Cl Proc Cat 3 Questions

SECTION – I QUANTITATIVE ABILITY AND DATA INTERPRETATION DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Each of the six persons A, B, C, D, E and F studied a different subject out of six subjects viz. JLM, CSC, FLG, BAN, ASC and PSY, not necessarily in the given order. In each of the three universities P, Q and R, exactly two out of the given six persons studied such that no person studied in more than one university. Each of the six persons got placed in a different company out of six companies viz. X1, X2, X3, X4, X5 and X6. One who got placed in ‘X4’ studied ‘ASC’. Additional information given: 1. A did not study in ‘Q’ and F studied ‘FLG’ in ‘Q’. 2. D studied ‘BAN’ and got placed in ‘X3’. 3. F got placed in ‘X6’ and one of the persons who studied in ‘P’ got placed in ‘X1’. 4. B studied ‘CSC’ and got placed in ‘X2’. 5. ‘ASC’ and ‘JLM’ were taught in P. CSC was not taught in ‘Q’ and ‘PSY’ was not taught in ‘R’. 6. E studied in ‘P’ but did not get placed in ‘X1’. 1.

Which subjects were taught in ‘Q’? (1) FLG and CSC (2) FLG and BAN (3) FLG and JLM (4) PSY and FLG (5) Cannot be determined

2.

Who got placed in ‘X1’? (1) A (2) C (3) The one studying PSY (4) The one studying ASC (5) Either (1) or (2)

3.

Out of the given 6 persons, for how many persons, the exact information about the subjects they studied, the university in which they studied and the company they got placed in can be inferred? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) 6

4.

Which of the following is definitely true? (1) A studied in ‘R’ (2) E studied ASC in ‘P’ and got placed in ‘X4’ (3) D studied in ‘Q’ (4) C studied JLM in ‘P’ and got placed in ‘X1’ (5) None of these.

5.

Which of the following statements is false? (1) PSY is taught in ‘Q’ (2) B studied in ‘R’ (3) F studied FLG in ‘Q’ (4) E studied ASC and got placed in ‘X4’ (5) None of these

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 6 and 7: 7:Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. There are two unrelated families A and B such that number of sibling sisters in families A and B is 4 and 3 respectively. Family B has twin baby girls. Radha is 5 years older than the twins. Rita, who is one of the twins, is 8 years old and is not a sister of Kaya. Kaya is 4 years younger than Radha. Maya is 3 years younger than her sister Shreya but 2 years older than Farah. Reena is 7 years old. Assume that all the mentioned girls belong to either of the two mentioned families. 6.

If Radha is the eldest among all the mentioned 7 girls, then the age (in years) of Farah could be (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 7 (5) 8

7.

If Reena belongs to family B, then the age (in years) of Shreya is (1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 5 (4) 11

8.

(5) 13

Five persons namely, Yasir, Arafat, Rasheed, Ali and Rehman are to be seated in five out of the six seats numbered from 1 to 6. The following table provides information about the serial number of the seats (given in the parentheses under their name) on which each of the mentioned friends can possibly sit.

Names Seat No.

Yasir

Arafat

Rasheed

Ali

Rehman

1

2 or 3

2,3 or 4

4 or 5

5 or 6

If one of the seats numbered 2 or 4 is unoccupied, then the number of different ways five mentioned persons can be seated is (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5 9.

PQRS is a rectangle and an equilateral triangle OPQ is drawn such that O lies outside the rectangle TPS is another equilateral triangle such that T lies on OQ as shown in the figure given below. What is the ratio of the lengths of PQ to QR?

P

Q T

S

R

N

M O

(1)

10.

