ensure clear communications under OPA 90, all verbal reports should be followed by A. A telex, fax or cable. B. More telephone calls. C. The nautical translation. D. A message in a bottle. 92. A routine cause of operational oil spills is …………. A. The tendency of the vessel to report a lesser amount of bunkers than actually remains on board. B. Miscalculations C. The tendency of the vessel to report a lesser amount of bunkers than actually remains on board and sole dependency on remote gauging systems. D. Sole dependency on remote gauging systems 93. Basic spill prevention measurements include ………. A. At least one person on board who can speak the language of both persons in charge on the terminal. B. Attention to moorings. C. Insertion of at least one bolt in every other hole of flanges. D. A signed exchange between ship and terminal.

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94. The first phase of emergency response is

…………

A. Breefing the incident commend system. B. Containment and recovery. C. Effective reaction to the situation on board. D. Disposal of oily rags. 95. A key element of the Incident Command System is …………… A. Liaison with government agencies. B. Reporting. C. Containment. D. Recovery. 96. The US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 applies to…………… A. Petroleum oils. B. Black oil. C. Petroleum, animal and vegetable oils. D. Diesel and kerosene fuels. 97. The most important guideline for dealing with the news media is ……………. A. Not speculating about the issues. B. Adherence to the Freedom of Information Act. C. Refusing to comment. D. All of these. 98. Three functions of the Incident Command staff are…………… A. Information, safety and liaison. B. Command, control and evacuation. C. Incineration, recycling and disposal. D. Fire fighting, lightering and salvage.

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99. Who is responsible for the supervision of cleanup until the Oualified Individual arrives on the scene. ? A. The Environment Protection Agency. B. The ship's staff. C. The person in charge of oil transfer. D. The local agent.

100. Under OPA 90 , Group 1 oils are

…………….

A. Persistent oils. B. Non persistent oils. C. Vegetable oils. D. Animal oils. 101. The three types of boom are …………… A. Light, medium and low. B. Fire fighting, lightering and salvage. C. Light, heavy and double extra strength. D. Heavy duty offshore, river & harbour, sorbent. 102. The primary forces that will affect the movement of oil on the water are…………… A. Sun light. B. Vacuum trucks. C. Currents, tides and winds. D. Gravitational pull.

103. According to OPA 90 Pollution Response, clean-up of which oil group may involve underwater recovery ? A. Group III B. Group IV C. Group I D. Group V 513

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104. OPA 90 regulations are effective up to ………..miles offshore. A. 50 B. 10 C. 200 D. 150

105. Under OPA 90 regulations actuation of Tier I response resources must be made………after discovery oil discharge. A. Within one hour B. Immediately, in any case not later than 30 minutes C. Within two hours D. Within 45 minutes 106. Under normal conditions a spill of Group V oil will …………… A. Burn. B. Sink. C. Float. D. Disperse with wind and current. 107. The Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is …………. A. United States legislation B. Only enforceable in the Atlantic Ocean & US Gulf C. An equivalent standard of Marpol 73/78 D. An international pollution law

108. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for a tanker is that………. A. The tanker is within a Special Area. B. The tanker is not within a Special Area C. The tanker is within a Designated Zone D. The tanker is not within a Designated Zone 514

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109. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for an oil tanker is that………… A. The tanker is more than 50 nautical mites from the nearest land. B. The tanker is more than 25 nautical miles from the nearest land. C. The tanker is more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. D. The tanker is more than 100 nautical miles from the nearest land.

110. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for a tanker is that ………. A. The tanker is en route. B. The tanker is in ballast condition. C. The tanker is tank cleaning. D. The tanker is loaded.

111. For existing tankers the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea should be no more than ……..of the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue formed part. A. 1/25000 B. 1/100000 C. 1/15000 D. 1/50000

112. The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content of a tanker shall not exceed ? A. 120 litres per nautical mile B. 100 litres per nautical mile C. 75 litres per nautical mile D. 30 litres per nautical mile

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113. Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are one of the most common cases of oil pollution. Which flue of these items are the main preventive measures against tank overflow ?

A. II,

IV,

V,

VI,

VII

B. I.

Ill,

IV,

V,

VI

C. I,

II,

Ill,

VI,

VII

D. I,

Ill,

V,

VI,

VII

114. According to Marpol, what does the term "oil "mean ? A. Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil refuse and refined products B. Any grade of crude oil or fuel oil C. Any grade of crude oil, fuel oil or refined products D. Any grade of crude oil

115. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oily mixture " ? A. A mixture with oil content above 100 ppm B. A mixture with oil content above 50 ppm C. A mixture with any oil content D. A mixture with oil content above 15 ppm

116. Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be considered an oil tanker ? A. Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk B. Yes, when it is carrying petrochemicals C. Yes D. No 516

DPKP

117. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oil fuel" ? A. A cargo of Heavy Fuel Oil , Intermediate Fuel or Diesel Oil B. A cargo of refined oil with flashpoint above 60 degree C C. Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliary machinery D. A cargo of refined oil for combustible purpose in thermal machinery or boilers

118. Does the definition of an "oil tanker "applies to a gas carrier ? A. Yes, when carrying chemicals or petrochemicals B. No, it is not C. Yes, it is D. Yes, when carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk

119. According to Marpol, what does the term "new ship" mean ? A. A ship for which the keel was laid or was in any similar stage of construction after 30 June 1976 B. A ship for which the building contract was placed after 31 December 1995 C. A ship which was delivered after 31 December 1979 D. All of these.

120. What does the 'instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content "mean according to Marpol ? A. The total quantity of oil discharged at any moment B. The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant divided by the speed of the ship in knots at the same instant C. The total quantity of oil discharged divided by the mileage covered during the time of discharge by the ship D. The total rate of oil discharged per hour divided by 3600

517

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121. What is the best description of a "special area" as defined by Marpol ? A. An area with a particular traffic characteristics where extra precautions are required B. A sea area where for recognised oceanographical and ecological conditions and in view of traffic special prevention is required C. An ecological endangered area where no oil mixture is to be discharged at anytime D. A sea area where in view of its particular no overboarddischarged of any oily mixtures

122. What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined by Marpol ? A. A tank used for tank cleaning provided with heating coils B. The two most aftward fitted wing tanks or the most aftward fated centre tank C. Any tank where slops or sludges are collected D. A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank D drainings, washings or other oily mixtures

123. Which description given below is nearest to the description of clean ballast as defined by Marpol ? A. Its oil content is no more than 100 ppm and it will not produce visible traces on the shore lines. B. Its oil content is NIL and consequently would not leave any traces upon the surface of the water or emulsion beneath the water surface. C. Its oil content is no more than 50 ppm and will not produce visible traces on adjoining shorelines, nor emulsion in the sea. D. If discharged from a ship stationary in clean calm water on a clear day will not produce visible traces of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below

518

DPKP

124. Which answer is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast ? A. The clean ballast water which can only be pumped via segregated lines by the clean ballast pump B. Ballast water that cannot be pumped through cargo oil piping and for which cargo pumps cannot be used C. The ballast carried in the clean ballast tank via the segregated ballast pump D. The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated from cargo or fuel oil system and permanently allocated to ballast

125. In order for a tanker to be called a "new oil tanker "according to Marpol, the date on its building contract would read…………… A. After 1st January 1981. B. After 31st of December 1980. C. After 1st June 1982. D. After 1st June 1979. 126. Every oil tanker of ….. Tons gross tonnage and above and every other ship of tons gross tonnage and above shall be subject to Marpol (IOPP) surveys. A. 500,1000 B. 400, 700 C. 150, 400 D. 250, 500

127. The initial Marpol (10PP) survey carried out before a ship enters service in order to ensure compliance with the applicable regulations shall include…… A. A complete survey of all wing tanks, centre tanks, stop tanks. B. A complete survey of the associate pumping and piping systems, including oil-discharging monitoring system, oil tittering and separating systems. C. A complete survey of all piping. D. A complete survey of its structure, equipment, fittings, systems arrangements and materials in so far as the ship is covered by this Annex.

519

DPKP

128. Periodical Marpol surveys are to be carried out at intervals as specified by the administration. These intervals are not to exceed………….. A. Two and a half years. B. Three years. C. Two years. D. Five years.

129. At least one survey must to be carried out during the validity of the IOPP certificate. This shall ensure that the equipment, pumps and piping systems including ODME are in order. What is this survey called ? A. The Annual survey B. The Special survey C. The Intermediate survey D. The Midterm survey

130. Marpol permits additional inspections in order to ensure that the ship and its equipment remain in all respects satisfactory for service. What are these inspections called ? A. Annual Inspections B. Unscheduled inspections C. Obligatory inspections D. Special surveys

131. Here are FIVE items concerning topping off procedures during oil cargo loading and bunkering. Which one of these is not true ? A. III - is not true B. II - is not true C. V - is not true D. I- is not true

520

DPKP

132. If Mandatory annual surveys are established by the Administration, how will it effect unscheduled Inspections carried out according to Marpol ? A. The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory B. Only one unscheduled inspection per year is required C. Unscheduled inspections are required once every two years D. Two unscheduled inspections are required during a 5-year periode

133. Who may carry out MARPOL surveys ? A. Approved ship's officers B. Port-State Control Inspectors C. Coast Guard Inspectors D. Surveyors nominated by Administrations or organisationsrecognised by Administrations

134. Who may carry out marpolinspections ? A. Officers authorised by the Government having jurisdiction over the port in which the ship is located, generally referred to as Port State Inspectors. B. All of these. C. Surveyors nominated by recognisedorganisations. D. Coast Guard officers. 135. What is the meaning of a “harmful substance" under Marpol ? A. Petroleum products and petrochemicals B. Hydrocarbons in any form C. Any substance creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities. D. Oils and fuels

521

DPKP

136. These items are standard inspection items for Marpol as given in guidelines to inspectors and surveyors. Which item does not belong ?

A. Item VII - does not belong B. Item VI - does not belong C. Item II - does not belong D. Item V - does not belong

137. What does "discharge" means in relation to harmful substances as defined by Marpol ? A. Dumping or disposal from the ship B. Spilling, leaking or escape from the ship C. Pumping, emptying or emitting from a ship D. Any release how ever caused

138. What is the meaning of an incident" according to Marpol ? A. The actual discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such substances B. B

The probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture

C. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such substances D. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture 139. Penalties under the Law for violation of Marpol requirements shall be….. A. Adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equally severe irrespective of where the violation occurs. B. Imposed by all countries, the severity depends on where the violation occurs. 522

DPKP

C. Imposed to warn against the global problem of pollution. D. In all cases most severe.

140. To what administrative matter must you comply with if an incident under Marpol occurs ? A. A report shall be made without delay to the fullest extent in accordance with Marpol Protocol 1. B. A report of the incident is to be made to the vessel's Administration. C. You are to write a full report of the incident to the vessels owners or managers. D. You are to note this incident in the Log Book. 141. A new oil tanker of less than 20,000 tons deadweight may be designated as… A. A product / chemical carrier B. A crude oil I product carrier C. A product carrier D. A crude oil tanker

142. A new oil tankers of 20,000 tons deadweight and above which satisfy the requirements for Segregated Ballast Tanks with Protective location as well as COW may be designated as A. Product carrier B. Crude oil / product carrier C. Crude oil tanker D. Petrochemical / product carrier

143. A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons or above satisfying the requirements SBT and PL, but not fitted with COW should be designated as a …..….on the IOPP certificate. A. Crude oil 1 product carrier B. Crude oil tanker C. Product carrier D. Petrochemical tanker 523

DPKP

144. New oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above but less than 30,000 tons dwt NOT fitted with SBT and PL should be designated as a …….on the IOPP certificate. A. Crude oil tanker B. Crude oil / product carrier C. Petrochemical tanker D. Product carrier

145. Stew oil tankers of 70,000 dwt and above satisfying the requirements of SBT may be designed as a …………….on the IOPP certificate. A. Crude oil /product carrier B. Product oil carrier C. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker D. Crude oil tanker

146. How would existing oil tankers of less than 40,000 tons dwt be designated on the IOPP certificate ? A. As a product carrier B. As a crude oil tanker C. As a crude oil / product carrier D. As a crude oil / petrochemical tanker

147. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above satisfying the requirements of SBT, what should their designation be on the IOPP certificate ? A. Product carrier B. Crude oil tanker C. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker D. Crude oil / product carrier

524

DPKP

148. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above fitted only with a COW system, what should their designation be on the IOPP certificate ? A. Product carrier B. Crude Oil / product carrier C. Crude oil tanker D. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker

149. Discharge of oily mixtures from machinery space bilges of tankers are prohibited except when, amongst other requirements, which of the following equipment is fitted ? A. An Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment B. Interface oily water detector C. A 50 ppm Bilge Water Separator with alarm system D. A 15 ppm oily bilge water separator with alarm system

150. When shall the IOPP Certificate cease to be valid ? A. Any one of these B. If significant alterations have taken place to materials without sanction C. If significant alterations have taken place for fittings, equipment or arrangements without sanction D. If significant alterations have taken place in the ships construction without sanction

151. When alterations to ships construction, equipment, materials , fittings or arrangements are carried out without sanction the IOPP certificate ceases to be valid. What is the exception A. Improvement in ships construction B. The direct replacement of equipment and fittings C. Modification of arrangements as long as purpose and ay-out does not deviate from Marpol requirements D. Replacement of monitoring equipment as long as it is

approved by the

Administration 525

DPKP

152. What are the consequences if an IOPP intermediate survey is not carried out as specified ? A. The IOPP certificate remains valid, but when the overdue survey is carried out, the stringency will depend on the duration of the elapsed time B. The IOPP certificate shall cease to be valid and a survey corresponding to the requisite survey is to be carried out . C. The IOPP certificate shall cease to be valid when the C survey is 3 months overdue D. The IOPP certificate remains valid, however an

unscheduled inspection

is to be carried out by the Port State inspection of the country of call

153. Amongst other requirements, what kind of arrangement is required for a tanker in order to be allowed to discharge oily mixtures into the sea ? A. Segregated ballast tanks B. 15 ppm oil filtering equipment C. Double hulls D. A slop tank arrangement

154. A ship other than tanker of 3000grt and above, but less than 10,0000, cannot discharge oily mixtures from machinery spaces, unless certain conditions are satisfied. Which of these conditions must be satisfied ?

A. II, IV, VIII B. II, V, VII C. II, III, VI D. I, IV, VI

526

DPKP

155. What is the oil content of a mixture which may be discharged into the sea when the ship is not in a special area ? A. 100 ppm B. 50 ppm C. Less than 15 ppm D. 15 ppm

156. Is it permitted to introduce dillutants or to apply other chemical treatment to oily mixtures prior to discharge these into the sea ? A. Concentration of chemicals only 100 ppm B. Not allowed at all C. Oil dispersants are allowed D. Dillutants are allowed

157. Are the Marpol regulations governing discharge of oily mixtures applicable to issues of safety at sea ? A. They remain in force, only Government Organisations can decide to lift same in case of emergencies. B. They are not applicable when oil is released for the purpose of securing the safety of a ship or saving life at sea. C. They do not apply when life can be saved at sea at the cost of releasing oil in the water D. They remain in force at all times, they help promote safety as well.

158. The Marpol regulations prohibit discharges oil mixtures at sea. The regulations will not apply if the discharge is the result of damage arising from which items in this list ? A. I, IV B. IV, V C. II, V D. III, VI

527

DPKP

159. Marpol regulations prohibit oily mixture discharges at sea. The regulations do not apply if the discharge is the result of damage to the ship or its equipment. What is the exception ? A. Damage to ship and equipment due operational error B. Crew negligence C. Intent to cause damage, or recklessly and with knowledge that damage could probably result D. Collision or groundings

160. It is possible to discharge substances containing oil, approved by the Administration, (eg. Oil dispersants) for the purpose of combating specific pollution incidents, into the sea. Under which of these conditions ? A. II

IV

V

B. I,

II,

V

C. I,

III

D. III,

IV

161. For new tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above, the capacity of the segregated ballast tanks shall be such hat, at any part of the voyage, the ships draught and trim meet which of these requirements ? A. I,

Ill,

IV,

VI

B. I,

II,

IV,

V

C. I,

II,

IV.

VII

D. I,

IV,

V,

VII

162. New tankers of 20,000 dwt and above shall in no case carry ballast water in cargo tanks, except when which of these circumstances arise ? A. IV,

V

B. II,

V

C. III,

V

D. II,

V

528

DPKP

163. For the purpose of determining the capacity of the clean ballast tanks in tankers, which tanks may be included ? A. Cofferdams as well as segregated ballast tanks B. Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as cofferdams. C. Segregated ballast tanks only D. Fore and after peak tanks as well as segregated ballast tanks

164. Under which conditions are Fore Peak tanks, After Peak tanks and cofferdams allowed to be included in the total capacity determination of Cars for tankers ? A. Provided the protective location of the tanks is ensured B. Provided they are to be connected with permanent piping to the ballast water system C. Provided an oily separating system of 15 ppm is to be fitted on board D. Provided oil discharge monitoring equipment with automatic stop when 15 ppm level is exceeded is to be fitted

165. If a tanker with separate independent piping and pumps for CBT and operating with COW is to change its designation to product carrier and vice versa, which provisions will apply ? A. Two IOPP certificates are issued, only one valid at the time. No survey is required prior switching trades. Manual for both procedures required. B. The tanker needs to be surveyed each time its switches trade C. Crude oil is not allowed to be carried in tanks designated CBT in the crude oil trd. D. The COW system needs to be blanked

166. If an oil tanker is used for the storage of oil and its machinery modified to immobilise the ship, what are the requirements for SOT, COT, PL and COW ? A. The requirements for SBT, PL and CBT do not apply B. The requirements for SBT do not apply C. The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply D. The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply 529

DPKP

167. Hi an oil tanker is used to receive dirty ballast from oil tankers, what are the requirements for SBT, CBT, PL and COW ? A. The requirement for SET does not apply B. The requirements for SBT, PI and CET do not apply C. The requirement for SBT and PL do not apply D. The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply

168. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is e

quipped with…….

A. A crude oil washing system. B. Two separate slop tanks. C. Segregated ballast tanks and PL. D. An oil content meter.

169. The regulations for existing tankers for SBT, CBT and COW shall not apply if the tanker is engaged in specific trades provided reception facilities are existing in ports. What document is to be endorsed ? A. The oil record book B. The bill of lading C. The charter party D. The ship's IOPP certificate

170. Which of the following is NOT classed as pollution prevention equipment ? A. Scupper covers. B. Sawdust/rubber buckets and shovels. C. Empty drums and absorbent pads. D. Air or electric portable pumps.

