Tentative_answer_15.11.2016 (1).pdf

Tentative Answer Keys for 13.11.2016 Entrance Examination Published on L5.11 .2016.

NOtg!

Right Answer has been tick marked in the respective choices for each question. Representations if any shall be sent so as to reach the A11 India Civil Services Coaching Centre's Office within 7 days. Representations received after zlft Novemb er 2016

will receive no attention.

Entrance Examination - 2016

Time allowed: Two Hours (L0.30 a.m. to t23O

p.m.)

| Maximum

Marks:200

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATE:

L.

Immediately after the commencement of the examination, check the booklet for any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If so, get it replaced by another booklet.

2,

Encode clearly the booklet series A, B, C or D as the case may be, in the appropriate place in the answer sheet with Blue or Black ball point pen only.

your Booklet series properly in the space provided in the OMR answer sheet.

J.

Shade

4.

The booklet contains hundred questions. Each question comprises four answers (responses)" Select the correct answer (response), which you want to mark on the answer street. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct answer (response),

mark the answer (response), which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONIY ONE

answer (response) for each question.

5. 6. 7.

The answer (response) has to be shaded ONLY on the OMR answer sheet provided.

B. 9.

You are permitted to take only the question booklet.

All items carry equal marks. After you have shaded all your ansurer fresponse] on the OMR answer sheet submit

Sheet for rough work is appended in the question booklet at the end.

1. What are the reasons

for the Delegated Legislation?

I.Pressure upon parliamentary time II.Need for

flexibility

IIl.State of emergency

b.ll

a.l and II only

grdu I,ll

c.l and III only 2. Match List I

and III only and III

with List II relating to the Constitutional Amendments and the particulars and find out the

correct answer using the code.

.

.List I Amendments

List II Particulars

a. Seventh Amendment b. Thirty - Fifth Amendment c. Fifty - Second Amendment d. Sixty - Ninth Amendment

1. Associate State 2.

Anti-defection Law

3. Delhi as National Capital

Territory of India

4. Re-organisation of States Code

Code

ABCD a.3 4 c.4273 3. Which are

t

ABCD b.3 L

2

4

2

\y723

correct relating to the

four

fold system of states?

LThe States in Part A and Part B were 10 and 5 respectively

Il.Madras was one of the States in Part A III.The States in Part

C

and the Territories in Part D were 5 and 2 respectively.

a.I and II only

c.l and III only 4. Which are

y.{t^nd,lll only d.

All I, II and III

true in relation to the protection in respect of conviction for offences under Article 20 of the

Constitution of India? I.Retrospective criminal legislation, commonly known as ex-post facto Legislation II.Double Ieoparty or Punishment for the same offence more than once IILCompulsion to give incriminating evidence'

Vt^nili c. I and

only

III only

b.ll

and III only

d. All

I,ll

and III

5. In England the

position of the Prime Minister has been described by Lord Morley

as

'Primus.inter pares'

which means: -

y'ri.ra

a. Best among equals

among equdls

d. One among equals

c. Last among equals

6. By Which Constitutional Amendment was 'sindhi' included as the fifteenth regional language in the

VIII tt Schedule?

a.L76 Amendment

b. 19th Amendment

gZf"amendment

d.23,d Amendment

7. Match List I

with List II relating to the parts and particulars of the Constitution of India and find out

the correct answer using the code. List I Parts

List II Particulars

A. Part X B. PartXII C. PartXV

L Miscellaneous

D.

4. Finance, property, contracts and suits

2. Elections

3.The Scheduled and Tribal Areas

Part XIX

,f

Code

ABCD a.1 2 c.2143

code

ABCD 3

4

,/z4z:d.4

3

1

2

8. Match List I with list II relating to the Schedules and Articles of the Constitution of India and find out

the correct answer using the code.

