Cste Sample Question Papers-part 1

CSTE Certification Sample Question Papers

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Sample Question Paper: 1 CRITICAL SKILLS QUESTIONS I. GENERAL SKILLS (CATEGORY 1) 1. COMMUNICATION (DOMAIN 1) 1.1 Giving/Receiving Information 1. List five suggestions for relaying defect information and/or performing criticism effectively. 2. What are three reasons why people don’t listen well? 3. Give one example of an effective audience evaluation technique that can be used to level-set a testing presentation or design a course for test or development staff. 4. How do you know if the information you provided to an audience has been understood and communicated effectively?

5. Give three examples of pertinent information that should always be included with defect reports. 1.2 Personal Effectiveness 1. You are the quality assurance manager at the APEX company. One of your quality assurance analysts is engaged in a dispute with a developer over the cause of a defect reported by the analyst. What can/should you do? 2. PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT (DOMAIN 2) 2.1 Continuing Education 1. List three ways a tester can improve his/her test ability. 2. In what ways, if any, can a tester induce change and/or modification to a development process? 2.2 Leadership and Recognition 1. What is the main purpose of a task force? 2. What is the role of a facilitator? 3. What role, in test process definition, should a tester play? 3. QUALITY PRINCIPLES AND CONCEPTS (DOMAIN 3) 3.1 Quality Principles/Quality Management 1. Define cost of quality. 2. Briefly define management by fact. 3. How many Deming principles are there?

4. How many levels are in the CMM? 3.2 Quality Assurance/Quality Control 1. Describe the fundamental difference between QA and QC. 2. Give five examples of quality attributes or critical success factors. 4. METHODS FOR SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT AND MAINTENANCE (DOMAIN 4) 4.1 Process Knowledge 1. Briefly describe the difference between automated and manual testing tools. 2. Give two examples of each type. 3. Describe IV and V.

4.2 Roles/Responsibilities 1. List three types of “interfaces.”

2. Who should be “accountable” for testing?

II. TEST SKILLS/APPROACHES (CATEGORY 2) 5. TESTING PRINCIPLES AND CONCEPTS (DOMAIN 5) 5.1 Testing Specifications, Techniques, and Methods. 1. What is COTS?

2. List five phases in a typical testing life cycle.

3. List at least four components of a good test strategy.

4. What are three general test strategies during requirements?

5. What are the four verification activities that should occur at the design phase?

6. VERIFICATION AND VALIDATION METHODS (DOMAIN 6) 6.1 Verification Concepts and Reviews/Inspection. 1. List three types of reviews. _________________ _________________ _________________ 2. What is an audit?

3. What three rules should be followed for all reviews?

4. What is the main goal of a review?

5. What are the three most common phase-end reviews?

6. Post-implementation reviews are held when: a. The product is certified for release b. The product is replaced c. The product has been released d. There is a major failure 7. TEST MANAGEMENT, STANDARDS, AND ENVIRONMENT (DOMAIN 7) 7.1 Test Management 1. Draw a test process workbench. 2. List five skills a competent tester should have.

3. Give an example of a system objective and its associated test objective.

7.2 Test Standards 1. List three industry test standard organizations.

2. Give three examples of internal test standards.

7.3 Test Environment 1. Differentiate between a test bed and a test script.

2. A test environment includes:

III. TEST PLANNING (CATEGORY 3) 8. RISK ANALYSIS (DOMAIN 8.1 Risk Identification 1. List three of five dimensions of risk.

2. What are the two risk levels?

3. Define risk as it applies to testing.

8.2 Managing Risks 1. Give three examples of testing risks.

2. When is risk assessment conducted?

9. TEST TACTICS (DOMAIN 9) 9.1 Structural Test Approaches 1. List four structural test approaches.

9.2 Functional Test Approaches 1. Give four functional test approaches.

9.3 Test Tools/Environment 1. Describe the use of a traceability tool.

2. Discuss why change control is/is not important to a test environment.

3. Change control is sometimes part of: a. Problem report documents b. Defect analysis c. Software library procedures d. None of the above 4. Configuration management can be applied to non-test changes. True or False 10. PLANNING PROCESS (DOMAIN 10) 10.1 Pre-Planning Activities 1. Give two examples of well-defined user acceptance criteria.

2. What is the difference between a test objective and a test case?

3. Should assumptions be included in a test plan? Why or why not?

4. Define entrance and exit criteria.

10.2 Test Plan 1. List eight parts of a typical system test plan.

2. A unit level test plan should be input to a system or integration level test plan. True or False

IV. EXECUTING THE TEST PLAN (CATEGORY 4) 11. TEST DESIGN (DOMAIN 11) 11.1 Design Preparation 1. Test coverage is defined as: 2. Describe the characteristics of a test bed.

11.2 Design Execution 1. Give three techniques for creation of test data.

2. A test script includes a procedure for executing the test and what other components? (Name at least 3)

12. PERFORMING TESTS (DOMAIN 12) 12.1 Execute Tests 1. Execution of a test in a test plan can only occur during the test “phase” of a project life cycle. True or False Why? ___________________________________________________ 12.2 Compare Actual versus Expected Results 1. To compare actual to expected results, the tester first designs test cases, which include at least these three components: _____________________ ______________________ ______________________ 12.3 Test Logs 1. What is the purpose of a test log?

