flyers Listening
26
Reading and Writing
29
Speaking
33
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25
FLYERS : Component 1 Listening Part
Main skill focus
Input
Expected response/item type
1
Listening for lexical items
Picture and dialogue
Match names to figures in a picture
and verb phrases
Number of items 5
by drawing a line
2
Listening for information
Gapped text and dialogue
Record words or numbers
5
3
Listening for lexical items
Picture sets and short
Match pictures by writing letter
5
monologues
in box
Picture sets and dialogues
Select one of three pictures by
4
Listening for information
5
ticking box 5
Listening for lexis and position
Picture and dialogue
■ Overview
Colour and draw and write
5
Candidate performance varied to some extent from country to
The Flyers Listening paper has five parts. There are 25 questions, and the test lasts about 20 minutes. It is summarised in the table above.
country. The table below gives the average Listening performance for candidates from the main countries of entry in 2004. Country
Average number of shields
Country
Average number of shields
Argentina
3.56
Italy
2.75
Bangladesh
3.54
Malaysia
4.17
Brazil
3.39
Mexico
3.36
Chile
3.49
Russia
3.69
The Flyers Listening paper was taken by approximately 72,000
China
2.46
Spain
3.14
candidates in 2004. The average award over the whole year was
Cyprus
3.45
Sri Lanka
3.13
2.85 shields. Percentages of candidates obtaining each number of
Germany
3.57
Taiwan
3.27
shields over the year are indicated below.
Greece
3.37
Thailand
2.48
Hong Kong
3.20
Turkey
3.21
India
3.59
Vietnam
2.72
■ Marking The total score for this paper is 25.
■ Candidate performance
% of candidature 0
No. of Shields
10
20
30
1
■■■■■■
2
■■■■■■■■■■■■
3
■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■
4
■■■■■■■■
5
■■■■
40
50
Flyers, Listening, Performance by country, 2004
Performance in the different parts of this test varied, with candidates finding Parts 1, 4 and 5 the easiest and Parts 2 and 3 the most difficult.
Flyers, Listening, Achievement of Shields, 2004
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c a m b r i d g e yo u n g l e a r n e rs e n g l ish te sts | e x a m i n ati on r e po rt 2 0 0 4
Comments on candidate performance Flyers: Version 34
■ Part 4 Most candidates managed to achieve either 4 or 5 marks for this part of the test.
■ Part 1
Question 3, which required candidates to identify a short boy
This part of the test was quite well answered with many
with glasses and dark hair was found to be the most
candidates gaining full marks. Most candidates managed to
straightforward. Very few candidates were unable to identify the
identify at least one person correctly.
correct boy (key = C).
The hardest person to identify proved to be Richard (Question 2),
The most difficult questions in this part of the test proved to be
who was one of the boys lying on the ground. The clue to help
Questions 1 and 5. In Question 1, candidates had to decide
candidates identify him was ‘You can’t see his face.’ It could be
whether Harry would carry things in a rucksack, a suitcase or a
that some candidates had difficulty in hearing the difference
small bag (the key was B, the rucksack) and in Question 5,
between can and can’t. This is something students at this level
candidates had to decide what the weather was going to be like
could usefully practise.
next week (the key was A, sunny). In both these questions, the answer was actually provided towards the beginning of the
■ Part 2
dialogue which may have taken some candidates by surprise if they expected the answer to be given or confirmed towards the
This task proved to be the most challenging part of the test with
end of the dialogue.
very few candidates achieving full marks. Question 1 proved the most challenging. Candidates were expected to write 7 o’clock, 7 a.m. or 7 in the morning rather than just 7.
■ Part 5 Quite a large proportion of candidates gained full marks for this
For Question 4, many candidates lost marks by misspelling sandwiches and one or both words in glass bottle (Question 5). Although some minor misspellings were allowed (eg: sanwiches,
task, although there were many who only got three or four out of the five questions correct. Relatively few candidates answered fewer than three questions correctly.
glas, botle), others that were very wide of the mark were not. Candidates did appear to have difficulty successfully answering In Question 2, many candidates also had difficulty writing the word that was spelt out for them, T-E-R-R-A-C-E. The letters E, R, A and C all caused problems.
Question 3, which required them to draw a hat. Although candidates on the whole understood that they had to draw a hat and colour it green, some put it in the wrong place, either on the head of the wrong child or in the air between the children.
By contrast, candidates seemed to find Question 3 quite straightforward, with many giving the correct response bus.
Others lost marks either by colouring the wrong umbrella in Question 4, or by failing to write river, spelt correctly, in the
■ Part 3
appropriate space above ‘boats here’ (Question 2).
On the whole, candidates appeared to find this task difficult. The most difficult questions were Question 2, where the place, a hotel, had to be matched with a postcard showing a bridge and Question 3, where the place, a market, had to be matched to a silver box. Weaker candidates were misled by distracting material, opting for objects that were referred to in the text but were not the correct answers (e.g. in Question 2, choosing a painting of a bridge rather than a postcard, and, in Question 3, a gold plate instead of a silver box). The most straightforward question appeared to be Question 4, where candidates had to match the station with a computer magazine. Station, computer and magazine would seem to be all relatively well-known lexical items at this level.
c a m b r i d g e yo u n g l e a r n e rs e n g l ish te sts | e x a m i n ati on r e po rt 2 0 0 4
27
Recommendations for candidate preparation
■ Part 4 Part 4 covers a wide range of the grammar and vocabulary appropriate to this level. Teachers should make sure that the
■ Part 1
structures and vocabulary listed in the syllabus have been well covered in class.
Encourage candidates to spend the time they are given to look at the picture before the questions start by thinking about how each
It is also very important that candidates listen to the whole of
of the characters might be described. They should be aware that
the dialogue before choosing their answer. They should be aware
they will have to focus on language that points to the differences
that the correct answer to each individual question may come at
between two similar people in the picture.
any point in the dialogue and is not necessarily the last thing mentioned.