List I Schedules

List II Articles

A. Fourth Schedule B. Sixth Schedule

1, 4 and B0

C. D.

Eighth Schedule

3.244 and275

Tenth Schedule

4.344 and 35 Code

Code

ABCD a.3 2

$342

2.702 and 191

7

4

A b.3 d. 1

B. C 2 4 4 2

D 7

3

9. Which are

correct with regard to the main features of the Government of India Act.1,919?

I.Dyarchy in the provinces II.Relaxation ofcentral control over the provinces III.The Indian Legislature made more representative

only c.l and III only

b.ll

a.I and II

and III onlY

,{^ll,ll

and III

10. Which are correct relating to the Directive Principles of State Policy?

I.The principles have three main categories II.These are non-justiciable

III.These have both the constitutional status and the legal status

) ,/J and,ll Onlv c. I and III only

b' II and III OnlY

.

d.

All I, II and III

11. Consider the following statements: 1. Cloudy days are cool.

2.ln humid regions the range of temperature is small. 3.Cloudy nights are warm. 4.The range of temperature is highest in coniferous foiest regions.

Which of these statements are correct?

a.1&2only c.1,2 &3

only

b.3&4onlY

,firl

of them

12. Which of the following terms do not relate to Sun? a.

b. Sun's declination

Meridian

c. Sub solar

point

ylzA,nti Pode

13. Which of these statements are correct?

l.Continental shelf extends upto a depth of 200 mts. 2.The average width is 20 kms .and in some areas the width extends upto few hundred kms. 3. Average

depth of sea plain is 4000 mts.

4.Most of the trenches are found in the Pacific Ocean'

a.1&2only c.!,2 &3 only

b.2&3onlY ,9/. tttof them

14. Which of the following statement is NOT correct?

l.Earthquakes are common in recently formed fold mountains.

2.2/3 of the earthquakes occur along the Circum Pacific Belt. 3.200/o of the earthquakes occur in Alpine-Himalayan mountain belt.

4.The point of an origin of the earthquake is known as Epicentre.

a.l

b.2 only

only

{+

c.3 only

onty

15. National highway No.7 cuts across the other national highways in order

y/A,9,6,2

b.4,5,6,2

c.5,6,4,2

d.2, 6,9, 4

16. Which of the

from south to north are

following are the reasons for the location of Australian desert?

1.Cold current on the west coast.

2,Trade wind belt.

3.Mountains on the east coast

4. It is a subtropical high pressure belt.

a.1&2

b.2 &3

c,7,2 &3

y'.att or,r,urn

17. Importance of a port depends on which of the following factors?

l.Prosperity of the hinter land.

2.Good communication system.

3.Dense population.

4.Modern equipment to handle goods.

b.2,3 &4

a.!,2 &4

T,z,z

c.1&2only 18. Consider the

*.+

following statements:

l.Palghat gap is in between Nilgris and Anaimalai Hills. 2.West coast is mainly a coast of submergence' 3.East coast is a coast of emergence.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a.7 &2

b.1&3

c.2&3

dt,z *s

19. Pick out the correct statements from the following.

l.Great circle is the longest distance line on the circumference of the earth. Z.Great circle route is the shortest distance between any two point on the earth.

3.Equator and all meridians are Great circles. 4.Fquator is longer than the meridians.

a.1,3&4

g/t,z,s

b.3&4 d.1. &z

u+

20. Which of the following statements are correct?

l.Black sea has low salinity in the west part iu summer. 2.Caspian Sea has low salinity in the north and high salinity in the south. 3.Persian gulf has lower salinity in the north than in the soufh.

4.North sea has low salinity in summer.

&3 c.t,z &4

b.L &2

a.2

21. Which of the

.{AII

of them

following statements are /is correct?

1.ln Troposphere the temperature decreases with altitude. 2.Stratosphere has Ozone layer. 3.Mesosphere is the coldest layer in the atmosphere. 4.lonosphere Iies between Mesosphere and Thermosphere.

a.1-,2&3 4/t,z,z a+

b.Z&4 d.1,,2 & 4

22.Pickout the INCORRECT statement from the following. 1.ln India where the rainfall is more than 20Ocm, the soil is acidic.

