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During the past year, Pro-Tect Insurance Company’s total payouts on car-theft claims were larger than the company can afford to sustain. Pro-Tect cannot reduce the number of car-theft policies it carries, so cannot protect itself against continued large payouts that way. Therefore, Pro-Tect has decided to offer a discount to holders of car-theft policies whose cars have antitheft devices. Many policyholders will respond to the discount by installing antitheft devices, since the amount of the discount will within two years typically more than cover the cost of installation. Thus, because cars with antitheft devices are rarely stolen, ProTect’s plan is likely to reduce its annual payouts. In the argument above, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles? The first rules out a certain strategy for achieving a goal; the second presents the strategy that was adopted instead and whose effectiveness the argument assesses. B. The first is a judgment made in support of a certain conclusion; the second is that conclusion. C. The first has been used as a consideration to support adopting a certain strategy for achieving a goal; the second reports a decision to adopt an alternative strategy. D. The first provides evidence in favor of adopting a certain strategy for achieving a goal; the second reports a decision to pursue an alternative goal. E. The first is a consideration offered against adopting a certain strategy for achieving a goal; the second is the main conclusion that the argument is seeking

Passage 1. In the early 9th century BC Athenian potters introduced the full Geometric style by abandoning circular for rectilinear ornament, the key meander assuming the leading role. At first decoration was restricted to a small reserved area surrounded by the lustrous dark paint; later, as the style approached maturity, more decorated zones wee added, until the potter achieved a harmonious balance between light and dark. In the 8th century, after nearly 400 years of abstract decoration, living creatures appear once again, although their style is hardly less angular than the geometric ornament that supports them. Geometric pottery reached its fullest development in the gigantic amphorae and craters that served as grave monuments in the Athenian Dipylon cemetery; here a funerary scene, showing the corpse on the bier surrounded by mourners, occupies the main panel, while other friezes contain chariot processions, battles on land and sea, rows of animals, and linear geometric designs. The creators of these monumental vases established a continuous tradition of figured painting that persisted on Greek pottery until the end of the Classical period; the immediate consequence of their innovation was a loss of interest in purely abstract design, which became increasingly perfunctory on the latest Geometric vases. After several centuries of isolation, the renewal of contact with the Middle East provided a welcome stimulus to the Greek potter. In art, as well as in commerce, it was Corinth that now led the way. Unlike the Athenians,Corinthian potters specialized in small vases and especially in the tiny aryballos, or scent bottle, which found a ready market throughout the Mediterranean region. There soon arose a style of miniatures that was called ProtoCorinthian; it borrowed much of its repertoire from the fauna and flora of Syrophoenician art. Processions of animals, both real and legendary, are placed in the main friezes, while lotus flowers and palmettes serve as subsidiary ornament. When human beings are depicted, mythical scenes can often be recognized, reflecting the early diffusion of Homeric epic poetry. It was on Proto-Corinthian vases that the technique known as black-figure was first applied: the figures were first drawn in black silhouette and were then marked with incised detail; further touches were added in purple and white. Other notable Orientalizing

styles arose in Attica, the Cyclades, Laconia, and Rhodes, regional differences in pottery becoming more clearly marked as the Hellenic city-states grew into self-conscious political units. The Athenians still did their best work on large funerary vases. At first they cultivated a wild and grandiose manner in which the figure of men and animals were elaborated in outline; later, incised ornament introduced from Corinth imposed a salutary discipline. Cycladic potters also attempted the grand manner; Laconian work, on the other hand, is confined to a small scale and owes comparatively little to Oriental influence. The Rhodians rarely progressed beyond animal friezes drawn in outline; their style is known as "wild goat", after their favorite quadruped. 1. The pottery which owed least to the Oriental influence was from 1. Attica 2. Cyclades 3. Laconia 4. Rhodes 5. Athens www.reach-tech.com 2. The tradition of figured painting until the end of the Classical period resulted in 1. the Oriental style. 2. monumental vases. 3. loss of interest in purely abstract design. 4. renewal of contact with the Middle East. 5. Proto-Corinthian style. 3. Corinthian potters were different from Athenian potters because 1. they produced smaller vases. 2. they depicted corpses on biers. 3. they showed figures of men and animals. 4. They used linear, geometric designs 5. They frequently used pictures of goats.