The language that candidates will need for this task is that which is used not only for describing people’s clothes and physical appearance but also for commenting on what they are doing.
■ Part 5
Practice in describing a range of pictures and photos containing
As with all parts of this test, make sure that candidates know
people is, therefore, likely to help candidates do well in this part
exactly what is expected of them. In Part 5, for example, they are
of the test.
required to write something and also to draw and colour one object. They will not be expected to write or draw anything
■ Part 2
difficult. Nor will they be expected to draw or colour particularly well. They simply have to show that they have understood the
Give candidates as much practice as possible with this kind of
instructions correctly.
productive task, as it is consistently the one that causes most difficulties for candidates.
For this task, candidates will need to show that they can understand language which distinguishes between two similar
Make sure that candidates understand the meanings of, and are also able to spell correctly the words in the Starters, Movers and Flyers word lists.
but slightly different objects or people. This may be a matter of understanding language which explains precisely where someone or something is, or it may be a matter of understanding
Even at Flyers level, candidates often seem uncertain about the
language which focuses on how two people or things look
names of some letters of the alphabet in English. Clearly the
different. Practice in handling these types of language will
more practice that can be given here the better.
therefore stand candidates in good stead for dealing with this part of the test.
■ Part 3
Candidates should be aware that this task is perhaps more
Make sure candidates read the introductory question and
challenging than it appears and should ensure that they listen to
instructions at the head of the task as this should help them to
the instructions very carefully.
understand what they are being asked to do. Encourage candidates to listen carefully to the whole of the dialogue and try to understand what is said. They should remember that speakers will talk about the places and objects that are illustrated that are not the right answers as well as those that are correct. Candidates should not assume that the first word they hear is the right answer.
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FLYERS : Component 2 Reading and Writing Part
Main skill focus
Input
Expected response/item type
1
Understanding definitions
Set of nouns and definitions
Match words to definitions by
and verb phrases 2
Number of items 10
copying the word
Understanding short texts
Picture and sentences
Write ‘yes’ or ‘no’ next to the
7
sentences 3
4
5
Identifying appropriate utterances
Completing a gapped text with
Short dialogue with multiple
Select best response by circling
responses
a letter
Gapped text with picture cues
Write words in gaps. Choose the best title for the story
verbs)
from a choice of 3 Text and pictures and questions
answering open-ended questions 6
Answer questions by writing a word
7
or phrase (4 words max)
Completing gapped text with
Gapped text and word sets
Complete text by selecting the best
one word (grammatical) 7
6
one word (nouns, adjectives or
Understanding short texts and
5
10
word and copying
Completing a gapped text
Gapped text
■ Overview
Write words in gaps (none supplied)
5
Candidate performance varied to a small extent from country to
The Flyers Reading and Writing paper has seven parts. There are 50 questions, and the test lasts 40 minutes. It is summarised in the table above.
country. The table below gives the average Reading and Writing performance for candidates from the main countries of entry in 2004. Country
■ Marking
Average number of shields
Country
Average number of shields
The total score for this paper is 50.
■ Candidate performance
Argentina
3.49
Italy
2.87
Bangladesh
3.66
Malaysia
3.86
Brazil
3.27
Mexico
3.34
The Flyers Reading and Writing paper was taken by approximately
Chile
3.14
Russia
3.53
72,000 candidates in 2004. The average award over the whole year
China
3.00
Spain
3.05
was 3.15 shields. Percentages of candidates obtaining each
Cyprus
3.44
Sri Lanka
3.21
number of shields over the year are indicated below.
Germany
3.56
Taiwan
2.96 2.61
% of candidature 0
No. of Shields
10
20
30
1
■■■
2
■■■■■■■■■■■
3
■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■
4
■■■■■■■■■■■■■■
5
■■■■■
40
50
Greece
3.40
Thailand
Hong Kong
3.30
Turkey
3.16
India
4.03
Vietnam
3.45
Flyers, Reading and Writing, Performance by country, 2004
For Version 34, Part 7 was clearly the section which caused most problems for candidates. The focus of Part 7 is on accuracy, and students need to think not only about meaning but also about the correct way to fill the gaps. However, candidates performed particularly well in Part 2.
Flyers, Reading and Writing, Achievement of Shields, 2004
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Comments on candidate performance Flyers: Version 34 ■ Part 1
For Question 5 (key = C), the most commonly chosen wrong option was B, Yes, she studied it. The problem here may have been that candidates confused it and there, assuming the option meant: Yes, she studied there (which would have been correct). Question 4 (key = C) was answered correctly by the majority of
Candidates answered this part quite accurately, although many
candidates and many scored full marks in this part.
errors were made in answering Question 3, where incorrect answers mostly related to food (e.g. sugar, flour, vegetables).
■ Part 4
The correct option, snacks, is a comparatively low-frequency
Candidates found some questions in this part of the test very
word, and it is likely that candidates failed to answer correctly
challenging. Problems usually arose from the spelling and
because they did not know what snacks meant. Snacks was also
the form (plural or singular) of answers which were nouns
frequently given as a wrong answer for other questions –
(e.g. Question 3, bottles), and in selecting the correct tense or
a further indication that the word was not well known.
aspect of answers which were verbs (e.g. Question 5, climbed).
It was noted that candidates continue to make many copying
Many candidates answered Questions 3 and 4 incorrectly.
errors in this part, misspelling their answers and omitting articles or the plural s.
For Question 3, nearly all the incorrect answers were variations on the spelling and form of bottles, and the most common
However, a large proportion of candidates scored full marks, with
response was bottle. Candidates should be reminded that they
Question 10 (key = gloves) causing the fewest errors.
not only need to identify the word correctly, bottle, they also need
■ Part 2
to consider how to make it fit grammatically in the context. Most incorrect answers to Question 4 involved the misspelling of
Candidates answered this part very well, giving correct responses
torch or flashlight. The most common misspelling of torch was
to most questions.
touch.
A few candidates incorrectly answered Question 3 (key = ‘No’).