2.Areasof 100-200cms rain have neutral soil. 3.Where the rain is less than l-00cm, the soilis alkaline. 4.Neutral soil which are saline are useful for agriculture. a. 1 only

c.3 only

b.2 only

g{.+

onty

23. With reference to the tribes which are the correct statements.

l.Gonds are largest tribal group of India. They

iie

honest. They are agriculturalist/cattle rearers.

2.Bhils are restricted to the drier parts of Rajasthan.'They are mostly hunters. 3.Santhals are mostly found in Bihar, Bengal and Orissa. They are farm6rs. 4.Todas are tribes of Nilgris hills. They practice pastoral nomadism. They are polyandrous tribe.

b.2 &3

a.7 &2

c.3&4

\r/. Au of them

24. Which of the following statement is not correct?

1. Latitude is the most important temperature control. 2. Higher latitudes experience greater range of temperature during the year than lower latitudes. 3. Temperature gradient beEween subtropics and the poles is greater during winter. 4. The annual temperature in the ocean dominated Southern hemisphere iS much more than the Northern hemisphere

:

only c. 3 only

b.

a. 1

25. Which one of the

1.

2 only

,{. + onty following is not correct?

The smaller the difference beEween the air temperature and the dew

poin! the higher the relative

humidity.

2. The relative humidity is the ratio between vapour pressure and saturation vapour at a given temperature.

3. The weight of water vapour per unit weight of air is also known

as

Absolute humidity.

4. Rainbow is a product of the process of condensation.

only $s only a.1

ZO, Wirictr among the

1.

b. 2 only

d.4 only

following diseases are transmitted by vectors?

Malaria

2. Amoebiasis

3. Ascariasis Select the correct answer from the codes given below

a.1

only

c.1 and 3 only

T

^

o2

only

d. None ofthe above

27. Oxytocin is a hormone secreted by Pituitary gland. Which among the following comes under the functions of Oxytocin? 1.

Maintain the pregnancy.

2.Contraction of smooth muscle & helps in child birth. 3.Ejection of milk. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

a.1 and 2

only

&, ^ 13 only

c.land3only

d. All the above

28. Which one of the following is not included as one among the three wetlands selected for Prime

Minister's Reconstruction Plan in Jammu & Kashmir? b. Mansar Surinsar

a.Tso Morari c.

gfDhuandhar Fall

Wullar

29. Stem cells have the remarkable potential to develop into many different cell types in the body during early life and growth. Which among the following statements are true regarding stem cells?

l.Totipotency of stem cells is attributed to three genes namely OCT 4, SOX 2 and Nanog. 2.Stem cells are preserved in liquid helium or hydrogen containers. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

{t

b.2 only

onty

c. Both 7

30. Which

d. Neither

and2

l

nor

2

of the following accelerator facility is located at Raia Ramanna Centre for Technology

(RRCAT), Indore?

Cyclotron 3.Folded Tandern Ion Accelerator

2. Synchrotron Radiation Resources

l.Variable Energy

4. Pelletron Accelerator Facility

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

a.1 only

c.'L,2 and3

,{z

orty

d. All the above

31. Which of the following pair[s) is/are correctly matched? 1. Basel Convention: Control of Trans boundary Movement of Hazarclous Waste and

their Disposal.

2. Rotterdam Conventionl Prior Informed Consent Procedure for certain Chemicals and Pesticides in

International Trade. 3. Stockholm Convention: Persistent Organic Pollutants. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

a.1 only

b.Lancl2only

c. 1 and 3

only

.OA,t of rhe above

32. Which among the following statements are true regarding transgenic organisms?

1. Transgenic organisms are produced by recombining genetic material from two unrelated species.

2. Transgenic organisms can be produced by gene editing Technology also. Select the correct answer from the codes given below. a. L

only

b. 2 only

g/Eotn :randZ

d.'Neither

I

nor

2

33, Which among the following are Prokaryotes?

t. Bacteria 3.