Question 2. The adherents of the concept of the 'scala naturae' believed in a steady progression from the most simple to the most perfect organisms. Lamarck's theory of evolution was largely based on this concept. Yet, the more the knowledge of plants and animals advanced, the less did the similarities and differences of organisms conform to this pattern. Instead, organisms usually fell into well-defined and frequently rather isolated groups, like mammals, birds, and reptiles, that could not be arranged into a linear sequence from simple to perfect. On the other hand, nearly all taxa of organisms were clearly more similar to some than to other taxa. It was on the basis of this principle of degrees of similarity that naturalists from Aristotle on had grouped organisms, resulting, since the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, in the Linnaean hierarchy. As stated by Darwin, "from the first dawn of life, all organic beings are found to resemble each other in descending degrees, so that they can be classed in groups under groups. This classification is evidently not arbitrary like the grouping of stars in constellations." But what was the cause for the apparent pattern, what was the nature of the apparent constraints? To say, as did Louis Agassiz, that it reflected that plan of the creator explained nothing. Everything, however, became clear as soon as one made the assumption that the members of a taxon are the descendants of a common ancestor. According to Darwin, this principle of common descent explains "why species descended from a single progenitor are grouped into genera: and the genera included in, or subordinate to, subfamilies, families, and orders, all united into one class. Thus, the grand fact in natural history, of the subordination of group under group - it is in my judgement fully explained". And indeed it was Two matters, however,need to be stressed. The first is that Darwin, when proposing the theory of common descent, had found the solution of the great problem of the natural system that had exercised systematists for more than one hundred years. The inclusive hierarchy of groups under groups is a necessity if species are descended from common ancestors. Reciprocally, as Darwin continues to emphasize, the fact of the hierarchy of organisms is extremely powerful evidence in favour of his theory. There simply is no other possible explanation for the hierarchy unless one wants to postulate an extremely capricious creator. In the end Darwin reiterates that descent is the hidden bond of connection which naturalists have sought under the term of the ? Naturalh-tech.com System'. Indeed, every systematist since has accepted or at least paid lip service to the fact that anysystem of classification must be consistent with the theory of evolution, that is, that every recognized taxon must consist of descendants of a common ancestor. 1. According to Darwin the theory of common descent explains 1. Why taxa of organisms are more proximate to some than to other taxa. 2. why adherents of the concept of the scala naturae believed in steady progression 3. why the postulate of an extremely capricious creator does not find public favor 4. why organisms can be arranged in a hierarchy of categories from species, through genera,subfamilies, orders and classes 5. Why naturalists from Aristotle on were forced to group organisms such that it resulted in the Linnaean hierarchy 2. According to the passage the ordered hierarchy of organisms on the basis of degrees of similarities

1. is both a condition for and evidence of the theory of common descent 2. both partakes of and causes the evolutionary theory 3. is the work of naturalists uncomfortable with the idea of a capricious creator 4. is Darwin's principal contribution to the theory of evolution 5. enables members of a taxon to become descendants of a common ancestors 3. According to the passage Lamarckian theory was 1. not adequately evolutionary and hence not as satisfactory as Darwinian theory 2. based on the grouping of organisms from Aristotle on, culminating in the Linnaean hierarchy 3. based on the concept of a linear sequence of development of organisms from the simple tothe perfect 4. the logical precursor to the theory of common descent 5. based on the assumption that the members of a taxon are the descendants of a common ancestor Passage 3. In recent years astronomers have discovered that dwarf galaxies such as NGC 5234 are far more common than previously supposed. Moreover these galaxies are very different from their bigger cousins: they spend billions of years in a dormant state, then erupt in furious short-lived bursts of star formation. Starbursts also occur in large galaxies, but the radiation from those bursts is usually obscured by other galactic emissions; only in dwarf starburst galaxies can researchers get a clear look at these phenomena. These galaxies hold clues to the early history of the universe _ they are relics of an ancient time, composed of material that has changed little since the big bang. What causes starbursts in dwarf galaxies, and why are they so important to astronomers? To answer these questions we must examine the reach-tech.com mechanics of star formation. Astronomers know that stars have been forming for almost the entire duration of the universe. Our own galaxy, the unremarkable larger spiral called the milky way contains at least 100 billion stars. Star formation in the Milky Way is a slow and steady process involving the contraction of vast clouds of interstellar gas and dust. Every year, on an average about one solar mass of gas and dust (that is an amount equal to the mass of our sun) turns into new stars. In contrast, a starburst is a relatively brief period _ from one million to 20 million years _ during which the rate of star formation is much higher than average. Astronomers have observed galaxies in which the rate is 100 times higher than the Milky Way's. We know this to be a short-lived stage because if it had been going on for more than hundred million years the galaxy would have run out of the gas from which the stars are made. The increased star formation rate causes a dramatic rise in the galaxy's brightness. Because starbursts are brief, they are dominated by the radiation from hot young stars of 20 solar masses or more, which have lifetimes of only a few million

years. A strong starburst can be almost as bright as a quasar, the most luminous object in the universe. Because a star burst's luminosity is concentrated in the radio and infrared parts of the spectrum, the phenomenon has been recognised and studied only in the past 20 years as new telescopes and satellites have allowed scientists to observe these wavelengths Many astronomers believe that starbursts play a pivotal role in galactic evolution and the creation of star clusters. For this reason scientists are eager to know what triggers these sudden episodes, how they proceed and what turns them off. These questions may be easier to answer in dwarf galaxies which hold 100 million or fewer stars, than in the large spirals such as the Milky Way and M83 1. According to the author the study of starbursts is easier in dwarf galaxies because 1. they are relatively stable and have changed little since their inception. 2. their radiations are easier to isolate in these galaxies 3. they are smaller and composed of relatively fewer stars. 4. they alone contain answers to questions about the mechanics of star formation. 5. starbursts are more intense and frequent in these galaxies 2. Astronomers according to the author, are keen to study starbursts because 1. starbursts are intriguing phenomena that have not yet been studied. 2. this is the process by which star formation takes place. 3. it could contain evidence of the big bang. 4. the radiations from these could be potentially useful to humans. 5. these could help understand how early galaxies were formed. 3. To support the statement that starbursts are a short-lived stage, the author, 1. points to data from astronomical observations 2. argues that it is a logical consequence of the rapid rate of star formation 3. proves they are dominated by hot young starswww.reach-tech.com 4. argues that a longer stage cannot be materially sustained. 5. Cites the work of various astronomers. Passage 4. Measurement ranks as one of our oldest skills. Many of the questions people ask every day begin with "How many?" or "How much?" A person may ask a friend, "How many brothers and sisters do you have?" or, "How much do you weigh?" The answers to