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(2)

2 3

(3) 2

(4)

3 2

(5)

5 2

Given that y = x × [x] and ‘y’ is an integer such that 8 ≤ y ≤ 17. The number of positive real values of ‘x’is ([x] is the greatest integer less than or equal to ‘x’). (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1 (5) 2

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 11 to 14: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Five contestants Samir, Ranvir, Milind, Sahil and Arjun are awarded points by each of the five judges J1, J2, J3, J4 and J5 . Numbers mentioned in any parentheses are the points awarded to that particular contestant by the judge mentioned in the corresponding row. ‘X’ is the sum of the points earned by three contestants mentioned in any particular row of the table as a percentage of total points awarded by the judge mentioned in the same row. Each judge awards distinct points to all the 5 contestants and points awarded by the judges are non negative integers. For example, the aggregate points given to Samir, Milind and Ranvir by the judge J1 is 80% of the total points given by judge J1 to all the five contestants.

Judge J1 J2 J3 J4 J5

Samir (9) Sahil (8) Milind (11) Sahil (8) Ranvir (8)

Contestants Milind (6) Arjun (6) Arjun (7) Samir (7) Milind (5)

Ranvir(5) Samir (4) Sahil (6) Arjun (2) Samir (3)

X 80 90 80 85 80

11.

The minimum possible aggregate number of points earned by Sahil can be (1) 21 (2) 22 (3) 23 (4) 24 (5) 25

12.

The total points earned by Ranvir as a percentage of the total points earned by all the contestants can at the most be. (1) 20% (2) 15% (3) 25% (4) 30% (5) 10%

13.

If the points given to Milind by judges J2 and J4 are the same and if the judge J3 gave 4 points to Samir, then the total points earned by Ranvir is (1) 18 (2) 19 (3) 21 (4) 20 (5) 22

14.

Which of the mentioned contestants definitely would not earn more aggregate points than Sahil? (1) Ranvir (2) Arjun (3) Milind (4) Both (2) and (3) (5) Both (1) and (2)

DIRECTIONS for Questions 15 to 18: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions: Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B alone. Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A alone. Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone. Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone. Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements. 15.

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Are the roots of the equation ax2 + 2bx + c = 0 real? A: a, b and c are positive integers and are in harmonic progression B: a, b and c are positive real numbers with a > c and b > c

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16.

P is a point outside the triangle ABC as shown in the figure given below. Q is the mid-point of AP and AP cuts BC at the point R. What is the measure of the ∠CQP?

A

B

50° R Q

30°

C

P A: ∠BPC = 80° B: ∠BAR = 2∠ACB 17.

There are 2 two – digit numbers ‘A’ and ‘B’ such that 2A = 5B. What is the value of A? A: A + B > 123 B: A + B > 132

18.

There are two holes in the bottom of a water tank. If hole A is opened and hole B is closed, a full tank will be empty in 69 minutes. How long it will take to empty a full tank, if hole A and hole B are both opened? A: If hole A is closed and hole B is opened it takes 92 minutes to empty a full tank. B: The quantity of water flowing through hole A in 3 minutes is same as the quantity of water flowing through hole B in 4 minutes.

19.

Ajay purchased four varieties of rice at the rate of 2 kgs/Re., 3 kgs/Re., 4kgs/Re.and 5 kgs/Re. If he mixes all the four varities of rice in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 : 1 in the given order, then the price at which Ajay should sell the mixture to make a profit of 20% is (1) 2.5 kgs/Re.

(2) 3.6 kgs/Re.

(3) 3 kgs/Re.

(4)

250 100 kgs / Re. (5) kgs / Re. 111 37

20.

If a cuboid of dimension 60 × 40 × 30 cm3 is cut into smaller cuboids of integral dimension having shape similar to the original cuboid, then which of the following cannot be the number of smaller cuboids ? (1) 1000 (2) 125 (3) 8 (4) 64 (5) None of these

21.

In a triangle ABC, D is a point on BC such that AB = AD. F is a point on AC such that DF = DC as shown in the figure below, if ∠ ABC − ∠DAC = 36° , then the measure of the ∠FDC is

A F

D

B (1) 108° Page

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(2) 72°

(3) 90°

C (4) 120°

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(5) 60° Proctored - Mock CAT 3

22.