2. Fungi

Virus

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

{tonty

b.Land2only

c.2 and 3 only

d. All the above

34. Consider the following statements

1. Complete genome of plant Tulsi [Ocimum sanctum) was sequenced by Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants, Lucknow in 2015.

2. Institute of Stem Cell Science

ancl Regenerative Medicine (lnStemJ is located at Hyderabad.

Which among the above statement(s) is

yy'l

only

c. Both

\

/

are true?

b.2 only and.2

d, Neither

'1.

nor

2

10

35. Project Elephant was launched by the Government of India

in 7gg7-gl as Centrally Sponsored

Scheme to protect elephants, their habitat and corridors. The project is mainly implemented in 16 states/ '

Union territories. Which of the following states are included in the list?

1.

Gujarat

2. Rajasthan

3. Punjab Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

a.1

only

b. 1 and 2 onlY

c.land3only 36. Wetlands

y'Non" ort he above

are the most important sources of fresh water to mankind. They provide a host of

ecosystem services to humanity, in addition to being host to rich biodiversity. Which of the following statements about the conservation of wetlands is correct?

1. As a commitment for conserving" potential wetlands, India became a signatory to the Ramsar Convention in 1982.

2. Wetlands which includes a wide variety to habitats, such as rivers and lakes, coastal lagoons, mangroveS, peat lands, coral reefs and numerous man made wetlands such as ponds Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

only g/notn 1. and? a.1 '

b' 2 onlY r --Neither d. ^r-:!t-

4 -- ^-- a 2

Lnor

37. Consider the following about National Mission for Green India.

1. as

National Mission for a Green India, aimed to both increasing the forest and tree cover by 5 million ha,

well as increasing the quality of the existing forest cover in another 5 million ha.

2.

Green India Mission is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with Central share of 90 per cent for North

Eastern and special Category States while 50 per cent for rest of India. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

{s onty c. Both and2 '1.

b.2 onlY d. Neither

7

nor 2

LL

'

38. Which of the following statementfsJ about Nagoya Protocoi is/are correct?

1.

Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing [ABS) has been adopted in 2010 after six years of

intense negotiation under the aegis oI Convention on Biological Diversity ICBD).

2. 3.

India has signed the Protocol on May 77, 2071. and ratified it on Octobe r 9, 201.2.

Ratification of the Nagoya Protocol by 51 Parties of the CBD is also a major step towards achieving

the first of the global Aichi Biodiversity Targets. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

only y/l,z andS

b. 2 and 3 only

a.1 and 2

cl.

None of the above

39. One hundred seventy-five nations, including India signed the historic Paris Climate Agreement on

April22,20L6 at United Nations Headquarters in New York along marking a significant step to combat global warming. Which of the following statement[s) is/are correct?

7. The deal sets the target

of limiting global warming by 2100 to 'well below' 2 degrees Celsius (3.6

degrees FJ as compared to pre-industrial Ievels.

2.

The agreement

will come into force 30 days after at least 55 Parties to the

UNFCCC,. accounting

for at

least 55 percent of global emission ratity the agreement. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

b.2 only

a.1 only

yfoth 7and}

d. Neither

'1"

nor

2

40. Which of the following statementfsJ about International So]ar Alliance (lSA) is/are correct?

1. International Solar Alliance (lSA) headquarters in National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) in Gwalpahari, Gugaon (now Guru gramJ.

2.

ISA is India's

first international and inter-governmental organization headquartered in India;

3. ISA will be dedicated to promotion of solar energy for making solar energy a valuable source of affordable and reliable green and ciean energy in 121member countries.

4. It was jointly launched in Paris by India and France on November 30, 2015 during the United Nations Climate Change Conference ICOP21J. Select the correct ar'lswer from the codes given below.

a.land2only c.7,2 and 3 only

b.3and4only

,y'outhe

above

t2

41. Which of these statementfs)

is/ are correct regarding the basel convention on control of trans

boundary movements of hazardouFf /astes and their disposal' I. It is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous wastes from developed to less developed countries.