A small proportion of candidates managed to score full marks in
To have decided the statement There’s a big new house between two
this part.
trees with a lake in the garden was correct, candidates must have either thought that the swimming pool was a lake and treated the two groups of trees on either side of the picture as two trees,
■ Part 5
or disregarded the word new and the reference to a lake, thinking
Most of Part 5 was answered well by candidates, but many found
that the question referred to the old, ruined house which is
Questions 3 and 5 difficult.
between two trees.
For Question 3, How late did William and his mum arrive at the
Many candidates scored full marks in this part, with Question 4
airport? the most frequent incorrect response was two hours
(key = ‘No’) causing the least difficulty.
instead of the key one/an hour. Candidates may have misread the question as How long did it take for William and his mum to arrive at
■ Part 3
the airport? for which two hours would have been the correct answer.
Candidates answered this part well, although Questions 1 and 5 proved to be challenging for some candidates.
For Question 5, How did Richard and his parents get from Newtown station to William’s house? the most commonly given wrong
Question 1 (key = B) caused the most difficulty. Candidates were
answer was They got a train instead of by taxi. Candidates had
required to recognise the (past) tense of the prompt question
probably understood the gist of the question, but found the
Where did you and your brothers and sisters go to school? The most
targeted section of text, They got a train to Newtown Station, then
commonly chosen wrong option was A, We go to school in the
they got a taxi here, difficult to process. William’s house is not
nearest town. This may have attracted weaker candidates because
directly mentioned in the text. Candidates needed to understand
it echoes one element of the prompt question (go to school).
that William’s Dad was speaking in the third line of the text and
Candidates may also have chosen the first option as obviously
they got a taxi here refers to William’s house.
correct, without giving consideration to the second, correct option: We went to school in our village, which would have brought
Questions 1, 6 and 7 caused fewer difficulties, but only a small
the issue of tense to their attention.
number of candidates scored full marks in this part.
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■ Part 6 Candidates answered this part quite well, but a significant number of candidates selected the wrong answers for Questions 9 and 10. For Question 9 (key = have), candidates were equally attracted to has and had. Candidates may have found it hard to deduce the correct answer because the subject of the sentence, Mother elephants, is distanced from the gap by usually. For the answer has, they may have treated mother alone as the subject, and for the
Recommendations for candidate preparation ■ General comment Many marks are lost because letters and/or words are not clearly written. Remind candidates to check that their handwriting is clear enough to be read by someone who is not familiar with it. It is often better not to use joined-up writing, as letters can become confused and unclear.
answer had, they either failed to pick up on how general facts are
Candidates should be reminded to write only as much as they
expressed in this text using the present simple tense or did not
need to, as marks are often lost attempting unnecessarily long
recognise that had is a past tense form.
answers, which provide more opportunity for making mistakes.
In Question 10, (key = forget), the most common wrong answer
Because young candidates are unlikely to have had much
was forgot. Again, as for Question 9, the subject, they, is distanced
experience managing their time in exams, it can be helpful when
from the gap by never. Candidates may, however, have simply
doing classroom tasks to give a time limit, both to improve
confused forget and forgot.
concentration and prevent candidates being distracted by other
Questions 3 and 8 caused very few errors, and overall a large
things.
proportion of candidates managed to score full marks in this
Make sure candidates are familiar with the structures and words
part.
in the Flyers syllabus.
■ Part 7
■ Part 1
Candidates found most of Part 7 quite challenging, and Question
Help candidates to become familiar with vocabulary in a
4 (key = have) exceptionally so. Most candidates gave wrong
particular area of lexis (see thematic vocabulary lists in the
answers for this question. The majority of candidates supplied an
Young Learners English Tests Handbook) and to practise
auxiliary or modal verb, including will, can, were, going, must, did.
distinguishing between words on the word list that are similar,
The most common wrong answer was are.
or commonly confused.
These responses probably indicate that candidates supplied
Encourage candidates to read all the options before they answer
answers to fit only the text immediately surrounding the gap,
the questions, so that they become aware of all the different
you .......... not, failing to consider the subsequent text broken it,
related words (for example, in Version 34, Part 1, vocabulary
and to give a word which links up with the participle broken.
related to ‘food’).
Question 5 (key = went) caused the fewest errors but only a few
Tell candidates to make sure they read the whole sentence
candidates scored full marks in this part.
carefully before answering. Remind them to be careful when copying their answers; many candidates lose marks by leaving out articles, adding unnecessary articles, forgetting to make them plural, or misspelling.
■ Part 2 Remind candidates that the whole sentence must be completely true to warrant a yes answer. Make sure they read the whole sentence carefully before answering. Give candidates plenty of practice matching pictures and sentences, drawing their attention to key elements of vocabulary or grammar in the sentences and using pictures which make these distinctions clear. Give more pictures than sentences, so that they really have to pay attention to the distinctions between, for example, ‘spots’ and ‘stripes’.
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31
■ Part 3 Remind candidates to read all the options before choosing the best and most appropriate one. Practise appropriate responses, not just to questions, but also to statements. Give candidates plenty of practice in using the set (formulaic) expressions in the word lists, and with short yes/no answers.
Give candidates practice in identifying what is being referred to in a text, especially the meaning of pronouns and adverbs such as here and there (see Version 34, text for Question 5: then they got a taxi here). Give candidates plenty of practice in using and reading different question words. (Which, When, How often, etc.) Remind candidates to copy the spelling correctly when taking words from the texts.
Give candidates practice in choosing appropriate responses, by giving them prompts or questions of the kind found in this part and asking them to predict responses, before giving them the options. Give plenty of practice with multiple-choice questions to encourage them to understand the differences in meaning, grammar, sense and appropriacy between options in a particular set.
■ Part 6 Remind candidates that their spelling must be 100% correct in this part, as they are copying from given options. As with Part 4 above, candidates should practise forming and choosing the correct type of word (nouns, adjectives, verbs, etc.) to fit into sentences or texts. Remind candidates that the options are given, so it is not
■ Part 4
necessary to think of a word to fit the space.