2. What type of information should be included on a test log?

12.4 Record Discrepancies 1. The purpose of recording defects is to make a complete record of all discrepancies found during testing. The input to this task would include (name 3 items): _____________________ ______________________ ______________________ 2. A defect can be identified in three ways. Name them. _____________________ ______________________ ______________________ 13. DEFECT TRACKING AND MANAGEMENT 13.1 Testing Defect Corrections 1. Who should review defect reports?

2. Regression testing is the easiest way to uncover defects. True or False Why?

V. TEST ANALYSIS, REPORTING, AND IMPROVEMENT (CATEGORY 5) 14. QUANTITATIVE MEASUREMENT (DOMAIN 14) 14.1 Test Completion Criteria/Metrics 1. What is the purpose of code coverage tools?

2. Give four examples of test specific metrics.

3. Give one commonly recognized size measurement tool.

15. TEST REPORTING (DOMAIN 15) 15.1 Reporting tools and standards 1. Give three components included in a system test report.

2. How is statistical analysis used in test reporting?

16. IMPROVING THE TEST PROCESS (DOMAIN 16) 16.1 Test Quality Control 1. What are two ways to demonstrate the test process has been performed correctly?

16.2 Analysis of the Test Process 1. How could you analyze the current test process?

16.3 Test Continuous Improvement 1. How could continuous improvement be applied to a Level One CMM test organization?

CRITICAL SKILLS ANSWERS

I. GENERAL SKILLS (CATEGORY 1) 1. COMMUNICATION (DOMAIN 1) 1.1 Giving/Receiving Information 1. Do it privately. Have the facts. Be prepared to help the person improve. Follow a process when giving criticism. Be specific on expectations 2. The speaker may not be talking about a topic of interest to them. They are impatient and have a lot of other stimuli going through their minds. They are too busy rehearsing what they will say next. 3. Do an internal self-assessment (for a training course) or ask questions of the audience before and after a presentation 4. You ask questions, and conduct an audience evaluation immediately. 5. What type of defect was found? Where was the defect found? What is the severity level of the defect? 1.2 Personal Effectiveness 1. You should discuss the defect report with the QA analyst to ensure that the information is correct and that a root cause analysis was conducted. If it is clearly a case of developer error then have both people discuss and come to an effective resolution. Record the defect and status. 2. PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT (DOMAIN 2) 2.1 Continuing Education 1. Prepare for the CSTE exam. Join a local professional association and actively participate. Read journals and magazines about the testing profession. 2. A tester can induce changes into the development process by providing both qualitative and quantitative data derived from the testing process. With this information and metrics, changes can be identified and introduced into the development process that will ultimately benefit the organization. Information like types and frequency of defects found, where in the development process they were found, the on-time delivery capability, etc. can assist in improving the overall quality of the delivered products.

2.2 Leadership and Recognition 1. The main purpose of a task force is to develop options—not to solve a problem. 2. To provide an unbiased focal point to a discussion and keep the discussion “on track.” 3. A tester should play a major role in test process definition since the test process is his/her focus. The tester should review the current test process with an objective of inserting improvements and then should pilot the process and provide feedback and suggestions and/or recommendations. If a new test process is being developed then the tester is the best person to ensure that best testing practices are used.

3. QUALITY PRINCIPLES AND CONCEPTS (DOMAIN 3) 3.1 Quality Principles/Quality Management 1. COQ is everything other than the true cost to build a product. It includes failure and appraisal/prevention costs. 2. MBF means that the specified results should be qualitative and the processes should provide adequate quantitative data as a by-product of the process to determine whether or not the specified results are being achieved. 3. 14 4. 5 3.2 Quality Assurance/Quality Control 1. QA activities are used to prevent the introduction of flaws; activities that find and correct flaws are QA activities. 2. Accuracy Ease of use Service levels Portability File integrity 4. METHODS FOR SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT AND MAINTENANCE (DOMAIN 4) 4.1 Process Knowledge 1. Manual tools do not execute program code and do not require executing software; automated tools do. 2. Manual – Reviews and checklists Automated – Code coverage analyzers and file comp 3. Independent verification and validation means reviewing a process by an entity outside of the process itself. This entity, will investigate whether or not a process exists and, it so, if it is being followed and how effective it is.

4.2 Roles/Responsibilities 1. Human to human System to system Human to machine 2. Everyone – ultimately a test manager. II. TEST SKILLS/APPROACHES (CATEGORY 2) 5. TESTING PRINCIPLES AND CONCEPTS (DOMAIN 5) 5.1 Testing Specifications, Techniques, and Methods. 1. Commercial off-the-shelf software (shrink-wrapped) 2. Requirements phase Design phase Program phase Implementation phase Maintenance phase 3. Critical success factors Risk analysis Assumptions Methodology to be followed 4. Conduct a requirements review and identify every requirement. Ensure that every requirement is testable. Determine an overall test strategy. 5. Authorization rules are established. File integrity controls are designed. Design conforms to requirements. Contingency plan is developed. 6. VERIFICATION AND VALIDATION METHODS (DOMAIN 6) 6.1 Verification Concepts and Reviews/Inspection. 1. Checkpoint, Inspection, and Walk through 2. An inspection/assessment activity that verifies compliance with plans, policies, and procedures 3. Only those who could have developed the product should participate. No personal attacks – review is on product. Set time limit on time for review. 4. To uncover defects.