both questions use numbers. But the first question is answered by counting, and the second by measuring. Each child in a family is a whole person and must be counted, not measured. But a person's weight must be measured, and this is done by standing on a scale. Almost everyone uses measurement daily. The food we eat, the clothes we wear, the work we do, and many of the games we play involve measurement. For example, shoppers buy meat by the kilogram and cloth by the meter. Many workers are paid by the hour. An athlete who runs 100 meters in the shortest time wins the race. People also use measurement to help them understand one another and to work together easily. A boy could write to someone living far away and describe himself as tall and heavy. But it would be better if he described himself as 137 centimeters tall and weighing 40 kilograms. In the same way, a carpenter building a house can order a door that measures 76 centimeters wide and know it will fit the opening allowed for it. Every measurement involves two things: (1) a number and (2) a unit. A number by itself is not a measurement. There would be no point in saying that a stick has a length of 6. No one would know whether the stick was 6 centimeters or 6 meters long. But if someone described the stick as being 6 centimeters long, then the measurement would have meaning. There are two major systems of measurement: (1) the imperial system and (2) the metric system. The measurement units in each system are related to one another. The imperial system of measurement started in about the 1200's, though its units may be traced back even earlier. Most nations--and all scientists--use the metric system. The official name of this system is the Systeme International d'Unites (International System of Units). To make accurate measurements, people have invented such measuring tools as clocks, scales, tape measures, thermometers, and other devices. Measurement with tools involves comparing the object or event being measured with the units marked on the tool. For example, a ruler placed beside a pencil shows the number of centimeters and millimeters equal to the length of the pencil. Most measurements involve reading some kind of scale. The problem is that no matter how many subdivisions the scale has, the object being measured is likely to fall between two of them. As a result, every measurement can only be an approximation. A measurement may come close, but it never matches the scale perfectly. Without a magnifying lens, for example, a ruler is accurate only to within a half millimeter. But simple measurements within a fiftieth of a millimeter can be made with an instrument called a micrometer caliper. Measuring tools include a wide variety of devices. Gauges and meters measure such items as liters of petrol or cubic meters of natural gas. A kilowatt-hour meter measures electricity. A speedometer measures the speed of a car or other vehicle, and an odometer records the distance traveled by the vehicle. Other devices measure the volume of such substances as petroleum in barrels. 1. The primary purpose of the passage is to 1. make out a strong case for the superiority of the imperial system of measurement over the metric system on the grounds of accuracywww.reach-tech.com 2. make a detailed list of all the devices that are in general use today for the accurate measurement of objects, distances and speeds

3. briefly explain the importance, function, systems and types of measurements that are used in everyday life. 4. show the various means that were employed by people after the 1200s to measure. 5. Describe the various situations in which human beings need to measure and count in their everyday activities. 2. According to the passage, in order to measure anything 1. it is necessary both to count and use devices within either system of measurement 2. a unit of one object has to be contrasted with a unit of another object 3. a scale called the micrometer calliper has to be used with great precision 4. it is first necessary to accept that all measurements are only approximations 5. Both a number and a unit of measurement are required 3. Most measurement is only an approximation because 1. it involves both a number and a unit and it is unlikely that both of them can be accurate enough 2. the object being measured is likely to fall between the calibrations of the scale or device that is used to measure 3. the devices used to measure objects cannot be made to fit all the possible objects that have to be measured accurately 4. accurate measurement in almost all the cases involve the use of powerful optical instruments like magnifying glasses which are not commonly available 5. most people who measure are not trained in the use of numbers, units and devices used to measure objectsww.reach-tech.com B) Ability to coherently put across an argumentwww.reach-tech.com Respond to the following questions in not more than 100 words each 1. “Our 8 year old son said yesterday “All things have opposites”. He was discussing this matter with our daughter who is 10 and she argued that this cannot be so. Examples that our son provided were:Light vs. Dark, Day vs. Night, Cold vs. Hot. Our daughter then raised the question “What is opposite of banana?” What should I have answered? Is there really a duality in all things and if so how does it apply to the banana case?” 2. “I believe I m the only thing that exists. How can anyone prove to me that he/she really exists?” 3. Can machines have knowledge? 4. Can you disprove the statement ‘Truth is Relative’? Could it be Absolute?

5. Is there a logical reasoning why most people prefer there own opinions to someone else’s? 6. We were loading up to go on a trip the other day and I asked my dad why he was taking a lot of extra stuff? and he said “Just in case the unexpected happens” So my question is “If you expect the unexpected, then doesn’t that make the unexpected expected and expected unexpected”? 7. I have a friend who keeps track of Rs.1000/- notes under her bed, for some strange reasons she doesn’t wish to spend the money; she just plans on letting it sit there. What is more surprising is the fact that she never counts it. So she would never know if some notes are missing. Am I

10. A chemical company claims that, since only one of 520 rats that were given high doses of a new artificial sweetener developed cancer while all the others remained healthy, the sweetener is not carcinogenic for human beings and ought to be approved for human consumption. Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the chemical company’s claim? (A) Chemicals that are carcinogenic for rats are usually also carcinogenic for other animals, such as guinea pigs, used in experiments. (B) The spontaneous incidence of cancer in this particular strain of rat is approximately one in 540. (C) Tests conducted on a certain strain of mouse show that, of 500 mice given a dose of sweetener similar to that given the rats, 53 developed cancer. (D) Certain chemicals that are carcinogenic for human beings have been shown not to be carcinogenic for rats. (E) The average lifespan of the strain of rat used in the experiment is 2 years; the chemical company terminated the experiment when the rats were 13 months old.