Remind candidates that, apart from the title of the story, the
Make sure candidates are familiar with past forms of regular
answer is always only one word.
and irregular verbs in the Flyers word list (e.g. Version 34,
Give candidates practice in choosing the right form of words (plural/singular nouns, adjectives, verbs) within sentences and texts. Help them to identify words or structures that will indicate what kind of word the answer is likely to be, e.g. if the gap is preceded by ‘some’, the answer cannot be a countable singular noun. Make sure candidates realise that they need to read the text surrounding the question to be able to choose the right word as the answer. The picture in isolation may not always give the
Question 10, forget and forgot).
■ Part 7 Give candidates plenty of practice in using common collocations, such as ask a question, do some homework, etc. Remind candidates to look for Part 7 on the back page of the test booklet. Some candidates have left all the answer spaces blank, and may not have realised that there was one more part to complete.
whole answer, especially if verb forms and tenses need to be
As with all gap-fill tasks, candidates should practise choosing
taken into account.
words which fit with the surrounding text lexically and
Make sure candidates know the correct past and present forms of the regular and irregular verbs in the Flyers word list.
grammatically and which help the text make sense. Make sure they do not just consider the text immediately before and/or after the gap. Their choice of a correct answer may depend on
■ Part 5
something said further back or further ahead in the text.
Problems are caused as much by the questions as by the texts, so
whole text through before they decide their final answers.
Encourage candidates to self-edit, making sure they re-read the
candidates should practise reading the questions first, without looking at the texts. Then ask them to guess the answers to the questions, before they go on to read the text and find the real answers. This should encourage candidates to interpret the questions correctly, without being tempted by distracting material in the text.
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FLYERS : Component 3 Speaking Part
Input
Expected response/item type
1
Greetings and name check (unassessed); two similar pictures
Identify six differences in Candidate’s picture from statements
(one unseen). Oral statements about unseen picture.
about Examiner’s picture
One set of facts and one set of question cues
Answer and ask questions about two people, objects or
2
situations 3
Picture sequence
Describe each picture in turn
4
Open-ended questions about candidate
Answer personal questions
■ Overview
Candidate performance varied to some extent from country to
The Flyers Speaking test has four parts, and lasts about eight minutes. It is summarised in the table above.
country. The table below gives the average Speaking performance at Flyers level for candidates from the main countries of entry in 2004. It is noticeable that, in general, candidates performed better
■ Marking
at Speaking than at the other skills.
Candidates are marked on the basis of the understanding they show
Country
by their responses, on the speed and extent to which they can
Average number of shields
Country
Average number of shields
respond, the grammatical accuracy of the speech they produce, and on their pronunciation.
■ Candidate performance
Argentina
4.52
Italy
4.04
Bangladesh
4.43
Malaysia
4.58
Brazil
4.22
Mexico
4.05
Chile
4.46
Russia
4.46 4.43
The Flyers Speaking test was taken by approximately 72,000
China
3.98
Spain
candidates in 2004. The average award over the whole year was
Cyprus
4.33
Sri Lanka
4.20
4.20 shields. Percentages of candidates obtaining each number of
Germany
4.54
Taiwan
4.47
shields over the year are indicated below. As will be noted,
Greece
4.47
Thailand
3.55
performance on this component was particularly good.
Hong Kong
4.56
Turkey
4.42
India
4.52
Vietnam
4.27
% of candidature 0
No. of Shields
10
20
30
40
50
1
■
2
■■■
3
■■■■■■
4
■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■
5
■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■
Flyers, Speaking, Performance by country, 2004
Flyers, Speaking, Achievement of Shields, 2004
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33
Recommendations for candidate preparation
The structures candidates will need most frequently in Part 3 are
Candidates in the Flyers Speaking test are required to follow
They may also need to use the present perfect tense or going to.
instructions and talk in a simple way about different visual
They should be able to say things like Katy’s thinking, ‘Which dress
prompts, and to answer simple questions about themselves.
is better?’ and She’s saying, ‘Happy birthday!’. Candidates should
These are standard tasks in most English classes for Young
also be able to describe simple feelings, for example, The children
Learners. Sample materials have been included in this report to
are/aren’t happy/afraid/cold/hungry.
There is/are, the present of the verbs be and have (got), the modals can/can’t and must/mustn’t and the present continuous of some action verbs (for example, come, go, buy, put on, carry, open, laugh).
give examples of the kind of pictures, instructions and questions candidates will be asked to respond to.
Before asking candidates to tell the story, the examiner says ‘Just look at the pictures first’. Advise candidates to look at each picture
Encourage candidates to speak clearly and to look forward to the
in turn to get a general idea of the story before they start to
test as an opportunity to show off what they know. Make sure
speak. However, they should not worry if they cannot follow the
they appreciate that they are given credit for what they say
narrative of the picture story. It is perfectly acceptable just to say
rather than being penalised for any mistakes they may make.
a few words about each picture in the sequence without
■ Part 1 In Part 1, candidates should practise listening to the teacher
developing these comments into a story. The examiner will prompt by asking a question if a candidate needs help.
make a statement about a picture, (for example, In my picture, the
■ Part 4
clock is black), relating that to a picture in front of them, and
For Part 4, make sure candidates feel confident answering
commenting on the difference: In my picture, the clock is red. In the
questions about themselves, their families and friends, their
test, differences between the examiner’s statements and the
homes, their school and free time activities, their likes and
candidate’s picture will relate to things like number, colour,
dislikes and other topics related to their everyday lives. They
position, appearance, activity, shape, and relative size, etc.
should be able to answer questions such as:
■ Part 2
What time do you get up on Saturday? What do you do on Saturday afternoon?