5. Requirements Design Test 6. C 7. TEST MANAGEMENT, STANDARDS, AND ENVIRONMENT (DOMAIN 7) 7.1 Test Management

1. 2. Test process knowledge; Excellent written and oral communication skills; Analytical ability; Knowledge of test tools; and Understanding of defect management. 3. System objective – System must be portable to both unit and NT operating systems. Test objective – Parallel test with some results on both platforms. 7.2 Test Standards 1. IEEE ISO DoD 2. All levels of testing will prepare a test plan. Complete test documentation must be available before implement. All Category 1 and Category 2 defects will be resolved before implementation. 7.3 Test Environment 1. Test beds are developed for a singly type of test; test scripts are an automated capture/playback tool and execute over and over. 2. Tools, plat forms, scripts, hardware, software, resources, and skills needed to support testing. III. TEST PLANNING (CATEGORY 3) 8. RISK ANALYSIS (DOMAIN 8.1 Risk Identification 1. Technology integration; Size and complexity; System environment and stability; Criticality / mission impact; and Reliability and integrity.

2. LU1 criticality / mission impact. LU2 size, system environment, reliability, and integration. 3. Risk analysis will identify high-risk applications in order to at them to more extensive testing and it can help focus testing on the critical components and/or quality dimensions that are most important to the project. 8.2 Managing Risks 1. Lack of trained testers; Inadequate change control; and Compressed timeframes. 2. At the earliest possible stage of a development project and then it should be conducted at critical points along the development life cycle. 9. TEST TACTICS (DOMAIN 9) 9.1 Structural Test Approaches 1. Operations testing Stress testing Recovery testing Security testing 9.2 Functional Test Approaches 1. Requirements Regression Parallel Error-handling 9.3 Test Tools/Environment 1. A traceability tool follows the paths taken by a computer program as it processes data. 2. Change control is critical. Testing in an unstable or changing environment does not allow the tester to control the test. 3. C 4. True 10. PLANNING PROCESS (DOMAIN 10) 10.1 Pre-Planning Activities 1. Response time must be less than 5 seconds. At least 20 concurrent users must be allowed into the system. 2. Test objective is the overall test criteria that must be met. Test cases include test specifics, procedures, inputs, and expected results.

3. Yes, otherwise many test issues fall through the cracks. 4. Entrance criteria – Minimum standards to be met before product will be tested. Exit criteria – Minimum standards to be met before the product is released. 10.2 Test Plan 1. Software description, milestones, schedule, test materials, test procedures, test cases, test methods, and test assumptions. 2. True IV. EXECUTING THE TEST PLAN (CATEGORY 4) 11. TEST DESIGN (DOMAIN 11) 11.1 Design Preparation 1. Assuring that the application has been covered by the test process. 2. Test beds are files/tables needed to test a system/unit whose contents have been predefined to meet the conditions defined in designing test cases. 11.2 Design Execution 1. Scripting Test beds Production data 2. Test case Functions to be tested Test performed Set-up procedures Validation procedures 12. PERFORMING TESTS (DOMAIN 12) 12.1 Execute tests 1. False. Execution of a test can occur throughout the project lifecycle if a lifecycle approach to testing is used. 12.2 Compare actual versus expected results. 1. The condition, the expected result, and the procedure to run the test. 12.3 Test Logs 1. As each part of the test plan is executed, control can be maintained by using a document created to record test activities. A simple worksheet or spreadsheet can be used. 2. The test identifier, the test activity, who executed the test, the start and stop time of the test, and remarks or comments.

12.4 Record Discrepancies 1. The test plan, the test cases, and the test logs. 2. Missing, wrong, or extra 13. DEFECT TRACKING AND MANAGEMENT 13.1 Testing Defect Corrections 1. QA and developer and/or area which defect was found. 2. True. Regression testing revalidates that changes made to the system do not adversely influence other system functions. V. TEST ANALYSIS, REPORTING, AND IMPROVEMENT (CATEGORY 5) 14. QUANTITATIVE MEASUREMENT (DOMAIN 14) 14.1 Test Completion Criteria/Metrics 1. They are used to show the extent to which the logic in the program was executed during testing. 2. User participation; Number of paths tested; Cost of all testing; Number of defects found; and Number of requirements tested. 3. LOC Analysis 15. TEST REPORTING (DOMAIN 15) 15.1 Reporting tools and standards 1. Description of test results and findings (defects); Summary (environment and references); and Recommendation. 2. Can be used to compare actual number of defects found to the number of defects expected or to indicate the number of functional requirements actually tested. 16. IMPROVING THE TEST PROCESS (DOMAIN 16) 16.1 Testing Quality Control 1. Perform quality control on the test process by comparing the number of defects in the test process to previous test process; or Use entrance and exit criteria. 16.2 Analysis of the Test Process 1. Compare it to best practices for testing or compare current test process to previous test processes for evidence of improvement.