II. It does not address the movement of radioactive waste.

III. It deals with solid waste management

b.lll onlY. d' l,ll and III onlY

only. ti^nall only a. I

42. Which of the following statements is/are correct about ozone depletion:

I. Ozone depletion is observed in stratosphere and troposphere in spring time. II. Ozone depletion is observed mainly in the stratosphere and troposphere around the equator. III.

Ozone prevents the entry ofuvb

IV. The presence ofpolar stratospheric clouds reduces ozone depletion

b.ll

only. c. I and II only.

a.lll

and IV onlY'

tY.I^nalll

onlY

43. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect with regard to vitamin D:

I.

The precursor molecule for vitamin D is cholecalciferol.

II. Higher levels of vitamin

D are associated

with morbidity.

III.Body has no mechanism to prevent sunlight from producing too much vitamin

Vl,ilrand

D.

b. I and II only.

III.

d.lll

c.ll and III only.

only.

44; Lantana is a shrub found in abundance in Himachal Pradesh. Which of the following statements are correct about it?

I. II.

It is

IIL

IT

a toxic weed and has affected the

mountain diversity of the state.

Lantana species are widely cultivated for their flowers' is endemic to India.

IV. It is considered a.ll and IV only

c.l and III only.

as potential fire hazard and

it is combustible even when green.

Vl,nand

IVonly.

d. I, II, III and IV,

13

45. Which of the following functions are performed by the

I.

liver:

1

Plays a role in immunity.

III.HelpsinmaintainingbloodscIottingcapacity. IV. Helps in purifying blood.

only.

a.l, II and III c. I and IV

only.

b. II, III and IV only.

a/r,rr,lll

and IV.

46. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to carbon monoxide:

I. II.

It is produced in the human body. It helps in treating sickle cell anemia.

III. It acts as a neurotransmitter.

.l.r,rrand

b.l only.

III.

c.l and III only.

d.ll

and III only.

47. Which of the following statements is/arti correct about syngas:

I.

It is primarily a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen.

II. It can easily be converted into gasoline through a process called stear-n reforming. .

III. It

is combustible and can be used as fuel in internal combustion engines,

IV. Syngas has almost double the energy density of natural gas.

III.

a.

Allexcept

c.

All except I and IV.

,{^ll

except IV.

d. None of the options are

correct.

"

48. Which of the following are potential reasons for decline of house sparrow:

[. II.

Drastic changes in urban ecosystem.

III.

Excessive use of chemical fertilizers.

Radiations from mobile towers.

IV. Hunting.

c.l,ll

and III

only.

d.l and II only.

L4

+g. tndian firm Godrej claims to be the first company in the world to have started making and selling air

conditioners that do not use I1Cr. V1/hich

of the following statements with regard to

HFCs

[hydrofl orocarbonJ are correct?

L HFCs have replaced CFCs and HCFCs as coolant for refrigerators. II. HFCs pose no harm to the ozone layer. III.

HFCs are potent greenhouse gases.

IV. HFCs are generated during the manufacturing of HCFCs' a,ll and IV only. c. I,

II and III

\6.

oniy

I, II, III and IV.

d, III and IV onlY.

50. Forthe purpose ofcoastal regulation, coastal regulation zone2017 notification states thatthe coastal zone is:

L 500 m on the landward side from high tide line. II. 500 m on the landward side from low tide line. l1l. tZ nautical miles on the seaward side from the high tide line.

lV.

Tznauticalmiles on the seaward side from the low tide line.

a.ll and IV only.

yfi

b. I and III onlY'

only.

analV

51", Over 140

d. II and

III onlY.

countries have agreed on the first international treaty that aims to reduce the emission and

release of mercury into the air, water and land. The treaty is named as the minamata convention. Which of the following is correct

with regard to this treaty:

L The convention prohibits primary mining of mercury.

IL The use of mercury in products like

CFL, batteries, soaps, cosmetics and medical appliances must be

phased out by 2020.

IIL Treaty keeps exception for the products.like vaccines'preservatives and products related to religious faith.

6,rrand

a.l only.

c.lll

only.

