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IOP/20S/31

~eo\o~~ Question Booklet No...................... .

(To be filled up by the candidate by blue/ black ball·point pen)

Roll No. Roll No. (Write the digits in words) ..................................................................................................................

Serial No. of OMR Answer Sheet ......................................... .. (Signature of Invigilator)

Day and Date ......... ', ........................................................... .

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

H

(Use only blue/black ball-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet) Within 10 minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that it contains all the pages in correct sequence and that n.o pagel question is missing. In case of faulty Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the Superintendent/Invigilators immediately to obtain a fresh Question Booklet.

2.

Do not bring any loose paper, written or blank, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Card

TE S

1.

without its envelope.

A separate Answer Sheet is given. It should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shall not be provided. Only the Answer Sheet will be evaluated.

4.

Write your Roll Number and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above.

5.

On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provided at the top, and by darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number and the Set Number in appropriate places.

6.

No ovetwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No., Question Booklet No. and Set No. (if any) on OMR sheet and also Roll No. and OMR Sheet No. on the Question Booklet.

7.

Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unfair means. Each question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, you are to record the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle in the corresponding row of the Answer Sheet, by ball-point pen as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the Answer Sheet. For each question, darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet. If you darken more than one circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect.

EN

.V

R

G

8.

KA

3.

9. 10.

Note that the answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish to attempt a question, leave all the circles in the corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero mark).

11.

For rough work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page at the end of this Booklet.

12.

Deposit both the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet at the end of the Test.

13.

You are not pennitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test.

14.

If a candidate attempts to use any fonn of unfair means, he/she shall be liable to such punishment as the University may determine and impose on him/her. (No. of Printed Pages: 20+2

H TE S

lOP/205/31

No. of Questions/;m'f
Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question. ~

fu«

w-i\ 'lit

-;;
1('Ii ajq; 'IW

'!it I mil'l;

~ I mil'l; ~ Wo! 'liT

Wo! 3 ajq; 'liT ~ I mil'l; 'WRI TiR

iii

1m!i'Ii "P' "i\'1T I

If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct

.V

(2)

KA

(1)

EN

Note/m:

Full Marksf1!:"1!q; : 450

Fibrous fann is characteristic for which mineral?

G

1.

R

answer, choose the closest one.

(I) Chrysotile

2.

3.

Hornblende

(3)

Actinolite

(4) Tremolite

The streak: of a mineral is (1) the colour of its powder

(2) the cleavage in monochromatic light

(3) the breaking due to pressure

(4) hardness in different directions

In which mineral there is no cleavage? (1)

(366)

(2)

Garnet

(2)

Spinel

(3) Quartz

1

(4) All of these (P.T.O.,

lOP/205/31

Aquamarine is a variety of

(2) Microcline

(I) Corrundum

(2) Staurolite

(3) Augite

KA

(2) Calcite

EN

.V

(2) Aegirine

(3) Quartz

(4) Olivine

G

R

(2) Albite

(2) Almandine

(3) Andradite

(4) Grossularite

Which of the following is an incongruently melting compound? (2) Olivine

(3) Albite

(4) Tourmaline

Which of the following is not a variety of gypsum? (I) Alabaster

(366)

(4) Diopside

Which one of the following contains manganese?

(I) Orthoclase 12.

(3) Tremolite

Of the following, the fIrst mineral to form, according to Bowen's reaction series:

(I) Spessartite 11.

(4) Muscovite

Which one of the following is an orthopyroxene?

(I) Hornblende

10.

(4) None of these

Which mineral has no silicate structure?

(I) Enstatite

9.

(3) Metamorphic

(2) Sedimentary

(I) Quartz

8.

(4) Gypsum

Staurolite is characteristic of which rock type? (I) Igneous

7.

(3) Plagioclase

Cyclic twinning is commonly seen in (I) Aragonite

6.

(4) Beryl

H

5.