Exposure to certain chemicals commonly used in elementary schools as cleaners or pesticides causes allergic reactions in some children. Elementary school nurses in Renston report that the proportion of schoolchildren sent to them for treatment of allergic reactions to those chemicals has increased significantly over the past ten years. Therefore, either Renston’s schoolchildren have been exposed to greater quantities of the chemicals, or they are more sensitive to them than schoolchildren were ten years ago. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? A. The number of school nurses employed by Renston’s elementary schools has not decreased over the past ten years. B. Children who are allergic to the chemicals are no more likely than other children to have allergies to other substances. C. Children who have allergic reactions to the chemicals are not more likely to be sent to a school nurse now than they were ten years ago.

D. The chemicals are not commonly used as cleaners or pesticides in houses and apartment buildings in Renston. E. Children attending elementary school do not make up a larger proportion of Renston’s population now than they did ten years ago.

Which of the following most logically completes the passage? Each species of moth has an optimal body temperature for effective flight, and when air temperatures fall much below that temperature, the moths typically have to remain inactive on vegetation for extended periods, leaving them highly vulnerable to predators. In general, larger moths can fly faster than smaller ones and hence have a better chance of evading flying predators, but they also have higher optimal body temperatures, which explains why ______. A. large moths are generally able to maneuver better in flight than smaller moths B. large moths are proportionally much more common in warm climates than in cool climates C. small moths are more likely than large moths to be effectively camouflaged while on vegetation D. large moths typically have wings that are larger in proportion to their body size than smaller moths do E. most predators of moths prey not only on several different species of moth but also on various species of other insects

At one time, European and Japanese companies tried to imitate their American rivals. Today, American appliance manufacturers import European scientists to lead their research staffs; American automakers design cars that mimic the styling of German, Italian, and French imports; and American electronics firms boast in their advertising of “Japanesestyle” devotion to quality and reliability. In the world of high technology, America has lost the battle for international prestige. Each of the following statements, if true, would help to support the claim above EXCEPT: (A) An American camera company claims in its promotional literature to produce cameras “as fine as the best Swiss imports.” (B) An American maker of stereo components designs its products to resemble those of a popular Japanese firm. (C) An American manufacturer of video games uses a brand name chosen because it sounds like a Japanese word.

(D) An American maker of televisions studies German-made televisions in order to adopt German manufacturing techniques. （ E ） (E) An American maker of frozen foods advertises its dinners as “Real European-style entrees prepared by fine French and Italian chefs.” If A, then B. If B, then C. If C, then D. If all of the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true? (A) If D, then A. (B) If not B, then not C. (C) If not D, then not A. (D) If D, then E. （ C ） (E) If not A, then not D. With Proposition 13, if you bought your house 11 years ago for $75,000, your property tax would be approximately $914 a year (1 percent of $75,000 increased by 2 percent each year for 11 years); and if your neighbor bought an identical house next door to you for $200,000 this year, his tax would be $2,000 (1 percent of $200,000). Without Proposition 13, both you and your neighbor would pay $6,000 a year in property taxes (3 percent of $200,000). Which of the following is the conclusion for which the author most likely is arguing in the passage above? (A) Proposition 13 is unconstitutional because it imposes an unequal tax on properties of equal value. (B) If Proposition 13 is repealed, every homeowner is likely to experience a substantial increase in property taxes. (C) By preventing inflation from driving up property values, Proposition 13 has saved homeowners thousands of dollars in property taxes. (D) If Proposition 13 is not repealed, identical properties will continue to be taxed at different rates. （ B ） (E) Proposition 13 has benefited some homeowners more than others.

1. E is the correct choice. The argument is about technology companies and E talks about non-technology company. 2. C is correct. The argument boils down "If A then D", which means that if A happens D will happen (It does not mean, however, that if D happens, A would have happened. There can also be other causes for D to happen). Therefore, if D hasn't happened it means A hasn't also happened because if A had happened D would have certainly happened. 3. B. In the last sentence it says, "without Proposition 13, both you and your neighbor would pay $6,000 a year in property taxes" which means that without proposition 13, both you and the neighbor would be paying higher taxes than what you are paying because of proposition 13. Investment banks often have conflicting roles. They sometimes act for a client company by raising capital from other investment institutions as advantageously as possible, but their analysts also sometimes send unfavorable reports on the financial health of companies for whom they are raising capital to other clients who wish to make investments. Analyses of companies’ financial health need to be unbiased if an investment bank is to achieve long-term success. If the statements above are true, which of the following practices, if adopted by an investment bank, would hinder its long-term success? A. Evaluating and rewarding the bank’s analysts on the basis of recommendations made by managers who are solely engaged in raising capital for clients B. Using reports by the investment bank’s analysts to determine how best to raise capital for a client C. Sharing the task of raising capital for a client with other investment banks D. Ensuring that conflicts between analysts and those who raise capital for clients are carefully mediated and resolved by impartial arbitrators E. Monitoring the success or failure of analysts’ current predictions about how companies will perform financially, in order to determine the value of future predictions

James’s grade point average puts him in the top third of the graduating class of college A. Nestor is in the top tenth of the same class. Elizabeth had the same grade point average as Nestor. Nancy has a lower grade point average than Elizabeth. If the information above is true, which of the following must also be true? (A) James has a higher grade point average than Elizabeth. (B) James has a higher grade point average than Nancy.