530

DPKP

171. Existing oil tankers which complies at all times with SBT draught and trim requirements without the use of ballast water, may be considered to comply with SBT requirements in full provided which of these items apply ? A. II,

IV

V

B. I,

II,

VI

C. II,

V,

VI

D. III,

IV

VI

172. What is the purpose of Regulation 13 E - Rules for Protective Location of Segregated Ballast Tanks on Oil Tankers ? A. To provide a measure of protection against oil outflow in event of grounding or collision B. To facilitate trim and draught corrective operations on tankers C. To reduce the bending moments on tankers D. To reduce the shear forces on tankers

173. Where is disposal of wooden dunnage allowed ? A. Outside 25 miles offshore. B. Only outside special areas. C. It is never allowed. D. Outside 12 miles offshore.

174. Regulation 14 of Marpol states that no ballast water shall be carried in any fuel oil tank. What is the exception ? A. Ships with special nature of trade which stay for long time at sea, for example: tugs, fishing boats B. For exceptional long voyages, when the ships bunkers are depleted and weather conditions are deteriorating C. If the double bottom fuel tank is ruptures, the fuel tank may be filled with ballast if stability requires this D. In case of voyage repairs being carried out on board ships 531

DPKP

175. Under Marpol, slop tanks shall have the capacity to retain the slop generated by tank washings, oil and dirty ballast residues. Their total capacity shall not be less than ….. % of the tank capacity. A. 2.5 B. 5 C. 3 D. 1

176. In an existing tanker, which tanks can be designated as slop tanks ? A. Any tank provided with adequate means for collecting dirty ballast residue and tank washings from the cargo tanks. B. Any tank separated form the ships' side by a distance of at least 3 metres. C. Any tank fitted with overboard discharge facilities. D. Any tank closed to the atmosphere and fitted with an oily water separation filter. 177. At least two slop tanks are required for…….. A. New oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above. B. New oil tankers of 70,000 tons dwt and above. C. New and existing oil tankers above 150,000 tons dwt. D. New oil tankers of 4.0,000 tons dwt and above.

178. To prevent pollution you should look at how the operations that may lead to pollution are conducted on board of your ship and ask yourself 3 questions. What are these questions ?

A. I,

III,

V

B. I,

II,

III

C. II,

IV,

VI

D. I,

II,

V

532

DPKP

179. How can a ship dispose of plastic at sea ? A. Anywhere outside 3 mite limit. B. Outside special areas. C. 1isposal of plastic is not allowed anywhere at sea. D. Outside 25 miles offshore.

180. An Instruction Manual for Oil Retention and Oil Discharge Monitoring is required on board. This manual must mention all operations and …….. A. Instructions to ensure that at no time oil shall be discharged. B. Shall be approved by the Administration. C. All automatic operations. The manual shall be approved by the Administration. D. Shall be approved by the Administration. It must contain instructions to ensure that no oil can be discharged except in compliance with regulations.

181. Any ship of 400 tons gross and above but less than 10000 tons, which does not carry ballast water in fuel oil tanks shall be fitted with a …….oil filtering equipment for engine bilge discharge. A. 100 ppm B. 15 ppm C. 30 ppm D. 150 ppm

182. Must the ship's Oil Record Book (part I or part II) be of Standard Format and/or may it be part of the ship's official Log Book ? A. It may be part of the ships official Log, its format is not standard but must contain the required information. B. It is no part of the ship's Log, its format is Standard as specified. C. It is not part of the ship's official Log, its format is not standard but must contain all required information. D. It may be part of the ship's Log, its format is Standard as specified.

533

DPKP

183. In the event of accidental or exceptional discharges (for example allowed discharge in order to save life), a statement shall be made in the oil record book explaining what ? A. The amount and the specifications of the oil discharged B. The circumstances of and the reasons for the discharge C. The report of the accident indicating precautions D. The amount discharged and the reasons for it

184. Each operation as specified by regulations must be noted in the oil record book without delay and…..….. A. The Chief Officer is to sign when the operations are completed and be countersigned by the Master. B. The entries match operations completed after which it is signed by the Master. C. When the operations are completed will be signed by the Officer or in charge during the time of the operation. D. Will be signed by the Officer or Officers in charge of the operation and each completed page will be signed by the Master.

185. Who can certified true copies of Oil Record Books ? A. A Notary Public B. The Master C. The Officers of the Flag State D. Port Authorities

186. Of the four categories of discharges associated with the operation of offshore platforms for which type or types is Marpol 73.(03 applicable ? A. Type, I, Ill and IV B. Type I only C. Type IV only D. Type I and Type IV

534

DPKP

187. What can be a major cause of pollution from a dry cargo ship without the vigilance of the entire crew ? A. Improper discharge from bilges and engine room. B. Improper disposal of garbage. C. Leaking hydraulic oil on deck. D. Careless bunkering.

188. Which of the following oils is not an asphalt solution ? A. Roofers Flux B. Blending Stocks C. Straight run residue D. Solvent

189. Which of the following products is not listed under "oils" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I ? A. Clarified B. Road Oil C. Automotive D. Spindle oil

190. The following products is not listed as "gasoline blending stock" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I? A. Reformates B. Polymer fuel C. Flashed feed stock D. Alkylates fuel

535

DPKP

191. Which of the following products is not listed under "gasolines" in Appendix I of marpolannexi? A. Fuel oil No 1 D B. Fuel oil No 1 C. Fuel oil No 4 D. Fuel oil No 2

192. The Record of Construction and Equipment, has a chapter about Tanks for Oil Residues (Sludges). What information is recorded in this chapter ? A. The location and capacity of the sludge tanks B. The total tank capacity in m3 and the means for disposal of oil residue in addition to the provision of sludge tanks C. The number and capacity of sludge tanks and means of connection to open deck sludge connection D. The capacity of the sludge tanks and the pumping arrangements

193. If ships other than tankers have spaces constructed and utilised to carry oil in bulk of a capacity of

…….or more, the regulations of Annex I for oil tankers applies.

A. 100 T B. 400 T C. 500 cubic metres D. 200 cubic metres

194. There are 6 annexes to MARPOL 73R8 (Annex Ito VI). They dealing with pollution caused by

……..

A. I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged substances, IV = Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution. B. I = Garbage,

II = Air pollution,

Ill

=

Sewage,

IV

=

Harmful

packaged substances, V = Noxious liquid in bulk, VI = Oil. C. I = Sewage,

II = Noxious liquids in bulk, Ill = Oil, IV = Harmful

packaged substances, V = Air pollution, VI = Garbage. D. I= Oil, II = Sewage,

Ill = Garbage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V 536

DPKP

= Noxious liquids in bulk, VI = Air pollution. 195. Annex II of Marpol 73/78 deals mainly with …… A. The construction, ballast procedures, category of ballast and the operational procedures of petroleum tankers B. The pollution hazards from chemical tankers and their arrangementsfor discharge of cargo residues C. The labeling and packaging of harmful substances carried as packages D. The handling and discharge of garbage

196. Annex IV of Marpol, deals with Sewage. How does it affect shipboard operations concerning processing and treatment of sewage ? A. Only a collecting tank is required for all countries for the time being B. It is required by the United States only and an approved sewage plant must be installed on board C. Discharge is for the time being allowed anywhere as long a sewage plant is on board D. The regulations are not yet universally in force, but a number of countries have adapted them and have stingent regulations

197. How do the requirements of Marpol stand in relation to national or port regulations ? A. Only Japan and the United States have additional regulations to be complied with B. Only Australia has additional regulations to be complied with C. They are the same for any country which has ratified the Marpol convention D. National regulations in the ports visited may be more tingent and must be complied with

537

DPKP

198. According to Annex V of Marpol , no garbage can be thrown overboard inside the Special Areas. Which is the exception ? A. Paper, metal and glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore B. Glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore C. Comminuted (ground up) food waste may be thrown overboard beyond 12 miles offshore D. Paper ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 12 miles offshore

199. Marpol garbage disposal regulations outside Special Areas specify that within 3 miles from the nearest land and in all inland waters………. A. You cannot throw plastics overboard. B. You cannot throw anything overboard. C. You cannot throw plastics, dunnage, lining and packing materials that float overboard. D. You cannot throw paper, crockery, rags, glass metal or food overboard unless ground to less than 25 mm.

200. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that dunnage, lining and packing materials that float

…….

A. Maybe thrown overboard outside 3 miles offshore. B. May not be thrown overboard at anytime. C. May be thrown overboard outside 12 miles offshore. D. May be thrown overboard outside 25 miles offshore.

201. Before starting bunkering operations, which one of the following precautions would you say is most important? A. Plug scuppers. B. Exhibit International Code B flag and red light. C. Check over-side for pollution.

538

DPKP

D. Smoking and naked light restrictions and notices

202. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, rags, metal , glass and food may be thrown overboard within 3 to 12 miles offshore, provided it is ground to less than

………in size.

A. 5mm B. 10mm C. 30 mm D. 25 mm

203. Marpol Annex V garbage disposal regulations outside special Areas specify the type of garbage which can be thrown overboard at a given distance offshore. Is this universally accepted ? A. Yes, except food, some countries have restrictions B. Yes, accepted by all states and regions C. Regional or state variations can further restrict the disposal of garbage D. Yes, except dunnage

204. Why is on board training important in relation to pollution prevention ? A. Because pollution related incidents are on the increase and all efforts are needed to reduce them B. Because many schools and training facilities are considered sub-standard C. Because MARPOL is not compulsory taught in nautical schools D. Because each ship has her own characteristics and equipment with which the new crew member must become familiar

205. How can an on board pollution prevention training program help the new crew member know clearly what is expected of him ? A. By teaching and pointing out to the new crew members which are the weak spots which may cause pollution B. By composing a realistic training program with special emphasis on the personal responsibilities and duties of the trainee 539

DPKP

C. By teaching the new crew member the requirements of Marpol concerning pollution of the seas D. By teaching him the risks of oil transferring operations (bunkers as well as cargo)

206. For on board pollution prevention training to work, it is important that

…..

A. A quite considerate amount of time is spent with the incoming new crew member for the first week on board B. The Master puts up a rigid discipline. C. The trainees have an adequate background in pollution control D. It is continuous and stresses safe, pollution free operations

207. To prevent pollution you should look at how the operations that may lead to pollution are conducted on board of your ship and ask yourself 3 questions. What are these questions ?

A. I,

III,

V

B. I,

II,

III

C. II,

IV,

VI

D. I,

II,

V

208. Pick the flue operations, from this list, which when conducted on cargo ships may lead to a pollution incident ?

A. II,

IV,

V,

VI,

VII

B. I,

II,

Ill,

IV,

VI

C. I,

III,

V,

VII,

VIII

D. II,

IV,

V,

VII,

VIII

540

DPKP

209. Permanently posted information and procedures concerning bunkering and transfer procedures should be available on board in a place where they can be easily seen and used. Where on board? A. Either on the bunker manifold values OR in the engine control room OR near the fuel oil transfer pumps B. Either on the bridge OR on deck, OR by the manifolds C. Either in the alleyways near the main entrance OR near the bunkers emergency shut off valves OR in the cargo — control room D. Either in the engine control room OR near the fuel transfer pumps OR in the emergency headquarters

210. There is potential for pollution when starting taking ballast on non-SBT tankers because oil may backflow into the sea via the sea chests. In order to prevent this a notice should be placed on the ballast pump. Which one ? A. FLUSH PIPING THROUGH PRIOR TO TAKING BALLAST B. START PUMP BEFORE OPENING SEA SUCTION C. ENSURE PIPING IS CLEANED PRIOR STARTING PUMP D. START PUMP WITH DISCHARGE VALVES CLOSED

211. Containment is critical when oil has spilled on deck. Pollution can be avoided if prompt action and careful preparation for containment is carried out. Which three of these items are vital ?

A. I,

II,

IV

B. I,

III,

IV

C. I,

III,

V

D. II,

IV,

V

541

DPKP

212. In order to contain oil spills Gutter Bars (Fish Plates) should be regularly inspected to make sure that…….. A. The fastenings are not worn. B. The coating is intact. C. They have not developed cracks or holes. D. They are correctly fitting.

213. Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are one of the most common cases of oil pollution. Which flue of these items are the main preventive measures against tank overflow ?

A. II,

IV,

V,

VI,

VII

B. I.

Ill,

IV,

V,

VI

C. I,

II,

Ill,

VI,

VII

D. I,

Ill,

V,

VI,

VII

214. During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been detained because …….. A. No electrical drawing of the oily bilge separator alarm was posted. B. No instructions to operate the oily bilge water separator were posted. C. No pollution placards were posted. D. No up to date deck port log was kept.

215. A master or any other person in authority on board treating a person in an improper manner or fails to prevent his being so treated by other persons onboard shall be liable to: A. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months. B. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 9 months. C. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months. D. Fines. 542

DPKP

216. A subordinate who unlawfully brings intoxicating beverages on board shall be liable to: A. Fines or in especially aggravating circumstances to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months. B. Fines. C. Fines or in especially aggravating circumstances to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months. D. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months.

217. Any master who makes or permits a false entry to be made in the log book, shall be liable to fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 1 year according to: a. The Ship Safety and Security Act, Section 65.. b. The Maritime Act c. The Public Administration Act d. The International Maritime Organization's Act of Maritime Activities

218. Any person serving on board who without the permission of the shipmaster leaves the ship in distress or other danger while the master still on board shall be liable to a. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months. b. Fines. c. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months. d. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months.

219. Any shipmaster who in distress or other danger abandons the ship without this being necessary shall be liable to: a. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year. b. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months. c. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years. d. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years.

543

DPKP

220. Any shipmaster who refuses to provide any person carried on the ship with anything which he is entitled to receive in such capacity, or who permits such refusal, shall be liable to: a. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, but not exceeding 1 year if there are especially aggravating circumstances. b. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, but not exceeding 9 months if there are especially aggravating circumstances. c. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months. d. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, but not exceeding 2 years if there are especially aggravating circumstances.

221. Anyone who without valid reason places, removes, changes or conceals nationality marks or registration marks of a registered ship shall be liable to: a. Fines. b. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months. c. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months. d. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months.

222. For how long shall a ship's log-book be kept on board? a. For at least two years b. As long as the master or owner finds it necessary c. It shall be delivered to a Norwegian Consulate at first practicable occasion d. For at least five years

223. How can the master ensure obedience? a. He shall ensure obedience by the use of force if he finds it necessary, but not use harsher means than the circumstances make necessary. b. He has the power of denying the seafarer their democratic right if they refuse to obey orders given. c. By giving clear orders and referring to the necessity of having the work 544

DPKP

carried out as ordered. d. Only by giving clear orders in an understandable language. It is not allowed to use any means which may result in personal injuries.

224. If the master goes ashore, he is obliged to inform: a. The deck officer of the highest rank present b. Ship's agent c. Chief Engineer Officer d. The port authority

225. What are the master's duties if punishable acts are committed on board? a. If at sea, the master shall immediately undertake an investigation, secure evidence and take statements, inform Norwegian Consulate/Maritime Directorate b. The company shall be informed and shall take over the case. c. Alleged suspects should be sent home at the first opportunity. d. The least possible fuss should be made to ease over the situation.

226. Who is responsible for ensuring that ratings forming part of a watch and personnel assisting or performing cargo operations on tankers are properly qualified? a. It is incumbent on the shipowners and the master to ensure that the requirements are complied with and documented. b. The manning agent is responsible for proper documentation, but the master must confirm in writing that the seafarer is able to carry out his duties. c. The national authorities of seafarers are responsible for issuing proper documentation after having controlled that the personnel is adequately qualified. d. The Administration of the flag state is responsible for controlling and documenting the qualifications of all seafarers employed on board.

545

DPKP

227. Who is responsible for the ship being safely manned? a. The master and the shipowner are responsible for the adequate manning of the ship. b. NMD is responsible for the ship being at all times adequately manned in accordance with Norwegian acts and regulations. c. The shipping company shall ensure that information on the number and composition of the crew is posted in the ship and has the sole responsibility for the ship being adequately manned. d. The manning agent is responsible for supplying the ship with adequately qualified seafarers.

228. Are the seafarers entitled to free boat service to exercise their right to go ashore? a. Where possible the master shall provide such service. Cost and other circumstances may be taken into consideration. Yes, but only if it is combined with the agent's use of the same boat. b. Yes, but only if it is combined with the agent's use of the same boat. c. No, but he should assist the seafarers in calling a boat. d. No, boatservice to shore is up to the seafarers to acquire.

229. Can any ground be given for dismissing a seafarer? a. No, only those listed in the Seamen's Act as dereliction of duty. b. Yes, if the master considers the reason to be proper c. Yes, if the seafarer is unagreeable to the master d. Yes, if the master is asked to do so by members of the crew

230. Do regulations on the scope of the Seamen's Act apply: a. To both passengers and cargo ships? Yes. b. To ships and mobile oil drilling offfshore units? Yes. c. To cargo ships only? Yes. d. To Norwegian and foreign ships operating solely in Norwegian waters? Yes.

546

DPKP

231. Does the employer have to give a reason for a notice of termination? a. Yes, if the seafrers demands it b. Yes, if grounded on factors relating to the seafarer and the seafarer demands it c. Yes, if the notice of termination is grounded on factors relating to the owners d. The circumstances shall only be disclosed to the manning agent

232. Does the seafarer have a right to leave service on board for special reasons? a. Yes, if the ship, for example, is not in a seaworthy condition for the voyage and the master fails to take steps to remedy the defects b. Yes, provided the authorities of the port do not deny him entry into the country c. Yes, if the ship has been transferred to another Norwegian owner d. No, unless he is taken seriously ill

233. For how long shall time sheets concerning working hours on board ships be kept after their completion? a. For minimum 3 years b. For as long as the seafarer is in service c. For at least 5 years d. Until the settlement of wages has been made

234. How shall accidents and health hazards be prevented? a. By all the other mentioned alternatives. b. By ensuring that the work is properly organised and executed and that appropriate accidental prevention equipment is available and used. c. By ensuring that the seafarer is properly qualified and informed of the hazards inherent to the work. d. By having elected or appointed protection supervisors and establishing a Working Environment Committee as prescribed.