(3) Tourmaline

TE S

4.

(2) Selenite

(3) Satin spar 2

(4) Iceland spar

lOP/205/31

Which one of the following is a high temperature potassium feldspar? (I) Orthoclase

(2) Baveno

(2) Amphibole

KA

EN

(3) Acmite

(4) Actinolite

.V (2) Talc

(3) Monazite

(4) Asbestos

R

Which one of the following is the softest mineral?

G

(2) Satin spar

(3) Bort

(4) Iceland spar

The mineral wollastonite crystallises in which crystal system? (2) Monoclinic

(3) Triclinic

(4) Hexagonal

Which of the following is used in crystallography? (1)

Weiss symbol

(2) Hermann Maugin notation (4) All of the above

(3) Miller indices

(366)

(4) Amazonstone

Which one of the following is radioactive?

(I) Orthorhombic

21.

(3) Orthoclase

(2) Anorthite

(1) Chlorapatite

20.

(4) Garnet

Calcium is not present in which one of the following minerals?

(1) Microcline

19.

(3) Pyroxene

(2) Sandine

(I) Apatite

18.

(4) All of these

Which of the following feldspars does not contain potassium? (I) Oligoclase

17.

(3) Manebach

The mineral fuchsite belongs to which group? (I) Mica

16.

(4) Anorthite

Orthoclase shows which type of twinning? (I) Carlsbad

15.

(3) Sanidine

H

14.

(2) Albite

TE S

13.

3

(P.T.O.)

IOP/205/31

Except for a centre of symmetry the other axial elements are absent in (2) Microcline

(1) Tourmaline

00

45

(2) 045

(2) (hkO)

(4) (001)

KA

(4)

None of these

EN

Four

(4)

Five

.V

(3)

R

(3) Three

(4) Four

G

(2) Two

The angle between the a-axis and c-axis is called "

(2) ~

(3)

Y

(4) Ii

For which crystal system the Miller symbol for the basal pinacoid is not OOI? (2) Hexagonal

(3) Monoclinic

(4) Triclinic

Of the thirty-two classes of symmetry, which of the following system has three classes? (1) Tetragonal

(366)

(3) Tourmaline

(2) Three

(1) Tetragonal 30.

(hkl)

In how many crystal systems the c-axis makes an angle with the b-axis?

(1)

29.

154

Of the feldspars, Orthoclase, Microcline. Anorthoclase, Albite, Andesine, Bytownite, Anorthite, Hyalophane and Celsian, how many are monoclinic?

(1)" One

28.

(3)

(2) Riebeckite

(1) Two

27.

(4)

A five-fold axis of symmetry is present in (1) Quartz

26.

(3) 054

The general symbol for a pyritohedron is (1 ) (hOO)

25.

(4) Orthoclase

What will be the Miller symbol of a face whose intercepts on the axes are coa: 5b : 4c ? (1)

24.

Gypsum

H

23.

(3)

TE S

22.

(2) Hexagonal

(3) Monoclinic 4

(4) Triclinic

IOP/205/31

(1) in the direction of strike

(2) at 90 0 to the strike direction

(3) at 45° to the strike direction

(4) at 0° to the strike direction

In a recumbent fold the axial plane is nearly

33.

(2) vertical

The average density of the earth is (2) 5·5 gm/cm 3

(I) 4-5 gm/cm 3 34.

(3) 6·5 gm/cm 3

(2) convergent plate boundaries

EN

(3)

transform faults

.V

R

G

(4) contour line

Columnar joints are seen in (I) Basalts

(366)

All of the above

(2) contour interval

(3) stratum contour

37.

(4)

A strike line with a given value is called

(1) horizontal equivalent

36.

(4) 7·5 gm/cm 3

Volcanic activity is usually absent along (I) divergent plate boundaries

35.

(3) inclined at 45" (4) inclined at 30'

H

(I) horizontal

TE S

32.

