Easy Anat

2 I. Multiple Choice 1. Salient characteristic thymus is the presence of a. Germinal center c. Hassal’s corpuscles b. Peyer patches d. Central arteries 2. Salient characteristic of lymph glands a. Germinal center c. Hassal’s corpuscles b. Peyer patches d. Central arteries 3. Which of the following is an encapsulated peripheral lymphoid organ that serves as a primary immunologic filter of blood? a. Bone Marrow c. Thymus b. Lymph node d. Spleen 4. Motile process with highly organized microtubules a. Centrioles c. Stereocilia b. Cilia d. None of these 5. The following are characteristic features of epithelia EXCEPT a. Highly cellular c. Highly vascular b. Presence of basement membrane d. High polarity 6. The unit membrane of a cell under EM is a ________ layer a. Bilipid c. Phospholipid b. Trilaminar d. Peripheral protein 7. Concentration and packaging of secretory products is subserved by the a. mitochondria c. lysosomes b. Golgi Apparatus d. microbodies 8. Sebaceous gland is an example of what type of gland a. merocrine c. holocrine b. apocrine d. none of these 9. Which tissue type lines most of the urinary passages and bladder a. nonkeratinized stratified squamous c. transitional b. simple ciliated columnar d. pseudostratified columnar 10. Plasma cells are derived from a. monocytes c. T-Lymphocytes b. mesenchymes d. B-Lymphocytes 11. The most common connective tissue cell that is responsible for the synthesis of fibers and intercellular ground substance a. fibroblasts c. mesenchymes b. osteoclasts d. chondroblasts 12. Which of the following cells synthesize antibodies a. plasma cells c. adipocytes b. macrophages d. mast cells 13. Site of hyaline cartilage in adult a. trachea c. vertebral disks b. external ear d. epiglottis 14. Characteristics of cartilage EXCEPT a. low metabolic rate c. vascular b. grows only by interstitial growth d. contain collagenous fibers 15. The major bone-forming cells are the a. osteoprogenitor cells c. osteoclasts b. osteoblasts d. osteocytes 16. Collection of neuron cell bodies in the central nervous system is referred to as: a. ganglia c. nuclei b. nodes d. neuroglia 17. The following are intrinsic muscles of the back EXCEPT: a. iliocostalis c. latissumis dorsi b. longisimus d. spinalis 18. The following cervical vertebra are atypical EXCEPT a. atlas c. 6th cervical b. axis d. 7th cervical 19. The first cervical vertebrae a. does not possess a body and a spinous process b. has peglike odontoid process c. has the longest spinous process d. none of these 20. Total number of vertebral column a. 30 b. 33 c. 32 d.35 21. Axillary artery becomes the brachial artery at the level of a. 1st rib c. neck of the radius b. lower board of teres major d. none of these

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Wristdrop, or flexion of the wrist, occurs as a result of damage to what nerve a. ulnar c. median b. radial d. musculocutaneous 23. “Apelike” appearance of the hand occur as a result of damage to what nerve a. ulnar c. median b. radial d. musculocutaneous 24. “Claw-hand deformity” is common to damage of what nerve a. ulnar c. median b. radial d. musculocutaneous 25. Brachial artery terminates at a. middle half of the shaft of humerus c. around the cubital fossa b. neck of the radius d. lateral portion of the ulna 26. Anatomic standing position EXCEPT a. upper limbs at the sides, palms facing the body b. upper limbs hanging easily at the sides with palms facing forward c. feet slightly separated and parallel d. individual stands erect 27. Which of the following has a pyknotic nucleus a. promyelocytes c. normoblasts b. basophilic erythroblasts d. reticulocytes 28. Which of the following cells in the bone marrow has a multilobulated nucleus a. megakaryocytes c. myeloblasts b. normoblast d. promyelocytes 29. Cells primarily responsible for humoral immunity a. B-Lymphocytes c. plasma cells B. T-Lymphocytes d. mast cells 30. Cells primarily responsible for cell-meditated immunity a. B-Lymphocytes c. Plasma Cells b. T-Lymphocytes d. metamyelocytes 31. Sideward movement away from the midline a. adduction c. lateral Flexion b. abduction d. hyperabduction 32. An orderly sequence of movements which occurs in the sagittal, frontal, and intermediate oblique planes a. rotation c.supination