547

DPKP

235. Is it the duty of the Master to see to it that legislation and CWA/CBA are available to seafarers on board? a. The seafarers shall have available for their use the Seamen's and NIS-acts with regulations, together with all relevant CWA's/CBA's. b. It is sufficient that the master has the necessary legislation on board for his use. He can if necessary explain this to the seafarers. c. The seafarers have their contracts and that is sufficient. d. If the seafarer have use for this, they may write to the manning agent for information.

236. Is the crew entitled to compensation if the master has to reduce the diet during a voyage? a. Yes b. Yes, but only if the voyage has been longer then calculated c. Not if the crew has eaten more than could be expected d. No, the saving should be used to buy new supplies

237. Is there any particular procedure to be followed when dismissing a seafarer? a. A hearing shall be held before a committee on board. b. His wages shall be settled and he shall sign the settlement. c. The agent and shipping company should be informed. d. The manning agent ordered to send a new man onboard.

238. On what kind of document shall working hours on board ships be kept? a. On a time sheet arranged by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate b. On a settlement wages form c. In an approved logbook d. There is no obligation to keep a journal

239. Shall the seafarer receive a statement showing the calculation of his wages? a. Yes, showing how it has been calculated and with possible deductions. b. Yes, but only at the request of the seafarer. c. Only for payments for overtime. d. He shall be told and make a note himself. 548

DPKP

240. The restriction of overtime work is that the person shall not be required, under normal circumstances, to work more than: a. 14 hours per day b. 12 hours per day c. 16 hours per day d. 10 hours per day

241. What are the average total working hours per week that must be exceeded over a period of at most one year on board NIS ships? a. 56 hors b. 63 hours c. 48 hours d. 40 hours

242. What are the duties of a master if a seafarer gets ill at sea? a. All the other mentioned alternatives according to the situation b. Put him to bed and await the situation c. After observation and checking the medical books, check the medicine chest to find suitable medication d. Seek medical advice over radio (Radio Medico/Radio Medical).

243. What are the duties of a master if he has to leave a sick or injured seafarer behind in a foreign port? a. Notify nearest Norwegian Consulate b. Inform the manning agent c. Settle the bills. Say goodbye and send the seafarer flowers or a get-well card d. Inform the seafarer next to him of his present address

244. What are the duties of the master if a seafarer dies in service on board? a. The master shall notify next of kin/ Norwegian Consulate - arrange for burial/ repatriation of coffin/ashes - and maritime inquiry b. The master shall notify next of kin, have them make necessary arrangements c. The master shall notify the consul of the seafarer's home country d. The master may leave the case to an undertaker 549

DPKP

245. What are the duties of the master regarding a sick or injured seafarer? a. He shall arrange for proper care, including medical care b. He shall notify the seafarer's next of kin and await further orders c. He shall immediately notify the manning agent and request guarantee for payment in case of hospitalization d. He shall arrange for proper care within what he may find to be reasonable expenses

246. What is the difference between the Safety Representative

and the Working

Environment Committee's area of activity? a. The Safety Representative's field is the work situation, the committee’s the total environment, also spare time b. The Safety Representative's duties relate to the ratings, the committee’s to all seafarers c. The committee is supervised by the protection supervisor d. No difference

247. What is the main rules as to period of notice of termination as per the Seamen's Act? a. One month b. Three months for any employee c. 14 days d. 7 days

248. Which mandatory handbooks for medical treatment shall be carried on board? a. One control book for special medicines, one approved by Norwegian authorities medical book ("International Medical Guide for ships") and three pamphlets regarding first aid. b. None. There are no mandatory requirements. c. The first aid guide: Resuscitation on board. d. An approved medical book

550

DPKP

249. Which of the below word(s) is defined as follows: "Service on board a ship which gives the knowledge, insight and skills required for the issue of a certificate or other document referred to in these regulations" a. Seagoing service b. On-board training c. Serving d. Length of service

250. Which rights does a seafarer who is unfit for work normally have? a. Care, wages, free passage home b. Care c. A compensation equal to wages for six months d. Free passage home

251. Who is responsible for the storage and use of substances injurious to health on board? a. The shipping company and the master b. The protection supervisor c. The seafarer d. The shipping company's inspector

252. Who shall check the ship's medical supplies? a. A pharmacy authorised or accepted by the Norwegian Board of Health or, if no such pharnacy is available, the master and a doctor approved by a Norwegian Consulate shall perform inspection once every 12 months. b. The master shall ensure, at regular intervals, that the medical supplies are sufficient taking due respect to the areas in which the ship is operating. c. The master, or an officer authorised by him, shall check all medical equipment at least twice a year and order supplements to the stock from an approved pharmacy. d. The inspection shall be undertaken by a Norwegian pharmacy or by a person holding a degree in pharmacy and approved by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate.

551

DPKP

253. A rating has approved emergency preparedness training, a certificate for watchkeeping in the deck department and 3 years of service time on deck and necessary knowledge of English. What post is a seafarer, with these required qualifications, qualified for on a Norwegian cargo vessel? a. As an able seaman b. As an ordinary seaman c. As a greaser d. As a motorman

254. A seaman's right to go ashore on a day when shops and offices are open is: a. At least once a month if circumstances permit it b. Whenever he feels like it c. To the masters discretion d. The first call after a seavoyage of 7 days or more

255. An invalidated vessel's certificate shall be: a. Returned to the Ship Control via a Norwegian Consulate b. Kept on board for at least three years c. Destructed by the master d. Forwarded to NIS head office in Bergen, Norway

256. For how long shall a ship's log-book be kept on board? a. For at least three years b. As long as the master or owner finds it necessary c. It shall be delivered to a Norwegian Consulate at first practicable occasion d. For at least five years

257. How often shall a survey for renewal of cargo ship safety construction certificate be carried out? a. Every fifth year with a periodical survey every 12. Month. b. Every year c. Every fourth year provided the lifesaving appliances are inspected annually. d. Every second year

552

DPKP

258. If extensive repair to the superstructure has been carried out, it will affect the: A. Load line certificate B. Ship's safety certificate c. Safety construction certificate d. Ship's trading certificate

259. The restriction of overtime work is that no person shall be required, under normal circumstances, to work more than: a. 14 hours a day b. 12 hours a day c. 16 hours a day d. 10 hours a day

260. To whom does the requirement as to knowledge of English apply? a. Seafarers employed or engaged on board ship on the business of that ship as part of the ship's complement with designated safety or pollution duties b. Persons for whom a certificate of competency is not required, only c. Persons taking part in a navigational watch d. The deck officers

261. What are the contents of the book "Excerpts from the Norwegian Ship Control Legislation" ? a. A compilation of Norwegian laws and regulations concerning the safety of ships and crew. b. Internationally adopted conventions for safety at sea and adequate manning of ships. c. The International Classification societies instructions d. The SOLAS convention

262. What is the ISM Code? a. The ISM Code is an international standard for the safe management and operation of ships and for pollution prevention. b. The ISM Code is an International standard for the maintenance of ships and marine equipment. 553

DPKP

c. The ISM Code is a standard that is to ensure that rules and regulations of the flag state are complied with in its territorial waters. d. The ISM Code is an International maritime dangerous goods code.

263. What is the purpose of the unscheduled inspections on board ships? a. To determine wether the ship is seaworthy b. To issue a certificate of seaworthiness c. To issue a trading permit d. Mainly to determine whether the manning regulations have been adhered to

264. What kind of permanent documentation is required for personnel assigned specific dutys and responsibilities related to cargo or cargo equipment on , for example, a liquefied tanker? a. A tankerman certificate b. A tankerman certificate or sea service for at least 6 months c. Documentation of the prescribed courses d. Documentation of sea service on tankers for at least 6 months

265. Where do you find regulations concerning washing of crockery and cutlery? a. The regulations are a part of the Norwegian Ship Control Legislation regulations, concerning production and serving of foodstuffs. b. There are no official regulations, but it is incumbent on the shipping company to establish appropriate guidelines. c. The regulations are obligatory to land based public places of refreshment only, but it is strongly recommended that these regulations should be adhered to on ships. d. There are no such regulations for Norwegian ships.

266. Who has the overall responsibility for the general supervision of ships and for matters governing the seaworthiness of ships? a. The Norwegian Maritime Directorate b. The maritime investigators c. The recognized classification societies d. The shipowners 554

DPKP

267. Who is responsible for keeping documentation of the qualifications required for personnel on board? a. The ship's master b. The Norwegian Maritime Directorate. c. The ship's manning agent. d. The ship owner.

268. Who shall check the ship's medical supplies if the ship is in a foreign port, for example outside Europe? a. A pharmacy authorised to do so or if no such pharmacy is available, the master and an approved seamen's doctor b. Any doctor c. The protection supervisor d. A nurse from an approved seamen's hospital

269. As per the legislation in question, a copy of the provisions, as you know, shall generally speaking be accessible to the crew. Does this apply as well as to a collective wage agreement? a. Yes, if an employment agreement refers to the collective wage agreement b. Yes, provided ther collective wage agreement applies to a category of persons c. No d. The NIS Act does not regulate this

270. At what number of crew members is it mandatory to have an Working Environment Committee on board? a. Minimum eight crew members. b. Minimum twelve crew members. c. Minimum four crew members. d. Not mandatory.

555

DPKP

271. How many Working Environmental committee members should be elected on a ship with a crew of 13 members? A. 1 member B. 2 members. C. 5 members. D. 0 members

272. To which Act(s) do(es) the special provisions relating to the seafarers in the Act chiefly relate? A. The Act relating to hours of work and the Seamen's Act B. The Seamen's Act and the Seaworthiness Act C. The Seaworthiness Act D. The Certification Act

273. Which provisions concerning holidays must the master ensure that is carried onboard? A. The Act relating to holydays and Regulations relating to holydays for employees on ships. B. The Act relating to holydays and the NIS Act. C. The Act relating to holydays and the Seamen's Act. D. The Regulations relating to holydays for employees on ships and the relevant wages agreement only.

274. Who is responsible for implementation of working environment work on board? A. Both master and shipping company. B. Shipping company. C. Master. D. Government.

556

DPKP

275. All requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken into account in ship operation through written procedures. These requirements include the following information: ……………. A. All of these. B. The provisions to prepare for and respond to emergency situations and procedures for internal audits and management review. C. The defined levels of authority and lines of communication between and amongst shore and shipboard personnel. D. The procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with the provisions of the Code.

276. The functional requirements for a Safety Management System is to develop, implement and maintain a system which includes the following :…………….. A. 1) maintain a correspondence system ship/shore 2) issue the required Letters of Instruction (Fleet Letters) to the ship. B. 1) contact addresses and telephone numbers of Port-State Control of countries visited 2) contact addresses of Flag State authorities. C. 1) a safety and environmental protection policy 2) instructions and procedures to ensure safe operations and protection of the environment. D. 1) safe navigation and Rules of the Road 2) instructions to masters and chief engineers 3) office staff Home telephone numbers. 277. Under ISM, the Company should establish ………….to describe how the objectives of the ISM code willbe achieved. A. Circulation of informative guidelines B. Company regulations C. A safety and environmental policy D. Company newsletters

557

DPKP

278. Under the ISM code the Company must ensure that the Safety and Environmental Policy is ……………. A. Known and implemented by all masters and chief engineers. B. Known and implemented by all Officers and members of the ships crew. C. Known and maintained at all levels of the organisation both ship based as well as shore based. D. Known by all ships officers. 279. The safety objectives and requirements of a Company may be …………..standards required by the ismcode ? A. Set above B. Asubstrtute for C. Set below D. Deviating from

280. A Company's safety management objectives and requirements, which are set above the standards of the ISM code, should be ………….. A. Totally disregarded since not enforceable. B. Erased as far as excessive standards are concerned. C. Encouraged and supported. D. Discouraged.

281. It is the responsibility of the Company to define and document the company's ………… which forms an integral part of the Safety Management System ? A. Legal policy objectives B. Ethics and environment objectives C. Safety management objectives D. Trading policy objectives

558

DPKP

282. Under ISM, the holder of the DOC or Document of Compliance is the company who ………..the ship. A. Has chartered B. Owns C. Has mortgaged D. Has assumed responsibility for the operation of

283. Under ISM, can a company contract with third parties to manage specific ship related activities such as manning, technical support or maintenance ? A. Yes, it is allowed B. No, it is not longer allowed C. Yes, only for manning D. Yes, only for technical support and manning, not for maintenance

284. Under ISM, if the Company has subcontracting arrangements for manning, technical support or maintenance, how many Documents of Compliance are to be issued ? A. Only one DOC can be issued to the Company B. One DOC is issued to the company and one DOC is issued to the the manning company only C. One DOC is issued to the Company and one for each subcontractor D. One DOC is issued to the Company and one DOC is required for the maintenance as well as for the technical support company, not for manning.

285. Linder ISM, any responsibility imposed on the Company by the ISM Code which is subcontracted…….. A. Remains the responsibility of the Company B. Becomes the joint responsibility of the Company and the subcontractor C. Becomes the responsibility of that subcontractor D. Is to be defined contractual as to who has the responsibility beforehand

559

DPKP

286. Under ISM, during assessment for issue and compliance with a DOC the auditor must be satisfied that the company is in control of …………… A. The subcontractors' personnel and resources. B. All activities concerning the Safety Management System which have been subcontracted. C. The subcontractors' insurance system. D. The financial portfolio of the subcontractors.

287. Under ISM, the company should define and document the responsibility, authority and interrelation of all personnel who manage, perform and verify work relating to and affecting safety and pollution prevention. How ? A. By notice sheets to be posted on the notice boards in the Crews and Officers Mess room. B. By wall posters in the accommodation of the affected ships C. By charts and/or job descriptions to identify positions related to safety and pollution prevention activities for each functional area D. By legal notices in the media, defining the Company Board responsibility and command flow chart

288. Under ISM, what kind of support is to be provided to the Designated Person in order to carry out his functions ? A. All of these. B. Freedom to travel worldwide at will C. An executive salary and a company car D. Adequate resources and shore based support

289. Under ISM, the responsibility and authority of the Designated Person should include…………. A. Monitoring the safety and pollution prevention aspects of the operation of each ship B. Having overall control over all company departmental heads C. Being a member of the Board of the Company D. Final control over all shipboard operations and maintenance activities

560

DPKP

290. Under ISM, what qualifications are required by the Designated Person ? A. A master certificate B. Appropriate knowledge and experience associated with verification and control of safety and pollution prevention requirements of the ISM code C. Twenty years seagoing experience D. A university degree

291. Under ISM, is shipboard presence required by the Designated Person ? A. Every 2 to 3 months B. May be necessary C. Is not required at all D. Frequent lengthy stays on board are required

292. Under ISM, who is responsibility to implement the Company's Safety and Environmental Policy on board ? A. The senior Officer's B. The Designated Person's C. The Master's D. The entire crew's

293. Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether or not the Master has effectively implemented the Safety and Environmental Protection policy as defined by the Company ? A. By the state of cleanliness on board B. By judging the moral of the officers and crew on board C. Through interviewing officers and crew D. By looking at the lifeboats, fire fighting equipment and at the oily water separator

561

DPKP

294. Under ISM, who should motivate the crew to observe the Safety and Environmental policy on board ? A. The Master B. The Company's shore based and shipboard management C. All ships officers D. The senior officers

295. Under ISM, what methods should be used to motivate the crew to observe the Safety and Environmental protection policy ? A. Ensure that the crew understands that they will be dismissed and will have to pay their own air fare if they do not observe the policy B. Ensure that the crew understand how they will personally benefit from the implementation as well as encouraging reception of ownership C. Ensure that copies of the Company's policy are given to all shipboard personnel D. Ensure that the crew understands the dangers present on board and the heavy fines to be paid for Pollution

296. How can the crew be helped to understand how they personally benefit from the SEP policy and how could their perception of ownership be encouraged ? A. Through regular meetings at which the crew members are encouraged to participate in the continuous development of the objectives of the SEP B. By distribution of Nature, Health &Wealth or the like magazines and by asking them to open a savings account C. By encouraging then to join Green Peace or any other environmental group D. By the Company's monthly newsletter

562

DPKP

297. Under ISM, the master must implement the Company's Safety and Environmental policy and should issue appropriate orders and instructions in a clear and simple manner. How is this to be done ? A. By Standing Orders, Bridge night order book, as examples B. Tell what is expected in a casual and amicable way during social gatherings to officers and crew C. By telling each and every crew member what to do exactly in a clear voice D. By calling the ship's compliment together and give short orders in clear English

298. It is the Master's responsibility to verify that the specific requirements (procedures and instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are observed. Who will actually verify this on board ? A. The Designated Person B. The Master C. The Master and Officers D. The Chief Engineer

299. What are the best means of verifying that specked requirements (procedures and instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are observed ? A. By computerizing all specified requirements and have an officer assigned as input controller B. By dividing the responsibility amongst officers who have to keep their own Safety Work Book C. By use of a check list for verification of actions/activities cof crew members D. By inspecting the Deck and Engine work book daily by the Master

300. It is the Master's responsibility of reviewing the Safety Management System and reporting its deficiencies to ……….. A. The shore based management B. The classification society C. The Flag state authorities D. The Port state control of the next port of call

563

DPKP

301. The Master's review reporting on the Safety Management system should include any deficiencies and may include

…………..

A. A list of unsatisfactory crew members who are not to be rehired by the Company. B. A list of keen and safety and environmental aware crew members who are to be promoted C. Proposals for corrective action and recommendations for improving the SMS. D. The officer's and crew's appraisal reports

302. Whenever the Master, in his role as the responsible person for on-board safety, finds a deficiency in the Safety Management system relevant to the ships operation he should ………… A. Inform the P & I club. B. Make note in the log book of this deficiency. C. Correct the deficiency and make note of the correction applied in the official log book. D. Inform the Company.

303. When is the Master to review the Safety Management System and to report to the Company ? A. Prior to change of command B. The Company should set a standard interval for such reviews C. Whenever there is a deficiency noted on board D. Prior to the arrival of the external auditor every year

304. Should the Master's authority be emphasized in the Safety Management system ? A. The Master is to be mentioned as the Responsible Person in charge of implementing the SMS B. The overriding responsibility of the Master is self evident and need not to be repeated in the SMS C. The Master is to be mentioned as the juridical person in command of the vessel D. The Company should ensure that the SMS operating on board the ship 564

DPKP

contains a clear statement emphasizing the Master's authority 305. Under ISM, the overriding authority of the Master applies ……………. A. In case of oil spill clean-ups B. In normal circumstances C. In both normal and extreme circumstances D. In emergency and extreme circumstances

306. It should be checked that the Company has documented that the Master has overriding responsibility and authority as required ………….. A. By the Company's Main Policy Objective B. By the SOLAS Convention C. By the International Association of Classification Societies D. By the Shipowners Trust Fund 307. The Company must be sure that the Master is ……………. A. A safety and environmental protection licensed person. B. A person in good standing with the P & I club association. C. Properly qualified for command. D. Not blacklisted by the U.S. Coast Guard or any other Port state control. 308. Verification of the master's qualifications should be done firstly by ………….. A. Interview of the candidate with emphasis on safety and environmental awareness. B. Drug and alcohol test. C. Confirmation of the validity of his certificates in compliance with the STCW convention. D. Medical examination.