Amount of dip is maximum

KA

31.

(2) Sandstones

(3) Gneissic rocks

(4) Pegmatites

Beudins are formed in (I) extensional regimes

(2)

compressional regimes

(3) zero stress regimes

(4)

fault regimes

5

(P.T.O.)

10P/205/31

Pitch is another term for (1) Hade

(l) Contour line

(2) Isothermal line

(3) Isoseismal line

(4) Isograde line

Folds with inter-limb angle> 70° are called open folds

(2) closed folds

similar folds

.V

(2)

tight folds

(4)

isoclinal folds

(3)

unconformities (4) faults

(3)

isoclinal folds

(4)

infmite folds

R

(2) Volcano

(3) Glacier

(4) Wind

(3) River

(4) Lake

G

River

Glacier

(2)

Ocean

Which one of the following is not a glacial feature? (2) Bergschrund

(3) Arete

(4) Crevasse

(3) Lacustrine

(4) Desert

Seifs are found in which environment? (1) Glacial

(366)

folds

EN

parallel folds

(1) Yardang

46.

Axial angle

A V-shaped valley is characteristic of (1)

45.

(4)

The term caldera is associated with (1)

44.

(2)

Folds having parallel limbs are (1)

43.

(3)

Gouge is associated with (1) joints

42.

Plunge

An imaginary line which joins points of equal elevation is called

(1)

41.

(3)

H

40.

Rake

TE S

39.

(2)

KA

38.

(2) Fluvial 6

IOP/205/31

Rejuvenation in an area is suggested by which of the following? (1) Waterfalls (3)

(4) All of the above

Thermohaline circulation results due to difference in (1)

49.

V-shaped valley

density

(2) temperature

(3)

(2) Lateral moraine (4) Ground moraine

KA

(3) Medial moraine

EN

Which one of the following is a type of volcanic eruption? (1)

Caledonian

(2) Strombolian

(3) Volcanic eruptions

53.

(4) Bombolian

(2) Glaciers

R

(1) deep Oceans

(4) Deserts

G

52.

(3) Venatian

Ventifacts are found in

.V

51.

(4) All of these

Which of the following marks the farthest advance of a glacier?

(1) Terminal moraine

50.

salinity

TE S

48.

(2) Paired river terraces

H

47.

A lagoonal circular coral reef is called (1) blue lagoon

(2) atoll

(3) barrier type coral reef

(4) marginal reef

What can be expected at a depth of about 35 km inside the earth? (1) Inner mantle

(2) Inner core

(3) MohoroviCiC discontinuity

(4) Gutenberg discontinuity

7

10P/205/31

54.

55.

The Richter scale measures (1) magnitude of earthquake

(2) distance of location of earthquake

(3) intensity of earthquake

(4) depth of epicentre of earthquake

Tsunami is a (2) Seismic sea wave

56.

(4) None of the above

Cyclone

The term 'piracy' is associated with which of the following? (2) Wind

EN

(2) suspension

traction

.V

(2) three or four

(4) one

R

four

(I) a and c crystallographic axes

(2) biaxial optic axes

(3) fastest and slowest direction

(4) None of the above

A mineral 'X' is invisible in Canada Balsam. The refractive index of 'X' is

(2)

1-44

(3)

1-64

(4)

1·00

The highest relief will be shown by which one of the following minerals?

(1) 'A', RI (366)

(4) None of these

2V is the angle between the

(1) 1·54 61.

(3) saltation

(3)

G

60.

(4) Lake

The number of crystallographic axes in uniaxial minerals is

(1) three 59.

River

Sediment transport in which particles are moved forward in a series of short leaps and bounces is called (1)

58.

(3)

KA

(1) Ocean

57.