52. Which

llt,

d.I and II only.

of the following Indian biospheie reserves have been included in the world network of

biosphere reserves under the man biosphere program of UNESCO:

I.

Simplipal biosphere reserve.

tr1.

Achanakmar

- amarkantak biosphere

III. Pachmarhi biosphere reserve.

IV. Eastern ghats

a.l, II and IV only.

b.l and III only.

c.I,ll,lll

and IV.

gfi,land

reserve.

III only. 15

53. Incorrect statements about eutrophication

I. Eutrophication is the enrichm.nt of ,u.fr.e waters with plant nutrients. IL Eutrophication can lead to algal blooms, deoxygenation of water and ultimately fish kills.

IlL Eutrophicated water is oxygen rich

and safe for direct hurnan consumption without requiring any

treatment. IV. Eutrophication is the atmospheric circulation over the tropics

a.lll

b.l and II

and IV

4r,rrrand

IV only

54. Which were the

d.

two factors that led to the

All are correct

castes, proliferated

into numerous sub castes in the

Brahmanical society? a.

Intercaste marriages and conversion of others to Brahmanism

b.New religions and their rituals c.

Trade and new pro[essesions

y6bsorption

of tribes and foreigners

55. Approximately how many sarais were

built by Shershah?

a.2000

b. 1900

c. 1B00

,r/troo

56. Who were controlling the overland trade to central Asia during the mughal period?

a.Marwaris c. Chettis

/lrauttanis d. Bohras

57. Who among the following had recommended the ryotwari settlement in Madras presidency?

Cornwallis c. Warren Hastings

a.

Lord

y'*un.o d. Sri John shore

58. From which part of India by 7B75,half of the British Indian army was recruited? Bihar

b, Bengal

c. Nepal

y/eun;ab

a.

59. To protest against the arrest of their popular leaders, a large but unarmed crowd had gathered on 13

April, 1919 at Amritsar in the fallianwala bagh. Who were the arrested leaders?

Nehru ,y'Or.Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal a.

Gandhi and

b. J.B.Kripalani and Rajendraprasad d. Subash Chandra bose and Mahadev desai

L6

60. How many occupations are enumerated in the Milinda panho or 'Questions of Milinda'?

i

a.6o c.80

!

&, d.90

61. Which one of the Sanskrit drama of Gupta period

written by Shudraka, which deals with the love affair

of a rich merchant with the beautiful daughter of a courtesan?

Shakuntalam y/Mrichchakatika

b. Dasakumara charitam

a.

d. Mudra rakshsam

62. Between AD 750 and 1000, three powerful empires namely the Palas, the Pratiharas and the Rashtrakutas emerged in northern India and Deccan. They fought among themselves. But one empire Iasted the longest. Which is it?

Palas c. Pratiharas

b, Senas

a.

y/Rasatrakutas

63. The Vijayanagar rulers also granted 'amaram' or territory with a fixed revenue to military chiefs. What was the term used to address the chiefs?

Ranaka c. Talavai

b. Samanta

a.

64. Akbar saw the sea for the

y{Pil"g^r first time and rode on it in a boat. There, he met the Portuguese merchants

also. What was that place?

t/.c^*a^y c.

Ahmedabad

b. Surat

d. Goa

65. He also made an effort to build a modern navy after 1796. For this purpose, he established two dockyards. Who was he?

Shivaji ,/rrprsultan a.

b. Hyder ali d. BajiRao I

66. For the first 60 years of its dominion in India, the East India company,

a

trading profit making concern

took little interest in the education of its subjects. There were however two very minor exceptions to this policy. |onathan duncan started an institution. Find out that.

'

;ta Calcutta q. Engineering college at Roorkee

a. Madrasa at

y'sanskrit \f. Sanskrit

college at Varanasi

d. Presidency college at Madras

L7

67. Among the following who advocated the revival and strengthening of ancient religions? ,

a.Arya samaj

!

b. Brahmo samaj

y'.Tn.orophical society

d. Ramakrishna mission

68. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the

Commission c. Law Commission

b. Finance Commission

a. Human Rights

/ptrnring

Commission

69. With reference to the union Government consider the following statements.

1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of the union Budget that is presented to the parliament.