16.3 Test Continuous Improvement 1. It really can’t in the true sense of the concept, since continuous improvement requires a defined and repeatable process before continuous improvement can be attempted.

INSTRUCTIONS

Three sets of questions follow that are typical of the types of questions included on the CSTE examinations EXCEPT these questions are exclusively based on the skill courses in this manual. The actual exam will be based on the complete Common Body of Knowledge for the Information Systems Software Testing Profession. The answers are also included. These question sets follow: For Answers Refer Question Set Number of Questions to Answer Set A 36 A B 25 B C 20 C

NOTE: Many of the following questions are true/false to ensure that you understand a concept. However, the CSTE examination will primarily use multiple choice questions to evaluate theory.

1. What type of change do you need before you can obtain a behavior change? * a) Lifestyle * b) Vocabulary * c) Internal * d) Management 2. Quality assurance is the process by which product quality is compared with applicable standards, and the action taken when nonconformance is detected. * True * False 3. Pick the best tactic to use in constructive criticism to help the worker understand his or

her solution to the criticism. * a) Do it in public, while others are listening, so they too can learn from other people's mistakes. * b) Be prepared to help your subordinate improve his or her performance. * c) Criticize the individual rather than the product, because the individual creates problems with the product. * d) Explain to the employee what will happen to his or her career if the employee's behavior doesn't change. 4. The objective of risk analysis is to help IT management strike an economic balance between the impact of risks and the cost of protective measures. * True * False 5. In quantifying risk, the term RE represents: * a) Risk expense * b) Related expense * c) Risk exposure 6. A standard is not an expected norm. * True * False 7. Quality and quality assurance are synonymous. * True * False 8. Productivity is increased if value is added to a product. * True * False 9. National Quality Awards are intended to foster continuous improvement activities. * True * False 10. Vision is a clear definition of the result you are trying to achieve. * True * False 11. What is the present value of money of a $10,000 expenditure that you will spend one year from now if money is worth 14 percent? * a) $2630 * b) $8770

* c) $1600 * d) $8600 12. Quality control relates to a specific product or service. * True * False 13. The objective of the present value of money calculation is to convert future dollars into current dollars. * True * False 14. What is the primary objective of the system proposal from the producer's viewpoint? * a) To present the costs/benefits of the proposal * b) To obtain an agreement for more work * c) To standardize presentations 15. The receivers of an information systems service are known as users. * True * False 16. Almost one-half of a programmer's time is spent identifying and fixing errors in specifications. * True * False 17. Which two elements are the major causes of documentation problems? * a) Low priority * b) Forgetfulness * c) Not enough time * d) Personal attitudes 18. When installing an information processing tool into your work environment, you can select an informal or formal procurement sequence. Which list is the formal procurement sequence? * a) Technical requirements * b) Selection criteria User review Identify candidate Generate RFP User review Issue RFP Score candidates Proposal evaluation Select tool Select source 19. A process allows the same quality to be replicated from product to product, often by

the use of standards and procedures. * True * False 20. The term "defect" is related to the term "fault" because a fault is a defect, which has not yet been identified. * True * False

21. A latent defect is the same as a fault. * True * False 22. The average time between consecutive failures in a system or component during a specified period is known as the mean time between failures (MTBF). * True * False 23. A program whose purpose is to reduce the number of defects produced is known as a quality improvement program. * True * False 24. The inspection is an evaluation technique that relies on visual examination of an item. * True * False 25. The functionality/structure of the system created to solve a problem, satisfy a user need (note that this is the creative part of the design process) is known as the fishbone diagram. * True * False 26. The process used for documenting user’s requirements is known as validation. * True * False 27. A process/activity during which a high number of defects occur is known as a defectprone process. * True * False 28. Name the three categories of costs associated with cost of quality.

29. What category would inspections, walkthroughs, and testing qualify as?

30. What category would creating of a help desk qualify as?

31. What category would training qualify as?

32. Rework activities are costs.

CIRCLE THE CORRECT RESPONSE:

33. The conduct of an inspection of source code is quality control/quality assurance. 34. A computer operator verifies that the jobs to be run that day have been run. Quality Control/Quality Assurance 35. A task force selects and installs a system development methodology. Quality Control/Quality Assurance 36. A computer programmer conducts unit tests to validate that the program works. Quality Control/Quality Assurance

SAMPLE QUESTION SET B

1. The ______________ is an application of process management and quality improvement concepts to software development and maintenance. * a) Malcolm Baldridge * b) ISO 9000 * c) SEI/CMM * d) QS14000 2. Quality can be separated from the controls associated with it?

* True * False 3. What is one of the most powerful quality control tools?