TE S

(3)

H

(1) Typhoon

~

1-42

(2) 'B' RI

(3) 'C' RI

~1-44

8

~

1·59

(4) 'D' RI

~1·62

lOP/20S/31

(2) vibration direction of analyser

(3) both (I) and (2)

(4) None of the above

A mineral has three values for its refractive indices. The mineral crystallises in (2) tetragonal system

(3) hexagonal system

(4) orthorhombic system

In uniaxial minerals, there is no double refraction along which crystallographic axis? (I)

65.

a'ruas

(2) b-ruas

(4) Any of the above combinations

R

Calcite

(3) Wollastonite

(4) Microdine

G

(2)

Which mineral commonly shows euhedral shape? (I) Quartz

(366)

(2) X -Z plane

Which mineral shows one set of cleavage in thin sections? (I) Muscovite

68.

(4) All of these

.V

(3) Y -Z plane

67.

(3) o-ruas

The optic axes in biaxial minerals always lie in (I) X-Y plane

66.

H

(l) cubic system

TE S

64.

(I) vibration direction of polariser

KA

63.

A mineral is in extinction position when its vibration plane is parallel to

EN

62.

(3) Microcline

(2) Zircon

(4) Muscovite

Inclined extinctions are shown by which of the following mineral sets? (1) Andesine, Hornblende, Kyanite

(2) Augite, Muscovite, Beryl

(3) Biotite, Tourmaline, Quartz

(4) Garnet, Microcline, Hypersthene

9

IP.T.O.I

1OP/205/31

Which mineral is isotropic under the microscope? (I) Almandine

71.

(3) Tourmaline

Isochromatic lines are seen as a part of the interference figure in (I) tetragonal minerals

(2) hexagonal minerals

(3) monoclinic minerals

(4) All of the above

Calcite is (I) uniaxial positive

(2) uniaxial negative

(3) biaxial positive

KA

(4) biaxial negative

Inclined extinction is shown by

EN

72.

(I) calcite

R

75.

(366)

(4) None of the above

Spinifex texture is found in which rock? (2) Komatiite

(3) Tholeiite

(4) Rhyolite

G

(I) Lamprophyre

74.

(2) basal section of augite

.V

(3) basal section of hornblende 73.

(4) All of these

H

70.

(2) Biotite

TE S

69.

Dolerite shows which texture? (I) Ophitic

(2) Panidiomorphic

(3) Allotriomorphic

(4) Seriate

Eutectic crystallisation of quartz and K-feldspar give rise to (1) hypidiomorphic texture

(2) porphyritic texture

(3) graphic texture

(4) All of !he above 10

IOP/205/31

76.

In the lUGS classification, the field of diorite falls near which end of the triangle? (2) Alkali feldspar (A)

(I) Quartz (Q) (3)

77.

(4) None of the above

Plagioclase (P)

The periclase-silica phase diagram exhibits (I) eutectic points

78.

H

(4) All of the above

liquid immiscibility

TE S

(3)

(2) peritectic point

As per the Bowen's reaction series the correct order of crystallisation is shown. by (2) Anorthite-Bytownite-Labradorite

KA

(1) Albite-Anorthite-Labradorite

79.

Which one is a type of meteorite? (I) Anthracite

82.

(366)

(4) Adulite

(3) Boninite

(4) Trachyte

Sideromelane is a synonym for (2) Basinite

G

(I) Tachylyte

81.

(3) Aubrite

.V

(2) Anticilite

R

80.

(4) Anorthite-Labradorite-Bytownite

EN

(3) Albite-Oligoclase-Andesine

A komatiite should contain (I) CaO>16%

(2) Na20+K20>22%

(3) Si0 2 > 54%

(4) MgO>18%

Filter pressing is associated with

(1) magmatic differentiation

(2) texture

(3) volatiles

(4) viscosity 11

(P.T.O.!

lOP/205/31

Pillow structure is shown by (1) Granites

(2) Granite

(2) 1-P=F-C

KA EN

(4) All of the above

A magmatic association with felsic and mafic members predominating is termed as (1) bioomial

R

(4) Siderolite

(3) Diorite

(4) Granodiorite

G

(3) Achondrite

(2) Syenite

In a phase diagram, the phase rule at an invariant point is defmed by (2) F =1

(3) F =2

(4) F=3

Which of the following are lithophile elements?