The number of terms common in the two sequences 2, 6, 12, 20, ..., 930 and 4, 8, 12, 16 .... 960 is (1) 8 (2) 14 (3) 16 (4) 18 (5) 21

DIRECTIONS for Questions 23 to 25: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following table provides partial details about the comparison of the increase in the number of applicants among four streams in education viz. Engineering, Medical Science, Commerce and Arts in the year 2008 as compared to the year 2007. The increase in the number of applicants in the Commerce stream in 2008 as compared to 2007 is 70000 and the average number of applicants in the four streams in 2008 is 400000. Assume that these are the only four streams in the education system. In the given table, the number 20000 under the title ‘Commerce’ means that the increase in the number of applicants in the Commerce stream in 2008 as compared to the year 2007 is 20000 less than the corresponding increase in the Engineering stream. All the other data in the table should be interpreted similarly.

Engineering Engineering Medical Sciences Commerce Arts 23.

24.

Which of the following is not true? (1) E + F = 0 (4) C + E + F = 49000

Medical Sciences 69000

A D E

C 59000

(2) C = 49000 (5) None of these

The total number of applicants in the four given streams in 2007 was (1) 1339000 (2) 1739000 (3) 1439000 (4) 1349000

Commerce 20000 B F

(3) E + 10000 = 0

(5) Cannot be determined

25.

The total increase in the number of applicants in the Arts stream in 2008 as compared to 2007 as a percentage (approximate) of the total number of applicants in the four given streams in 2007 is (1) 9% (2) 6% (3) 8% (4) 5% (5) 7%

26.

It is given that 80x = 4, 80y = 5. The value of 20 (1) 4 (2) 25 (3) 20

(1− x − y) 1− x

is (4) 80

(5) Data Inconsistent

27.

A four-letter code has to be formed using the alphabets from the set (a, b, c, d) such that the codes formed have odd number of a’s. How many different codes can be formed satisfying the mentioned criteria? (1) 24 (2) 96 (3) 120 (4) 60 (5) 16

28.

A shopkeeper bought 240 shirts from a wholesaler at Rs. 300 a piece. The marked price he set for each shirt was Rs. 900. Out of the 240 shirts, he sold a few shirts in the first month at 30% discount and the remaining shirts in the second month at 50% discount. If profit earned by selling the shirts in both the months was the same, then what is the difference between the number of shirts sold in the two months? (1) 36 (2) 60 (3) 90 (4) 75 (5) 39

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29.

In the figure given below there is a semi-circle with center O. Line AD intersects the semi-circle at E such that OE = CD. If AE = CD then the measure of ∠ADC is

D E A (1) 105°

(2) 135°

B

O

(3) 110°

C (4) 100°

(5) 120°

DIRECTIONS for Questions 30 to 33: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Each of the six persons namely A, B, C, D, E and F took one ball from a box containing 300 balls of six different colours Blue, Black, Red, White, Green and Yellow. Also, the number of balls of each colour is the same. Following is the detail of three statements made by each of the persons. Exactly one of the statements made by each person is true and only one of the statements made about B is correct. Also, balls of two particular colours were not taken by any of the persons.

Statement I B took a green ball A took a green ball F took a white ball E took a yellow ball

A B C D

E F took a red ball F A took a white ball 30.

31.

Statement II C did not take a red ball D did not take a yellow ball F did not take a white ball F took a yellow ball

Statement III E took a blue ball C took a black ball A did not take a blue ball One green ball was taken by me

B took the same coloured ball as A C took a black ball

B took a blue ball D did not take a red ball

What is the colour of the ball taken by A? (1) Green (2) Yellow (3) Blue

(4) Red

(5) Cannot be determined

What is the colour of the ball taken by C? (1) Green (2) White (3) Blue

(4) Red

(5) Cannot be determined

32.

For how many of the mentioned persons, the exact colour of the balls taken by them can be determined? (1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 5 (5) 2

33.