4. The number-one skill needed for the tester analyst is listening. * True * False 5. The intent of the quality control checklist should be to improve the quality of the product being controlled by investigative means. * True * False 6. A large portion of the cost of quality is usually the cost of rework. * True * False 7. Quality assurance means the same as total quality control. * True * False 8. In the IT workbench, quality, and performance of the work are the respon¬sibility of the QA department. * True * False 9. Identify five participant roles during a formal inspection. _____________________________ ____________________________

10. Function points measure the lines of code. * True * False 11. Function points quantify data processing work outputs. * True * False

12. Measurement of function points cannot be used for comparing two different kinds of systems. * True * False 13. Function points are hardware and software independent. * True * False 14. There are three major activities in function point counting. * True * False 15. The three parts of the function point count must be determined individually. * True * False 16. Identify the 5 function types: External Input type Logical Output File type Internal Inquiry type External Inquiry type Internal File type Logical Internal File type External Interface File type External Output type 17. The process of identifying the kinds of software failures that can occur and then quantifying how likely it is that they will actually occur is: * a) Configuration management * b) Risk management * c) Contingency planning * d) Process improvement 18. The Baldrige award is a world-wide quality award. * True * False 19. What is the relationship between testing and quality assurance? * a) QA is part of a complete testing process * b) Testing and QA are two terms for the same thing * c) Testing is part of a complete QA process 20. Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs? * a) 10-20 * b) 40-50 * c) 70-80

21. Software errors are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle? * a) Requirements * b) Construction * c) Acceptance test 22. The purpose of software testing is to: * a) Demonstrate that the application works properly * b) Detect the existence of defects * c) Validate the logical design 23. For black-box testing: * a) The tester is completely unconcerned about the internal behavior of the program * b) The tester is concerned with finding circumstances in which the program does not behave according to specifications * c) Test data is derived solely from specifications * d) All of the above 24. Boundary value testing: * a) is the same as equivalence partitioning tests * b) test boundary conditions on, above, and below the edges of input and output equivalence classes. * c) tests combinations of input circumstances * d) is used in white-box testing strategy 25. Decision/branch coverage strategy: * a) always satisfies statement coverage * b) is used in black-box testing * c) means that every branch direction is traversed at least once * d) is the same as condition coverage SAMPLE QUESTION SET D

1. The National Quality Awards provide a basis for successful benchmarking against other companies. * True * False 2. Information systems organizations should have standards and procedures on running meetings.

* True * False 3. The Pareto analysis is most effective for: * a) Ranking items by importance * b) Showing relationships between items * c) Measuring the impact of identified items 4. One of the key concepts of a task force is that the leader be an expert in leading groups as opposed to an expert in a topical area. * True * False 5. The more common benefits associated with a service-level agreement are: * a) Establish two-way accountability * b) Make complaining easy * c) Provide the basis for an IS budget * d) All of the above 6. The two major differences between internal auditing and quality assurance involve their respective statement of responsibilities and common body of knowledge. * True * False 7. Within an organization, a service-level agreement is most effective when it is an ongoing negotiation and improvement process. * True * False 8. A nonsampling error relates to the sample properly reflecting the true characteristics of the population. * True * False 9. The cost of quality is usually the: * a) Cost of prototyping * b) Cost of rework * c) Cost of risk assessment 10. Motorola's objective of reaching "Six Sigma" translates into defective parts per million.

11. Name the seven basic quality tools:

12. Policies provide: * a) Guidance to decision makers * b) Broad direction to decision makers * c) Detailed prescription to decision makers 13. A measurement system is established to measure the effectiveness of system and unit testing. Quality Control/Quality Assurance? 14. Which of the following test approaches is not a structured test approach? * a) Load/stress * b) Operations * c) Regression * d) None of the above 15. A quantitative measurement used to determine test completion is: * a) Defect measurement * b) Requirements coverage * c) Statistical analysis 16. Acceptance testing means: * a) Testing performed on a single stand-alone module or unit of code * b) Testing after changes have been made to ensure that no unwanted changes were introduced * c) Testing to ensure that the system meets the needs of the organization and the end user. 17. Consensus means: * a) Majority rules * b) You don’t have to like it, you just have to be able to accept it * c) Whatever the boss says * d) Compromise 18. Joe is performing a test to see that it complies with the user requirement that a certain field be populated by using a dropdown box containing a list of values. Joe is performing: * a) White-box testing

* b) Black-box testing * c) Load testing * d) Regression testing 19. Sue is told to prepare a report on the most commonly occurring product defects. She reviews the software defect reports, which categorize the defects as coding errors, requirements errors, documentation errors, etc. The best tool to report this information is: * a) A histogram * b) A Pareto diagram * c) A cause and effect diagram * d) A scatter plot 20. Which of the following is NOT included in ISO guidelines? * a) Purchaser and Supplier * b) Internal Quality System Audits * c) Documentation * d) Management principles ANSWER KEY SAMPLE QUESTION SET A 1. B 2. False 3. B 4. True 5. C 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. B 12. True 13. True 14. B 15. True 16. True 17. A, D 18. A 19. True 20. True 21. True 22. True 23. True

24. True 25. False 26. False 27. True 28. Preventive, Failure, and Appraisal 29. Appraisal 30. Failure 31. Preventive 32. Failure 33. Quality control 34. Quality control 35. Quality assurance 36. Quality control

ANSWER KEY SAMPLE QUESTION SET B 1. C 2. No 3. Checklist 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. Moderator Author/producer Reader Inspector Recorder 10. False 11. True 12. False 13. True 14. True 15. True 16. External Input type External Inquiry type External Interface File type External Output type Logical Internal file type 17. B 18. False 19. C 20. B

