My Questions Physiology.docx

Physiology Questions I Made 1. blood from the upper extremity drains into what? SUPERIOR VENA CAVA 2. blood from the lower extremity drains into what? INFERIOR VENA CAVA 3. blood from the azygous vein drains into what? SUPERIOR VENA CAVA 4. the SA node is located in the crista terminalis which is located in the right __ATRIUM____ 5. the pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood? DEOXYGENATED BLOOD 6. the pulmonary veins carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood? OXYGENATED BLOOD 7. blood is oxygenated in the lungs via what effect? BOHR EFFECT 8. how many oxygen molecules bind to hemoglobin? 4 O2 MOLECULES 9. how saturated is hemoglobin after leaving the lungs? 97% 10. which chamber does blood contain the highest amount of oxygen? LEFT ATRIUM 11. how much blood fills the left ventricle? 120 mL or 80% of the ventricle filled 12. how much blood is pumped out of the left ventricle per contraction? only 20 mL 13. what is the first downward deflection on the EKG? Q wave 14. what does the P wave represent? atrial depolarization 15. what does the PR interval represent? from when the SA node fires to the end of the delay @ AV 16. what does the PR segment represent? the time length of the delay at the AV node 17. what does the QRS interval represent? ventricular depolarization 18. what does the ST segment represent? the time from ventricular depolarization to when ventricular repolarization begins 19. what does the T wave represent? ventricular repolarization 20. what does the U wave represent? repolarization of the papillary muscles 21. what does an inverted T wave represent? myocardial infarction 22. what is the difference between 1st deg. and 2nd deg. heart block? 23. what are two AKA’s for 2nd deg heart block? Mobitz Type 1 or Winkeboch’s 24. what is the most common cause of liver failure? alcoholism 25. mallory bodies in the liver indicate what deficiency? B1 deficiency 26. ARMS and PRTS occurs in diastole or systole? diastole 27. tunica intima is what part of the vessel? the innermost layer 28. tunica muscularis is what part of the vessel? the middle layer 29. tunica adventitia is what part of the vessel? the outer layer 30. what is the universal donor of blood? type O 31. what is the universal recipient of blood? type AB 32. what 4 components make up the tetralogy of fallot? right ventricular hypertrophy, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, interventricular septal defect 33. what are signs and symptoms of marfan’s syndrome? eye lens subluxation, arachnodactyly, dissecting aneurysm, tall stature 34. what is the most common benign heart tumor? myxoma 35. hering-breuer reflex limits respiratory excursion via the _VAGUS_ nerve 36. what is laplace’s law for arteries? the tension of an artery depends on the radius of the artery 37. what is laplace’s law for the heart? the amount of pressure in an artery depends on the size and shape of the heart 38. what does starling’s law state? CO = VR. if VR > CO, you have congestive heart failure 39. what is the effect called when hemoglobin becomes more acidic when it binds to oxygen? haldane effect 40. insert diagram of lung volume chart 41. tidal volume is control by what center? pneumotaxic center

42. what is the volume for tidal volume? 500 mL 43. what is the volume for inspiratory capacity? 3500 mL 44. what is the volume for functional residual capacity? 2300 mL 45. what is the volume for vital capacity? 4600 mL 46. what is the volume for total lung volume? 5800 mL 47. what is dead space? the volume of air uninvolved in gas exchange 48. respiration is controlled by the _DORSAL_ motor nucleus of 10 49. nucleus ambiguus is CN _9_, _10_, and _11_ 50. what is the definition of compliance? how far the lungs will expand per unit of pressure 51. lack of surfactant at birth is called what? and what is the AKA? acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and the AKA is neonatal hyaline membrane disease 52. type 1 pneumocytes are involved in what? gas exchange 53. type 2 pneumocytes are involved in what? surfactant production 54. __DUST__ cells are the macrophages of the lungs 55. fluid in the lungs collects in the _COSTODIAPHRAGMATIC_ recess 56. most of the CO2 in the body exists in the form of __BICARBONATE ION____ 57. what is an aka for carbon monoxide? carboxyhemoglobin 58. what enzyme converts water and co2 to bicarbonate and hydrogen ion? carbonic anhydrase 59. what is the mineral needed for carbonic anhydrase? zinc 60. respiratory acidosis/alkalosis and metabolic acidosis/alkalosis 61. the macula densa is sensitive to _Na+_ concentration. when the concentration is high in sodium, it interprets it as high blood pressure and says WOAH we need to lower it. the macula densa does this by telling the afferent arteriole which causes vasodilation which decreases pressure. when this happens, the JG cells release renin which turns angiotensiogen (which is made in the _LIVER_) into angiotensin 1. angiotensin 1 goes to the lung where ACE is which turns angiotensin 1 into angiotensin 2 which is the most powerful vasoCONSTRICTOR. angiotensin 2 acts on the efferent arteriole causing vasoconstriction. increased pressure forces fluid out of the glomerulus into bowman’s capsule for filtration 62. angiotensin 2 goes to the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone which acts on the DISTAL CONVOLUTED TUBULES saving sodium and not potassium. when sodium levels rise, ADH is released which acts on the collecting ducts to retain water which is returned to the blood diluting the high sodium concentration eventually shutting off ADH. 63. papilla -> renal pyramids -> minor calyx -> major calyx -> renal sinus -> renal pelvis ??????????? 64. preprostatic urethra -> prostatic urethra -> membranous urethra -> penile urethra 65. what is it called if the penile urethra is on top of the penis? epispadias 66. what is it called if the penile urethra is on the bottom of the penis? hypospadias 67. which part of the penis is responsible for erection? corpus cavernosa 68. what is the bladder muscle called? detrusor 69. what triggers the release of aldosterone? angiotensin 2 70. what does aldosterone act on? distal convoluted tubule 71. what triggers the release of ADH? sodium concentration 72. what does ADH act on? collecting duct 73. DCT -> SODIUM ONLY; PCT -> EVERYTHING ELSE 74. renal blood flow???????????? 75. the pineal gland produces what thing that is required for sleep? melatonin 76. what is another name for the anterior pituitary? adenohypophysis 77. what is another name for the posterior pituitary? neurohypophysis 78. the anterior pituitary is connected to the hypothalamus by what? hypophyseal portal system 79. the posterior pituitary is connected to the hypothalamus by what? infundibulum