(1) Ag, Zn, Pb (366)

(2) Impactite

Dacite is the volcanic equivalent of

(1) F =0

91.

(4) bi-petrotectonic

Of the following which one is not a meteorite?

(I) Granite

90.

(3) bimodal

.V

(2) bimagmatic

(1) Chondrite

89.

(4) P+F=C+2

(2) increase in AI

{3} increase in H 20

88.

(4) Lamprophyres

(3) F +C =P-2

Viscosity of a magma increases with (1) increase in Mg

87.

(3) Fossils

The condensed phase rule is given by the formula (1) P+C=F-1

86.

(4) Basaltic lava

Ankaramite and picrite are types of (1) Basalts

85.

(3) Lamprophyres

H

84.

(2) Rhyolites

TE S

83.

(2) Li, Zr, V

(3) Ru, Os, Au 12

(4) S, Se, Te

lOP/205/31

92.

Elements of B-subgroups (in periodic table) with 18 electrons in outermost shell are (I) atmophile

93.

(2) lithophile

(3) chalcophile

(4) siderophile

Rubidium Strontium Dating is useful for (1) relatively young sediments

H

(2) relatively old geological material

TE S

(3) a hundred to thousand year old rocks (4) non-geological material

Element of which atomic number is absent in the earth?

95.

(2) 42

(2)

46

(3)

49

(4)

53

.V

Which sedimentary structures can be used to decipher top and bottom of beds? (I) Graded bedding

R

(2) Current ripples

(3) Deformational structures

(4) All of the above

G

97.

(4) 44

The weight percent oxygen in the earth crust is about (I) 42

96.

(3) 43

KA

(I) 41

EN

94.

The composition of an arkose would be (1) Quartz + Lithics + (Matrix> 15%) (2) Quartz + Feldspars + (Matrix> 15%) (3) Quartz + Feldspars + (Matrix < 15%) (4) Quartz + Lithics + (Matrix < 15%)

98.

An authigenic growth forms during

(I) sedimentation (366)

(2) diagenesis

(3)

13

palingenesis

(4) anatexis (P.T.G.!

lOP/205/31

100.

A turbidite deposit may show (I) ripple marks and good sorting

(2) current lamination and ripple marks

(3) rain prints and flute marks

(4)

As per Wentworth's scale, clay size is defined as (I) less that 1/256 mm more than 256 mm

Micrite is

KA

silt

(4) pebbles

A rock composed mainly of quartz with matrix less than 15% is

R

105.

(3) sand

.V

(2)

(3) Litharenite

(4) Mudstone

G

(1) Quartz arenite (2) Greywacke 104.

0-5 mm to 1-5 mm

Rudite is a rock comprising (I) clay

103.

(4)

(4) a hexagonal iron carbonate

EN

102.

1 mm to 1/256 mm

(2) a type of stalactite

(1) a fine grained carbonate (3) similar to myrmekite

(2)

TE S

(3)

101.

graded bedding and poor sorting

H

99.

Sabkha is a

(1) superatidal deposit

(2)

(3) deep sea deposit

(4) river terrace deposit

desert deposit

A sedimenta,7 rock may fann by weathering and deposition of which rock type? (I) Igneous/Sedimentary/Metamorphic (2) Only Sedimentary/Metamorphic (3) Only Igneous/Metamorphic

(366)

(4) Only Igneous/Sedimentary 14

IOP/205/31

(1) sodic hornblende

(2) sodic pyroxene

(3) sodic garnet

(4) sodie plagioclase

Texture formed by parallel arrangement of acicular minerals in a metamorphic rock is called (I) crystalloblastic

108.