21. A 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. C

ANSWER KEY SAMPLE QUESTION SET C 1. True 2. True 3. A 4. True 5. D 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. B 10. 3.4 11. Histogram Control Chart/Run Chart Stratification Scatter Diagram Fishbone (Cause-Effect) Diagram Pareto Chart Check Sheet 12. A, B 13. Quality assurance 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. B 20. D

Sample Question Paper: 2 Multiple Choice: 1. What is the percent of the total cost of quality that comes from rework? 2. What is the percent of the total gross of sales that come from product failure? 3. What is the cost of quality? 4. What is management by fact? 5. What are the three types of interfaces? 6. What three rules should be followed for all reviews? 7. What is boundary value testing? 8. What is decision/branch coverage strategy? 9. Which of the following is not one of the 6 Structural Test Approaches? 10. Which of the following is not one of the 8 Functional Test Approaches? 11. Which of the following is not a perspective of quality? a. transcendent b. product-based c. translucent d. user-based e. value-based f. manufacturing based 12. True or False. Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things. 13. Which of the following is not one of Deming's 14 points for management? a. Adopt a new philosophy b. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets for the work force c. Mobility of management d. Create constancy of purpose 14. True or False. The largest cost of quality is from production failure. 15. Defects are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle? a. Requirements b. Analysis & Design c. Construction d. Implementation 16. A review is what category of cost of quality? a. Preventive b. Appraisal c. Failure 17. True or False. A defect is related to the term fault. 18. What type of change do you need before you can obtain a behavior change? a. Lifestyle b. Vocabulary c. Internal d. Management 19. Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs? a. 10-20 b. 40-50

c. 70-80 d. 5-10 20. The purpose of software testing is to: a. Demonstrate that the application works properly b. Detect the existence of defects c. Validate the logical design 21. True or False. One of the key concepts of a task force is that the leader be an expert in leading groups as opposed to an expert in a topical area. 22. Match the following terms with their definitions: a. Black box testing b. White box testing c. Conversion testing d. Thread testing e. Integration testing Subjective: 1. What fields would you include in creating a new defect-tracking program (used by QA, developers, etc)? (25 points) a. Draw a pictorial diagram of a report you would create for developers to determine project status. b. Draw a pictorial diagram of a report you would create for users and management to show project status. 2. What 3 tools would you purchase for your company for use in testing and justify why you would want them? (this question is in both parts, only rephrased. I think 10 points each time) 3. Describe the difference between validation and verification. (5 points) 4. Put the following testing types in order and give a brief description of each. System testing, acceptance testing, unit testing, integration testing, benefits realization testing. (10 points) 5. Describe automated capture/playback tools and list the benefits of using them. (10 points) 6. The QAI is starting a project to put the CSTE certification online. They will use an automated process for recording candidate information, scheduling candidates for exams, keeping track of results and sending out certificates. Write a brief test plan for this new project. (30 points) 7. List what you think are the two primary goals of testing. (5 or 10 points) 8. If you company is going to conduct a review meeting, what position would u select in the review committee and why? 9. What are the three factors will effect the Testing to stop? When you should stop testing? (10) 10. Write any three attributes which will impact the Testing Process? 11. This is a Problem solving question, Write a Test Transaction for the below, If a company is going to deduct 6.2% of sales reduction on first $62,000 earning. 12. What activity is done in Acceptance Testing, which is not done in System testing to ensure the Customer requirements? (10)

13. Prepare a checklist for the developers on Unit Testing before the application comes to Testing Department? 14. What is acceptance testplan and what is should include (15 points) 15. Draft testplan for an e-business software. what are the major points you will consider while testing e-business s/w (15) 16. How will you manage testing of a software if you are not getting enough resources to test it and development manager wants to release the software as soon as possible. What testing strategy you will implement? (15) 17. What are the product standards for testplan, test script and test report? (10) 18. Describe equivalence class, equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis (15) 19. What do u test in a system which accepts inputs from multiple nodes that you will not test in a system which has only one system? (15)

Sample Question Paper: 3 1. Listening is the most frequently used form of communication. (T/F) 2. List the 3 step listening process: __________________ __________________ __________________ 3. List 3 reasons why people don’t listen: __________________ __________________ __________________ 4. The number-one skill needed for the QA analyst is listening. (T/F) 5. Choose the item(s) that are incorrect about the listening skill: a. Listening involves three steps: hearing, attending, feedback b. Listening is a skill that is taught to young children c. You should ask questions of the speaker to confirm what he or she is saying. 6. To understand communication incorporated into speech a listener must pay attention to the following 5 channels: (fill in the blank) a. Information channel – subject of conversation b. Verbal channel – choice of words c. ____________________________ d. Body channel – choice of body movements and gestures e. Graphic channel – pictures, charts, etc. 7. In attending to a speaker you should periodically restate what you heard the speaker say and ask the speaker to confirm that that was the intent of the information spoken. (T/F) 8. Name the step in the listening process that uses the five types of listening (i.e., discriminative, comprehensive, therapeutic, critical, and appreciative). ______________ 9. Name the step in the listening process in which we use a lot of feedback to the speaker. _________________

ANSWERS Listening 5.10 1. True 2. Hearing, Attending, Understanding 3. impatient with random thoughts; rehearsing what they will say next;

self-conscious about own communication ability; external distracting stimuli; lack motivation and responsibility; uninteresting topic to listener 4. True 5. a and b 6. Vocal channel 7. True 8. Understanding 9. Attending to the speaker

There were no associated quality vocabulary words with this section.