2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of lndia without the authorization from the parliament of India.

3. Parliamentary sanction has to be obtained subsequently for the withdrawal of funds from the Contingency Fund for meeting with unforeseen expenditures durit'tg natural calamities. Which of the Statements'given above is

/

/ are correct?

1f,.2 and 3 only c. 1

b. L and 2 onlY

only

r

70. The Bretton woods conference held

in 1944 gave birth to the establishment of

1.1MF 3. W T O

2.1BRD 4. Asian Development Bank.

Which of the statements given above is

, {Ii

d.L,2 and3

/

are correct?

2 c.3 and 4

b.2 and 3

and

d.7,2,3 and4

71. Disguised unemployment generally means a.

large number of people remain

y'marginal productivity

unemployed

of labour is

zero

b. alternativeremployment is not available. d. Productivity of workers is low

72.In thecontext of Indian economy, "open market operations" refers to a.

borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI

b. lgnding by commercial banks to industry and trade.

,/

y'Purchase and sale of government securities by the d. None

RBI

ofthe above.

1B

73'Ariseingenerallevelofpricesmaybecausedby in the money supplY

1. an increase

in the aggregate le#e{ ofout put

2. a decrease

3. an increase in the effective demand. Select the correct answer using the codes girdn below

a.1

only

c.2

and3

l and 2 only yrt.,2 anaz b.

only

74. Consider the following taxes 1. Fringe benefit

tax

2. Interest tax

3. Securities tra.nsaction tax

Which of the above mentioned is

f

are direct tax

/ taxes?

y/l ana3

d.

Aliof the above.

t"

75. If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it a. decrease the

will

consumption expenditure in the economy

b. increase the tax collection of the government

{^rr"^r"the d. increase the

investment expenditure in the economy

total savings in the economy

76. With reference to Union Budget, which of the fOllowing is

expenditure 3. Salaried and pensions 1. Defence

/ are covered

under non-plan expenditure?

2. Interest payments

4. Subsidies

Select the correct answer using the codes given below a.

l Only

lfitof

these

b.2 and

3

d. None

ofthese

.

TT.Theterms'Marginal Standing Facility [MSFJ Rate'and'Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL)', sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to

,/

!f. Banking operations c.

Military

strategies

b. Communication networking d. Supply and demand of agricultural products

L9

78. Which of the

following constitute Capital account?

loans Private remittances

1. 3.

2. Foreign direct investment

Foreign

4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

and3 c.2,3 and 4 a.7,2

{1,2

and 4

d. 1,3 and 4

79.The Balance of Payments (BoP) of a country is a systematic record of

y/-nimport

and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year

b. goods exported from a country during a year c. Economic

transaction between the government of one country to another

d, Capital movements from one country to another

80. In india, deficit financing is usbd for raising resources for

yd.onomic adjusting

c.

development the balance of payments

b. redemption of public debt d. reducing the foreign debt

81. The National Income of a country for a given period is equal to the a.

total value ofgoods and services produced by the nationals

b. sum of total consumption and investment expenditure c.

sum of personal income of all individuals

a

yil'money value of final goods and services produced

82. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct? a.

it encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development

b.it facilities the proper distribution of finances among the public sector undertakings c.

it ensures transparency in financial administration

y6on"

of the above

83. "Common Indian Snakes:A Field Guide" author

AIi y/Romulus Whitaker a. Salim

,

b, Theoder Baskaran

d. Rajendra K. Pachauri

20

84. Tri-NETRA system to be introduced in Indian railways tracks and collect signals using a.

a.

will detect physical obstruction on railway

technology with

microwave video camera, infrared video camera, optical video camer a

b.infrared video camera, visible light camera, optical communication

,

y/infraredvideo camera, radar based mapping, optical video camera d.inf,rared video camera, microwave video camera, radar based mapping

85. Pilot scheme to extend green belt beyond the existing'Right of Way' of highways by engaging farmers a. Krishi Sinchai c. Rashtriya

Yojana

Krishi Vikas Yojan

b. Kaushal vikas Yojana

^

rtisan

Harit Rajmarg Yojana

86. UNESCO Artist for Peace announced during 40th session of world heritage committee 2016

/furkish c.