(4) Biotite schist

EN

(3) hornfels

(4)

greenstones

.V

(3) Quartz

(4)

Kyanite

R

(2) Lawsonite

Laumontite is stable at water pressure of

(2)7to5kb

(3) 5to3kb

(4) < 3 kb

Vesuvianite is formed in (I) metamorphosed arenites

(2) metamorphosed pelites

(3) metamorphosed marls

(4) metamorphosed carbonates

Texture of charnockite is (I) granoblastic

(366)

(3) Marble

(2) charnockites

G

113.

Hornfels

The beginning of metamorphism is indicated by the fITst appearance of

(I) >7 kb

112.

(4) porphyroblastic

An AFM diagram depicts the metamorphic mineral assemblage of

(I) Staurolite

111.

(3) lepidoplastic

KA

(2)

(1) pelitic rocks 110.

(2) nematoblastic

Saccharoidal texture is seen in which rock? (I) Syenite

109.

H

107.

Omphacite, characteristically found in eclogite is a

TE S

106.

(2) porphyritic

(3) hypidiomorphic (4) lepidoblastic IS

(P.T.O.)

IOP/20S/31

115.

With increasing metamorphism, sequence of index minerals will be

(I) Biotite-Chlorite-Kyanite

(2) Kyanite-Sillmanite-Almandine

(3) Almandine-Staurolite-Kyanite

(4) Biotite-Sillimanite-Kyanite

Muscovite + Quartz

=

K-feldspar + A1 2 SiO s + H 2 0 (water pressure < 3·5 kb) defmes

(I) beginning of very low grade metamorphism

TE S

(2) beginning of low grade metamorphism

H

114.

(3) beginning of medium grade metamorphism

116.

KA

(4) beginning of high grade metamorphism

In India, the iron ore deposits are mainly of which type?

117.

(2) Hematite

(3) Limonite

(4) Siderite

EN

(1) Magnetite

'Blue Dust' is a type of

.V

(1) iron deposit in Goa

R

(2) copper deposit in Khetri

G

(3) manganese deposit in Madhya Pradesh

(4) cobalt deposit 118.

Sphalerite is generally associated with (1) braunite

119.

(366)

(2) magnetite

(3) cuprite

Lead and zinc is mainly mined from

(I) Rajasthan

(2) Kerala

(3) Madhya Pradesh

(4) Uttar Pradesh

16

(4) galena

IOP/205/31

Jaduguda is famous for (1)

122.

copper

(2)

(3)

(2) they exhibit fenitisation

(3) they host diamonds

(4) All of the above

Which of the following is (are) used in the steel industry?

(2) Manganese ore

KA

(3) Sweden

(4) Australia

.V

100 to 200°C

(3) 200 to 300 °C

(4) 300 to 500°C

R

(2)

G

The chromite deposits of Orissa are found in (2) Sitampundi

(3) Ratnagiri

(4) Byrapur Area

The bauxite deposits of Ranchi have a composition of about

(I) 20 to 30% Al 2 0

3

(2) 40 to 50% Al 20 3

(3) 50 to 60% Al 2 0

3

(4)

10 to 20% Al 20 3

Which mineral is used for the separation of aluminium metal by electrolysis? (I) Chrysolite

(366)

Denmark

Hydrothermal ore deposits of mesothermal type are formed at which temperatures?

(1) Sukinda

127.

EN

(2)

(I) 0 to 100°C

126.

(4J All of the above

The largest iron ore deposits of igneous origin are found in

(I) India

125.

tungsten

(1) they contain crustal zenoliths

(3) Limestone, dolomite, quartz

124.

(4)

Kimberlites are important because

(lJ Coal

123.

manganese

H

121.

uranium

TE S

120.

(2) Chrysotile

(3) Cryolite 17

(4) Chiastolite (P.T.O.)