Which of the following statements, if true would be sufficient to determine the exact colour of the balls taken by all the mentioned persons? (1) D took a green ball (2) D did not take a red ball (3) E took a yellow ball (4) Either (1) or (3) (5) Either (1) or (2) or (3)

34.

A man decides to invest a certain amount of money in a savings account of a bank that pays 20% compound interest per annum for a period of two years. In return the man wanted payments of Rs. 200 at the end of first year and Rs. 400 at the end of second year from the bank. What is the sum of money that should be invested by the man to achieve this? (1) Rs. 500

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(2) Rs. 400

(3) Rs.

1400 3

(4) Rs.

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4000 9

(5) None of these Proctored - Mock CAT 3

35.

A natural number ‘N’ has the following properties: I. The total number of multiples of ‘N’, which are less than 100 is same as the total number of factors of N. II. The total number of factors of ‘N’ is not more than 3. How many such natural numbers exist? (1) 5 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 6 (5) 4

36.

What is the sum of all the numbers less than 100, that can be written as the sum of 9 consecutive positive integers? (1) 612 (2) 630 (3) 702 (4) 504 (5) 513

DIRECTIONS for Questions 37 to 40: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The table given below provides information about the number of “Blackberry Mobile” users as the percentage of three different parameters, viz. total Mobile phone users in the city, the population of the city and the total “Blackberry Mobile” users for eight different cities namely, D, M, R, J, C, B, S and V. “Blackberry Mobile” is a model of Mobile phone. The Density of Mobile users is defined as the ratio of number of Mobile phone users in a city to the total population of that particular city.

37.

M

R

Cities J C

B

S

V

8

9

18

12

15

"Blackberry Mobile" users as a percentage of:

D

Total Mobile phone users of the city

13 12.5 17.5

The population of the city

3

4

5

3.5

5.5

2.5

7

10

Total Blackberry Mobile users in these 8 cities

20

25

8

10

5

15

9

8

Which of the following cities has the second highest density of Mobile users? (1) C (2) S (3) V (4) J (5) Cannot be determined

Additional Information for questions 38 and 39: M has 9,600 more ‘Blackberry Mobile’ users than that of S and there is a total of 75 thousand ‘Blackberry Mobile’ phones in the eight cities. A user may carry more than one phone. 38.

If a ‘Metro City’ is defined as the city having a population greater than one lakh, then how many of the mentioned eight cities cannot be a metro city? (1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 6 (5) 4

39.

An individual “Blackberry Mobile” user can hold a maximum of 3 “Blackberry Mobile” phones and each of the “Blackberry Mobile” holder in a particular city has equal no of “Blackberries Mobile” phones. Then users of how many cities cannot hold more than one ‘Blackberry Mobile’? (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 2

40.

In city B, the number of “Blackberry Mobile” users triples every year. If the population and the number of Mobile users increase at the rates of 10% and 50% per annum respectively, then what percentage of B’s population will be using Mobile phones exclusive of “Blackberry Mobile” users after 2 years? (1) 23.5% (2) 16% (3) 3.5% (4) 7.23% (5) 32%

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SECTION – II VERBAL ABILITY DIRECTIONS for Questions 41 to 45: In each of the following questions, there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentences that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency.) Then, choose the most appropriate option. 41.

A. In the fortnight from the G20 protests in London, B. the Guardian has received video footage from the number of people C. that appears to show police using excessive force or questionable tactics D. in dealing with demonstrators and the press. E. The best-known video has been sent by a New York fund manager early last week. (1) A, C and D (2) A, B, D and E (3) B, C and E (4) C and D (5) A, B and E

42.

A. Caught between a recession and the threat of the climate change, B. a cash-strapped government is grasping for plausible off-peg solutions. C. In doing so it is ducking harder questions. D. We should be thinking about electric buses and more trains rather than cars, E. and emphasising public rather than private transport, especially in urban conurbations. (1) A, C and E (2) B, D and E (3) B, C and E (4) A, C, D and E (5) C, D and E

43.