565

DPKP

309. The Company should ensure that the Master is informed of all requirements relating to safety and environmental protection by …………….. A. Having the Superintendents prepare monthly information sheets B. Including such requirements in operating instructions. C. Reminding him time to time. D. Having the Designated Person sent on board at specified intervals.

310. To make sure that the Master and the crew understand the tasks required of them by the Safety Management System ………..should be described. A. The vessel's safety equipment B. Safety and environmental protection hazards C. Job responsibilities D. The ship's voyage and cargo details

311. Masters are to be given the necessary support so that they can perform their duties safely. Support from the Company includes …………… A. Having port watchmen assigned on the ship in every port. B. Having diver inspections carried out at least every 6 months. C. Mantaining the required compliment and onboard expertise D. Having the ship drydocked every 30 months. 312. Manning requirements and qualifications are part of ……….with which the Company should be familiar. A. The shipping business B. National and International requirements C. The manpower industry D. Crew management responsibilities 313. The Company should have a system in place for firstly ………….personnel, especially if obtained through a manning agent. A. Briefing B. Joining and offsigning C. Dismissing D. Selecting 566

DPKP

314. To confirm seafarers as medically first is generally difficult ………… A. Since there is usually insufficient time for a thorough medical check up. B. Since seaman have the tendency to hide illness. C. Since there are no International or National standards. D. Since medical certificates cannot be verified

567

DPKP

17. Memelihara keselamatan dan keamanan awak kapal dan penumpang dan kondisi operasional alat-alat keselamatan dan sistem keselamatan lainnya. (Maintain safety and security of the ship’s crew and passengers and the operational condition of lifesaving, firefighting and other safety systems) 1. *The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be spaced apart by a distance of: A. Equally spaced and not less than 300 mm or more than 380 mm B. 300 mm C. 200 mm D. equally spaced, not less than 200 mm or more than 280 mm

2. As per SOLAS regulations, the general emergency alarm system must be tested: A. Every week B. Every 2 weeks C. Every 3 weeks D. Every month

3. During test and/or maintenance work of the CO2 system affecting the release system, precautions to ensure that the gas is not released into the engine room due to a mistake are to be ensured. What precautions should be taken? A. The main supply line to be blanked off prior to the work. B. Arrange a watchman in the CO2 central. C. No special precautions necessary. D. Check the main valve for a potential leakage.

4. Every inflatable liferaft , inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release units shall be serviced: A. Every 12 months. B. Every 24 months. C. Every 18 months. D. Every 36 months.

568

DPKP

5. How often must the Emergency Steering Gear be tested, and how is this information recorded in the OLB? A. Every three months. Details of test with signatures of Master and witness B. Monthly with signature of person carrying out test C. Fortnightly, with signature of Chief Engineer and witness D. Monthly, with signature of Chief Engineer and witness.

6. How often should the lifeboat wire falls be turned and renewed? A. Turned at intervals of not more than 30 months and renewed every 5 years B. Turned every 2 years and renewed every 4 years C. Turned every 30 months and needs only to be renewed if the wire is in poor condition D. Renewed every three years

7. On all UMS operated vessels and also on most other vessels the engine room is equipped with fire detectors. What requirements of testing and checking of the detectors are to be observed? A. All the mentioned alternatives. B. Check the detector with heat and/or smoke (in accordance with instructions in its manual) C. Check that the actual detector is giving appropriate signals to the central control unit and that all electric connections are in good order. D. When testing detectors by suitable equipment (smoke and heat) check that the sensors self controlling system, e.g. a flashing control light etc. is functioning.

569

DPKP

8. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be proportioned as it follows: A. length = 480 mm, breadth = 115 mm, depth = 25 mm B. length = 380 mm, breadth = 145 mm, depth = 20 mm C. length = 280 mm, breadth = 85 mm, depth = 10 mm D. length = 580 mm, breadth = 165 mm, depth = 30 mm

9. Which of the following requirements regarding life-buoys correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/7.1) A. Not less than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be provided with self-ignighting lights B. At least four life-buoys on each side of the ship shall be fitted with buoyant lifelines C. All the life-buoys shall be placed in holders with quick-release arrangement D. At least one lifebuoy with self-activating smoke shall be placed within the vicinity of the stern

10. Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-saving appliances corresponds to present regulations? A. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made of non-combustible or fire retardant material B. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be fitted with the manufacturers name and Logo C. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be of such a colour that they are in contrast to the surrounding colour D. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall have marking in red colour

570

DPKP

11. Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of lifesaving appliances correspond to present regulations? A. Instructions for onboard maintenance of life-saving appliances in accordance with the regulations shall be provided B. At least one member of the crew shall hold a repairman certificate for life-saving equipment C. Maintenance and repair of all life saving equipments shall be carried out by the certified ship staff only D. Maintenance and repair of all the life-saving equipments will be carried out ashore in work shop only

12. *On-board training in the use of davit-launched liferafts (including inflation and lowering whenever practicable) must

take place

A. every 4 months B. every 2 months C. every 3 months D. every months

13. *The Master is responsible that all crew participate in monthly emergency drills. If 25% of the crew - or more - has not participated in such drill during the last month, what is the time limit to conduct such a drill after the vessel has left a port? A. Within 24 hrs B. Within 12 hrs C. Within 30 hrs D. Within 48 hrs

571

DPKP

14. *When reasonable and practicable, how often shall rescue boats be launched with their assigned crew aboard and manoeuvred in the water? A. Every month B. Every week C. Every two weeks D. Every six months

15. *When should a crew member joining a ship for the first time be given some training and instructions in the use of the ship's fire-fighting appliances ? A. As soon as possible but not later than 2 weeks after he joins the ship B. As soon as possible C. As soon as possible but not later than 2 days after he joins the ship D. As soon as possible but not later than 24 hours after he joins the ship

16. *Where do you find minimum drill requirements? A. In the SOLAS convention and its annex B. In manager's instructions C. In classification society rules D. In owner's instruction

17. *Which of following items shall be included in an abandon ship drill? A. instruction in the use of radio life-saving appliances B. Checking passenger's immersion suits C. Checking the distress signal rockets and other distress signals D. Checking the lifeboat provisions and supplies

572

DPKP

18. *Which of the following items must be included in each fire drill? A. All the items mentioned B. Starting a fire pump using at least two required jets of water to show that the system is in proper working order C. Checking fireman's outfits and other personal rescue equipment D. Reporting to stations and preparing for the duties described in the muster list

19. *Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship drills corresponds to present SOLAS regulation? A. Each lifeboat shall be launched, and manoeuvred in the water with its assigned crew at least once every three months during an abandon ship drill B. Drills shall be conducted when the ship is in a harbor C. All lifeboats shall be lowered during drills D. On ships on short international voyages, each lifeboat shall be launched and manoeuvred in the water at least every six months

20. At least, how often shall life boats be launched with their assigned operating crew aboard and manoeuvred in the water according to SOLAS? A. Every three months. B. Every week. C. Every two weeks. D. Every month.

573

DPKP

21. During abandon ship exercise, what life-saving equipment must be demonstrated? A. Wearing and fastening of lifejackets and associated equipment B. Lifeboat radio C. Location of immersion suits and thermal protective aids D. How to communicate using the hand-held radios

22. How often are "abandon ship" drills required to be held on cargo vessels according to SOLAS? A. Once every month. B. Once every 6 months. C. Once every year. D. Once every week.

23. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills? A. Once every month B. Once every week C. Once every 6 months D. Once every year

24. How often shall each member of the crew participate in an "abandon ship"-drill? A. Once every month B. Once every week C. Once every 6 months D. Once a year

25. On board passenger ships an abandon ship drill must be performed: A. Every week B. Every two weeks C. Every month D. Every three months

574

DPKP

26. Referring to the SOLAS convention, how often should a crew member on a cargo ship participate in one abandon ship drill and one fire drill? A. Monthly B. Weekly C. Every second week D. This is only required when he joins the ship

27. The emergency fire pump is in accordance with good seamanship and precautionary routines run and tested weekly. Routine checks and maintenance are normally carried out by dedicated personnel. To ensure safe and appropriate operation of the pump, would you consider it beneficial that the same dedicated personnel operate the pump in emergencies? A. In case of accidents, it is important that a wide range of personnel must be permitted and trained to operate the pump. B. To ensure safe operation of the emergency pump,only dedicated personnel must be permitted to operate the pump. C. Only senior engineers should operate the emergency pump. D. Only senior deck officers should operate the emergency pump.

28. Which of the following items shall be included in an "abandon ship"-drill? A. Checking that passengers and crew are suitably dressed and lifejackets correctly donned B. Checking the distress signal rockets and other distress signals C. Checking the lifeboat provisions and supplies D. Checking that all crew and passenger moral is high

575

DPKP

29. Which one of the following items has to be included in an abandon ship drill according to SOLAS regulations? A. Checking that life-jackets are correctly donned. B. Manoeuvring the lifeboat in the water. C. Starting and operating radio life-saving appliances. D. Launching and recovery of a survival craft.

30. Who is the leader of the lifeboat drill (abandon ship drill)? A. The appointed lifeboat commander. B. Sen.Off.Deck. C. Sen.Off.Engine. D. The first member of the crew arriving at the survival craft.

31. "A contractor is hired to install new navigation equipment onboard your ship while it’s berthed. For a period of time he’s left unsupervised and photographs schematics of the ship that he finds rolled up and stored in the corner of a nearby office. Later, from home, he hacks into the network and prints off information about the ship’s security procedures. Which of these information security measures would have prevented his unauthorized access?" A. "Secure area, passwords, a firewall and a secure network." B. "Protective markings, reference checks, and passwords." C. "Firewall, protective markings, vetting and a secure network." D. "Secure area, passwords, a firewall and protective markings."

32. "From the list below, which is among the recommended actions for a vessel to take, on entering an area known for pirate activity?" A. To transit with maximum safe speed B. To turn off all lights C. To confine all ship’s personnel to one room onboard D. To transit at night time only

576

DPKP

33. "If drugs or suspected drugs are found onboard your ship, follow the five C’s. Confirm, Clear, Cordon, Control and:" A. Check B. Change C. Chuck D. Cheer

34. "Part way through a profiling interview with a supplier, the package the individual is carrying arouses your suspicion. What do you do?" A. Discreetly inform someone of your suspicions so he or she can get assistance. B. Confront the individual and demand that he open the package. C. Call for help on the radio. D. Take the package and open it.

35. "Which of these precautionary measures can reduce the threat of piracy, if implemented?" A. Sail at full speed. B. Stay at least 15nm away from the shore. C. Plan to arrive at port at night. D. Turn off all of the ship’s lights at night.

36. "Your ship security plan must include procedures for responding to security threats, auditing security activities and interfacing with the port facility." A. TRUE B. FALSE C. . D. .

577

DPKP

37. A Ship Security Assessment is integral to the creation of your ship’s security plan. A. TRUE B. FALSE C. . D. .

38. Assign men to search men and women to search women unless a device such as a metal detector is used. A. TRUE B. FALSE C. . D. .

39. Check the items that can be a possible threat A. All alternatives B. Bombing and Sabotage C. "Piracy, Hijacking and Smuggling" D. Cargo tampering and Stowaways

40. Eavesdropping and phone taps are examples of which threat to information security? A. Espionage B. Sabotage C. Terrorism D. Subversion

41. For a search to be effective it must be: A. Centrally controlled. B. Organized haphazardly. C. Conducted by personnel with limited knowledge of the ship’s layout. D. Inclusive of all personnel.

578

DPKP

42. If drugs are discovered onboard your ship…. A. Ensure the witness to the discovery signs your incident report. B. Notify the authorities after you arrive at the next port of call. C. Write a report a few days after the event and describe everything that occurred. D. Disembark crew and passengers as quickly as possible at the next port of call so the authorities can conduct their investigation.

43. In which of these circumstances can your ship request a DoS? A. Your ship is conducting activities with a port or ship that is not required to implement an approved security plan. B. Your ship is operating at a lower security level than the ship or port it is interfacing with. C. There is a heightened security risk for your ship and a port facility. D. Your ship has added a new port to its list of ports of call. 44. Information about your ship’s security arrangements and procedures is stored electronically. Which of these measures will help safeguard it from potential threats? A. Passwords B. Protective markings C. Encoded email messages D. Work history verification

45. One of the categories of information that must be included in your SSP is: A. Security arrangements B. Ship security survey C. Threat scenarios D. Weaknesses in security measures

579

DPKP

46. Only search vehicle compartments where you suspect objects may be hidden. A. FALSE B. TRUE C. . D. .

47. Records relating to breaches of security and changes in security level must be secured against unauthorized access and available for review by contracting governments. A. TRUE B. FALSE C. . D. .

48. Searches are often triggered by: A. An increase in security level by the Flag State. B. Lost baggage. C. The receipt of a shipment of damaged stores. D. News stories of stowaways.

49. The best way to ensure you get the equipment you need is to: A. Determine your needs and do some research. B. Buy the most expensive equipment on the market. C. Buy what everyone else is buying. D. Buy the newest models.

50. The best way to prevent stowaways from boarding your ship is to: A. "Seal spaces that are not in use while in port, and perform a search of the ship before leaving." B. "Conduct routine, but irregular searches of the ship." C. Conduct a Nominated Officers search. D. Search the ship when you arrive at port and again just after leaving.

580

DPKP

51. The Declaration of Security: A. Addresses the security requirements shared between ships or between a port facility and a ship. B. Details a ship’s security measures. C. Identifies

the

security responsibilities

of

shipboard personnel. D. States the reporting procedures to government contact points.

52. The DoS addresses the responsibility for the security of the water around the ship and the verification of increased threat levels. A. TRUE B. FALSE C. . D. . 53. The first step in completing an SSA is to: A. Create a list of potential motives for security incidents against your ship. B. "Identify the key shipboard operations, systems, areas and personnel that are critical to protect." C. List the existing security measures. D. Develop an onboard security survey checklist

54. The International Maritime Bureau Piracy Reporting Centre attributes the increased numbers of hijackings to: A. The greater involvement in piracy of well-organized and armed crime networks. B. Higher crime rates around the world. C. More crew involvement. D. Easy access to military weapons.

581

DPKP

55. The most effective way to combat the threat of drug smuggling is to? A. "Combining routine, but irregular searches of the ship with spontaneous targeted searches." B. Organize crew into pairs and conduct weekly searches of the ship. C. "Perform routine, but irregular searches using teams of two or more personnel from the same department." D. Perform spontaneous targeted searches using teams of two or more personnel from the same department.

56. The purpose of profiling is to? A. Get beneath the outer shell of an individual to obtain a more complete picture. B. Make judgements about people based on heir appearance. C. Categorize people based on their nationality and ethnicity. D. Identify different personality types.

57. What is a Continuous Synopsis Record? A. A record of the vessels history B. A plan including all security measures onboard C. A record of all security incidents D. A plan for continuous maintenance of security equipment

582

DPKP

58. What is a Declaration of Security? A. A checklist jointly completed by the ship and shore security representatives B. A checklist jointly completed by the Ship Security Officer and the U.S. Coast Guard C. A document between the port and the cargo owner stating security D. A document stating the ship’s security level

59. What percentage of the baggage is required to be checked at Security Level 1? A. The percentage is not specified. B. 25-50% of the baggage is required to be checked at Security Level 1. C. 100% of the baggage is required to be checked at Security Level 1. D. 5-15% of the baggage is required to be checked at Security Level 1. 60. What percentage of the ship’s stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3? A. 100% of the ship’s stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3. B. 25-50% of the ship's stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3. C. 5-20% of the ship's stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3. D. 50-80% of the ship's stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3.

583

DPKP

61. What type of bomb search should you conduct to avoid panic when the credibility of the threat is in doubt and you don’t want to disrupt ship business? A. Nominated officers search B. External search team C. Crew search D. Known hiding spot search

62. Which information should be included in your search plan? A. Areas to be searched and personnel to be involved in the search. B. Areas to be searched. C. Personnel to be involved in the search. D. Known hiding spots to be searched.

63. Which of following are security duties? A. All alternatives B. Monitoring of restricted areas C. Calibration of security equipment D. Checking ID of visitors onboard

64. Which of these actions should you take it your ship is successfully boarded by armed pirates? A. Assure your captors that you’re not planning an attack to overthrow them. B. Fight back. C. Scream in fear and refuse to cooperate. D. Keep quiet and ignore any questions you’re asked.

584

DPKP

65. Which of these conventions is The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code a part of? A. SOLAS B. MARPOL C. The Anti Terrorist International Agreement D. STCW – 95

66. Which of these measures would you implement to prevent drugs from being smuggled onboard your ship while it’s berthed? A. Maintain restricted areas. B. Check a portion of the bags and packages brought onboard. C. "Search some of the packages, spares and stores received." D. Eliminate fore and aft deck watch at night.

67. Which of these statements about drug smugglers modes of operating is true? A. "Drugs smuggled by an organized conspiracy are usually concealed in a primary ship system such as the

engine

room

or

in

a

tank,

void

or

compartment." B. Individual entrepreneurs usually smuggle large quantities of drugs. C. Drugs hidden by individual entrepreneurs are usually difficult to detect. D. An organized conspiracy usually smuggles a small amount of drugs.

68. Which of these statements about drug smuggling is true? A. The risks to ships are not restricted to specific areas or trading routes. B. Drugs are difficult to conceal onboard a ship. C. "Drug smuggling is only a problem in certain ports, so only ships sailing in those ports need to implement preventative measures." D. "The preventative measures you incorporate into your ship’s security plan should be exhaustive, regardless of the level of threat identified by your 585

DPKP

ship’s security assessment."

69. Which of these statements about profiling is correct? A. Verify that answers to questions match up with what’s already known about the person being questioned. B. Use only open-ended questions. C. Check the ID of all visitors and some crew prior to boarding. D. Pay less attention to body language and behaviour and more attention to answers to questions.