10P/205/31

Which one of the following can be used to recover gold by amalgamation? (I) 2inc

129.

(2) Mercury

(2)

pyrite

KA EN

Trilobites became extinct at the end of

.V

(2) Devonian

(3) Permian

(4) Cretaceous

R

Graptolites reached their maximum development in

G

(2) Ordovician

(3) Silurian

(4) Carboniferous

Ammonoids became extinct at the end of (I) Tertiary

(366)

(4) Kyanite

(4) Punjab

(I) Cambrian

135.

Gypsum

(2) Madhya Pradesh

(I) Cambrian

134.

(3)

Dinosaur egg shells have been found in the Lameta Formation in

(3) Tamil Nadu

133.

(4) Magnesite

Which one of the following is used in the cement industry?

(I) Kerala

132.

(3) Sillimanite

H

(2) Kyanite

(I) 2ioc

131.

(4) Magnesite

Which one of the following is a Neutral Refractory Mineral? (1) Chromite

130.

(3) Copper

TE S

128.

(2) Triassic

(3) Cretaceous

(4) Carboniferous

Iron-ore group is known from (I) Uttar Pradesh

(2) Maharashtra

(3) Arunachal

(4) Jharkhand-Orissa

18

IOP/205/31

Foramen is found in which one of the following? (1) Trilobites

Globigerina

Schizoneura

(2)

Favosites

(2)

a trace fossil

Ichnofossil is

Collenia columnaris

Cardita

(4)

Calymene

(3)

Productus

(4)

Syringothyris

(3) a living fossil

(4)

None of these

(3)

Collenia sp.

(2) Conophyton cylindricus

EN

(1)

(4) All of the above

The Jodhpur Sandstone is unconformably underlain by

(1) Malani Volcanics

R

(2) Aravalli Group

(3) Banded Gneissic Complex

(4) Jhiri Shales

G

142.

(3)

The Fawn Limestone contains which one of the following?

.V

141.

Brachiopods

H

(2)

(1 ) an index fossil

140.

(4)

Which one is a plant fossil? (1)

139.

(3) Graptolites

Which one of the following is a coral? ( 1) Motlivaltia

138.

Pelecypods

TE S

137.

(2)

KA

136.

Which of the following represents the correct chronostratigraphic sequence? (1) Zone----Stage-Series-System-Erathem (2) Series-Zone-Stage-System-Erathem

143.

(3)

Serie!>-System-Erathem-Zone-Stage

(4)

Zone-Stage-System-Series-Erathem

The boundary between Mesozoic and Cenozoic is approximately at (1) 55 Ma

(366)

(2) 65 Ma

(3) 75 Ma

19

(4)

125 Ma (P.T.O.)

10P/205/3l

Diamondiferous conglomerate occurs in which one of the following? (1)

147.

The Salkhala Group is overlain by

(2) Dogra slates

(3) Mandhali formation

(4) Gneissic rocks

H

(l) Talchir formation

In Kashmir, the Muth Quartzite is conformably overlain by (1)

Fenestella Shales

(3)

Syringothyris limestone

(2) Zewan formation

(4) None of the above

Which one is an Upper Gondwana Flora? (I)

Gangamopteris

(2)

Ptilophyllum

(1) Kamalial formation

(4)

Glossopteris

R

G

(4) Dhokpathan formation

When did the first plants appear on land? (1) Cambrian

150.

Vertebraria

(2) Pinjor formation

(3) Nagri formation

149.

(3)

Stegodon is a characteristic fossil of which formation?

.V

148.

(3) Bhander Group (4) Kaimur Group

TE S

146.

(2) Semri Group

KA

145.

Rewa Group

EN

144.

(2)

Ordovician

(3) Silurian

(4)

Devonian

The SargUr Schist Complex is (1) older than Dharwar Group

(2) younger than Dharwar Group

(3) equivalent to Closepet Granite

(4) younger than Papaghani Group

*** 20

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