(C) Nestor has a higher grade point average than Nancy. (D) Elizabeth and Nancy both have a higher grade point average than James. (E) Nestor and James both have a higher grade point average than Nancy.

Q1 :Guidebook writer: I have visited hotels throughout the country and have noticed that in those built before 1930 the quality of the original carpentry work is generally superior to that in hotels built afterward. Clearly carpenters working on hotels before 1930 typically

worked with more skill, care, and effort than carpenters who have worked on hotels built subsequently. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the guidebook writer’s argument? A. The quality of original carpentry in hotels is generally far superior to the quality of original carpentry in other structures, such as houses and stores. B. Hotels built since 1930 can generally accommodate more guests than those built before 1930. C. The materials available to carpenters working before 1930 were not significantly different in quality from the materials available to carpenters working after 1930. D. The better the quality of original carpentry in a building, the less likely that building is to fall into disuse and be demolished. E. The average length of apprenticeship for carpenters has declined significantly since 1930. Q2: Which of the following most logically completes the argument? The irradiation of food kills bacteria and thus retards spoilage. However, it also lowers the nutritional value of many foods. For example, irradiation destroys a significant percentage of whatever vitamin B1 a food may contain. Proponents of irradiation point out that irradiation is no worse in this respect than cooking. However, this fact is either beside the point, since much irradiated food is eaten raw, or else misleading, since _______. A. many of the proponents of irradiation are food distributors who gain from food’s having a longer shelf life

B. it is clear that killing bacteria that may be present on food is not the only effect that irradiation has C. cooking is usually the final step in preparing food for consumption, whereas irradiation serves to ensure a longer shelf life for perishable foods D. certain kinds of cooking are, in fact, even more destructive of vitamin B1 than carefully controlled irradiation is E. for food that is both irradiated and cooked, the reduction of vitamin B1 associated with either process individually is compounded Q3: Studies in restaurants show that the tips left by customers who pay their bill in cash tend to be larger when the bill is presented on a tray that bears a credit-card logo. Consumer psychologists hypothesize that simply seeing a credit-card logo makes many credit-card holders willing to spend more because it reminds them that their spending power exceeds the cash they have immediately available. Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the psychologists’ interpretation of the studies? A. The effect noted in the studies is not limited to patrons who have credit cards.

B. Patrons who are under financial pressure from their credit-card obligations tend to tip less when presented with a restaurant bill on a tray with credit-card logo than when the tray has no logo. C. In virtually all of the cases in the studies, the patrons who paid bills in cash did not possess credit cards. D. In general, restaurant patrons who pay their bills in cash leave larger tips than do those who pay by credit card. E. The percentage of restaurant bills paid with given brand of credit card increases when that credit card’s logo is displayed on the tray with which the bill is prepared.

Re: CR by Total Gadha - Sunday, 5 August 2007, 02:58 AM

1. E, The argument concludes that carpenters before 1930 worked with more skills and care while on a job than carpenters after 1930. It might be that the carpenters after 1930 possessed less skill than those before 1930 because the length of apprenticeship, and hence the time for learning and developing skills, had decreased. 2. D, The point that irradiation lowers nutritional value of food maybe misleading if the doubt it casts on use of irradiation is baseless. D says that other forms of cooking also lower the nutritional value. Hence D is the logical continuation. 3. B. If seeing the credit card logo reminds a credit card holder of his spending power, the converse should also be true, i.e. it should also remind some credit card holders of their credit-card obligations. Hence, B strengthens the psychologists' guess that the logo is inducing the thought about spending power.

In the nation of Partoria, large trucks currently account for 6 percent of miles driven on Partoria’s roads but are involved in 12 percent of all highway fatalities. The very largest trucks—those with three trailers—had less than a third of the accident rate of single-and double-trailer trucks. Clearly, therefore, one way for Partoria to reduce highway deaths would be to require shippers to increase their use of triple-trailer trucks. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument? A. Partorian trucking companies have so far used triple-trailer trucks on lightly traveled sections of major highways only. B. No matter what changes Partoria makes in the regulation of trucking, it will have to keep some smaller roads off-limits to all large trucks. C. Very few fatal collisions involving trucks in Partoria are collisions between two trucks. D. In Partoria, the safety record of the trucking industry as a whole has improved slightly over the past ten years. E. In Partoria, the maximum legal payload of a triple-trailer truck is less than three times the maximum legal payload of the largest of the single-trailer trucks. 2.In 1960’s studies of rats, scientists found that crowding increases the number of attacks among the animals significantly. But in recent experiments in which rhesus monkeys were placed in crowded conditions, although there was an increase in instances of “coping” behavior—such as submissive gestures and avoidance of dominant individuals—attacks did not become any more frequent. Therefore it is not likely that, for any species of monkey, crowding increases aggression as significantly as was seen in rats. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument? A. All the observed forms of coping behavior can be found among rhesus monkeys living in uncrowded conditions. B. In the studies of rats, nondominant individuals were found to increasingly avoid dominant individuals when the animals were in crowded conditions. C. Rhesus monkeys respond with aggression to a wider range of stimuli than any

other monkeys do. D. Some individual monkeys in the experiment were involved in significantly more attacks than the other monkeys were. E. Some of the coping behavior displayed by rhesus monkeys is similar to behavior rhesus monkeys use to bring to an end an attack that has begun. Please explain your choice.