70. Which of these tasks are performed as part of the SSA? A. Assess

the

likelihood

and

potential

consequences of security incidents. B. Assign security duties to ship personnel. C. Implement measures to address weaknesses in ship security. D. Train shipboard personnel in their security duties.

71. Which of this information must be included in a piracy attack alert? A. Your ship’s name and call sign. B. The number of pirates/highjackers. C. The type of weapons being carried by the pirates/highjackers. D. The number of crew onboard.

72. Which statement about the use of profiling onboard a ship is true? A. A

random

selection

process

must

be

established. B. Only visitors can be profiled. C. Detection equipment can be used in place of profiling. D. Profilers need at least half an hour to gather the information they need. 586

DPKP

73. Which two persons check the Declaration of Security? A. The Port Facility Security Officer and the Ship Security Officer B. The Company Security Officer C. The local Coast Guard Officer D. The local Police Officer and Ship Security Officer

74. Which type of profiling is used to obtain information about rival companies and their employees? A. Industrial B. Criminal C. Commercial D. General

75. Who is responsible for completing the DoS on behalf of the ship? A. Ship Security Officer B. Company Security Officer C. Chief Officer D. Chief Engineer 76. Who is responsible for ensuring that your ship’s security plan meets the requirements of the ISPS Code? A. Company Security Officer B. Flag State Administration C. Ship Security Officer D. Recognized Security Organization

77. Who is responsible for ensuring your ship completes a security assessment? A. Company Security Officer B. Ship Security Officer C. Flag State Administration D. Recognized Security Organization

587

DPKP

78. Who is responsible for issuing an ISPS certificate? A. The Flag State B. The Port State C. US Coast Guard D. The insurance company

79. Who is responsible for the development of the Ship Security Plan? A. The Company Security Officer B. The Classification Society. C. The Port Facility Security Officer D. The Ship Security Officer

80. Who is responsible for the regular security inspections of the ship? A. The Ship Security Officer B. The Company Security Officer C. The Classification Society. D. The Port Facility Security Officer

81. You can reduce the need for security guards in certain areas by installing: A. Anti-intruder devices B. Vapour detectors C. Metal detectors D. Water cannons.

588

DPKP

18. Membuat rencana pengendalian keadaan darurat dan kerusakan serta menangani situasi darurat.( Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle emergency situations ) 1. *As far as human factor is concerned, which of the following actions should be considered as an efficient one? A. All the listed answers B. To equip them with better communication systems C. To train the fire brigade D. To establish inner rules to perform work of a special risk 2. *The correct order of actions to be taken in a fire emergency, should be… A. Evaluation of the situation, rescue and life-saving, confinement of fire, extinction, then feed back on the emergency B. Extinction, confinement of fire, feed back on the emergency, rescue and life-saving, then evaluation of the situation C. Extinction, evaluation of the situation, confinement of fire, rescue and lifesaving D. Evaluation of the situation, confinement of fire, rescue and life-saving, extinction

589

DPKP

3. *Which of the following detailed explanations should be mentioned in the Training Manual ? A. How to recover survival craft and rescue boats including stowage and securing B. How to use navigational equipment for survival crafts C. How to use surface to air visual signals to be used by survivors D. How to use escape routes and other escape methods

4. *Which one of the given requirements regarding manning and supervision of survival craft corresponds to the SOLAS regulation? A. A deck officer or certificated person shall be placed in charge of each survival craft to be used B. Every motorised survival craft shall have a certificated engineer assigned C. There shall be at least 5 trained persons on board, mustering and assisting untrained persons D. Every lifeboat required to carry radio telegraph installation shall have a deck officer capable of operating the equipment assigned

5. *You are on board a cargo ship. The ship is heavily listing to starboard, making impossible the launching of the survival craft stowed on this side. Lifeboats and liferafts are equally distributed on each side of the vessel. What should be the total number of persons that can be accommodated in the remaining survival craft stowed on the port side ? (*) N is the total number of persons that vessel is permitted to carry. A. At least 200 % N (lifeboat capacity: 100 % N; liferaft capacity: 100 % N) (*) B. At least 150 % N (lifeboat capacity: 100 % N; liferaft capacity: 50 % N) (*) C. At least 150 % N (lifeboat capacity: 50 % N; liferaft capacity: 100 % N) (*) 590

DPKP

D. At least 100 % N (lifeboat capacity: 50 % N; liferaft capacity: 50 % N) (*)

6. During helicopter evacuation of an injured man, what course should the ship steer? A. As instructed by the helicopter pilot B. With the wind astern so that the effect of the wind is reduced as much as possible C. Directly into the wind D. With the wind fine on the bow opposite to the helicopter operating area

7. HEL-H is the abbreviation of a heavy helicopter radius of action for rescue purposes. What do you think the radius and evacuating capacity of the helicopter is? A. 200 nm and capacity for evacuating more then 15 persons. B. 500 nm and capacity for evacuating more than 25 persons. C. 150 nm and capacity for evacuating more than 12 persons. D. 100 nm and capacity for evacuating more than 10 persons.

8. In a distress situation and immediately after the distress signal has been sounded, what is the next action to be taken by the Chief Officer on duty? A. Use the intercom to inform crew and passengers of the reason for the alarm B. Call the nearest coastal radio station C. Send distress signals to call for help D. Use the VHF-radio telephone to ask ships in the vicinity to stand by

591

DPKP

9. In a distress situation, how many times or for how long should the emergency alarm signal be sounded? A. Until all crew members and passengers have reported to their respective muster stations B. 3 times C. 3 minutes D. Until the signal "risk is over" or the order "abandon ship" is given

10. In what language/languages must the fire control plans or booklets (or copies of these) be written? A. In the Flag State official language with copies in English or French B. In the Flag State official language C. In the English language D. In a national language where company head office is located

11. Is it necessary to be certified to be a lifeboat-commander? A. Yes, you must attend to a course held by certified personnel, and provide

evidence

of

having

maintained the required standards of competence every five years. B. No, the only thing you need is one hour instruction from a deck officer. C. No D. Yes, you must attend a one week course at a approved course center.

592

DPKP

12. Poster or signs shall be provided on or in the vicinity of survival craft and their launching controls. Which one of the following requirements has to be included? A. Give

relevant

instructions

and

warnings B. Give an overview of location of all lifesaving appliances C. Give information on survival craft capacity D. Give information on survival craft speed and seaworthiness

13. The analyses of the smoke produced by a fire, may give an interpretation of that fire. Which are the factors we should take into account? A. Opacity, amount and colour B. Amount and opacity only C. There is no possible interpretation of a fire according to the smoke D. Colour only

14. The muster list must be prepared: A. At any moment before the ship proceeds to sea B. At least 2 hours before the ship proceeds to sea C. At least 1 hour before the ship proceeds to sea D. At least 2 hours after the ship has proceeded to sea

593

DPKP

15. The Muster List shall show the duties assigned to members of the crew. Which of the following duties shall be included according to present regulations? A. Manning of fire parties assigned to deal with fires. B. Preparation of immersion suits for passengers. C. Special duties assigned with respect to the use of pyrotechnics D. Operation of the vessel's propulsion system.

16. The muster list shall show the duties assigned to the different members of the crew. Which of the given duties necessarily have to be included in the muster list? A. Preparation

and

launching

of

survival crafts B. Clearing escape routes C. Type

of

fires

that

can

be

starting

of

encountered on board D. Preparation

and

emergency generator

17. The training manual shall contain instructions and information in easily understood terms and illustrated wherever possible. Which of the following objects have to be explained in detail in the manual according to present regulations? A. Donning of lifejackets and immersion suits B. Donning of fire protection clothing C. Starting of Main Engine D. Handling of stowaways

594

DPKP

18. The Training Manual shall contain instructions and information on the life-saving appliances and the best method of survival. The training manual shall contain detailed explanations of crew duties in relation to emergency situations. Which of the following tasks or duties shall be included in the manual according to present regulations? A. The use of the ship's line throwing apparatus. B. The use of navigational equipment for survival crafts. C. The use of surface to air visual signals to be used by survivors. D. The use of escape routes and other escape methodes.

19. What are the conditions that influence the efforts for organising the fire fighting? A. Where the fire breaks out, how many fire teams are available, the strength of the fire, the ships mobility, what is burning and communication B. Where the fire break out, how many fire teams are available, what is burning, distance to the fire station C. Distance to the fire station and the size of the fire brigade, what is burning, possibility to get water D. Where the fire break out, the ships mobility, distance to the fire station and the size of the fire brigade

20. What is a contingency plan for ships? A. Plan for safety preparedness B. Plan for next voyage C. Loading plan for general cargo D. Plan for maintenance and repair

595

DPKP

21. What is most important for crew members when preparing for emergencies? A. That people are well trained B. That people know where to find designated equipment C. That people know where to muster D. That people listen to orders given

22. What is the priority for the ship's management team when fire breaks out? A. The ship's management team must organise the fire teams and then the teams

have

to

rescue

missing

personnel B. The ship's management team must fight the fire and then call the fire teams C. The ship's management team must call the nearest fire brigade and police station D. The ship's management team and the crew must evacuate the ship

23. What manoeuvre should be carried out in case of a fire onboard a ship? A. Reduce speed and, if possible, keep the fire zone to the leeward of the ship B. Keep the stem up against the wind if possible C. Let the ship follow the wind in order to reduce the oxygen supply D. Continue on course and speed

596

DPKP

24. When a Master takes the leadership in approaching a problem, Must his first action be a decision that will directly solve the problem? A. Not necessary, he shall use all available resources. He should resist the temptation to step in and do it all by himself B. Yes, take full controll. Do not delegate to other officers, to avoid mistake. C. No, he should observ the situation, and let the other senior officers solve the situation. D. Yes, with his experience, it is most likely that he has the best solution.

25. Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as being assigned to crewmembers in relation to passengers? A. Assembling passengers at muster station B. Ensuring that every passenger is provided with an immersion suit or a thermal protective aid C. Ensuring that extra food and water is taken to the survival craft D. Clearing the escape routes

26. Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as being assigned to members of the crew ? A. Preparation and launching of the survival craft B. Preparation of manoeuvres intended to ease launching of the survival craft C. Preparation of immersion suits for the ship's passengers D. Operation of the vessel's propulsion system 597

DPKP

27. Which of the following information shall be specified by the muster list? A. Action to be taken by crew and passengers B. The specific duties assigned to passengers that are in charge of a group of others C. The abandon ship signal consisting of two long blasts D. The muster list has been prepared and approved by the administration before the ship proceeds to sea

28. Which of the following prevention actions offers the guarantee of an efficient intervention in an emergency A. All the listed answers B. The installation of protective measures C. Planning of the emergency D. Training of the crew

29. Which one of the given requirements regarding survival craft muster and embarkation arrangements corresponds to the present SOLAS regulations? A. Muster and embarkation stations shall be readily accessible from accommondation and work areas. B. Davit-launched survival craft muster and embarkation stations shall be arranged to enable stretchers to be placed in survival craft. C. Muster and embarkation stations are to be arranged separately to improve working conditions. D. Searchlights to be provided at the launching station.

598

DPKP

30. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of a survival craft corresponds to present SOLAS regulations? Each survival craft shall be stowed: A. In a secure and sheltered position and protected from damage by fire or explosion. B. Wherever space is available. C. On the starboard side of the ship. D. In a state of readiness so that two crewmembers can prepare for embarkation and launching in less than 15 minutes.

31. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of lifeboats and liferafts corresponds to present SOLAS regulations? A. Lifeboats shall be stowed attached to launching appliances. B. Life-rafts shall be stowed close to the stern of the vessel C. Life-rafts intended for throw-overboard launching shall be stowed midships secured to means for transfer to either side. D. Davit-launched life-rafts shall be stowed on starboard side of the ship.

32. Your vessel has been involved in a collision, and at first opportunity a lot of people from outsides parties are asking questions. What shall you tell them? A. Do not reply to any questions from outside parties, except the Solicitor appointed by your company. B. You shall only tell them the truth and nothing but the truth. C. Do not tell anybody anything, except representatives from the main newspapers, radio and TV. Remember, the people have the right to know. 599

DPKP

D. To make sure that all parties are informed about the facts, show them the extracts of the log-book.

33. A company must update its Safety Management System and Manual: A. Whenever regulations change B. At least once every 6 months C. At least once every 12 months D. At least once every 18 months

34. A moderate level of stress provides which useful function in an emergency? A. To prepare for peak performance that will improve the chances of survival B. To slow down the heart rate to conserve energy C. To slow down the thought processes to ensure a thorough assessment of the threat D. To immobilize the individual until he has decided upon the best course of action

35. Debriefing of an emergency drill: A. Expands the experience of all personnel B. Is most effective when held at a safety meeting C. Focuses attention on the debriefer's feedback D. Encourages crewmembers to focus on their duties

36. For which emergency resource is it difficult to plan the best use? A. Passengers B. Crew C. Company personnel D. Emergency equipment

37. In a crisis, which crew behaviours are most reassuring to passengers? A. Enthusiasm, confidence, decisiveness B. Enthusiasm, confidence, hospitality C. Dependability D. Keeping up with safety knowledge 600

DPKP

38. Studies of shipboard emergencies show that many passengers do not read or remember safety information. As an officer, how can you best compensate for this fact? A. In an emergency, repeatedly tell passengers what's happening, what's being done, and what they should do. B. Prior to departure, provide passengers with a good safety video. C. Ensure that printed safety information onboard is of the highest quality. D. Post large, graphic safety signs conspicuously throughout the ship.

39. The Safety Management Manual contains checklists that are: A. Clear, concise summaries of critical action items in the emergency plan B. To be used when crewmembers feel especially stressed in emergencies C. Clear, concise summaries of all action items in the emergency plan D. Detailed descriptions of action items most easily forgotten in emergencies

40. What can cause crewmembers to abdicate their safety roles? A. Lack of leadership B. No lifeboat drills for passengers C. Inadequate fire-fighting training D. Inadequate fire-fighting provisions

41. What is the most important factor in the master's ability to make good decisions in an emergency? A. Feedback from the crew B. Input from company personnel C. Planning of emergency procedures D. Following safety regulations

42. Which is the most important factor in the safety awareness of the ships crew? A. The level of emergency-preparedness B. The safety awareness of the senior officers C. The shipboard training provided D. The quality of emergency drills

601

DPKP

43. Which of the following is most likely to influence changes to emergency plans and procedures? A. The design and layout of the ship B. The ISM Code C. MARPOL D. The safety requirements of the USCG

44. Which statement about stress is correct? A. Individuals in a shipboard emergency experience different levels of stress. B. An example of stress is a shipboard fire. C. Stress is an unusual reaction to a threatening situation. D. Stress interferes with an individual's ability to respond to a threat.

45. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on the __________. A. Canop B. Manropes C. Sea painter D. Righting strap

46. Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of __________. A. Sewage B. The galley trash can C. An oily mixture of one part per million D. All of the above

47. Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems shall be kept on board __________. A. For 1 year B. For 2 years C. Until the next Coast Guard inspection D. Until the vessel's Certificate of Inspection expires

602

DPKP

48. You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7% mixture with air. If your instructions say that no one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 15% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable percentage of vapors for men to enter? A. .15% B. .85% C. 1.05% D. 7.00%

49. You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence? A. 5 compressions then 1 inflation B. 15 compressions then 2 inflations C. 20 compressions then 3 inflations D. 30 compressions then 4 inflations

50. The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for __________. A. Signals that must be sounded when being towed in restricted visibility B. Minimum hawser lengths when being towed C. Lights that must be displayed on anchor buoys D. Mooring procedures for support vessels when transferring cargo

51. What is the definition of transverse metacenter? A. The distance between the actual center of gravity and the maximum center of gravity that will still allow a positive stability. B. The point to which G may rise and still permit the vessel to possess positive stability. C. The sum of the center of buoyancy and the center of gravity. D. The transverse shift of the center of buoyancy as a vessel rolls.

603

DPKP

52. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position? A. On their side if unconscious B. Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or head C. Flat on their back with head and feet at the same level D. Arms above their head

53. The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to __________. A. Allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain life B. Prevent outside air from entering the tank C. Provide increase in cargo discharge pressure D. Comply with double hull pollution prevention regulations

54. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You should FIRST __________. A. Boat the sea anchor B. Paddle away from the fire C. Splash water over the liferaft to cool it D. Get out of the raft and swim to safety

55. A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the water, would indicate that a submarine __________. A. Has fired a torpedo during a drill B. Is about to rise to periscope depth C. Is on the bottom in distress D. Is disabled and unable to surface

56. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when __________. A. You first start to receive fuel B. Hoses are being blown down C. Final topping off is occurring D. Hoses are being disconnected

604

DPKP

57. The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________. A. Incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor conten B. Makes the atmosphere below the LFL (Lower Flammable Level) capable of supporting combustion C. In a noncombustible state which can be relied on to occur naturally on a regular basis D. Incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)

58. When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute? A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 20

59. The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least a __________. A. Mate's license B. Restricted radiotelephone operator permit C. Second-class radio operator's license D. Seaman's document

60. If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of inclination will __________. A. Decrease B. Increase C. Remain unchanged D. Be changed by the amount of GG' x cosine of the angle

605

DPKP

61. Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered at the periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT __________. A. Minimizing the affects of unintentional flooding B. Fire on board C. Rescuing an individual from the water D. Emergency towing

62. An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to __________. A. Aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks B. Increase the rate of discharge of cargo C. Force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to vent to the outside atmosphere D. Lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly impossible

63. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take? A. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down. B. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down. C. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container. D. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.

64. Which single-letter sound signal may be made only in compliance with the International Rules of the Road? A. D B. F C. Q D. U

606

DPKP

65. You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE? A. The Certificate of Inspection is prima facie evidence of compliance with MARPOL 73/78. B. The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5 years. C. An IOPP Certificate is invalid if the ship carries cargoes outside the classes authorized thereon. D. AN IOPP Certificate is renewed at each inspection for certification.

66. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would fulfill the minimum requirements for fire protection? A. One B-I extinguisher B. One B-II extinguisher C. One B-II and one C-II extinguisher D. One B-V extinguisher

67. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________. A. Incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (Lower Flammable Limit) B. Capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit) C. Capable of supporting a fire once started D. Not safe for ballasting

68. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________. A. Cupping a hand around the patient's mouth B. Keeping the head elevated C. Applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth D. Holding the jaw down firmly

607

DPKP

69. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST __________. A. Invert the CO2 extinguisher B. Squeeze the two trigger handles together C. Remove the locking pin D. Open the discharge valve

70. Transverse stability calculations require the use of __________. A. Hog or sag calculations or tables B. Hydrostatic curves C. General arrangement plans D. Cross-sectional views of the vessel

71. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________. A. Electricity B. Fuel C. Oxygen D. Heat

72. Every U.S. crude oil tankship with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be equipped with an inert gas system if the tonnage is more than __________. A. 100,000 DWT (long tons) B. 100,000 DWT (metric tons) C. 50,000 DWT (long tons) D. 50,000 DWT (metric tons)

73. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________. A. Shape B. Shallow draft C. Large sail area D. All of the above

608

DPKP

74. Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the Rules of the Road? A. D B. E C. S D. All of the above

75. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill? A. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill. B. It is not covered by the pollution laws. C. It does little harm to marine life. D. It will sink more rapidly than crude oil.

76. The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit is __________. A. One A-I B. Two A-iis C. One B-II D. One C-II

77. The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit is __________. A. One A-I B. Two A-iis C. One B-II D. One C-II

78. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion? A. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank. B. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis. C. Enter the tank with an oxygen analyzer. D. Use an explosimeter.

609

DPKP

79. When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed about __________. A. 1/2 inch or less B. 1/2 to 1 inch C. 1 to 1-1/2 inches D. 1-1/2 to 2 inches

80. A flame screen __________. A. Permits the passage of vapor but not of flame B. Prevents the passage of flammable vapors C. Prevents inert gas from leaving a tank D. Permits vapors to exit but not enter a tank

81. Regardless of local requirements/regulations, when in a U.S. port, all oil spills must be reported to __________. A. Environmental Protection Agency B. Minerals Management Service C. National Response Center (USCG) D. All of the Above

82. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________. A. Secure the engine room ventilation B. Secure the machinery in the engine room C. Evacuate all engine room personnel D. All of the above

83. The advantages of using an inert gas system on a tank vessel is that it provides __________. A. For faster loading B. Tank atmosphere with low oxygen content C. Better fuel economy D. All of the above

610

DPKP

84. If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________. A. Filling the stabilizers on one side with water B. Releasing the CO2 cylinder C. Pushing up from under one end D. Standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside of the raft

85. The spread of fire is prevented by __________. A. Heating surfaces adjacent to the fire B. Removing combustibles from the endangered area C. Increasing the oxygen supply D. All of the above

86. Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills? A. They usually disappear quickly. B. They usually stay in a small are C. They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be cumulative. D. A small spill is not dangerous to sea life in the are

87. The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers to be carried in the vicinity of the radio room exit for a tank vessel on an international voyage is one __________. A. B-I B. B-II C. C-I D. C-II

88. What is used to test a tank for oxygen content? A. Combustible gas indicator B. Vapor indicator C. Atmosphere analyzer kit D. None of the above

611

DPKP

89. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied? A. Lower half of the sternum B. Tip of the sternum C. Top half of the sternum D. Left chest over the heart

90. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then __________. A. Use a portable foam extinguisher B. Use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose C. Use a portable CO2 extinguisher D. Determine the cause of the fire

91. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker? A. Bending moments B. Initial stability C. Draft D. Trim

92. On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of the fireman's outfit? A. Self-contained breathing apparatus with a lifeline attached B. Combustible gas indicator C. Rigid helmet, boots, and gloves D. Flame safety lamp

93. Which statement is TRUE concerning inert gas systems on tank vessels? A. Flue gases from the ship's boilers are used in some systems. B. Helium is the preferred inert gas. C. Using the system accelerates the rusting of the tanks. D. All of the above

612

DPKP

94. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________. A. Pushing up on one side B. Standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards C. Getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the CO2 cylinder D. Doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate

95. On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________. A. 6° B. 12° C. 20° D. 25°

96. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________. A. Equipment failure B. Human error C. Major casualties D. Unforeseeable circumstances

97. The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for staterooms on cargo vessels is __________. A. One A-I B. One B-I C. One C-I D. None required

613

DPKP

98. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the __________. A. Auto-ignition point B. Flash point C. Lower explosive limit (LEL) D. Threshold limit value (TLV)

99. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________. A. Without losing the rhythm of respiration B. Only with the help of two other people C. By not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes D. At ten-minute intervals

100. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing apparatus be carried? A. Emergency gear locker B. Bridge or pilothouse area C. Where they can be readily found D. The same location as the equipment it reactivates

101. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the vessel __________. A. Has off-center weights B. Is taking on water C. Has a greater draft forward than aft D. Has poor stability

614

DPKP

102. You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. The barge is NOT gas free. Regulations say that the cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on the barge may remain open without flame screens __________. A. Without restriction B. Only while in areas of good weather C. When under the supervision of a senior crew member on duty D. Only when the barge is empty

103. The deck water seal of the inert gas system __________. A. Cools the inert gas and prevents soot from entering the cargo tanks B. Acts as an emergency system shutdown when the inlet pressures exceed the safe working pressure in the hazardous zone C. Prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into nonhazardous areas D. Relieves sudden large overpressures in the system

104. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflate You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this? A. The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy. B. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflate C. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2. D. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.

105. The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standar ST0001 A. 338 tons B. 309 tons C. 281 tons D. 263 tons

615

DPKP

106. The most serious effect of trapped air in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________. A. Accelerates erosion B. Reduces the effectiveness of chromate additives C. Can form pockets of high chemical concentrates D. Accelerates formation of sludge deposits

107. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square feet. What will fulfill the requirements for fire protection? A. One B-I extinguisher B. One B-II extinguisher C. One B-II and one C-II extinguisher D. One B-V extinguisher

108. The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is __________. A. 0% to 1% B. 1% to 10% C. 10% to 15% D. 12% to 20%

109. The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________. A. Having the proper equipment for the process B. Starting the treatment quickly C. Administering of oxygen D. Treating for traumatic shock

110. Fire hose couplings __________. A. Are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals B. Should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths C. Are specially hardened to prevent crushing D. Should be greased frequently

616

DPKP

111. What represents the center of gravity? (D001SA ) A. GZ B. M C. B D. G

112. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with __________. A. The name of the vessel on which it is located B. The date that it was installed C. The names of the individuals qualified to use it D. An identification number

113. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must pull the safety pin and __________. A. Pull the hook release handle B. Pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar C. Use the ratchet bar and depress the retainer D. Pull the hook release handle and depress the retainer

114. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________. A. Should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards B. Should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards C. Will right itself when the canopy tubes inflate D. Must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself

115. Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are __________. A. Prohibited B. Permitted for draining fuel from lines C. Permitted for drawing fuel samples D. Permitted for bleeding air from lines

617

DPKP

116. If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when should you remove the safety pin and pull the hook release? A. Immediately upon launching B. One to three feet before first wave contact C. Upon first wave contact D. Only when waterborne

117. The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required for a galley having an area of 3,500 square feet is __________. A. One B-II B. One C-II C. Two B-II's or C-II's D. Two A-II's or B-II's

118. Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________. A. 16% B. 18% C. 21% D. 25%

119. Before CPR is started, you should __________. A. Establish an open airway B. Treat any bleeding wounds C. Insure the victim is conscious D. Make the victim comfortable

120. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharge It should be __________. A. Labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible B. Replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25% C. Replaced in its proper location regardless of weight D. Replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15%

618

DPKP

121. What represents the metacentric height? (D001SA ) A. M B. GM C. BM D. GZ

122. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature? A. CO2 B. Water stream C. Water spray D. Foam

123. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________. A. To bank off a bulkhead onto the fire B. At the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge C. Over the top of the fire D. At the main body of the fire

124. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should __________. A. Go in a different direction in search of land B. Spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft finding you C. Reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible into as few rafts as possible D. Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group

125. After using a C02 portable extinguisher, it should be __________. A. Put back in service if some C02 remains B. Hydrostatically tested C. Retagged D. Recharged

619

DPKP

126. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________. A. Shut off all electrical power B. Remove combustibles from direct exposure C. Cool the bulkhead around the fire D. Close all openings to the area

127. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To comply with regulations, you __________. A. Need not be concerned since no portable extinguishers are required in the pumproom B. Should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the vicinity of the exit C. Should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the lower pumproom D. May substitute sand for the required extinguishers

128. Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge which is NOT gas-free? A. A three-cell flashlight B. An explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamp C. A spark resistant and flame retardant lamp D. None of the above

129. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do? A. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue. B. Raise the victim's head higher than his feet. C. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction. D. Re-tip the head and try again.

620

DPKP

130. To determine what navigation lights and day-shapes must be displayed on mobile offshore drilling units under tow, you should check the __________. A. American Bureau of Shipping classification rules B. International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea C. Safety of Life at Sea Convention D. Minerals Management Service rules

131. Refer to the illustration below. Which represents the righting arm? (D001SA ) A. GM B. GZ C. BM D. Angle MGZ

132. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________. A. Removing the fuel B. Interrupting the chain reaction C. Removing the oxygen D. Removing the heat

133. The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8' The vessel's displacement in fresh water is 864 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? A. .32 foot B. .80 foot C. .96 foot D. 1.12 feet

621

DPKP

134. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should __________. A. Separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued B. Get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel C. Immediately head for the nearest land D. Remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position

135. If you desired to communicate with another station that your navigation lights were not functioning, you would send __________. A. PB B. PD1 C. MJ D. LN1

136. A spark arrestor __________. A. Keeps sparks from falling into an open tank B. Secures covers on ullage openings C. Prevents sparks from getting out of an engine's exhaust system D. Grounds static electricity

137. A B-III foam extinguisher contains __________. A. 2-1/2 gallons of foam B. 8 gallons of foam C. 10 gallons of foam D. 12 gallons of foam

138. The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is __________. A. Battery fed B. Self-contained C. Approved explosion proof D. All of the above

622

DPKP

139. Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to the discharge into the marine environment of __________. A. Oil B. Garbage C. Noxious liquid substances D. None of the above

140. When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G is called the __________. A. Metacentric height B. Righting arm C. Righting moment D. Metacentric radius

141. On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank top. The hold is 40 feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________. A. Feet B. 1.2 feet C. 1.3 feet D. 1.5 feet

142. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________. A. Put the vessel's stern into the wind B. Abandon ship to windward C. Call for assistance D. Keep going at half speed

623

DPKP

143. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should __________. A. Not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time B. Plug the safety valve C. Unscrew the deflation plugs D. Remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch

144. In the International Code of Signals, the code signal meaning "I require immediate assistance" is __________. A. AE B. CB C. DX D. CP

145. The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for __________. A. Lights that must be displayed on anchor buoys B. The display of load line markings C. Minimum horsepower for tugs involved in rig moves D. Lighting of mobile offshore drilling units being towed

146. A B-II fire extinguisher has a minimum capacity of __________. A. 3 gallons of foam B. 20 pounds of CO2 C. 10 pounds of dry chemical D. All of the above

147. What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good? A. For as long as is indicated on the gas-free certificate B. For the instant that it is made C. Until valves in line with the tank or compartment are reopened D. Until changes in temperature or pressure affect the vapor content in the space 624

DPKP

148. Antiseptics are used principally to __________. A. Speed healing B. Prevent infection C. Reduce inflammation D. Increase blood circulation

149. Your vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons. It is 350 feet long and has a beam of 55 feet. You have timed it's full rolling period to be 15.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM? A. 1.18 feet B. 1.83 feet C. 2.60 feet D. 3.36 feet

150. A vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's center of gravity will __________. A. Increase reserve buoyancy B. Decrease the righting moments C. Decrease KG D. Increase KM

151. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________. A. Convection B. Conduction C. Radiation D. Ventilation

152. Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________. A. Rigging a sea anchor B. Constantly shifting the rudder C. Moving all personnel forward and low D. Moving all personnel aft 625

DPKP

153. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflate You should __________. A. Quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates B. Check the sea anchor line attachment for a tear if the seas are rough C. Check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial opening D. Not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape

154. If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send? A. BR B. BS C. BT1 D. BZ

155. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use? A. Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath. B. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a life jacket. C. They should be tight fitting. D. A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value.

156. What is classified as a B-II fire extinguisher? A. A 2-1/2 gallon soda acid and water B. A 1-1/4 gallon foam C. A 2-1/2 gallon foam D. A 20 pound dry chemical

157. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument __________. A. Over an electrically heated platinum filament B. Where it is mixed with nitrogen C. Where it is ignited by a sparking device D. Where its specific gravity is measured

626

DPKP

158. A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY __________. A. With puncture wounds B. When all other means have failed C. When the victim is unconscious D. To prevent bleeding from minor wounds

159. What would be considered a vessel under the International Rules of the Road? A. A jack-up rig under tow B. A semisubmersible drilling rig under tow C. A semisubmersible drilling rig drifting after breaking a tow line D. All of the above

160. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the __________. A. Metacentric point B. Metacenter C. Metacentric radius D. Tipping center

161. Your vessel has a displacement of 24,500 tons. It is 529 feet long and has a beam of 71 feet. You have timed your full charge rolling period to be 25.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM? A. 1.25 feet B. 1.56 feet C. 1.98 feet D. 2.43 feet

162. A negative metacentric height __________. A. Will always cause a vessel to capsize B. Should always be immediately corrected C. Always results from off-center weights D. All of the above are correct

627

DPKP

163. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________. A. Remain in the immediate vicinity B. Head for the nearest land C. Head for the closest sea-lanes D. Vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision

164. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________. A. Reduce reserve buoyancy B. Increase righting moments C. Increase GM D. All of the above

165. Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type B-III extinguisher? A. 12 gallon soda acid B. 20 gallon foam C. 30 pound carbon dioxide D. 20 pound dry chemical

166. Before welding in a tank that has carried petroleum products, the tank must be certified by __________. A. The Coast Guard B. The American Bureau of Shipping C. The shipyard fire department D. A certified marine chemist

167. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound? A. Wrap a tight bandage around the woun B. Apply a compression bandage. C. Use temporary stitches of sail twine. D. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing.

628

DPKP

168. A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________. A. A righting line B. Red hand flares C. Pendants D. Drinking water

169. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________. A. The vessel has very little draft B. G is above the center of lateral resistance C. G is below the center of lateral resistance D. The vessel is deeply laden

170. A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 16 feet. At this draft, the displacement is 8,000 tons. The length of the vessel is 475 ft., beam is 55 ft., TPI is 45. Calculate KM. (See P-value, K-value table in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book) A. 18.8 feet B. 20.9 feet C. 22.7 feet D. 32.0 feet

171. The most serious effect of air trapped in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________. A. Causes colloid suspension in the cooling water B. Reduces the capability of the lubrication system C. Can form pockets which block the flow of coolant through the system D. Leads to the scuffing of cylinder walls

629

DPKP

172. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours? A. 1 can B. 1 pint C. 1 quart D. 1 gallon

173. What is the International Code signal for a decimal point between figures using flashing light? A. AAA B. TTTT C. EEEEE D. AS

174. Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the U.S. is FALSE? A. The person in charge must report the spill to the Coast Guar B. Failure to report the spill may result in a fine. C. The company can be fined for the spill. D. The Corps of Engineers is responsible for the clean up of the spill.

175. Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name? A. Hand-portable fire extinguisher B. Life preserver C. Immersion suit D. Lifeboat oar

176. The officer responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department is the __________. A. Master B. Chief Mate C. Chief Engineer D. First Assistant

630

DPKP

177. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thum To remove it you should __________. A. Pull it out with pliers B. Cut the skin from around the hook C. Push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook D. Have a surgeon remove it

178. When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as possible to __________. A. Protect themselves from smoke B. Obtain the best available air C. Allow the heat and steam to pass overhead D. All of the above

179. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel? A. She will have a large metacentric height. B. Her period of roll will be large due to her large metacentric height. C. She will have an unusually high center of gravity. D. She will pitch heavily.

180. Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a fishing vessel? A. Recovering an individual from the water B. Steering casualty C. Emergency towing D. Loss of propulsion power

181. You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into the sea? A. 3 B. 12 C. 25 D. Must be retained aboard 631

DPKP

182. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft? A. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration. B. Get plenty of rest. C. Keep the entrance curtains open. D. All of the above

183. The unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code is __________. A. One and one-half times the length of a dot B. Twice the length of a dot C. Three times the length of a dot D. Four times the length of a dot

184. Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the U.S. is TRUE? A. The Corps of Engineers is responsible for the clean up of the spill. B. The Department of Interior is responsible for the clean up of the spill. C. A warning broadcast must be made by radiotelephone. D. The person in charge must report the spill to the Coast Guar

185. Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The number of sanitary inspections required is __________. A. One B. Three C. Six D. Twelve

186. First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to __________. A. Lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops B. Stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound C. Apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops D. Apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it

632

DPKP

187. A signal indicating zone time is preceded with the letter __________. A. L B. N C. T D. Z

188. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________. A. Evenly distributed vertically and the double bottoms are full B. Concentrated low and the double bottoms are empty C. Concentrated low and the double bottoms are full D. Concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty

189. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo liste What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST0002 A. 1.50 feet B. 1.96 feet C. 2.21 feet D. 2.78 feet

190. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus? A. The valve opens in excessive heat to release the oxygen in the bottle and prevent the bottle from exploding. B. In the event of a malfunction in the equipment, the valve can be operated manually to give the wearer air. C. When pressure in the apparatus exceeds 7 psi above atmospheric pressure, the valve opens to release pressure. D. The valve reduces the high pressure in the bottle to about 3 psi above atmospheric pressure.