Sample Question Paper: 4 1. What is the maximum amount of time you have with a complainer to begin offering solutions to their complaint. _________________ 2. What do you believe is the most important of the four step complaint-resolution process and why? 3. To establish a position for mutual discussion, if your customer stands you should be seated to show interest in your customer’s problem. (T/F) 4. An angry person is more likely to tell you symptoms than the real problems. (T/F) 5. You should always listen attentively to your customer and never ask them to further explain what they mean. (T/F) 6. Taking action after hearing the complaint will solve two purposes: first, it will determine the validity of the facts; and second, ______________________________ 7. After you have agreed on what action to take, you should repeat it back to your customer and ask your customer if it is agreeable. (T/F) 8. When you believe the problem has been solved, it is logical to assume that your customer also agrees. (T/F)

ANSWERS Conflict Resolution 5.14 1. 4 minutes 2. Getting on the same wave length with your customer to begin a meaningful dialog 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. Pacify the customer 7. True 8. False

There were no associated quality vocabulary words with this section.

Sample Question Paper: 5 1. Fill in the blanks below with the two types of testing that are conducted when performing dynamic testing that executes system code: _________________ testing addresses the overall behavior of the program by testing transaction flows, input validation, and functional completeness. _________________ testing includes path testing, code coverage testing and analysis, logic testing, nested loop testing, and many similar techniques. 2. Performance and stress testing are considered ___________________ testing. 3. White Box testing assumes that the path of logic in a unit or program is not known. (T/F) 4. Name 3 of 5 techniques of White Box testing: __________________ __________________ __________________ 5. Black Box testing determines whether combinations of inputs and operations produce expected results. (T/F) 6. One technique of Black Box testing is Equivalence Partitioning. In a program statement that accepts only one choice from among 10 possible choices, numbered 1 through 10, the middle partition would be from _____ to _____. 7. In the above example, using a Boundary Analysis technique, the lower boundary input(s) would be: a. 1 b. –1 and +1 c. 0 and 2 d. 0 and 1 8. Incremental Testing involves adding unit-tested programs to a given module or component one by one, and testing each resultant combination. Of the two types, Topdown is often thought to be easier because drivers are often easier to create than stubs. (T/F) 9. The type of testing performed once enough units are integrated with Incremental Testing such that a single business function can be performed is known as: a. System b. Integration

c. Unit d. Thread 10. Acceptance Testing, as a standard test stage, lends itself only to the _____________ technique of testing. ANSWERS Testing Techniques 5.50 1. Functional and Structural 2. Structural 3. False 4. Statement Coverage Condition Coverage Decision Coverage Decision/Condition Coverage Multiple Condition Coverage 5. True 6. 1 to 10 7. c. 0 and 2 8. False 9. Thread 10. Black Box

ASSOCIATED VOCABULARY Black-box Testing Boundary Value Analysis Branch Testing Condition Coverage Decision Coverage Decision/Condition Coverage Dynamic Analysis Equivalence Partitioning Error Guessing Exhaustive Testing Functional Testing Invalid Input Life Cycle Testing Path Testing Performance Test Statement Testing Static Analysis Stress Testing Structural Testing

Stub System Test Test Driver Unit Test Valid Input White-box Testing

Sample Question Paper: 6 Quiz for Section 5-6

1. The three main parts to a system presentation are:

2. An oral system proposal: a. Allows the project leaders to walk users through the important features of the solution to their problem b. Gives the customer a chance to ask questions and clarify what the proposal left unanswered c. Replaces a written system proposal

3. The purpose of a system proposal closing is to: a. Succinctly overview the proposal b. Emphasize that you have the best solution to the problem c. Get the approval to proceed

4. During a proposal presentation you should: a. Emphasize that you have the best solution to the customer’s problems b. Emphasize that your project team is well equipped to implement the solution c. Sell the corporate experience of your project staff and yourself d. Sell your enthusiasm to do the project effectively, efficiently, and economically e. All the above

5. What are three things that constrain a solution?

6. You should put all the discussion details in your transparencies. True / False

7. A common guideline to presenting a presentation is:

8. Why should you not present for more than one hour?

Answers: 1. Preparing, presenting, and closing. 2. b. Gives the customer a chance to ask questions and clarify what the proposal left unanswered 3. c. Get the approval to proceed 4. e. All the above 5. Solution constraints. Think time, people, budget. 6. You should NOT put all the discussion details in your transparencies. Details go in discussion, not transparency. The discussion expands on transparency points. 7. Tell them what you are going to tell them, tell them, and then tell them what you just told them. 8. Normal ability to concentrate is extremely limited after one hour. Take a break and reconvene if necessary.