b. circumduction d. hyperadduction 33. Primary curvatures that developed during the fetal period a. thoracic and cervical c. thoracic and sacral b. lumbar and sacral d. none of these 34. The main ligamentous union between the clavicle and the remainder of the upper limbs is the a. coracoacromial ligament c. sternoclavicular ligament b. costoclaviular ligament d. coracoclavicular ligament 35. Abnormal lateral deviation of the vertebral curvature a. lordosis c. scoliosis b. kyphosis d. none of these 36. The largest carpal bone is the a. lunate c.scaphoid b. capitates d. pisiform 37. Which carpal bone lies on the floor of the “anatomical snuffbox” a. trapezium c.hamate b. scaphoid d. trapezoid 38. Anterior wall of the axilla EXCEPT a. pectoralis muscle c. clavipectoral fascia b.subclavius d. latissimus dorsi 39. The plane that cuts the body into an anterior and posterior part is the : a. midsagittal plane c. coronal plane b. cross-section d. sagittal plane 40. Movements in the sagittal plane about a frontal axis EXCEPT a. flexion c. hyperflexion b. extension d. abduction 41. Which of the following nerves is damaged if there is loss of sensation and paralysis of muscles on the plantar aspect of the medial side of the foot? a. common peroneal c. sural b. tibial d.deep peroneal

2 Ligament that prevents anterior displacement of the femur on the tibia when the knee is flexed a. anterior cruciate c. tibial collateral b. fibular collateral d. posterior cruciate 43. “Foot drop” and loss of sensation on the dorsum of the foot and lateral aspect of the leg is common in damage of what nerve? a. common peroneal c. sciatic b. tibial d. sural 44. The fusion of bony components of the hip bones occur at the a. obturator foramen c.acetabulum b. sacrum d. sacroiliac joint 45. In proper sitting position, the bony support of the body is concentrated in the a. buttocks c.coccyx b. sacrum d. isichial tuberosity 46. The largest and strongest bone of the foot a. talus c. navicular b. calcaneus d. cuboid 47. The inability to extend the leg at the knee joint indicate paralysis of which of the following muscles? a. semitendinosus c. gracilis b. Sartorius d. quadriceps femoris 48. The inability to dorsiflex the foot indicates damage to what muscle a. Tibialis posterior c. Tibialis anterior b. peroneus longus d. vastus lateralis 49. Muscle of the anterior compartment of the thigh EXCEPT a. Sartorius c.semimembranosus b. vastus medialis d. vastus lateralis 50. Structures that passes the greater sciatic foramen EXCEPT a. piriformis muscle c. nerve to quadratus femoris b. gluteal vessels and nerves d. obturator nerve?? 51. Which of the following is located at the transition between the conducting and respiratory portions of the respiratory tract? a. bronchioles c. respiratory bronchioles b. primary bronchi d. secondary bronchi 52. C-shaped hyaline cartilages are characteristic features of the walls of which of the following structures? a. alveolar duct c. trachea b. bronchi d. bronchioles 53. The “orange peel” appearance of the skin of the mammary gland with CA is due to the pull f the a. lactiferous duct c. Suspensory ligament of Cooper b. sappeys plexus d. axillary tail of spence 54. The lungs is a direct derivative of the: a. pharynx c. midgut b. foregut d. esophagus 55. Pneumothorax is a condition when there is _______________ in the pleural cavity a. Fluid c. Air b. Blood d. A, B and C 56. An aspirated object by a patient would most likely be located in the _____________ lung a. Left upper lobe c. Right upper lobe b. Left lower lobe d. Right lower lobe 57. The motor innervation of the respiratory diaphragm a. Intercostal nerve c. Vagus nerve b. Phrenic nerve d. A,B and C 58. Structure passing through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm a. Vagus nerve c. Inferior vena cava b. Phrenic nerve d. Azygus vein 59. The structure passing the opening of the diaphragm at the level of the 10th thoracic vertebrae: a. Esophagus c. Aorta b. Phrenic nerve d. None of these 60. The apex of the heart is part of the: a. Right ventricle c. Interventricular septum b. Left ventricle d. None of these 61. Which of the following glands lack serous acini but contains serous demilunes? a. Liver c. Pancreas b. Parotid gland d. Sublingual gland 42.