633

DPKP

191. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________. A. Drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter B. Find some wood for a fire C. Get the provisions out of the raft D. Set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it

192. The standard rate of signaling by flashing light is __________. A. Twenty letters per minute B. Thirty letters per minute C. Forty letters per minute D. Fifty letters per minute

193. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after reporting the discharge? A. Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the water. B. Throw chemical agents on the water to disperse the oil. C. Throw sand on the water to sink the oil. D. Obtain your permit from the Corps of Engineers

194. The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by applying the __________. A. "Length of Rail" criteria, allowing 30 inches of rail space along the vessel's sides and transom for each passenger B. "Deck Area" criteria that permits one passenger for every 10 square feet of deck space available for passenger use C. "Fixed Seating" criteria that allocates 18 inches of space for each passenger to rest his/her buttocks upon D. Any or a combination of the above criteria

634

DPKP

195. On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the __________. A. Master and Second Mate B. Master and Chief Engineer C. Master and union delegate D. Master and Chief Mate

196. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next? A. Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting. B. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing. C. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic D. Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost bloo

197. A vessel is tender if cargo weight is __________. A. Concentrated high and the double bottoms empty B. Concentrated low and the double bottoms empty C. Evenly distributed vertically with the double bottoms full D. Concentrated and with the double bottoms full

198. A vessel is tender if cargo weight is __________. A. Concentrated high and the double bottoms empty B. Concentrated low and the double bottoms empty C. Evenly distributed vertically with the double bottoms full D. Concentrated and with the double bottoms full

199. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo liste What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST0003 A. 2.15 feet B. 1.83 feet C. 1.64 feet D. 1.19 feet 635

DPKP

200. The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus is to __________. A. Control the pressure of the oxygen as it enters the body B. Allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen C. Release excess heat which would otherwise cause the bottle to explode D. Allow exhaled gases to pass outside the bottle

201. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is __________. A. Asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed B. Hypothermia caused by cold temperature C. Collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures D. Starvation

202. Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent? A. It is more effective than CO2. B. It leaves no residue. C. It is noncorrosive. D. It is always non-toxi

203. On cargo vessels, which fire extinguisher is considered semi-portable? A. A-II B. C-II C. B-III D. All of the above

204. One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by __________. A. Installing rat guards on the mooring lines when in port B. Keeping foods protected and avoiding the accumulation of garbage C. Eliminating possible living spaces for rats when the ship is constructed D. Trapping and/or poisoning the rats

636

DPKP

205. In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by __________. A. Applying direct pressure to the wound B. Submerging the wound in lukewarm water C. Cooling the wound with ice D. Applying a tourniquet

206. The signal T 0735 means __________. A. The Greenwich mean time is 0735 B. The zone time is 0735 C. The latitude is 7° 35' D. The longitude is 7° 35'

207. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________. A. Maximize your deck load B. Distribute lumber so that those stowing most compactly per unit of weight are in the upper holds C. Place the heaviest woods in the lower holds D. Keep the vessel's frame spaces free from lumber

208. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible you should __________. A. Call for assistance B. Abandon ship to windward C. Put the vessel's stern into the wind D. Keep going at half speed

209. While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather __________. A. The canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling breezes B. The pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent excessive air pressure C. Deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel D. The entrance curtains should never be opened 637

DPKP

210. If you sent out a signal on 12 March 1980, the date would be indicated by __________. A. D120380 B. D801203 C. D031280 D. D800312

211. According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, a stability test may be dispensed with if the __________. A. Coast Guard has the approved stability test results of a sister vessel B. Projected cost is unreasonable C. Coast Guard does not have a qualified inspector available D. Vessel is of a proven design

212. On tank vessels, fully charged fire extinguishers are considered semi-portable when they have a gross weight of more than __________. A. 55 pounds B. 75 pounds C. 95 pounds D. 125 pounds

213. Before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the responsible person from the vessel should determine that the source __________. A. Is used by a city B. Has been treated with chlorine C. Is approved by the Public Health Service D. Is not from surface water

214. Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by __________. A. Applying direct pressure to the wound B. Heavy application of a disinfectant C. Pouring ice water directly onto the wound D. Pinching the wound closed

638

DPKP

215. A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 14 feet. At this draft, the displacement is 6780 tons. The length of the vessel is 450 feet, beam is 50 feet, and TPI is 45.5. What is the KM? (See the P-K table in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book) A. 28 feet B. 26 feet C. 22 feet D. 12 feet

216. Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel? A. It has a small GM. B. It pitches heavily. C. It has an unusually high center of gravity. D. Its period of roll is short.

217. Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and the after-most points on a small passenger vessel's waterline at her deepest operating draft? A. LBP B. LOA C. LWL D. LLL

218. Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft? A. The floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water. B. Crew members can jump into the raft without damaging it. C. The raft may be boarded before it is fully inflate D. All of the above

639

DPKP

219. When signaling by flashing light, the signal "C" should be used to indicate a(n) __________. A. Affirmative statement B. Question C. Change from affirmative to negative D. Request for the identity signal of the receiving stations

220. Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the pollution prevention regulations? A. Petroleum and fuel oil B. Sludge C. Oil mixed with dredge spoil D. Oil refuse and oil mixed with wastes

221. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", et The height of the letters and figures must be at least __________. A. 1/2 inch B. 1 inch C. 1-1/2 inches D. 2 inches

222. What represents poor sanitary procedures? A. Keep and use a separate filling hose for potable (drinking) water. B. Locate potable (drinking) water tanks as low as possible in the bilge. C. Eliminate enclosed spaces in which trash, food particles, dirt may gather. D. After washing dishes with soap and warm water, sterilize them in water of at least 170°F (76.7°C).

223. The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by __________. A. Direct pressure on the wound B. Elevating the wounded area C. Pressure on a pressure point D. A tourniquet above the wound 640

DPKP

224. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to __________. A. Determine the location of the metacenter B. Determine the lightweight center of gravity location C. Verify the hydrostatic data D. Verify data in the vessel's operating manual

225. Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel? A. Concentrate weights on upper decks B. Add weight near the centerline of the lower hold C. Move weights lower in the ship D. Ballast the peak tanks

226. Where will you find the requirements for the lights that must be displayed on a mobile offshore drilling unit that is being towed? A. Notice to Mariners B. COLREGS C. Coast Pilot D. Light List

227. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should __________. A. Use different fire hose pressures B. Use fire hoses of different sizes C. Not attack the fire from opposite sides D. Not wear protective clothing

228. Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement into a question? A. C B. RQ C. N D. NO

641

DPKP

229. As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken steps to stop the discharge of oil or oily mixture into a U.S. harbor, what must he do FIRST? A. Rig a boom for recovery. B. Call the Coast Guar C. Alert the fire department. D. Inform the Environmental Protection Agency.

230. The term "gross tonnage" refers to __________. A. The weight of the vessel measured in long tons B. The weight of a vessel with all tanks full C. The weight of a grossly overloaded vessel D. The vessel's approximate volume including all enclosed spaces less certain exempt spaces

231. Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the __________. A. Fire-main system B. Feed-water system C. Freshwater sanitary system D. Domestic water tank

232. A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should __________. A. Be assisted in walking around B. Be examined then walked to a bunk C. Not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives D. Not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or bunk

642

DPKP

19. Menerapkan kepemimpinan dan manajerial (Use of leadership and managerial ) 1.

It is the Master's responsibility to ensure that: A. Concerned personnel carry out the on-board traing progamme effectively B. All information reagrding the onboard training is given to the ship manager C. All personnel participate in the training at the same time D. Safety equipment is not used during the training

2.

Master of every ship must provide: A. A link between the shipboard training officer and the company training officer ashore B. Facilities to conduct training whenever required by the training officer C. Proper rest to the crew after each training programme D. The training during crews working hours only

3.

Onboard training should be organised in such a way that: A. It is an integral part of the overall training plan B. It does not contravene with the rest hours of the crew C. Each crew member is trained individually D. None of the above

643

DPKP

4.

The majority of convensions adopted under the auspices of IMO fall into which of the three main categories: A. Maritime

Safety,

Prevention

of

Marine

pollution, Liability and compensation B. Maritime Safety, STCW, Maritime Security C. Safety, Terrorism, ILO D. There are no conentions that fall under IMO

5.

To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel, one must be: A. Understanding, Co-operative, and have respect from both sides B. Strict and authoritative while giving orders C. Polite and diplomatic while talking to crew members D. Give authority to others

6.

Why is it important to have good relationship on-board a vessel? A. It leads to better work performance and positive atmosphere among the crew B. It will prevent accidents from happening C. It encourages crew to extend their contract D. Crew comes to know each others problems

7.

Why is it important to make weekly/routine rounds in the accomodation areas? A. To ensure that cabins and common spaces are maintained in a clean, safe and hygienic condition B. To search for any contraband goods hidden on board C. It is a requirement as per flag state D. To check for alcohol in cabins

8. All necessary information for the next port of call should be: A. Procured before departure from a port B. Procured during the voyage prior arrival at the next port C. Procured on arrival at the next port D. Requested on email

644

DPKP

9. An emergency situation on board must be reported to the company by: A. The fastest means available B. The Telex to have a record C. The email to save cost D. The Sat-C

10. If Master finds reason to doubt whether the agent is giving the vessel's interest full and proper attention he should: A. Investigate the matter carefully and report the findings to the company a. Report the matter to the harbour Master b. Report to the vessel P & I club c. Change the agent

11. Prior to arrival at a US port from a foreign port, as per present regulation, the USCG requires: A. 96 hours notice of arrival B. 72 hours notice of arrival C. 48 hours notice of arrival D. 24 hour notice of arrival

12. Prior to ordering stores for any department; A. The store inventory should be checked so that you order only the items required B. Consult the ISSA catalogue to ascertain what stores are available for ordering C. Consult the ISSA catalogue and order whatever is available but not on board D. Ask the departmental head for a list of store to be ordered

645

DPKP

13. Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be maintained inorder to: A. Control the ship's budget B. Order the required stores C. Report to the office D. Show to the port authorities

14. Representative of the port authorities should always receive the best possible treatment: A. For ship's clearance to take place quickly and without complications B. Because you always have some faults

in

arrival/departure

the

ship's

documents C. Because

trading

certificate are not normally in order D. Because

you

have

undeclared

dutiable items in excess of permitted on board

15. The office phone, fax, telex and after office hours telephone numbers can be found in: A. The Ship's emergency contingency manual B. Vessel health, safety and environment manual C. Vessel operation manual D. Radio log book

16. The responsible person for maintaining budget on board normally is: A. Master B. Chief Engineer C. Chief Officer D. Chief Stewar

646

DPKP

17. Where will you normally find the ship's documents including Crew Passports and CDC on board a vessel? A. Ship's Office B. Master's cabin C. On the bridge D. Telly clerk room

18. Which of the following will be reported to a company on the emergency phone? A. All accidents where crew are injured or killed B. All arrival and departure time from port C. All cases concerning cargo shortages D. All near misses

19. Which of these is not a principle of great man theory? A. Leaders are born not made. B. Great men rise up in times of crisis. C. We can learn from the biographies of great leaders. D. A great leader is only great in certain situations. 20. In leadership trait theory what is a trait? A. A list of the things that make leaders different to everyone else. B. A list of the key things that a leader should do to be great. C. The list of key behaviours a leader exhibits. D. A list of key characteristics that makes a leader great. 21. What is Skinner's A-B-C of behaviourism? A. Antecedents-behaviour-consequences B. Attitude-behaviour-conclusions C. Aptitude-behaviour-consequences D. Antecents-behaviour-conditioning

647

DPKP 22. Contingency theory is based on the assumption that the ideal leader: A. Shapes their leadership style depending on the situation. B. Provides clear instructions to the followers so that they know what they are doing. C. Knows what their strengths are and makes the most out of them. D. Spends time with their followers and therefore listens and responds to their needs. 23. A transactional leader is one who: A. Inspires people and has strong interactions with them B. Does deals with people in order to get them to do things the leader wants C. Is the ideal form of leadership D. Works for long-term goals of the organization 24. What is a transformational leader? A. Someone who is involved in organizational change. B. A leader, like Taylor, who provided new ways of carrying out management. C. A leader who inspires the workers to new levels by offering them a vision of a better future. D. A leader who tries to transform their staff by giving them rewards for what they do. 25. What is post-heroic leadership theory? A. A theory which states that there is too much emphasis on leaders and more attention should be placed on followers. B. A theory looking beyond current leadership styles to new, more creative ways of leading. C. A theory which tries to create new organizations which do not need leaders. D. A theory which tries to find the ideal form of leadership.

648

DPKP 26. What is the social construction of leadership? A. The view that all leadership is social and what matters is how leaders interact with others. B. Leadership is a made up idea that therefore we should pay more attention to more significant aspects of the organization. C. What counts as good leadership is a construction of the perceptions of the followers. D. Leadership is something that the leader constructs as they meet with others. 27. Which of the following statements concerning the rational and emotional aspects of leadership is false? A. Leaders can use rational techniques and/or emotional appeals in order to influence followers B. Leadership includes actions and influences based only on reason and logic C. Aroused feelings can be used either positively or negatively D. Good leadership involves touching others’ feelings 28. To many, the word management suggests A. Dynamism B. Risk-taking C. Efficiency D. Creativity 29. According to the text, leadership is often more associated with A. Consistency B. Planning C. Paperwork D. Change

649

DPKP 30. This is a conventional distinction made between managers and leaders. A. Managers maintain while leaders develop B. Managers innovate while leaders administer C. Managers inspire while leaders control D. Managers originate while leaders imitate 31. Which of the following statements about leaders versus managers is false? A. Leadership is a value-laden, activity, management is not B. Leaders focus on risk taking; managers perform functions such as planning and controlling C. Leaders are thought to do things right, managers do the right things D. Leaders develop, managers maintainunit 1 Examination 29 Leadership 32. According to the text, which of the following statements is true? A. Leadership and management have some unique functions with an area of overlap B. A good leader can be a good manager, but the reverse is never true C. Leadership and management are not related D. Leadership and management are effectively the same for all practical purposes 33. What best describes the leader-follower relationship? A. The relationship is a one-way street B. Leadership and followership are the same thing C. Leadership and followership merge and are linked concepts D. It is based on the idea of ‘one-man leadership’ 34. Ideal leaders according to a survey were commonly characterized as all of the following except A. Honest B. Competent C. Forward-looking D. Cooperative

650

DPKP 35. According to a survey research by Judith Rosener, in terms of their leadership experiences, A. Women tended to describe themselves in transactional terms B. Men tended to describe themselves in somewhat transformational terms C. Men influenced others primarily in terms of personal characteristics D. Women helped subordinates develop commitment for broader goals than their own self-interest 36. What term did Rosener coin to describe how some women leaders encouraged participation and shared power and information, but went far beyond what is commonly thought of as participative management? A. Autocratic leadership B. Laissez faire leadership C. Interactive leadership D. Transactional leadershipunit 1 Examination 30 Leadership 37. Women leaders’ interactive leadership style developed A. Due to their socialization experiences and career paths B. Because of exchanges with subordinates for services rendered C. By influencing others primarily through their organizational position and authority D. Because of their organizational position 38. According to female executives, what is the major factor that prevents senior female executives from advancing to corporate leadership? A. Lack of significant general management B. Male stereotyping and preconceptions C. Inhospitable corporate culture D. Exclusion from informal networks

651

DPKP 39. According to female executives. Which of the following factors least prevents women from advancing to corporate leadership? A. Women not being in the pipeline long enough B. Exclusion from informal networks C. Inhospitable corporate culture D. Lack of significant line experience 40. Most male ceos attribute the paucity of women in corporate leadership roles to which of the following? A. Exclusion from informal networks B. Women not in pipeline long enough . C. Male stereotyping and preconceptions D. Inadequacies in the quality of experience for the top spots 41. According to a recent study, one of the general factors that explains the shift toward more women leaders is that women themselves have change It is evident in all except: A. A trend toward less stereotypically masculine characterizations of leadership B. Women’s aspirations and attitudes have become less similar to those of men over time C. A legislation prohibiting gender-based discrimination at work D. Changes in organizational norms that put a higher priority on results than an “old boy” network 42. The symbolic message often intended by appointment of women to important leadership positions is evidence of the fact that A. Culture has changed B. Women themselves have changed C. Leadership roles have changed D. Organizational practices have changed

652

DPKP 43. Which of the following statements concerning the reflection component of the AOR model is false? A. Leaders are always aware of the value of reflection in leadership development B. It is the most neglected component of the AOR model C. It can provide leaders with a variety of insights into how to frame problems differently D. A reason for the reflection component to be neglected often may be due to time pressure at work 44. What describes a kind of learning between the individual and the environment in which learners seek relatively little feedback that may significantly confront their fundamental ideas or actions? A. Deutero-learning B. Double loop learning C. Triple-loop learning D. Single-loop learning 45. Confronting one’s beliefs, inviting others to challenge you and working on personal blind spots are aspects of the process of A. Attribution B. Double-loop learning C. Self-fulfilling prophecy D. Single-loop learning 46. Mastering _____ can be thought of as learning how to learn. A. Double-loop learning B. Single-loop learning C. Deutero-learning D. Triple-loop learningunit 1 Examination 32

653

DPKP 47. People who become leaders in any field tend to first stand out by virtue of their A. Interpersonal skills B. Technical proficiency C. Emotional intelligence D. Intercultural competence 48. In an organization, one can gain valuable perspectives and insights through close association with an experienced person willing to take one under his/her wing. Such an individual is often called a A. Supervisor B. Facilitator C. Role model D. Mentor 49. The process by which an older and more experienced person helps to socialize and encourage younger organizational colleagues is called A. Evaluating B. Consulting C. Mentoring D. Networking 50. How are mentorees benefited in a mentoring relationship? A. By gaining an influential ally and by learning about the subtler aspects of organizational ethics B. By the greater influence they accrue by having former mentorees in various positions across the organization C. By having a younger replacement ready to fill their position if they are promoted D. By encouraging younger colleagues in the organization

654

DPKP 51. What is seen as an investment that can help change counterproductive behavior, often interpersonal, that threatens to derail an otherwise valued manager? A. Mentoring B. Executive coaching C. Team building D. Change management 52. The proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook is to __________. A. Erase the entry and rewrite B. Draw several lines through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction C. Completely black out the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction D. Draw one line through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction 53. Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that one of the crew members has been incarcerated for drunkenness. The Official Logbook shows that the seaman doesn't have funds to cover the costs of the fine. Which action should the Master take? A. Inventory his gear and send it and a pay voucher ashore with the agent. B. Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a fail to join after the vessel sails. C. Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a deserter after the vessel sails. D. Pay the seaman's fine. 54. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a foreign port and fails to return. The first report you make should be to the __________. A. Customs Service B. Immigration Service C. Local police D. OCMI

655

DPKP 55. Your vessel is on an extended foreign voyage. Several vacancies have occurred in your unlicensed crew through sickness and repatriation. Which statement is correct? A. Aliens may be employed except that all U.S. flag vessels must maintain no less than 90% U.S. citizens in the crew. B. Qualified aliens may be employed to fill the vacancies. C. Seamen to fill vacancies must be flown from U.S. to join the vessel in the foreign port. D. Vacancies can only be filled by U.S. citizens with valid Merchant Mariner's Documents. 56. While a vessel is in a foreign port where there is no American Consul, a seaman becomes violent prior to sailing. The Master should __________. A. Call local police, put the seaman in prison ashore, and sail the vessel B. Pay off the seaman and make arrangements with the agent to return him to the original port of signing on in the U.S. C. Put the seaman in irons and sail to the next port where there is an American Consul D. Send the seaman ashore and arrange with the agent to repatriate him by armed guard 57. A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when __________. A. Intoxicated B. The vessel is overloaded C. There is a change of home port D. There is a change of Master

656

DPKP 58. A vessel arrives in a foreign port and the Master is informed that the vessel is being sold to foreign interests. The new owners request that the crew remain on board to complete the voyage. Under these circumstances, the crew __________. A. Has the right to an immediate discharge and transportation to original port of engagement B. Must remain on board C. Must comply with the decision made by the Master D. Must remain aboard until the vessel is delivered to the new owners at a mutually agreed upon port 59. Who is responsible for providing urine specimen collection kits to be used following a serious marine incident? A. Qualified medical personnel B. The marine employer C. The U.S. Coast Guard D. The local police department 60. If there are any changes in the crew in a foreign port, the changes will be made by __________. A. The Master on the Certified Crew List B. The Master on the Shipping Articles C. Consul on the Certified Crew List D. Consul on the Shipping Articles 61. The damage to a vessel is over $25,000. Who must notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as possible? A. The crew members B. The Master of the vessel C. The port authorities D. All of the above

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DPKP 62. A seaman lost his continuous discharge book during the voyage. Upon discharge from Articles, he should be issued a __________. A. Letter of service on company letterhead signed and sealed by the master B. Record of Entry in a Continuous Discharge Book for use in applying for a duplicate book C. Certificate of Discharge with the white copy forwarded to the Commandant D. Mutual Release (CG-2119), and the articles should be annotated as to the loss 63. A seaman about to be discharged has a Continuous Discharge Book. Which statement is TRUE? A. A Certificate of Discharge Form should be attached to the book. B. An entry should be made in the book and a Certificate of Discharge Form issued to the seaman. C. If a vessel was on coastwise articles, the record of discharge will be made in the Official Logbook. D. The record of entry in the book must be submitted to the Coast Guar 64. Total responsibility for shipping and discharging the seamen is that of the __________. A. Master of the vessel B. Steamship company C. Custom Service D. Coast Guard 65. Which action will take place if a crew member is replaced in a U.S. port after foreign articles have been signed, and the ship proceeds foreign? A. The Master will remove the replaced man's name from the Certified Crew List but not from the articles. B. The name of the new man is added to the articles but not to the Certified Crew List. C. The U.S. Consul will remove the replaced man's name from the Certified Crew List.