As well as having practice in answering questions, candidates
Simple answers of a phrase or one or two short sentences are all
should also practise asking them. For example, in Part 2, they
that is required.
should be able to form simple questions to ask for information about people, things and situations. This will include information
Questions will normally be in the present tense but candidates
about time, place, age, appearance, etc. Candidates should be able
should also be prepared to use the past and present perfect
to ask ‘question-word questions’ using Who, What, When, Where,
tenses and going to, and to answer questions about, for example,
How old, How many, etc (as, for example, in the sample materials,
what they did yesterday or are going to do at the weekend.
Where’s the school?). They should also be able to ask ‘Yes/No
Use English to give everyday classroom instructions so that
questions’ (for example, Are there classes every day?). Additionally,
children become very familiar with classroom language and with
they need to be comfortable asking questions with two options
everyday spoken English. Candidates create a good impression
(for example, Is the lesson interesting or boring?).
when they can handle greetings and other social formulae
■ Part 3 The Part 3 task in the Flyers Speaking test involves candidates
confidently. Try to use these on a regular basis in the classroom so that they come naturally. Encourage candidates to use Sorry or I don’t understand when this is appropriate.
telling a simple story based on five pictures and candidates will benefit from practice in telling similar simple picture stories. However, examiners are not looking for evidence of story-telling skills. Candidates are only expected to say a few words about each picture in the sequence, without necessarily developing these comments into a narrative.
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Part 1
William
Jane
David
2
Ann
Paul
Listen and draw lines. There is one example.
– 5 questions –
Sally
Richard
Meeting place: The ....................................... restaurant. Going by: .......................................................... Food: bring: .................................................. Drink: don’t bring: .......................................
2 3 4 5
3
Meeting time: ...............................................
1
19th April Date of visit: .................................................
Class 10 Visit to London
Listen and write. There is one example.
Part 2
– 5 questions –
PAPER 1: :LISTENING FLYERS WRITING
Answer Parts 1 and Sheet 2 and Answer Keys
c a m b r i d g e yo u n g l e a r n e rs e n g l ish te sts | e x a m i n ati on r e po rt 2 0 0 4
65
66
D
4
Listen and write letters in the boxes. There is one example.
What did Michael’s father buy in each place?
Part 3
– 5 questions –
F
H
E
G
5
D
B
C
A
FLYERS : LISTENING
Part 3
c a m b r i d g e yo u n g l e a r n e rs e n g l ish te sts | e x a m i n ati on r e po rt 2 0 0 4
Part 4
2
1
B
A
What has Harry forgotten?
A
B
B
6
What is Harry going to carry his things in?
A
Where is Harry going to go with his club?
Listen and tick () the box. There is one example.
– 5 questions –
C
C
C
5
4
3
B
B
A
B
7
What is the weather going to be like next week?
A
Which book is Harry going to take with him?
A
Who is Harry going to sit next to?
C
C
C
PAPER 1: :LISTENING FLYERS WRITING
Answer Part 4 Sheet and Answer Keys
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67
FLYERS : LISTENING
8
Listen and colour and write and draw. There is one example.
Part 5
– 5 questions –
boats here
Part 5
FLYERS : LISTENING
Mark Scheme : Version 34 PART 1 (5 marks) Lines should be drawn between: 1 Ann and blonde girl running after dog 2 Richard and boy in red lying on his back
PART 2 (5 marks) 4 William and boy in blue with hands on head 5 Jane and girl with skipping rope
1 7/seven o’clock/a.m./in the morning 2 T-E-R-R-A-C-E 3 bus 4 sandwiches
3 Sally and woman waving flag
5 (a) glass bottle
PART 3 (5 marks)
PART 4 (5 marks)
PART 5 (5 marks)
1 Castle – E – map
1 B
1 Empty boat in water – blue
2 Hotel – A – postcard of bridge
2 B
2 River written above ‘boats here’
3 Market – H – silver box
3 C
4 Station – G – computer magazine
4 B
3 ‘Hat drawn on sitting child in boat – hat must also be coloured green
5 Chemist’s – C – cough sweets
5 A
4 Umbrella with spots on – orange 5 Parrot flying between two trees – red
68
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FLYERS : LISTENING
Tapescript RUBRIC:
Hello. This is the University of Cambridge Flyers Listening Test, Version 34 .
FEMALE CHILD: FEMALE:
FEMALE CHILD: FEMALE:
PART ONE
FEMALE CHILD: RUBRIC:
Listen and look. There is one example.
The boys are playing well, aren’t they? What’s the name of the one who’s got the ball? MALE: The one who’s wearing a green sweater? FEMALE: Yes. MALE: That’s David. He’s the best footballer in the team, I think. FEMALE:
RUBRIC:
FEMALE: MALE: FEMALE: MALE: MALE: FEMALE: MALE:
FEMALE: MALE:
FEMALE: MALE: FEMALE: MALE: MALE: FEMALE: MALE: FEMALE:
MALE:
FEMALE: MALE: FEMALE:
Can you see the line? This is an example. Now you listen and draw lines.
FEMALE: FEMALE CHILD: FEMALE: FEMALE CHILD: FEMALE:
FEMALE CHILD: FEMALE:
Oh look. There’s Ann. Can you see her? The girl with the long fair hair? Yes. She’s trying to catch her dog, I think. Oh yes, she is. I’m looking for Richard. Where is he? Look! There he is. He’s lying on the ground. Is he? Which one is he? I can see two boys on the ground. He’s on his back. You can’t see his face. Can you see the woman who’s wearing a red scarf and gloves? Is she holding a flag? Yes, she is. Well, her name’s Sally. She’s the new teacher. That’s interesting. What does she teach? Maths, I think. Who’s the tall, thin boy in the blue team? Which one? There are two! The one with his hands on his head. Oh, I know him. He’s called William. He’s the son of a friend of mine. Look at Jane! She doesn’t like football, does she? She isn’t watching it. Where is she? Over there. She’s skipping. Can you see her? (laughs) Oh yes.
FEMALE CHILD: FEMALE:
FEMALE CHILD: RUBRIC:
RUBRIC:
Listen and look. There is one example.
RUBRIC:
Michael’s father is a journalist. He went to all of these places when he was writing about holidays for a newspaper last week. What did he buy in each place?