80. where is the anterior and posterior pituitary located? sella turcica 81. what are the hormones of the anterior pituitary? FLAT PMG 82. what are the hormones of the posterior pituitary? oxytocin and ADH (vasopressin) 83. T3 is stronger than T4 84. the heart prevents tetany by creating __PLATEAUS____ 85. hyperparathyroidism -> breaks down bown. salt and pepper skull 86. calcitonin -> builds up bone 87. zona glomerulosa (aldosterone/salt) -> zona fasciculata (cortisol/sugar) -> zona reticularis (androgens/sex) 88. what type of cells secrete norepinephrine and epinephrine? chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla 89. a tumor of the adrenal medulla is called what? pheochromocytoma 90. excess aldosterone is called what? conn’s syndrome 91. testosterone is made by what type of cells? interstitial cells of leydig 92. what hormone forms the corpus luteum? luteinizing hormone 93. when the corpus luteum dies, what does it become? corpus albicans 94. sperm is made where? seminiferous tubules 95. sperm is stored where? vas deferens 96. sperm is matured where? epididymus 97. what muscle wrinkles the scrotum? dartos fascia 98. what is the condition called when the testes fail to descend? cryptorchidism 99. what muscle raises the testes? cremaster muscle 100. what enzyme starts the breakdown of starch? pancreatic amylase 101. what enzyme starts the breakdown of fat? pancreatic lipase 102. what type of glands give rise to parietal cells and chief cells? gastric glands 103. parietal cells make what 2 things? intrinsic factor and HCl 104. pancreatic amylase breaks down _starch___ 105. pancreatic lipase breaks down _fat___ 106. trypsinogen breaks down __protein__ 107. what converts trypsinogen into trypsin? enterokinase 108. lactase breaks down lactose into what 2 things? glucose + galactose 109. sucrase breaks down sucrose into what 2 things? glucose + fructose 110. maltase breaks down maltose into what 2 things? glucose + glucose 111. the mineral for B12 is what? cobalt 112. the fish tapeworm (diphyllobothrium latum) in the ileum stops the absorption of what vitamin? B12 113. draw the liver and the ligaments 114. what percentage of the total body fluid is extracellular fluid? 60% 115. kwashiorkor is __protein___ malnutrition 116. nephrotic syndrome = pre-eclampsia = hypertension, edema, massive proteinurea 117. a sarcomere spans from Z-disc to Z-disc 118. which bands disappear? H band and I band 119. H band = myosin only 120. I band = actin only 121. endomysium is the covering of a muscle _fiber___ 122. perimysium is the covering of a muscle _fascicle___ 123. epimysium is the covering of a muscle _in entirety___ 124. know action potentions, how actin and myosin binds with different muscles, etc. 125. isometric = contraction with no joint movement (wall squat) 126. isotonic = contraction with joint movement with constant weight (dumbell bicep curl)

127. isokinetic = contraction with constant speed but variable resistance (lance armstrong rides 30 mph whether he rides on a flat surface or going up a mountain) 128. what organism is botox? clostridium botulinum 129. what food is clostridium botulinum found in, and what syndrome does it cause in babies? honey and the syndrome is called “floppy baby syndrome” 130. what is the first sign of floppy baby syndrome and the second sign? first sign is double vision. second sign is death 131. clostridium tetanae blocks inhibitory neurotransmitters (which are only GABA and GLYCINE) 132. there is no _TROPONIN___ in smooth muscle 133. which muscle is stronger: smooth or skeletal? smooth muscle 134. skeletal muscle has TROPONIN; smooth muscle has CALMODULIN 135. slow twitch fibers are good for ENDURANCE -> red color -> more mt. -> aerobic 136. fast twitch fibers are good for EXPLOSIVE POWER -> white color -> anaerobic 137. what is conduction? loss of temperature through contact 138. what is convection? air waves cool off the object 139. what is radiation? how you normally give off heat 140. what is evaporation? perspiration 141. primary receptors -> annulospiral -> nuclear bag and chain 142. secondary receptors -> flowerspray -> nuclear chain 143. primary active transport => requires ATP 144. secondary active transport => co-transport