658

DPKP

D. The U.S. Consul will add the new man's name to the Certified Crew List. 66. The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a "T-Boat" involved in a marine casualty causing injury that requires professional medical treatment must __________. A. Immediately notify the nearest USCG MSO, MIO, or Group Office B. Keep all voyage records and make them available to Coast Guard investigators C. File a written report (CG2692) of the casualty within five days D. All of the above 67. What requires a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death? A. Collision with a bridge B. Injury beyond first aid C. Loss of life D. All of the above 68. Operators of Uninspected Passenger Vessels are required to keep their Coast Guard License aboard __________. A. Only when operating more than one mile from shore B. Only when operating at night C. Only when carrying passengers for hire D. At all times 69. You have completed a Dangerous Cargo Manifest for dangerous cargoes loaded on boar It should be kept in a conspicuous location __________. A. In the radio room B. In the ship's office C. On or near the bridge D. Outside the Captain's stateroom

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DPKP 70. You are steaming in a heavy gale and find it necessary to heave to. Under most circumstances, this is best done by __________. A. Stopping the engines and drifting beam to the seas B. Going slow astern and taking the seas on the quarter C. Taking the sea fine on the bow and reducing the speed to the minimum to hold that position D. Maintaining speed and taking the sea broad on the bow 71. The document which shows a vessel's nationality, ownership, and tonnage is the __________. A. Manifest Certificate B. Bill of Lading Certificate C. Certificate of Documentation D. Official Logbook 72. The official identification of a vessel is found in the __________. A. Certificate of Inspection B. Classification Certificate C. Load Line Certificate D. Certificate of Documentation 73. The term bullwhip effect is most closely related to: A. Assertive customers B. Demand variations C. Inventory turnover D. Return of inventory E. Inventory security 74. Cross docking results in cost savings associated with A. Dock space B. Ordering goods C. Cargo ships D. Storage space

660

DPKP

E. Down time 75. Which one is not a requirement of effective supply chain management? A. Low cost B. Trust C. Event management D. Visibility 76. The term "3PL" is most closely associated with A. Outsourcing B. E-commerce C. Learning curves D. Mass customization E. Cross docking 77. The letters RFID are most closely associated with A. Outsourcing B. Tracking items C. Cross docking D. Event management E. None of these. 78. Which one of these would have a negative impact on inventory costs? A. Disintermediation B. Delayed differentiation C. Cross docking D. Bullwhip effect 79. Which one is not a reason for increased emphasis on supply chain management? A. Increased levels of outsourcing B. Increased transportation costs C. Trends towards globalization D. The need to improve internal operations

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DPKP 80. Which of the following statements concerning manufacturing and service organizations is generally true? A. A service facility is more likely to serve national or even international markets B. Manufacturing organizations generally find it more difficult to match capacity with demand C. In many service organizations customers themselves are inputs to the transformation processes. D. Most service organizations can buffer themselves against uncertain demand by creating inventories and smoothing output levels. 81. Operations typically differ in terms of volume of output, variety of output, variation in demand or the degree of ‘visibility’ (ie, customer contact) that they give to customers of the delivery process. Please match the following element with the most appropriate of the above dimensions. Low unit costs are most closely matched to:A. Variety B. Variation C. Volume D. Visibility 82. Which of the following is an implication of low variety? A. Low unit cost B. Flexibility needed C. High complexity D. Matching customers specific needs 83. In a service organisation faced with variable demand the Operations Manager can help smooth demand by: A. Using part-time help during peak hours B. Scheduling work shifts to vary workforce needs according to demand C. Increase the customer self-service content of the service D. Using reservations and appointments

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DPKP 84. When developing the operations strategy one of the most important considerations is that it: A. Requires minimal capital investment B. Utilises as much automation as possible C. Utilises an equal balance of labour and automation D. Supports the overall competitive strategy of the company 85. A order qualifying characteristic could be described as : A. A factor which significantly contributes to winning business B. A factor which may be of significance in other parts of the organisation C. A factor which is at a higher level than the standard for the industry D. A factor which has to achieve a particular level to be considered by the customer 86. Expansion by acquisition of suppliers and customers, illustrates which of the following strategies A. Vertical integration strategy B. Facilities strategy C. Planning and control systems strategy D. Supplier development strategy 87. Process design or redesign is most important when A. Current performance is adequate B. You have a significant competitive advantage C. Competitive priorities have changed D. The cost of inputs remain stable 88. Service shops are characterised as which of the following? A. Some customer contact, a degree of customisation and some staff discretion B. Project orientated with little customisation C. Many customer transactions, involving limited contact time D. High-contact organisations where customers spend a considerable time in the service process

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DPKP 89. A big advantage of a process layout is A. Its flexibility B. Its low cost C. The ability to employ low-skilled labour D. Its high equipment utilization 90. As production systems move from projects to batch production to mass production to continuous production A. Processes become more flexible B. Customer involvement with the process increases C. Products become more standardised D. Demand volumes decrease 91. Which one of the following reactive alternatives would typically be best to implement a chase strategy for a manufacturing firm? A. Use creative pricing to modify demand B. Build anticipation inventory to absorb the variability in demand C. Increase overtime to satisfy peaks in demand D. Use promotional campaigns to boost demand 92. Buffer inventory is required as : A. One or more stages in the operation cannot supply all the items it produces simultaneously B. Material cannot be transported instantaneously between the point of supply and the point of demand C. Compensation for the uncertainties inherent in supply and demand D. Compensation for differences in the timing of supply and demand 93. At a strategic level, the essential role of inventory is to support : A. Quality, dependability, flexibility, cost and speed B. Flexibility, dependability and quality C. Cost and speed D. Range, speed, flexibility and dependability

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DPKP 94. Where demand is uncertain, a key purchasing objective will be : A. Fast delivery B. High quality C. Low price D. Dependable delivery 95. In lean systems, if a defective product if found, which of the following is generally NOT done? A. The production line is stopped B. The defective unit is passed on to the next workstation C. The defective unit is returned to the worker responsible for creating the defect D. The production line is made aware of the problem without stopping the line 96. Which of the following illustrates an activity that does not add value? A. Training employees B. Ordering parts from a supplier C. Accumulating parts in front of the next work centre D. Delivering the product to the customer 97. Job design does not involve which one of the following considerations : A. How much autonomy should be given to individual employees? B. What tasks should be allocated? C. Who should be involved / consulted? D. Ignoring where the job is located 98. Within a typical behavioural model of job design, which of the following would be considered as representing core job characteristics? A. Task combination / task identity / autonomy B. Vertical loading / skill variety / output C. Task identity / task significance / autonomy D. Cultural advancement / absenteeism / nationality

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DPKP 99. When a worker has a say in the work methods that he/she wishes to utilise in his/her job is characterised by : A. Skill variety B. Job identity C. Job significance D. Autonomy 100. Which of the following is NOT considered effective in achieving and maintaining service quality? A. Encouraging service providers to be highly visible in dealing with customers B. Establishing peer groups among service providers to foster teamwork and a sense of pride C. Installing system of incentives that emphasises quality D. Increasing supervision of service providers 101. A quality variable A. Takes discrete values B. May be measured on a continuous scale C. Is continually changing D. Is highly undesirable 102. Which of the following is an indirect benefit of improved quality? A. Improved image B. Reduced cost of inspection C. Reduced scrap D. Reduced inventory 103. A ‘moment of truth’ is NOT A. An opportunity to influence a customer’s perception of the service quality B. Critical in achieving a reputation for superior quality C. When the customer is forming an opinion about the efficiency of the service D. An interaction between the customer and a service provider

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DPKP 104. Proactive quality management includes the concept of A. Quality improvement costs more B. Needing to find out who is responsible for the quality problem C. Getting the service to the customer as soon as possible D. Highlighting problems to help solve them 105. Zero defects in manufacturing A. Is an unobtainable and misleading ideal B. Is the goal of TQM C. Is readily achievable in all areas D. Is a relevant goal only in electronic assembly 106. Which of the following represent reasons for globalising operations? A. To gain improvements in the supply chain B. To improve operations C. To expand a product’s life cycle D. All of the above 107. Which of the following is not a key activity of an operations manager? A. Understanding the needs of customer B. Continually learning C. Managing cash flows D. Exploiting technology to produce goods and services 108. Which of the following is not true regarding the differences between goods and services? A. Demand for services is easier to forecast B. Customers participate in many services C. Services cannot be stored as physical inventory D. Patents do not protect services

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DPKP 109. Service organizations generally A. Locate in close proximity to the customer B. Rely on physical inventory C. Take advantage of patents D. Can delegate human behaviour and marketing skills

110. The following terms - interchangeability of parts, division of labour, highly repetitive tasks - best focus on ____. A. Quality B. Cost and efficiency C. Quality D. Time 111. Which of the following is generally related to service operations? A. Tangible product B. Need for flexible capacity C. Separation of production from consumption D. Large amount of inventory 112. Which function typically employs more people than any other functional area? A. Information Systems B. Operations C. Marketing D. Finance 113. The ____ of a firm defines its reason for existence. A. Strategy development B. Strategic mission C. Vision statement D. Value and code of ethics

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DPKP 114. The ____ describes where the organization is headed and what it intends to be. A. Strategy development B. Strategic mission C. Vision statement D. Value and code of ethics 115. A company’s mission statement A. Is changed quite frequently B. Helps identify its target customers and competitors C. Describes in specific terms what the company expects to accomplish D. Occurs after strategy development 116. Which of the following statements is false? A. There are two possible operations objectives (cost and speed). B. Strategy is concerned with the actions an organization takes in order to survive and prosper in its environment over the long term. C. Strategy can exist at three levels in an organization: corporate, business and functional. D. An organization’s operations can be a source of competitive advantage 117. Who is responsible for the safe keeping of the ship's documents? a. Master b. 3rd Officer c. Chief Engineer d. Chief Officer

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DPKP

20. Pengorganisasian dan pengelolaan alat kelengkapan penanganan medis di kapal. (Organize and manage the provision of medical care on board ) 1.

A burn may occur when electricity of high current and voltage passes through the body. Most damage occurs at the points of entry and exit of electricity. What is the treatment of electrical burns? A. Place sterile dressing over the burn and secure with a bandage. B. Break

blisters

and

secure

with

bandage. C. Remove loose skin and apply ointment. Don't secure with bandage. D. Apply lotions and ointment to injured area and secure with a bandage.

2.

A diabetic has eaten too little food and the person may feel dizzy and lightheaded. The skin becomes pale, with profuse sweathing. Limbs may begin to tremble and pulse becomes rapid. The urine glucose reaction is negative. What kind of medicine will the person need as soon as possible? A. Sugar lump, sugar drink or something sweet. B. Insuline. C. A glass of cold milk. D. Nothing at all.

3.

A person slowly feels more sleepy and thirsty. The skin and slimhinner become very dry and there is a sweet taste of the breath. The glucose reaction shows positive. What kind of medicine will the person need as soon as possible? A. Insulin. B. A glass of cold milk. C. Sugar lump, sugar drink or something sweet. D. Nothing at all.

670

DPKP

4.

A severe blow to or a heavy fall on the upper part of the abdomen (solar plexus) can upset the regularity of breathing. What is the symptoms and signs? A. Difficulty in breathing in and the casualty may be unable to speak. B. The

casualty

may

start

sweating

profusely and develops a fever. C. The casualty feel very hungry. D. The casualty is speaking in a very load manner.

5.

A strain occurs when a muscle or group of muscles is over- stretched and possibly torn, by violent or sudden movement. Strain can be caused by lifting heavy weights incorrectly. The treatment of strain may be remembered as the word RICE.What is RICE an abbreviation for? A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. B. Right Internal Cooperative Ending. C. Rest, Injury, Care, Evaluation. D. Rubber, Internal, Careful, Estimation.

6.

As with heat burns the damage of frostbite /hypothermia may be either superficial or deep, and the affected tissues may be destroyed. What kind of first aid should be given a person with frostbite ? A. Hand or body heat the affected parts skin-to-skin (e.g. frozen hand in persons opposite armpit...) B. Heat the affected area with hot-water bottles. C. Rub the affected area. D. Give the casualty a cigarette.

671

DPKP

7.

Asthma is a distressing condition in which the muscles of the air passage go into spasm. How can the asthma attacks be triggered off ? A. Nervous tension,allergy, or none obvious cause. B. Not keeping the diet C. Loud music D. Too much fresh air activity

8.

Chemical burns in eyes or on the skin can cause severe damage. Some chemicals may be absorbed through the skin and cause widespread and sometimes fatal damage within the body. What is the first main treatment if someone is a victim of chemical burns? A. Remove any contaminated clothing and flood the affected area with slowly running water.

Make sure that the

contaminated water drains away freely and safely. B. Break possible blisters around the eye and mouth. C. Apply lotions, ointments to the affected area ASAP. D. The casualty may be free to both rub the eye and the affected area.

9.

Due to exposure to heat fatigue, heat stroke and dehydration, what is the maximum recommended effective temperature (ET) for full work load in enclosed spaces? A. 30.5°C ET? B. 27.5°C ET? C. 35.0°C ET? D. 29.0°C ET?

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DPKP

10. How do the human body absorb toxicants? A. The human body absorb toxicants through respiration, skin and the aliment channel B. The

body

absorb

toxicants

through

respiration if the leak is big enough C. The body absorb toxicants only through the aliment channel when eating D. The body absorb toxicants only if we wear wrong clothes

11. How will you treat a seasick person? A. Leave him in bed or request him to have some fresh air. B. Force him to eat any kind of fat food. C. Encourage him to drink a lot of lukewarm sea water. D. Make him swallow seasick pills until he stops vomiting.

12. In which way may intake of poisoning material occur? A. By inhaling, skin penetrating, skin absorbing and swallowing B. By skin penetrating, skin absorbing and swallowing C. By inhaling, skin penetrating and skin absorbing D. By swallowing

13. Severe pains in the chest occur when the coronary arteries, which supply blood to the heart, become too narrow for sufficient oxygenated blood to reach the muscles of the heart. Normally these attacks only last a few minutes, and the pain stops if the casualty rests. What kind of medicine to be taken when an Angina Pectoris attack occurs? A. Nitro glycerine tablets. B. Petidin. C. Nitro hydrogen tablets. D. Chlorocin Phosphate.

673

DPKP

14. Sun rays and light reflected from a bright surface (e.g. sea); can cause damage to the skin and eyes. What is this type of burn called? A. Radiation burns. B. Electrical burns. C. Dry burns. D. Cold burns.

15. There are three levels of burning, namely:*Superficial *Intermediate*Deep burns (also called full-thickness burns) A large burn will almost certainly contain areas of all three grades. How many per cent of the body may be burned before the danger of shock occurs? A. 15 percent. B. 9 percent. C. 35 percent. D. 4 percent.

16. Water Jel is a unique product regarding protection and first aid of burns. Water Jel is delivered in different sizes. Biggest is a carpet with the size 182cm x 152 cm. What is the highest temperature the Water Jel carpet is resistant against? A. 1530 C B. 2500 C C. 823 C D. 414 C

17. What is Hypothermia and how is it cured? A. Body temperature below 35C / Heat the body B. Heavy coughing / Medication C. Body temperature above 39C / Cooling down the body D. Body temp below 23C / Slowly heat the body

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DPKP

18. What is the first sign and symptom of a Cardiac Infarction? A. Sudden crushing, vice-like pain in the centre of the chest. B. Strong and painful pulse. C. Skin may be red and loss of movements in the right arm may occur. D. Possible frothing at the mouth.

19. What is the purpose of a Medico Message? A. Call an hospital for professional medical assistance by radio when needed. B. Giving a regular statement of the health of the vessel's crew. C. Calling the health department in the next port of call and ask for free radio practice. D. Medico is the certificate which permit the Master to be doctor onboard.

20. Which organs absorb oxygen and part with carbon dioxide? A. The respiratory organs. B. The digestive organs. C. The urine organs. D. The skin

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