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Which of the following glands contain both mucous and serous adenomere? a. Liver c. Pancreas b. Parotid gland d. Sublingual gland 63. Which of the following structures acts primarily o promote the absorption of nutrients by increasing the internal surface area of the small intestines a. Goblet cells c. Peyer’s patches b. Microvilli d. Teniae coli 64. Most numerous lingual papillae of the tongue a. Fungiform c. Filiform b. Circumvallate d. Foliate 65. The hardest component of the human body a. Enamel c. Cementum b. Dentin d. Alveolar bone 66. Human adults normally have __________ permanent teeth a. 30 b. 32 c. 20 d. 33 67. Contents of the portal triad EXCEPT: a. Portal vein c. Hepatic vein b. Hepatic artery d. Bile duct 68. Glands found in the submucosa of the duodenum a. Gastric glands c. Brunner’s glands b. Von ebner’s gland d. None of these 69. Permanent circular folds (plica circulares) are a characteristic structural feature of the walls of which of the following organs? a. Anal Canal c. Colon b. Cecum d. Small intestines 70. Which of the following organs characteristically contains the most goblet cells in the mucosa coveing its villi? a. villi c. ileum b. colon d. duodenum 71. Melanin synthesis involves conversion of what amino acid? a. Lysine c. Phenylalanine b. Tyrosine d. None of these 72. In humans, the first bone to calcify: a. Humerus c. Clavicle b. Hard palate d. 7th cervical vertebrae 73. True regarding epithelial tissue EXCEPT: a. Epithelia rest on basal lamina b. Epithelia are highly vascularized c. Epithelia are capable of metaplasia d. Epithelia covers or lines body surfaces 74. Which of the following is the approximate life span of an erythrocyte? a. 8 days c. 5 weeks b. 20 days d. 4 months 75. Which of the following is true of gallbladder? a. Dilutes bile c. Secretes bile b. Absorbs bile d. Stores bile 76. The fundus of the gallbladder usually lies opposite the tip of the right costal cartilage. a. 7th b. 8th c. 9th d. 10th 77. The common bile duct terminates in the medial wall of the ___________ part of the duodenum a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 4th 78. Ligament that divides the liver into left and right lobe a. Triangular ligament c. Ligamentum Teres b. Falciform ligament d. Coronary Ligament 79. This muscle augments the action of rectus abdominis muscle a. External Oblique c. Transversus abdominis b. Internal Oblique d. Pyramidalis 80. Separates the duodenum from the jejunum a. Triangular Ligament c. Ligament of treitz b. Tuber Omentale d. Round Ligament 81. The testis is encapsulated by dense fibrous tissue known as: a. Tunica vaginalis c. Tunica intima b. Tunica albugenea d. None of these 82. The major site of storage of newly formed spermatozoa a. Seminal vesicle c. Epididymis b. Prostate d. Testes

2 Which of the following is the most common site of disease in older males? a. Penile urethra c. Prostate b. Seminal vesicle d. Membranous urethra 84. Which of the following hormones is a glucocorticoids? a. Aldosterone c. Glucagon c. Corticosterone d. Dehydoepiandrosterone 85. Hormones produced in response to decreased blood calcium level a. Glucagon c. Calcitonin b. Insulin d. Parathyroid hormones 86. Body’s basal metabolic rate is increased is increased by what type of hormones? a. Glucagon c. Tyroxine b. Insulin d. Pancreatic polypeptides 87. Epinephrine and Norepinephrine are hormones produced by what part of the adrenal glands? a. Zona glomerulosa c. Adrenal medulla b. Zona fasciculate d. Zona reticularis 88. Branches of the anterior division of the internal iliac artery EXCEPT: a. Testicular artery c. Inferior vesical artery b. Uterine artery d. Middle rectal artery 89. Muscles that compress the vagina and act like a sphincter EXCEPT: a. Pubovaginalis c. External Urethral artery b. Ischiocavernosus d. Bulbospongiosus 90. Part of the broad ligament of the uterus forming mesentery of the uterine tubes a. Mesometrium c. Mesosalpinx b. Suspensory ligament d. Mesovarium 91. The urogenital diaphragm is formed by all of the following structures EXCEPT: a. Deep transverse perineal muscle c. Perineal membrane b. Colles fascia d. Sphincter urethral muscle 92. Prostate lobe that can be palpated on digital rectal examination a. Anterior c. Posterior b. Lateral d. None of these 93. Which of the following produce both androgen-binding protein and inhibin? a. Leydig cells c. Myoepithelial cells b. Sertoli cells d. Fibroblasts 94. Which of the following is a connective tissue sheath that surround each seminiferous tubules? a. Dartos tunic c. Tunica propria b. Septum d. Tunica albuginea 95. Ovulation is triggered by a surge in the release of which substance by the hypothalamic neurons? a. Dopamine c. Luteinizing hormone b. Follicle stimulating hormone d. Somatostatin 96. Which of the following cell types characteristically produces glucagon? a. A (alpha) cells c. C (parafolicullar) cells b. B (beta) cells d. D (delta) cells 97. The uterus is related anteriorly to the: a. Broad ligament c. Rectouterine pouch b. Vesicouterine pouch d. None of these 98. Laterally, the broad ligament is prolonged superiorly as the: a. Mesometrium c. Suspensory ligament of the ovary b. Ligament of the ovary d. Cardinal ligament 99. Most common site of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) a. Central Zone c. Transition Zone b. Peripheral Zone d. None of these 100. Ovarian follicle composed of primary oocyte surrounded by a single layer of flattened follicular cells a. Primary follicle c. Mature follicle b. Secondary follicle d. Primodial follicle 101. The carotid sheath embedded the following EXCEPT: a. Common and Internal carotid arteries b. Internal jugular vein c. Vagus nerve d. External jugular vein 83.