Sample Question Paper: 7 Section 5_35 Quiz:

1. A core concept of quality philosophies is that grass-roots efforts are an effective means to improve quality. True / False 2. _______________ is defined as doing things right. 3. Achieving quality requires: A. Understanding the customer’s expectations B. Exceeding the customer’s expectations C. Meeting all the definitions of quality D. Focusing on the customer E. All the above 4. Quality can be defined through internal means. True / False 5. The essence of a quality internal product is: A. Improving internal processes B. Delivering the right product C. Customer satisfaction 6. The cost of poor quality is usually less than 15 % of the cost of doing business. True / False 7. The gains from continuous process improvement will fall off over time because internal processes can never be perfect. True / False 8. Steps to implementing a Quality Culture would NOT include: A. Creating a department that focuses on quality improvement B. Listening to customers to determine their requirements C. Demonstrating executive leadership and commitment D. Identifying costs of quality and focusing on prevention 9. Deming’s Fourteen Points for Management can be summed up by: A. Create constancy of purpose by breaking down barriers between departments B. Cease dependence on inspection to achieve quality C. Stop focusing on judgment results and start focusing on improvement of processes D. Improve constantly and forever the system of production and service to improve quality and productivity and to decrease costs

Section 5_35 Quiz Answers:

1. False. Most quality improvement philosophies require that management take ownership and leadership of quality improvement efforts. 2. EFFICIENCY is doing right things right. Effectiveness is doing the right things. 3. E. All of these things, natch. 4. False. Quality cannot be defined without the customer. 5. C. The essence of any quality product is customer satisfaction. 6. False. The cost of poor quality is generally known to be up to 50% of the cost of doing business. 7. False. The gains from continuous process improvement (the basis of TQM, otherwise known as Kaizen) can never fall off because the reduction in rework reduces cost and then pays for more productive output. 8. A. All levels of an organization must take ownership of the quality culture transformation 9. C. The other points are part of Deming’s fourteen points, but only C sums them up.

Sample Question Paper: 8 Cost of Quality Test Questions:

1. Name the 3 major cost components of Cost of Quality (CoQ) 2. Failure costs are associated with where the failure occurred. T or F

3. What is the relationship between increasing spending in achieving quality and the costs associated with lack of quality? A) flat; b) exponential; c) inverse 4. Increases in software quality produce increases in productivity. Why?

5. Why is their controversy over the concept of diminishing returns in software quality? 6. Cost of Quality accounts for what percentage of software development costs? a) 10-20% b) 40-50% c) 2-5%

Answers: 1) Prevention, appraisal and failure 2) T – internal and external 3) Inverse 4) Increased efficency in the software test process by reducing the amount of appraisal (test) costs. 5) Because of the polarity in producing software that meets the current market quality requirements and the time trend of increasing expectations of quality over the long run. 6) 40-50%

Sample Question Paper: 9 1) What Percentage of defects originates in the requirement stage of a project?

2) List one reason why there are so many defects originated from the req stage?

3) List 3 characteristics of good requirements

4) List 3 types of requirements

5) How can we determine whether the requirements have been met?

6) What is the term for data that have similar values and characteristics?

7) Beside generating the test cases, what should also be done during the req. stage? A. Correctness B. Completeness C. System testing D. All of the above E. A and B only If a requirement is not testable or the test team is unable to define a test case or determine the expected results, what should be done? A. Nothing B. Also nothing C. Everything D. All of the above E. True F. False G. Please repeat the question Note: if your answer is H, please re-read the question to yourself

Real options: A. Discard the requirement B.Redesign the test case C.Rewrite the requirement D.B and C

Sample Question Paper: 10 Questionnaire

1. The developers goal is to ________________________. 2. The Testers’ goal is to:______________________________. 3. Name two misconceptions about skill sets required for testing 4. In order to test effectively, one must be as good with programming as the developer developing the program. True False I don’t know 5. In order to be an effective tester, one must thoroughly understand _____________ , and__________. 6. An independent test team consists of (cicle the ones that apply): A. Business analyst B. Project Manager C. Test Engineers D. System Analyst E. Test analyst F. Customers G. Test Manager or Test Lead H. Test designer I. Tester 7. List three responsibility of each of the roles circled above. 8. The independent test team must participate in all stages of the development lifecycle True False I don’t know 9. It is often ideal to have the development team performing testing functions because it reduces costs such as the cost of training the testers on the application. True False 10. Experienced developers do not need independent testing teams to test their products because they could easily switch between a developer’s mindset and a tester’s mindset. True False

Sample Question Paper: 11 QUIZ 1. Quality of a walkthrough depends on preparation by participants. True / False 2. ____________ is also known as V & V. a) Software Testing b) Software QA c) Reviews & Inspections d) All of the above e) None of the above

3. __________ is 'Are we building the right product?'

4. __________ is 'Are we building the product right?' 5. Name any four of the various V & V activities.

6. Reviews can enforce the use of standards. True / False

7. How can reviews reduce cost of quality?

8. Name 3 participants of a formal review.

9. What are the three rules for all reviews?

10. Inspections may or may not involve the author of the work product.

True / False

ANSWERS

1. True 2. d) 3. Validation 4. Verification 5. Peer Reviews, Inspections, Walkthroughs, Testing 6. True 7. Reviews detect defects early in the life cycle where it is less costly to correct. 8. Moderater, Recorder, Peer 9. Review product not producer, identify problems not solutions, all members responsible for results 10. True