MALE:
RUBRIC:
MALE:
Now listen to Part One again. That is the end of Part One
PART TWO RUBRIC:
MALE:
Listen and look. There is one example.
Hello, Emma. Are you going to come to London with us? Yes, I am. I asked my mother yesterday and she said yes. FEMALE: Excellent! Can you write this down then, please? We know the date of the visit, now. It’s going to be on April the 19th. FEMALE:
FEMALE CHILD:
MALE:
MALE: RUBRIC: FEMALE:
Can you see the answer? Now you listen and write. Well, we’ve got to start early because it takes three hours to get there. We’re going to meet at um..7.30, I think. Wait a minute, is that right? I’ve got it here in my diary – ah no, we’ve got to meet earlier than that, at 7 o’clock. Is that all right?
Now listen to Part Two again. That is the end of Part Two.
PART THREE
MALE: RUBRIC:
Yes. I always get up very early. Oh good, that’s all right then. Now, we’re going to meet outside a restaurant. It’s called The Terrace. How do you spell that? T-E-R-R-A-C-E. Do you know it? Oh yes. I know. It’s the new one in the big road near the station, isn’t it? Yes, that’s right. Are we going to go to London by train? No, we’re not. We’re going to go by bus. OK. Do we have to bring any food? Yes. Bring some sandwiches. You can buy food in London, of course, but we won’t have much time. Shall I bring a drink, too? Yes, but please don’t bring a glass bottle. It might break. Right. Well, that’s all, I think. If you have any more questions, come and see me. OK. Thank you.
RUBRIC:
Hello, Michael. Here are a few things which I bought last week. I couldn’t carry anything big or heavy but when I was waiting for my plane at the airport I saw these beautiful stamps. Look, they’ve got dinosaurs on them, so I bought them for you. Can you see the letter D? Now you listen and write a letter in each box. I had to go and talk to a very rich businessman who lives in a beautiful castle. He sells all kinds of interesting things. I bought this old map from him. Look! I bought three postcards at the hotel that I stayed in. This one is a picture of a beautiful old bridge that I saw. There was a painting of the bridge, too, but it was too big to carry, so I didn’t buy it. This little silver box is a present for your mother. Isn’t it lovely? I bought it at a market from the artist who makes them. There was a beautiful gold plate, but that was too expensive. Oh look, I’ve got something else which you might like, here, Michael. I bought it at the station when I was waiting for a train. It’s a magazine about computer games. What are these in my pocket? Oh yes, I had a bad cough so I went to a chemist’s and bought these sweets. They smell horrible and they don’t taste nice but they’re very good for coughs. Now listen to Part Three again. That is the end of Part Three
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FLYERS : LISTENING
Tapescript (continued) PART FOUR RUBRIC:
Listen and look. There is one example. Where is Harry going to go with his club?
Where are you going to go with your club this year, Harry? Are you going to the mountains, like last year? MALE CHILD: No. We go to a different place every year. We’re going to go to a forest this year. FEMALE: Are you? You should go to the sea. I love it there. MALE CHILD: We might go there next year.
PART FIVE RUBRIC: MALE:
FEMALE:
RUBRIC:
Can you see the tick? Now you listen and tick the box.
One. What is Harry going to carry his things in? Are you going to carry your things in this old rucksack, Harry? MALE CHILD: Yes, Aunt Jane. I haven’t got a suitcase. FEMALE: I just use a bag when I go on holiday. MALE CHILD: I’ve got one, but it’s too small for all my things.
FEMALE CHILD: MALE: FEMALE CHILD: MALE: FEMALE CHILD: MALE:
RUBRIC: MALE CHILD: FEMALE: MALE CHILD: FEMALE: MALE CHILD: RUBRIC: FEMALE: MALE CHILD:
FEMALE: MALE CHILD:
RUBRIC: MALE CHILD: FEMALE: MALE CHILD: FEMALE:
MALE CHILD:
Two. What has Harry forgotten? I’m ready, now, I think. Are you sure? Have you got your torch? Yes, and some horrible pink soap that Dad bought. Have you got your camera? No, I haven’t! Thanks, Aunt Jane. I’ll go and get it. Three. Who is Harry going to sit next to? Are you going to go by train? No. We’ve got a bus. I’m going to sit next to my best friend, Jim. Who’s Jim? Is he that tall, fair boy with glasses? No, that’s not him. He’s got glasses, but he’s short with dark hair. Four. Which book is Harry going to take with him? I want to take a book with me but I’ve read all these. What kind of books do you like? Books about sport or animals. Well, I haven’t got any, but I can give you this book about men in space. OK. I’ll take that. Thanks!
Five. What is the weather going to be like next week? Is the weather going to be nice for your holiday? What did they say on the TV? MALE CHILD: It’s going to be sunny, I think. FEMALE: Oh good. A holiday in the rain isn’t very nice. MALE CHILD: No, it isn’t. Last year it was very windy – but it was OK. RUBRIC:
FEMALE:
RUBRIC:
Now listen to Part Four again. That is the end of Part Four.
Can you see the yellow car? This is an example. Now you listen and colour and write and draw.
RUBRIC:
One Now, can you see the empty boats? I can see two of them, I think. That’s right. Colour the one which is in the water. Shall I colour it pink? No. Blue is a better colour, I think.
MALE: FEMALE CHILD: MALE: FEMALE CHILD: MALE: RUBRIC: MALE: FEMALE CHILD: MALE:
FEMALE CHILD: MALE: FEMALE CHILD: MALE: RUBRIC: MALE: FEMALE CHILD: MALE: FEMALE CHILD: MALE:
FEMALE CHILD: MALE: RUBRIC: MALE: FEMALE CHILD: MALE: FEMALE CHILD: MALE:
Two Can you see the man who is sitting behind a table? Yes. Well, there’s a board next to him. Can you write something on it? OK. What shall I write? Write the word “river”. Where shall I write it? Write it above the words “boats here”. Three Now, can you draw something for me? Yes. What shall I draw? Find the children in the boats. I can see them. One of them is standing up. Well, draw a hat on the other one, the one who’s sitting down. OK. I’m doing it now. That’s good. Now colour it green. Four Would you like to do some more colouring now? Yes please. Can I colour one of the umbrellas? Yes. Which one? The one with spots. Shall I colour it purple? That’s too dark, I think. Colour it orange.