Erguner Children Symphonic Orchestra

musician Kudsi

Venezuela

b. China Disabled People's Performing Art Troupe d. World Orchestra for Peace

87. Shijian-16 series satellite for space research and experiments was launched by a.

Russia

b. North Korea

{'n*

c. South Korea

BB. 51't

f

nanpith award conferred on

U,R.Ananthamurthy c. Grish Karnad a.

b. fayakanthan

V/Orghuveer Choudhari

89. National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources [NBAGR) is located at a,

Kolkata

b. Mumbai rd

90. First e-court in India opened at a. Kolkata High c.

Court

Mumba High Court

Gya"r^Aad

High Court

d. Gujarat High Court

91. Which Indian corporate has become the first-ever to issue Masala Bond on London Stock Exchange? a.ICICI

b. Axis Bank

y6orc

d. Yes Bank

27

92. The book "Flood of Fire" has been authored by whom?

tmitav c. Chetan

Gosh

b. Shoba De

Bagat

d. Anita Desai

93. In alpha decay the atom undergoes the following change a. Mass number

will decrease by two units and atomic number will increase by two units

b. Mass number

will decrease by four units and no change in atomic number

c. Mass

number will decrease by four units and atomic number will increase by two

t/rrs

number will decrease by four units and atomic number will decrease by two

94.Lawof Areas: A line that connects a planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal interval of times was given by

Newton c. copernicu,

b. Galileo

a.

r/x"plu.

95. Driver of a car drives the car along a curved path. Why the carton of eggs he has on the seat beside

him tend to slide sideways?

, (au"

force c. due to coriolis force to centrifugal

b. due to centripetal force d. none

ofthe above

96. STATEMENT A. Earth has a strong magnetic field because it spins fast, it has a liquid conducting core made of liquid iron-nickel, and it has plate tectonics. STATEMENT B. Planets having iron -nickel core only

STATEMENT C.

will possess magnetic field

|upiter has huge magnetic field and its core has super compressed liquid metallic

hydrogen.

false. c.. Statement A is false B is true and C is true. a.

Statement A is true B is true and

C

is

b. Statement A is true B is false and C is false.

frtrt".n"rt

97. Whose book "silent spring "is considered by many

to

A is true B is false and

have given birth

C

is true.

to the modern

environmentalist movement?

y/nachel

Carson

c. Margaret Murie

b. Anne LaBastille

d. Nancy Newhall

22

98. ASSERTION IAJ: A refrigerator is a heat engine in which work is done on a refrigerant substance in

order to collect energy from

a

cold.region and exhaust it in

a

higher temperature region.

REAS0N 1(R1): According to the second law of thermodynamics heat cannot spontaneously flow from a

colder location to a hotter area; work is required to achieve this

.

REAS6N2[R2): According to First law of thermodynamics the change in internal energy. of a system is equal to the heat added to the system minus the work done by the system. a.Assertion A is true, reason R2 is false and R1 is true and is the explanation for A. b.Assertion A is false R2 is true and R1 is false. c.

Assertion A is true, reason R2 is true and R1 is true and both are the explanations for A

dssertion A is true, reason R2 is true and is not the explanation for A and R1 is true and is the explanation for A.

99. Blue colour ofthe sky is due to a. Raman

scattering

frayleigh 1,00.

scattering

b. Brillouin scattering d. Bragg scattering

Electromyography (EMG) is a technique to study

a. is a

diasnostic method to assess health of skin cells

,{r,

method to assess health of muscles ^dia"gnostic c. is a diagnostic method to assess electrical activity of the brain d. is a diagnostic method to assess electrical activity of heart

23