A. Although I had made up my mind B. to write a book on Lawrence C. I had made up my mind to write a novel also, D. and while the decision to write the book on Lawrence was made later E. it had not entirely superseded that early decision. (1) B, C, D and E (2) Only A (3) B, C and D (4) B and D

(5) A and E

A. Human beings are a social creature. B. We are social not just in a trivial sense that we like the company, C. and not just in the obvious sense we each depend on others. D. We are social in a more elemental way: simply to exist E. as a normal human being requires interaction with other people. (1) A, B and C (2) B, C, D and E (3) D and E (4) C, D and E

(5) A, B, C and D

44.

45.

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A. What has Dylan been reading? B. “Together Through Life,” his new album, comes out April 28th, C. and Dylanologists have already started to trace the album’s title and themes. D. Some are looking toward Ovid as an inspiration for “I Feel a Change Comin’ On.” E. Others have pointed toward Whitman for the album’s title. (1) A, B, C and E (2) B, C and D (3) A and E (4) B and C (5) A, B, C and D

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 46 to 48: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. What is wrong with the modern literary novel? Why is it so worthy and dull? Why is it so anxious? Why is it so bloody boring? Well, let’s go back a bit first. Two and a half thousand years ago, at the time of Aristophanes, the Greeks believed that comedy was superior to tragedy: tragedy was the merely human view of life (we sicken, we die). But comedy was the gods’ view, from on high: our endless and repetitive cycle of suffering, our horror of it, our inability to escape it. The big, drunk, flawed, Greek gods watched us for entertainment, like a dirty, funny, violent, repetitive cartoon. And the best of the old Greek comedy tried to give us that relaxed, amused perspective on our flawed selves. We became as gods, laughing at our own follies. Many of the finest novels—and certainly the novels I love most—are in the Greek comic tradition, rather than the tragic: Rabelais, Cervantes, Swift, Voltaire, and on through to Joseph Heller’s Catch-22 and the late Kurt Vonnegut’s Slaughterhouse 5. Yet western culture since the middle ages has overvalued the tragic and undervalued the comic. We think of tragedy as major, and comedy as minor. Brilliant comedies never win the best film Oscar. The Booker prize leans toward the tragic. In 1984, Martin Amis reinvented Rabelais in his comic masterpiece Money. The best English novel of the 1980s, it didn’t even make the shortlist. Anita Brookner won that year, for Hotel du Lac, written, as the Observer put it, “with a beautiful grave formality.” The fault is in the culture. But it is also in the writers, who self-limit and self-censor. If the subject is big, difficult and serious, the writer tends to believe the treatment must be in the tragic mode. When Amis addressed the Holocaust in his minor novel Time’s Arrow (1991), he switched off the jokes, and the energy, and was rewarded with his only Booker shortlisting.

But why this pressure, from within and without? There are two good reasons. The first is the west’s unexamined cultural cringe before the Greeks. For most of the last 500 years, Homer and Sophocles have been held to be the supreme exponents of their arts. (Even Homer’s constant repetition of stock phrases like “rosy-fingered dawn” and “wine-dark sea” are praised, rather than recognised as tiresome clichés.) The second reason is that our classical inheritance is lop-sided. We have a rich range of tragedies—Sophocles, Aeschylus and Euripides (18 by Euripides alone). Of the comic writers, only Aristophanes survived. In an age of kings, time is a filter that works against comedy. Plays that say, “Boy, it’s a tough job, leading a nation” tend to survive; plays that say, “Our leaders are dumb arseholes, just like us” tend not to. More importantly, Aristotle’s work on tragedy survived; his work on comedy did not. We have the classical rules for the one but not the other, and this has biased the development of all western literature. We’ve been off-centre ever since. But of course Europe in the middle ages was peculiarly primed to rediscover tragedy: the one church spoke in one voice, drawn from one book, and that book was at heart tragic. The church had somehow been built on the gospel of the poor. 46.

