Neurophysio Easy Mcq

NEURO PHYSIOLOGY 1. The repolarization phase of the action potential is due to: a. Diffusion of chloride into the cell b. Diffusion of potassium out of the cell c. Diffusion of sodium into the cell d. Activation of the sodium-potassium pump 2. Release of neurotransmitters from the nerve terminal by exocytosis would be blocked most effectively by preventing the: a. Propagation of the action potential into the nerve terminal membrane b. Flow of Na+ into the nerve terminal membrane c. Flow of K+ out of the nerve terminal membrane d. Flow of calcium into the nerve terminal membrane 3. Cranial nerves are what type of Neuron? a. Unipolar b. Bipolar c. Multipolar d. None 4. Within the cerebellar cortex is what type of Neuron a. Golgi 1 b. Golgi 2 c. Both d. Neither 5. What organelle is particularly increased in Neurons? a. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticilum b. Rough Endoplasmic Reticilum c. Mitochondria d. Ribosomes 6. Which of the following lines the floor of the 3rd ventricle of the brain? a. Ependymocytes b. Choroidal cells c. Tanycytes d. Microglia

7. Which of the following is not a function of the astrocytes? a. Forms glial scars in areas of injury b. Buffering of potassium concentration c. Transport of CSF d. Metabolism of Nerotransmitter 8. Insulin will increase membrane permeability to glucose in which of the following organs: a. Brain b. Muscles c. Kidney d. Intestines 9. The hormone that stimulates testosterone secretion in males: a. Growth hormone b. Estrogen c. FSH d. LH 10. The most common primary CNS tumor in children: a. Medulloblastoma b. Astrocytis c. Astrocytoma d. None of these 11. Primary lipid of myelin: a. Cerebroside b. Sphingomyelin c. Galactocerebroside d. Galactoside 12. The Resting membrane potential is around: a. -45 mV b. -55 mV c. -65 mV d. -75 mV 13. The following ions are usually higher outside of the cell EXCEPT? a. Chloride b. Potassium c. Sodium

d. Calcium 14. What ion triggers the release of vesicles containing neurotransmitters? a. Calcium b. Sodium c. Chloride d. Potassium 15. This drug is given in Parkinson’s Disease to prevent the enzymatic degradation of Dopamine a. Selegiline b. Bromocriptine c. L-DOPA d. Amantidine 16. GABA is what type of neurotransmitter? a. Amino acid b. Monoamines c. Peptide d. None of These 17. What is known as the primitive brain? a. Cerebellum b. Brainstem c. Cerebral cortex d. Lateral and horizontal head rotation 18. The right hemisphere of the Parietal Lobe is responsible for what? a. Symbolic functions b. Spoken language c. Language comprehension d. Picture identification 19. The Temporal is responsible for which of the following? a. Retention of visual memory b. Language comprehension c. Depth perception d. Body orientation 20. The primary motor cortex is in the: a. Frontal lobe b. Parietal lobe

c. Occipital lobe d. Temporal lobe 21. Which of the following is responsible for planning of coordinated movements like tasks that require 2 hands. a. Posterior parietal cortex b. Premotor cortex c. Supplementary Motor Area d. Primary Sensory Cortex 22. The concentration of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft is determined by: a. The rate of active uptake of the transmitter by the surrounding neurons b. The amount of transmitter released by the presynaptic nerve terminal c. The rate of enzymatic breakdown of the transmitter in the synaptic cleft d. The diffusion rate of the transmitter from the presynaptic nerve terminal to the synaptic cleft 23. Which of the following is NOT usually a function of the Left Cerebral Hemisphere? a. Speech b. Verbal Memory c. Math d. Art 24. The cingulate gyrus is associated with: a. Autonomic functions b. Long term memory c. Reward d. A and B only 25. The main mechanism that will deactivate acetylcholine is by: a. Methylation by acetyltransferase b. Hydrolysis by acetycholinesterase c. Diffusion away from the neuroeffector junction d. Reuptake by the pre-juctional fiber