102. This muscle divides the neck into 2 major triangle a. Sternocleidomastoid c. Trapezius b. Platysma d. Omohyoid 103. This muscle divides the posterior triangle into smaller triangle a. Omohyoid c. Sternocleidomastoid b. Platysma d. Omohyoid 104. Muscles of mastication EXCEPT: a. Buccinator c. Medial pterygoid b. Masseter d. Lateral pterygoid 105. The most common site of fracture of the mandible a. Angle c. Body b. Alveolar process d. Condylar process 106. General sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is provided by this nerve: a. Trigeminal nerve c. Glossopharygeal nerve b. Hypoglossal nerve d. Facial nerve 107. All intrinsic muscles of the larynx are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve EXCEPT: a. Cricothyroid c. Lateral cricoarytenoids b. Interarytenoids d. Posterior cricoarytenoids 108. The orifice of the parotid duct opens into the oral vestibule opposite the: a. 1st molar tooth c. 2nd molar tooth b. Third molar tooth d. “wisdom tooth” 109. The only paranasal sinuses present at birth a. Frontal and sphenoid c. Frontal and maxillary b. Maxillary and ethmoid d. Ethmoid and frontal 110. The largest paranasal sinus a. Sphenoidal c. Ethmoidal b. Frontal d. Maxillary 111. The major arterial supply of the internal nose is: a. Anterior ethmoidal artery c. Sphenopalatine artery b. Posterior ethmoidal artery d. Greater palatine artery 112. Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for retraction of the tongue upward and backward? a. Styloglossus c. Hyoglossus b. Palatoglossus d. Genioglossus 113. The superficial fascia of the neck forms a thin layer that encloses what muscle? a. Sternocleidomastoid c. Trapezius b. Platysma d. All of the above 114. Pterion is the fusion of the following bones EXCEPT: a. Sphenoid bone c. Temporal bone b. Ethmoid bone d. Parietal bone 115. The largest muscle of the body a. Pectoralis major c. Gluteus Maximus b. Teres major d. Quadratus femoris 116. All intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue are innervated by: a. Vagus nerve c. Glossopharyngeal nerve b. Hypoglossal nerve d. Facial nerve 117. The only muscle of the soft palate which also acts as a retractor of the Eustachian tube; a. Musculus uvulae c. Tensor levator palatine b. Levator veli palatini d. Palatopharyngeus 118. This is referred to as the strongest intrinsic laryngeal muscle since it is the sole abductor of the vocal cords a. Cricothyroid c. Lateral cricoarytenoids b. Interarytenoids d. Posterior cricoarytenoids 119. The blood supply of the nasal cavity is from: a. Opthalmic artery c. Facial artery b. Maxillary artery d. All of the above 120. A fibrous band or sheet connecting two or more bones, cartilages or visceral structure is known as: a. Synovial sheet c. Tendon b. Ligament d. Fascia 121. The following foramen are located in the posterior cranial fossa EXCEPT: a. Jugular foramen c. Foramen lacerum b. Hypoglossal canal d. Internal auditory meatus 122. The spinal fluid is secreted by the: a. Choroids plexus c. Pia mater b. Arachnoid granulations d. Arachnoid mater

2 123. A torn meningeal artery is most likely to bleed into a. Epidural space c. Subarachnoid space b. Subdural space d. Dural venous sinuses 124. Arterial supply of Broca’s speech area a. Anterior cerebral c. Middle cerebral b. Posterior cerebral d. Anterior spinal 125. The cerebral aqueduct is located in the a. Forebrain c. Midbrain b. Diencephalon d. Medulla 126. The paracentral lobule of the cerebrum subserves the region of the a. Face c. Upper limbs b. Neck d. Lower limbs 127. Decussation of the fibers of the corticospinal tract occurs in the a. Cerebral