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According to the author, the intrinsic reason for the predilection for tragedies lies in: (1) The internalization of tragedy by the writers. (2) The socio-cultural pressure on the writers. (3) The Greek way of thinking of the writers. (4) The lure of the prizes for the writers. (5) The submission to all things Greek by the writers.

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47.

According to the passage, which one of the following did not contribute to the spread of tragedy? (1) The fact that tragedies have survived over time. (2) The fact that Europe was full of tragedies. (3) The reality that the church spoke the voice of the poor. (4) The fact that classical rules exist for tragedy. (5) The fact that Greek gods appreciated comedy.

48.

The tone of the passage is: (1) Questioning (2) Sarcastic (3) Analytical (4) Critical (5) Humorous

DIRECTIONS for Questions 49 to 52: Five alternative summaries are given below each text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text. 49.

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In a world of contingency one cannot prove that a particular attitude is the correct one to take. If this suggests relativism, it should be remembered that it too is just one more attitude or point of view, and one without the rich tradition and accumulated wisdom, philosophical reasoning and personal experience of, say, orthodox Christianity or Judaism. Indeed crude relativism, the universal judgement that one cannot make universal judgements, is self- contradictory. Whether Wittgenstein’s views suggest a more sophisticated form of relativism is another matter, but the spirit of relativism seems far from Wittgenstein’s conservatism and absolute intolerance of his own moral shortcomings. Compare the tolerance that motivates relativism with Wittgenstein’s assertion to Russell that he would prefer “by far” an organization dedicated to war and slavery to one dedicated to peace and freedom. It was apparently the complacency, and perhaps the self-righteousness, of Russell’s liberal cause that Wittgenstein objected to. (1) Wittgenstein’s attitude, like all other attitudes, is after all relative and his intolerance is due to his disgust with Rusell’s complacency and self –righteousness. (2) Wittgenstein reeks of absolute intolerance which puts him in a position from where he cannot be seen as a relativist. (3) Wittgenstein’s assertion to Russell demonstrates his intolerance which makes it clear that relativism itself is self –contradictory. (4) Wittgenstein does seem to be in the spirit of relativism due to his intolerance as Crude Relativism is self contradictory. (5) Wittgenstein does not seem to be in the spirit of relativism due to conservatism and intolerance of his own moral shortcomings and Crude Relativism is self contradictory

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50.

As I said, ontogeny, phylogeny, evolution and metamorphosis are all tied in together as different perspectives of the same whole. For every stage of growth or transformation in the ontogenic life history, which is the same as saying every stage of mutation or novelty or speciation in the phylogeny of each of the ontogenic components, is a transmutation, a metamorphosis. And this whole process, whether one considers it directional or random, is what is known as evolution, a curiously apt term from the metaphysical perspective - and inappropriate from the biological, because it implies the unravelling of all that is already pre-existent at the start (the word literally refers to the unrolling of a fern frond). Hence the Theosophical Diagram, the evolution of the soul, shown in terms of an unfolding spiral. But because it is the same soul through many life times, it is also the ontogeny of the soul. (1) Ontogeny, phylogeny, evolution and metamorphosis all have a common link; all of them are different views that contributes towards a larger picture, which is commonly understood to be evolution, an appropriate term from the perspective of meta physics and inappropriate from the biological perspective, which leads to the depiction of the soul in the form of a Theosophical Diagram. (2) Growth in the Ontogenic life history of an organism can be considered as mutation in the phylogeny of the organism which is nothing but evolution . (3) Ontogeny , phylogeny and metamorphosis are connected to evolution though the connotation of evolution is contextual. (4) Ontogeny , phylogeny and metamorphosis are closely linked terms which imply growth and transformation ,while evolution which is also a closely linked term and similar in meaning, has the additional meaning of unraveling which is not to the liking of biologists. (5) Growth in ontogeny is similar to mutation in phylogeny which can be linked to metamorphosis ; evolution has a varying connotation.

51.