26. Which of the following is responsible for conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory? a. Hypothalamus b. Hippocampus c. Mammillary bodies d. Frontal lobe 27. True of Dissociative amnesia a. Also known as Organic Amnesia b. Loss of memory about a specific event c. Caused by a transient reduction of cerebral blood flow d. Due to Thiamine/Vitamin B1 deficiency 28. Which of the following Spinal tracts conveys proprioception? a. Anterior Spinothalamic b. Lateral Spinothalamic c. Posterior Spinothalamic d. None of These 29. Where does the decussation of impulses take place? a. Medulla Oblongata b. Cerebellum c. Spinal cord white matter d. Thalamus 30. Which of the following conveys pain? a. Anterior Spinothalamic b. Lateral Spinothalamic c. Posterior Spinothalamic d. None of These 31. Which of the following spinal tracts transmits impulses to control muscle tone and posture? a. Tectospinal b. Rubrospinal c. Vestibulospinal d. Reticulospinal 32. Making sense out of sensory input is called: a. Sensation b. Perception c. Both

d. Neither 33. When processing information, assembling and integrating it in the brain is called? a. Bottom Up Processing b. Top Down Processing c. Parallel Processing d. Just Noticeable Difference 34. The ability to visually identify objects by verbal cues and implication is called? a. Bottom Up Processing b. Top Down Processing c. Parallel Processing d. Just Noticeable Difference 35. The minimum level of stimulus intensity needed to detect a stimulus half the time: a. Subliminal threshold b. Subthreshold c. Absolute threshold d. None of these 36. The ability to detect the minimum difference in stimuli. a. Bottom Up Processing b. Top Down Processing c. Parallel Processing d. Just Noticeable Difference 37. When standing beside a loud speaker, the receptor that detects Sound Pressure Levels in the skin are: a. Meissner b. Merkels c. Pacinian d. Ruffini 38. Detects muscle stretch: a. Annulospiral b. Golgi c. Flower spray endings d. All of the above 39. Which of the following types of pain is well localized?

a. b. c. d.

Pricking Dull, throbbing Burning Crushing

a. b. c. d.

Parietal in nature Visceral in nature Both Neither

40. Which of the following is released from platelets during injury? a. Bradykinin b. Substance P c. Prostaglandin d. Serotonin

47. At what level in the spinal cord is pain in appendicitis transmitted to: a. T7 b. T8 c. T9 d. T10

41. Which of the following is responsible for pain after Tissue Damage? a. Bradykinin b. Substance P c. Prostaglandin d. Serotonin

48. Increased stimulus strength means a larger receptor potential and more frequent action potential firing. a. True b. False

42. Headache that is localized around one eye is: a. Tension b. Migraine c. Sinus d. Cluster 43. Possbily caused by Vitamin B depletion: a. Migraine b. Meningitis c. Alcoholic Headache d. Tension Headache 44. What the most common cause of headaches? a. Release of prostaglandins from a damages blood vessel. b. Vasodilation and low serotonin c. Occlusion of a blood vessel d. Overstimulation from neural impulses 45. Which of the following is associated with a prodrome before the actual headache? a. Migraine b. Meningitis c. Alcoholic Headache d. Tension Headache 46. Sharp pain in the body is most likely to be:

49. An ice cube on the skin give rise to sensation of temperature only. a. True b. False 50. A large receptive field has: a. Less precise perception b. More precise perception c. A variable response depending on the stimulus d. None of these 51. Nature of a sensationand the type of reaction generated vary according to the destination of sensory impulses in the CNS a. True b. False 52. Motor signals fire upward to the CNS. a. True b. False 53. Locating sensation from internal organs is less precise than the skin because there are fewer afferent neurons in the internal organs and each has a larger receptive field. a. True b. False

54. The concept that the magnitude of a subjective sensation increases proportional to the logarithm of the stimulus intensity; two nearly identical stimuli (for example, two similar weights) and tested whether they could notice a difference between them. a. Steven’s Power Law b. Weber-Fechner’s Law c. Both d. Neither 55. The more the receptor potential rises above the threshold level, the greater action potential frequency. a. True b. False 56. Receptors adapt either partially or completely to any constant stimulus after a period of time. a. True b. False 57. Drugs with the potential for abuse have the following characteristics: a. They deplete neuronal stores of monoamines b. They block dopamine receptors c. They stimulate receptors in the reward center of the limbic system d. They block electrical self-stimulation in experimental animals 58. Which of the following nerve fibers transmits crude touch? a. A-Alpha b. A-Delta c. A-Beta d. A-Gamma 59. Signals are not subject to modification at the various synapses along the sensory pathways. a. True b. False