peduncle c. Upper medulla b. Pons d. lower medulla 128. The third neuron of the lateral spinothalamic is located in the a. Dorsal root ganglion c. Thalamus b. Interneurons d. Medial lemniscus 129. The cerebrospinal fluid is contained in the a. Epidural space c. Subarachnoid space b. Subdural space d. Underneath pia mater 130. The primary visual cortex a. Area 17 c. Area 19 b. Area 18 d. Area 20 131. The middle meningeal artery exits the skull bone via a. Foramen lacerum c. Foramen spinosum b. Foramen rotundum d. Superior orbital fissure 132. The primary motor area of Brodmann a. Area 4 c. Area 2 b. Area 6 d. Area 8 133. The following nerves are located in the mediolateral surface of the pons EXCEPT a. Abducent c. Vestibulocochlear b. Facial d. Hypoglossal 134. These nerve/s emerges in the midline below the inferior colliculi of the midbrain a. Optic nerve c. Trochlear b. Vestibulocochlear d. Hypoglossal 135. Major component of the basal ganglia nuclei EXCEPT a. Caudate nucleus c. Putamen b. Substantia nigra??? d. Globus pallidus 136. Largest terminal branch of internal carotid artery a. Anterior cerebral c. Middle cerebral b. Posterior cerebral d. Posterior communicating 137. The following arteries contribute to the formation of the circle of Willis EXCEPT a. Posterior communicating c. Posterior cerebral b. Anterior cerebral d. Vertebral artery 138. Most important dural arterial supply a. Ascending pharyngeal c. Occipital b. Middle pharyngeal d. Vertebral *Middle Meningeal

139. Dural sinus formed by union of the inferior sagital sinus and great cerebral vein a. Straight sinus c. Transverse sinus b. Sigmoid sinus d. Occipital sinus 140. The following structures are found in the ventral surface of the medulla EXCEPT: a. Cranial nerve IX, X, XII c. Fasciculus cuneatus b. Pyramid d. Olive 141. What structure is responsible for assembling words into meaningful sentences? a. Area 22 c. Supplementary motor cortx b. Wernicke’s area d. Frontal Association Cortex (Broca’s) 142. This refers to failure of tactile recognition a. Asteriognosia c. Anosognosia b. Prosogpagnosia d. Visual agnosia 143. What type of aphasia presents with impaired repetition; intact fluency, intact comprehension; and may have intact naming as well? a. Broca’s aphasia c. Conduction aphasia b. Wernicke’s aphasia d. Global aphasia 144. What provides the association between the hemispheric white matter? a. Broca’s area c. Angular gyrus b. Arcuate fasciculus d. Supplementary motor cortex 145. What type of aphasia presents with impaired repetition; intact fluency, intact comprehension; and may have intact naming as well? a. Broca’s area c. Angular gyrus b. Arcuate fasciculus d. Supplementary motor cortex 146. The largest intracerebellar nuclei a. Fastigmial c. Dentate b. Emboliformis d. Globose 147. The oldest component of the cerebellum associated with vestibular system a. Anterior lobe c. Flocullonodular lobe b. Middle lobe d. None of these 148. The largest anatomic component of the cerebellum associated with fine voluntary movements: a. Anterior lobe b. Middle lobe c. Flocullonodular lobe d. None of these – Lateral zine of posterior lobe (correct answer) 149. Cells found in the outermost or molecular layer of the cerebellar cortex a. Golgi type I cells b. Purkinje cells b. Stellate cells d. Pyramidal cells 150. Important functions of the cerebellum EXCEPT a. Maintain proper posture and balance b. Discrete, voluntary movements c. Execute sequential movements for eating, dressing and writing d. Participate in repetitive movements and smooth pursuit movements ** not to execute but plan for sequential movements