In his new book on his complex scientific research, R frequently imputes bad faith to researchers disagreeing with him. A troubling aspect of R’s book is his stated conviction that other investigators’ funding sources often determine what “findings” those investigators report. Add to this that R has often shown himself to be arrogant, overly ambitious, and sometimes plain nasty, and it becomes clear that R’s book does not merit attention from serious professionals. The author of the book review commits which one of the following reasoning errors? (A) using an attack on the character of the writer of the book as evidence that this person is not competent on matters of scientific substance (B) taking it for granted that an investigator is unlikely to report findings that are contrary to the interests of those funding the investigation (C) dismissing a scientific theory by giving a biased account of it (D) presenting as facts several assertions about the book under review that are based only on strong conviction and would be impossible for others to verify (E) failing to distinguish between the criteria of being true and of being sufficiently interesting to merit attention

Below is an excerpt from a letter that was sent by the chairman of a corporation to the stockholders. A number of charges have been raised against me, some serious, some trivial. Individuals seeking to control the corporation for their own purposes have demanded my resignation. Remember that no court of law in any state has found me guilty of any criminal offense whatsoever. In the American tradition, as you know, an individual is considered innocent until proven guilty. Furthermore, as the corporation’s unbroken sixyear record of growth will show, my conduct of my official duties as chairman has only helped enhance the success of the corporation, and so benefited every stockholder. Which of the following can be properly inferred from the excerpt? (A) The chairman believes that all those who have demanded his resignation are motivated by desire to control the corporation for their own purposes. (B) Any misdeeds that the chairman may have committed were motivated by his desire to enhance the success of the corporation.

(C) The chairman is innocent of any criminal offense. (D) The corporation has expanded steadily over the past six years. (E) Any legal proceedings against the chairman have resulted in his acquittal. Hi TG, I have read about this approach for solving Inference based questions: "Separate the stated info or the fact from the Implied info". Going by this logic, I could eliminate option A and D. Option C and E can not be safely reached as it is just the Chairman's opinion. While looking at option B, I was thinking that. The 2 informations itmes, 1. The company has grown in last 6 years 2. The Chairman might have been involved in some Misdeeds. can be safely used to come to a conclusion. But, surprisingly D is the OA.

1.

Which of the following, if true, provides evidence that most logically completes the argument below? According to a widely held economic hypothesis, imposing strict environmental regulations reduces economic growth. This hypothesis is undermined by the fact that the states with the strictest environmental regulations also have the highest economic growth. This fact does not show that environmental regulations promote growth, however, since ______. A. those states with the strictest environmental regulations invest the most in education and job training B. even those states that have only moderately strict environmental regulations have higher growth than those with the least-strict regulations C. many states that are experiencing reduced economic growth are considering weakening their environmental regulations D. after introducing stricter environmental regulations, many states experienced increased economic growth E. even those states with very weak environmental regulations have experienced at least some growth 2.Manatees, aquatic mammals inhabiting Florida’s rivers and coastal waters, swim close to the surface and are frequently killed in collisions with boats. To address the problem, boat traffic in manatee-populated waters is being required to maintain very low speeds. Unfortunately, manatees are unable to hear low-pitched sounds and a boat’s sound lowers in pitch as the boat slows. Therefore, this approach may in fact make things worse rather than better. Which of the following, if true, casts most doubt on the conclusion?

A. The areas where boats would have to maintain low speeds were decided partly on the basis of manatee-population estimates and partly from numbers of reported collisions between manatees and boats. B. Because the water hyacinth that manatees feed on grows best in water that is nearly still, water hyacinth beds can be disturbed or damaged by fast-moving boat traffic. C. Over the last several decades, boat traffic in Florida’s coastal waters has been increasing almost continuously and now represents the greatest threat to the endangered manatee population. D. The sound of a boat engine generally travels much further under water than it does through the air. E. When experimenters exposed manatees to the recorded sounds of boats moving at various speeds, the creatures were unable to discern the sounds over normal background noise.

Answers: 1A 2E

1)A certain cultivated herb is one of a group of closely related plants that thrive in soil with high concentrations of metals that are toxic to most other plants. Agronomists studying the herb have discovered that it produces large amounts of histidine, an amino acid that, in test-tube solutions, renders these metals chemically inert. Possibly, therefore, the herb’s high histidine production is what allows it to grow in metal-rich soils, a hypothesis that would gain support if ______. A. histidine is found in all parts of the plant—roots, stem, leaves, and flowers B. the herb’s high level of histidine production is found to be associated with an unusually low level of production of other amino acids C. others of the closely related group of plants are also found to produce histidine in large quantities D. cultivation of the herb in soil with high concentrations of the metals will, over an

extended period, make the soil suitable for plants to which the metals are toxic E. the concentration of histidine in the growing herb declines as the plant approaches maturity