Five Can you see anything else in the picture? FEMALE CHILD: I can see two parrots. Can I colour one of them? MALE: Yes. Look at the one that’s flying between the two trees. FEMALE CHILD: I can see it. Let’s make it red. That’s my favourite colour. RUBRIC: MALE:
RUBRIC:
70
Hello, Sarah. Here’s a picture of some people in boats. Do you like it? Yes. It looks nice there. Would you like to colour it for me? Yes. What shall I do first? Can you see the car with two thin stripes on it? Yes. Shall I colour it yellow? Yes.
RUBRIC:
RUBRIC:
FEMALE:
Listen and look at the picture. There is one example.
Now listen to Part Five again. That is the end of the Flyers Listening Test.
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PAPER 1: :READING FLYERS WRITING& WRITING
Answer Part 1 Sheet and Answer Keys
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71
72
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no ...............
The black goat has stolen a shoe and is eating it.
4
yes ...............
yes or no.
A grey rabbit is coming out of a small cave.
Examples
Look and read. Write
Part 2
– 7 questions –
The man with the hat is riding a brown horse in the forest. There’s a big new house between two trees with a lake in the garden. The boy has found a watermelon and he is going to eat it. The woman with long hair is cooking some food over the fire. It has rained all afternoon and now there is a rainbow in the sky. The man with black hair and a moustache is sleeping in the tent.
2
3
4
5
6
7
5
It has snowed at the top of the mountains.
1
Questions
...............
...............
...............
...............
...............
...............
...............
FLYERS : READING & WRITING
Part 2
Part 3
1
Grandfather:
Helen:
Questions
Grandfather:
Helen:
Example
In the countryside.
In the sea.
B
C
We went to school in our village.
We’re going to start school soon.
B
C
6
We go to school in the nearest town.
A
Where did you and your brothers and sisters go to school?
In a tree.
A
Grandfather, where did you live when you were a boy?
Helen is talking to her grandfather.
Read the text and choose the best answer.
– 5 questions –
5
4
3
2
Helen:
Grandfather:
Helen:
Grandfather:
Helen:
Grandfather:
Helen:
Grandfather:
Helen:
I liked it. It was a small school.
B C
Yes, it was. Yes, we did.
B C
That’s nice!
C
B
A
7
Yes, but we weren’t in the same class.
Yes, she studied it.
Yes, he went to a different school.
Grandfather, did Grandmother go to the same school?
We helped Dad on the farm.
You are going to the beach.
B C
He went to school.
A
What did you do in the school holidays?
Yes, you have.
A
Did you have to wear a uniform?
We walked there.
A
How did you get to school?
PAPER 1: :READING FLYERS WRITING& WRITING
Answer Part 3 Sheet and Answer Keys
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73
74
Part 4
.................................
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some
.................................
8
of water. I bought some and he told us,
didn’t have anything to drink. Suddenly we saw a man who was selling
.................................
afternoon. We were all very thirsty, but we
to the pyramids. It took a long time and it was a very hot and
on the boat. One day our group rode some
slept .................................
and every day we stopped to visit some
interesting places. In the evenings we ate and
river .................................
Last year my family and I went on holiday on a boat. We went up a long
Read the story. Look at the pictures and the two examples. Write one-word answers.
– 6 questions –
................................. . Later we went outside and
A week by the sea
We visit the pyramids
A day in the mountains
Tick one box.
9
What’s the best name for this story?
when we arrived.
boat by bus. It was much quicker than riding, but I was tired and hungry
................................. up the pyramids. That evening we went to the
we had a
great! We went inside. At first I was afraid because it was very dark, but
“You’re near the pyramids now.” Ten minutes later we arrived. They were
FLYERS : READING & WRITING
Part 4
Part 5
How late did William and his mum arrive at the airport?
3
10
On what date did William and his mum go and meet his cousin, uncle and aunt?
2
....................................
....................................
Where do William’s cousin, uncle and aunt live? ....................................
Richard ....................................
1
Questions
What’s William’s cousin’s name?
Example
On the 16th April, Mum and I went to the airport. It took two hours to get there because there was a lot of traffic on the roads. We arrived at the airport an hour late and Harry and my uncle and aunt weren’t there.
My name’s William. My cousin Richard, Uncle Harry and Aunt Emma live on an island. Last year they decided to visit us for the first time. They sent us a letter. It said, “We’ll be at the airport at 11 o’clock on the 16th April.” So my mum wrote to them. Her letter said, “William and I will meet you at the airport.”
Look at the pictures and read the story. Answer the questions. Do not write more than four words in each answer.
– 7 questions –
5
4
11
How did Richard and his parents get from Newtown Station to William’s house?
Where was William’s dad when Richard and his parents phoned him?
§
...............................................
...............................................
Mum phoned Dad. “It’s OK.” Dad explained. “Their plane arrived an hour early. They didn’t see you, so they phoned our house, but I was out at the shops. They got a train to Newtown Station, then they got a taxi here.” Then Mum spoke to Aunt Emma. “I’m sorry,” said Mum, “We came to meet you, but we were too late! Now we’re going to come home. We’ll see you there soon!”
PAPER 1: :READING FLYERS WRITING& WRITING
Answer Part 5 Sheet and Answer Keys
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75
76 12
What was in the box?
7
...............................................
How did William feel when he met his cousin, uncle and aunt? ...............................................
6
An hour later we arrived home. At last I met Richard and my uncle and aunt. I was very happy. “Here’s a present for you from my island!” Richard said. It was a box of bananas and pineapples. “Thank you Richard,” I said, “I love fruit!”