60. Processing of information ends in the primary cortex a. True b. False 61. Which structure of the Nervous System is associated with Third Order Neurons? a. Spinal Cord b. Cerebral cortex c. Thalamus d. Wiernicke’s area 62. In Somnabulism there is absolutely no consciousness at all. a. True b. False 63. Fine Touch is coveyed via this pathway: a. Dorsal Column b. Lateral Spinothalamic c. Anterior Spinothalamic d. Posterior Spinothalamic 64. The loss of the ability to identify objects by means of touch with the eyes closed is called: a. Aphasia b. Agnosia c. Astereognosis d. Agraphia 65. These are the largest areas of the Sensory homunculus EXCEPT: a. Hands b. Face c. Tongue d. Fingers 66. Sharp and fast pain in conveyed via which pathway: a. Neopinothalamic b. Paleopinothalamic c. Both d. Neither 67. Seen in Neurosyphilis a. Brown Sequard syndrome

b. Syringomyelia c. Tabes dorsalis d. None of these 68. Which of the following processes is “all or none: in character? a. Resting potential b. Transmitter release c. Contraction strength d. Action potential 69. The Diencephalon is important because of which structure? a. Cerebellum b. Hypothalamus c. Broca’s area d. Thalamus 70. Shivering is mediated by which part of the hypothalamus? a. Paraventricular b. Posterior c. Preoptic d. Supraoptic 71. Satiety is achieved by inhibition of which part of the Hypothalamus? a. Posterior b. Mammillary c. Lateral d. Anterior 72. Sympathetic responses are mediated by which part of the hypothalamus? a. Posterior b. Mammillary c. Lateral d. Anterior 73. The sense of tranquility is mediated by which part of the hypothalamus? a. Paraventricular b. Mammillary c. Supraoptic d. Ventromedial

74. The shortest rhythm of biological clocks. a. Circadian b. Ultradian c. Infradian d. None of these 75. Destruction of the Suprachiasmatic Nucleus results in loss of which of the following? a. Circadian b. Ultradian c. Infradian d. None of these 76. What neurotransmitter is elaborated from raphe nuclei? a. Serotonin b. GABA c. Dopamine d. Melatonin 77. What neurotransmitter comes from the Substancia Nigra? a. Serotonin b. GABA c. Dopamine d. Melatonin 78. What type of EEG wave can be seen in adults suffering from emotional distress? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Delta d. Theta 79. What waves are seen in fully awake and alert individuals? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Delta d. Theta 80. Mental concentration is associated with what type of rhythm? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Delta

d. Theta 81. Stage 4 Sleep is associated with which of the following? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Delta d. Theta 82. What type of brain waves is found in the EEG of a normal adult who is awake, quiet and in a resting state of cerebration? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Theta d. Delta 83. What is the most common cause of Sleep Apnea? a. Snoring b. Genetic c. Obstruction d. None of these 84. The Papez circuit dissociates emotions from experience. a. True b. False 85. Lesions of the Hyppocampus cause retrograde amnesia a. True b. False 86. A striking feature of Kluver Bucy Syndrome is Hypersexuality. a. True b. False 87. Lesions in the bilateral posterior orbitofrontal cortex of the limbic system results in: a. Kluver Bucy Syndrome b. Loss of sex drive c. Insomnia d. Extreme Rage

88. Sensitization occurs when the response is enhanced in the even that an unpleasant or otherwise strong stimulus is given. a. True b. False 89. What type of memory is not associated with awareness? a. Explicit b. Implicit c. Both d. Neither 90. The presence of Old Memories is called Memory Traces. a. True b. False 91. What structure is postulated to be important in memory consolidation? a. Hypothalamus b. Mammillary bodies c. Hippocampus d. Amygdala 92. Which of the following is not a physiologic evidence of long term memory a. Increase in vesicle release sites for secretion of transmitter substance b. Increase in number of transmitter vesicles released c. Increased sensitivity of receptors to neurotransmitters d. Changes in structures of the dendritic spines that permit transmission of stronger signals 93. Main function of Neuroglial cells, EXCEPT: a. Maintenance of CNS homeostasis b. Insulate neurons from each other c. Facilitate salutatory conduction d. Destroys pathogens 94. Brodmann Area 22 is: a. Wiernicke’s Area b. Broca’s Area

c. Arcuate Fasciculus d. Angular Gyrus 95. Expressive aphasia is a lesion in: a. Wiernicke’s Area b. Broca’s Area c. Arcuate Fasciculus d. Angular Gyrus 96. Anomic aphasia is a lesion in: a. Wiernicke’s Area b. Broca’s Area c. Arcuate Fasciculus d. Angular Gyrus 97. What cell buffers the potassium levels in the CNS? a. Microglia b. Oligodendrocytes c. Astrocytes d. Ependymal Cells 98. Lesions in the bilateral anterior cingulate and subcallosal gyri of the limbic system results in: a. Kluver Bucy Syndrome b. Loss of sex drive c. Insomnia d. Extreme Rage 99. This occurs predominantly in infants. a. Alpha waves b. Beta waves c. Delta waves d. Theta waves 100. Paraventricular nuclei evokes fear and feelings of punishment and aversion a. True b. False