Black Americans are, on the whole, about twice as likely as White Americans to develop high blood pressure. This likelihood also holds for westernized Black Africans when compared to White Africans. Researchers have hypothesized that this predisposition in westernized Blacks may reflect an interaction between western high-salt diets and genes that adapted to an environmental scarcity of salt. Which of the following statements about present-day, westernized Black Africans, if true, would most tend to confirm the researchers’ hypothesis? (A) The blood pressures of those descended from peoples situated throughout their history in Senegal and Gambia, where salt was always available, are low. (B) The unusually high salt consumption in certain areas of Africa represents a serious health problem. (C) Because of their blood pressure levels, most White Africans have markedly decreased their salt consumption. (D) Blood pressures are low among the Yoruba, who, throughout their history, have been situated far inland from sources of sea salt and far south of Saharan salt mines. (E) No significant differences in salt metabolism have been found between those people who have had salt available throughout their history and those who have not. 2) Teresa: Manned spaceflight does not have a future, since it cannot compete economically with other means of accomplishing the objectives of spaceflight. Edward: No mode of human transportation has a better record of reliability: two accidents in twenty-five years. Thus manned spaceflight definitely has a positive future. Which of the following is the best logical evaluation of Edward’s argument as a response to Teresa’s argument? (A) It cites evidence that, if true, tends to disprove the evidence cited by Teresa in drawing her conclusion. (B) It indicates a logical gap in the support that Teresa offers for her conclusion. (C) It raises a consideration that outweighs the argument Teresa makes. (D) It does not meet Teresa’s point because it assumes that there is no serious impediment to transporting people into space, but this was the issue raised by Teresa. (E) It fails to respond to Teresa’s argument because it does not address the fundamental issue of whether space activities should have priority over other claims on the national budget. Answrs: a &d .. i really do not get the second one

1. Studies of fatal automobile accidents reveal that, in the majority of cases in which one occupant of an automobile is killed while another survives, it is the passenger, not the driver, who is killed. It is ironic that the innocent passenger should suffer for the driver’s carelessness, while the driver often suffers only minor injuries or none at all. Which of the following is an assumption underlying the reasoning in the passage above? (A) In most fatal automobile accidents, the driver of a car in which an occupant is killed is at fault. (B) Drivers of automobiles are rarely killed in auto accidents. (C) Most deaths in fatal automobile accidents are suffered by occupants of cars rather than by pedestrians. (D) Auto safety experts should increase their efforts to provide protection for those in the passenger seats of automobiles. (E) Automobile passengers sometimes play a contributing role in causing auto accidents.

2. The upcoming presidential election in the West African republic of Ganelon is of grave concern to the U.S. State Department. Ganelon presently has strong political and military ties to the United States. However, the Socialist party is widely expected to win the election, leading to fears that Ganelon will soon break away from the pro-American bloc and adopt a nonaligned or openly anti-American stance. Which of the following is an assumption made in the passage above? (A) A Socialist party government in Ganelon is more likely to oppose the United States than is a non-Socialist party government. (B) The people of the United States recognize their nation’s interest in the political stability of West Africa. (C) A weakening of U.S. political ties with Ganelon could have serious consequences for U.S. relations with other African nations. (D) The Socialist party leaders in Ganelon believe that their nation’s interests would best be served by an alliance with anti-American forces. (E) The Socialist party will win the upcoming election in Ganelon.

I think the answer to the first one is A. An assumption is a hidden premise. Let's break the argument and find the hidden premise. Premise 1- In majority of accidents, the passenger is killed and not the driver. Conclusion- It is ironic that the passenger should suffer for driver's carelessness --> The passenger should not suffer for driver's carelessness. What can be the hidden premise? Only that the driver was careless or it was driver's fault and not the passenger's. Now see how smooth the argument becomes Premise 1- In majority of accidents, the passenger is killed and not the driver.

Premise 2- It were the drivers who were at fault and not the passengers. Conclusion- The passengers should not suffer.

never give up, what's the OA?

Official Answers for the following questions are 1. A 2. A

1.

Johnson is on firm ground when he asserts that the early editors of Dickinson’s poetry often distorted her intentions. Yet Johnson’s own, more faithful, text is still guilty of its own forms of distortion. To standardize Dickinson’s often indecipherable handwritten punctuation by the use of the dash is to render permanent a casual mode of poetic phrasing that Dickinson surely never expected to see in print. It implies that Dickinson chose the dash as her typical mark of punctuation when, in fact, she apparently never made any definitive choice at all. Which of the following best summarizes the author’s main point? (A) Although Johnson is right in criticizing Dickinson’s early editors for their distortion of her work, his own text is guilty of equally serious distortions. (B) Johnson’s use of the dash in his text of Dickinson’s poetry misleads readers about the poet’s intentions. (C) Because Dickinson never expected her poetry to be published, virtually any attempt at editing it must run counter to her intentions. (D) Although Johnson’s attempt to produce a more faithful text of Dickinson’s poetry is well-meaning, his study of the material lacks sufficient thoroughness. (E) Dickinson’s editors, including Johnson, have failed to deal adequately with the problem of deciphering Dickinson’s handwritten manuscripts. 2. Alba: I don’t intend to vote for Senator Frank in the next election. She is not a strong supporter of the war against crime. Tam: But Senator Frank sponsored the latest anticrime law passed by the Senate. Alba: If Senator Frank sponsored it, it can’t be a very strong anticrime law. Which of the following identifies the most serious logical flaw in Alba’s reasoning? (A) The facts she presents do not support her conclusion that Senator Frank is soft on crime. (B) She assumes without proof that crime is the most important issue in the upcoming election. (C) She argues in a circle, using an unsupported assertion to dismiss conflicting evidence. (D) She attacks Senator Frank on personal grounds rather than on he merit as a political leader. (E) In deciding not to vote for Senator Frank, she fails to consider issues other than