FLYERS : READING & WRITING
Part 5 (continued)
c a m b r i d g e yo u n g l e a r n e rs e n g l ish te sts | e x a m i n ati on r e po rt 2 0 0 4
Part 6
Elephants live in hot places like the jungle. They live ......................
seventy years or more. Most elephants are grey. ......................
1
2
to eat and drink a lot ...................... they are very big! Elephants
5
10
...................... babies every five years. Baby elephants stay with their
9
14
very clever and they never ...................... anything!
mothers for a long time, usually three or four years. Elephants are
sleep when they ...................... standing up. Mother elephants usually
the morning and again during the hottest part of the day. They can
playing ...................... the water! They sleep for a few hours early in
ride them too. When elephants finish work they love swimming and
...................... , pulling and carrying things for people. People can
8
7
6
eat leaves, grass and fruit and they drink water. They ......................
4
move slowly, but they are very strong. They can work very
their trunks and they use ...................... to eat and drink. Elephants
3
legs and a long nose called a ‘trunk’. They can pick things up with
elephants have long teeth called ‘tusks’. They have big ears, strong
the The elephant is one of the biggest animals in ...................... world.
Example
Elephants
Read the text. Choose the right words and write them on the lines.
– 10 questions –
but
5
have
forgot
10
are
in
9
8
7
harder
needs
4
6
her
Some
since
a
3
2
1
Example
15
forgotten
has
am
over
hardest
because
need
them
This
for
an
forget
had
is
on
hard
or
needing
him
Another
ago
the
PAPER 1: :READING FLYERS WRITING& WRITING
Answer Part 6 Sheet and Answer Keys
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FLYERS : READING & WRITING
FLYERS : READING & WRITING PART 1 (10 marks)
16
anything because my arm and hand still hurt!
I ...................... to school yesterday, but I couldn’t write 5
looked at my arm and said, “It’s OK, you ...................... not 4
broken it, but be careful next time!”
Mum and then she took ...................... to hospital. The doctor
I ...................... ill and my arm hurt a lot. Peter ran home to get 2
3
...................... stop, I couldn’t! Suddenly I fell to the ground. 1
hill near our house. I went faster and faster and when I tried
and Last weekend Peter ...................... I rode our bicycles down a Example
Wednesday 2 May
Read the diary and write the missing words. Write one word on each line.
Part 7
– 5 questions –
Part 7
Mark Scheme : Version 34 PART 2 (7 marks)
PART 3 (5 marks)
PART 4 (6 marks)
1 a knife
7 a telephone
1 yes
1 B
1 camels
2 tights
8 vegetables
2 no
2 A
2 sunny
3 snacks
9 sugar
3 no
3 C
3 bottles
4 shelves
10 gloves
4 no
4 C
4 torch
5 pockets
5 yes
5 C
5 climbed
6 a fridge
6 no
6 We visit the pyramids
7 no
PART 5 (7 marks) 1 (on) (an) island 2 (on) (the) 16(th) April 3 an/one/1 hour/60/sixty minutes (late) 4 (out) at the shops/ shopping/out
78
PART 6 (10 marks) 5 (by) taxi/they got a taxi 6 (very) happy 7 (some) bananas and pineapples/ pineapples and bananas/fruit
PART 7 (5 marks)
1 for
6 hard
1 to
2 Some
7 in
2 felt/was
3 them
8 are
3 me/us
4 need
9 have
4 have/’ve
5 because
10 forget
5 went/returned
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FLYERS : SPEAKING
Summary of procedure
Flyers Speaking Summary of Procedure
1. The usher introduces the child to the examiner. The examiner asks the child what his/her surname is and how old he/she is. 2. The examiner gives the child the candidate’s copy of the Find the Difference card. The child is initially shown both copies, but then encouraged to look at his/her copy only. The examiner then makes a series of statements about his/her picture, and the child has to make a statement showing how his/her picture differs, e.g. ‘In my picture, the woman’s wearing glasses.’ ‘In my picture, the woman isn’t wearing glasses.’ 3. The examiner gives the child the candidate’s copy of the Information Exchange card. The child is initially shown both copies, but then encouraged to look at his/her copy only. The examiner first asks the child some questions related to the information the child has, e.g. ‘Where’s the school?’ The child answers this using the information given on his/her card. The child then asks the examiner questions related to the information on the examiner’s copy, e.g. ‘What is the phone number of the school?’ 4. The examiner begins to tell the story prompted by the Story card, e.g. ‘Katy’s going to a party at her friend’s house. She’s looking for something to wear. She doesn’t like any of her clothes.’ The examiner then asks the child to continue with the story. 5. The examiner asks questions about the child, e.g. ‘What time do you get up on Sunday?’
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FLYERS : SPEAKING
Find the difference cards
Set 6/1. Candidate’s copy
FLYERS SPEAKING. Find the Difference
1
Set 6/1. Examiner’s copy
FLYERS SPEAKING. Find the Difference
80
2
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PAPER 1: SPEAKING FLYERS : WRITING
Answer Sheet Information exchange and Answer cardsKeys
Set 6/2. Candidate’s copy
Castle School
Bridge School
Where
City Road
Where
?
Phone number
55492
Phone number
?
What / study
computers
What / study
?
Teacher’s name
Mr Wood
Teacher’s name
?
Classes every day
Mondays and Thursdays
Classes every day
?
4
FLYERS SPEAKING. Information Exchange
Set 6/2. Examiner’s copy
Castle School
Bridge School
Where
?
Where
Market Street
Phone number
?
Phone number
32871
What / study
?
What / study
English
?
Teacher’s name
Mrs Swan
?
Classes every day
Tuesdays and Fridays
Teacher’s name Classes every day FLYERS SPEAKING. Information Exchange
5
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FLYERS : SPEAKING
Tell the story card
Set 6/3. Examiner’s and Candidate’s card
Come to my party
H D AY
R
DA Y
BI
RT
T H D AY TH BI
B IR
FLYERS SPEAKING. Tell the Story
82
7
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