crime. 3. Which of the following best completes the passage below? In opposing government regulation of business, conservatives often appeal to the Jeffersonian ideal of limited government, expressing the wish that government would “get off the backs of the American people.” Yet, paradoxically, many of these same conservatives address questions of private morality, such as those dealing with sexual behavior, by calling for______ (A) a return to the restrictive sexual morality of the Victorian era (B) a strengthening of the role of the family in setting moral norms for society (C) a limitation on the amount of sexually provocative material appearing in books, motives, and television shows (D) greater freedom for individuals to choose their own way of handling sexual issues (E) an increased governmental role in the regulation and control of private sexual behavior 4. In many surveys, American consumers have expressed a willingness to spend up to 10 percent more for products that are ecologically sound. Encouraged by such surveys, Bleach-O Corporation promoted a new laundry detergent, Bleach-O Green, as safer for the environment. Bleach-O Green cost 5 percent more than typical detergents. After one year, Bleach-O Green had failed to capture a significant share of the detergent market and was withdrawn from sale. Which of the following questions is LEAST likely to be relevant in determining the reasons for the failure of Bleach-O Green? (A) How effective as a detergent was Bleach-O Green? (B) How many other detergents on the market were promoted as safe for the environment? (C) How much more did Bleach-O Green cost to manufacture than ordinary detergents? (D) To what extent did consumers accept the validity of Bleach-O Green advertised and promoted to consumers? (E) How effectively was Bleach-O Green advertised and promoted to consumers?

1. This is the toughest of all the 4 questions that you posted. Options B, C and D could be eliminated easily as the passage does not talk about Dickinson's desire for NOT getting published, Johnson's lack of thoroughness (replacing 'indecipherable' punctutation marks with dash is not being inattentive), problem of deciphering dickinson's handwriting. Options A and B gave me a hard time. I am chosing B because A uses the words 'serious distortions' whereas the author of the passage hardly hints that the distortions were serious. 2. Easy one. This is a common fallacy knows as the circular argument or begging the question. A circular argument makes a conclusion based on material that has already been assumed in the argument. Here's an example: Early to bed and early to rise makes a man wise because it is not wise to go to bed late or sleep till late.

Answer: C 3. E. The argument is seeking to prove that on one hand conservatives want a limited role of government while on the other hand they want government to take action. 4. C is completely irrelevant since it is given in the passage itself that Bleach-O green cost 5 percent more than typical detergents. Let me know what are the official answers. Total Gadha

Defense Department analysts worry that the ability of the United States to wage a prolonged war would be seriously endangered if the machine-tool manufacturing base shrinks further. Before the Defense Department publicly connected this security issue with the import quota issue, however, the machine-tool industry raised the national security issue in its petition for import quotas. Which of the following, if true, contributes most to an explanation of the machine-tool industry’s raising the issue above regarding national security? (A) When the aircraft industries retooled, they provided a large amount of work for tool builders. (B) The Defense Department is only marginally concerned with the effects of foreign competition on the machine-tool industry. (C) The machine-tool industry encountered difficulty in obtaining governmental protection against imports on grounds other than defense. (D) A few weapons important for defense consist of parts that do not require extensive machining. (E) Several federal government programs have been designed which will enable domestic machine-tool manufacturing firms to compete successfully with foreign toolmakers. Plz Explain?

Premise 1- Defense analyst worry that shrinking machine tool base will endanger defense. Premise 2- Defense department did not connect this security issue with import quota before. Premise 3- Machine tool industry raised the national security issue in its petition for import quotas. A, D, and E are useless. The only tight options are B and C. Out of this I will choose C. I will not choose B because of two reasons-

first, B is nothing but premise 2 worded differently- Defense department did not connect this security issue with import quota before----> The Defense Department was not concerned with the effects of foreign competition on the machine-tool industry. Second, read the question carefully- Which of the following contributes most to an explanation of the machine-tool industry’s raising the issue above regarding national security? Or in other words, why is Machine tool industry raising the defense issue in their import quota petition? Because the machine tool industry is trying to use defence issue to obtain import quotas. why defence issue? because they are not getting the quota through any other means. Therefore, C. Total Gadha

1. In Swartkans territory, archaeologists discovered charred bone fragments dating back 1 million years. Analysis of the fragments, which came from a variety of animals, showed that they had been heated to temperatures no higher than those produced in experimental campfires made from branches of white stinkwood, the most common tree around Swartkans. Which of the following, if true, would, together with the information above, provide the best basis for the claim that the charred bone fragments are evidence of the use of fire by early hominids? (A) The white stinkwood tree is used for building material by the present-day inhabitants of Swartkans. (B) Forest fires can heat wood to a range of temperatures that occur in campfires. (C) The bone fragments were fitted together by the archaeologists to form the complete skeletons of several animals. (D) Apart from the Swartkans discovery, there is reliable evidence that early hominids used fire as many as 500 thousand years ago. (E) The bone fragments were found in several distinct layers of limestone that contained primitive cutting tools known to have been used by early hominids.

2. An experiment was done in which human subjects recognize a pattern within a matrix of abstract designs and then select another design that completes that pattern. The results of the experiment were surprising. The lowest expenditure of energy in neurons in the brain was found in those subjects who performed most successfully in the experiments. Which of the following hypotheses best accounts for the findings of the experiment?

(A) The neurons of the brain react less when a subject is trying to recognize patterns than when the subject is doing other kinds of reasoning. (B) Those who performed best in the experiment experienced more satisfaction when working with abstract patterns than did those who performed less well. (C) People who are better at abstract pattern recognition have more energy-efficient neural connections. (D) The energy expenditure of the subjects brains increases when a design that completes the initially recognized pattern is determined. (E) The task of completing a given design is more capably performed by athletes, whose energy expenditure is lower when they are at rest than is that of the general population.