This leads to the proposition that a “raga” is a melodic representation of an emotional statement, and a melodic vehicle for its communication. But, since music is capable of communicating a whole range of human emotions, we must reckon with a qualitative aspect of the emotional response that each melodic structure is associated with. The notion of a raga is, therefore, inseparably linked with the concept of “rasa”, crudely translated as “the essence”. The Indian aesthetic tradition bases its understanding of this aspect on the eight-way “rasa” classification of Bharata in the treatise on the performing arts [Natyashastra: 200 BC]. Different ragas are associated with different categories of emotional states based on the accumulated experience of Indian society. These associations have yet to be either validated or rejected, even in a culture-specific context, by application of modern psychometric tools. (1) The range of human emotions that music is capable of communicating requires us to focus on the qualitative aspect of melodic structures which may make raga closely linked to ‘rasa’. (2) The range of human emotions that music is capable of communicating requires us to focus on the qualitative aspect of melodic structures which makes it necessary to understand the concept of ‘Rasa” and its link with qualitative aspects of melodic structures. (3) The concept of ‘Rasa’ has been dealt with in Indian tradition, and it is necessary to understand its link with Raga , in order to understand the nuances of the range of human emotions . (4) Raga and Rasa are closely linked as Raga is a melodic vehicle for the communication of human emotions and Rasa, as also its classification enables us to understand the association of raga with various emotional states. (5) Raga and Rasa are closely linked as Raga is a melodic vehicle for the communication of human emotions and Rasa deals with the association of Raga with accumulated Indian wisdom which has to be validated or rejected.

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52.

This week’s poem, ‘The Language School’, comes from Tim Liardet’s fifth collection, The Blood Choir. The poem is set in the unnamed young offenders’ institution where Liardet was a tutor. It focuses on the man-made human hell of the jail, with the animal hell of the “foot-and-mouth” epidemic, also largely man-made, as a backdrop, but works the language with such vibrancy and inventiveness that transformation seems possible. Although Liardet’s poetry is richly painterly in its love of the body’s drama, and his critique of “society” rarely spelled out, reform must be where the arrow-shower of such committed creative ambition ultimately falls. (1) The poem. ‘The Language School’ creates a painterly dramatic effect as a background for the foreground of vibrant language which points towards transformation and reform. (2) The poem. ‘The Language School’ creates a painterly dramatic effect as a background and talks about the human hell of a jail which is the young offender’s institution where the author was a tutor. (3) The poem, ‘The Language School’ creates a painterly dramatic effect. The peom talks about the human hell of jail against the backdrop of another man-made disaster. In his peom, Liarrdet convincingly suggests the possibility of reforms and transformation. (4) The purpose of the poem ‘The Language School’ seems to be to create reform among the pupils of the ‘Young offender’s institution’. (5) The poem, ‘The Language School’ comes from the collection, The Blood Choir, of Tim Liardat. Poem is richly painted and uses man-made human disaster as background. The poem in, a very vivid manner, shows that there is possibility of reforms and transformation.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 53 to 56: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. In America, after the War of 1812, the sharply rising prices of agricultural commodities pulled settlers westward to find more arable land and become farmers. Between 1815 and 1819, commodity prices climbed steeply, driving up land prices as well. Farmers took advantage of the extensive river system of the West, shipping wheat and corn down the Ohio River to the Mississippi and then down the Mississippi to the port of New Orleans where it was sold or shipped to distant ports. Due to the capabilities of the Eli Whitney’s newly invented cotton gin, farmers rushed to claim lands in the southwest, hoping to cash in on cotton. “Alabama fever” gripped the South after the War of 1812, and settlers flowed into Alabama and Mississippi, driving land prices to unprecedented levels. By 1820, Mississippi and Alabama produced half of the nation’s cotton. The United States’ total cotton output tripled between 1816 and 1826. Cotton continued to rise in value as the nation’s primary export, and by 1836, made up two-thirds of all American exports in terms of value. High prices tempted many former subsistence farmers to enter the market economy. However, the agriculture and land boom collapsed temporarily in the Panic of 1819. The state banks that had risen up to support speculation and expansion financially had long issued notes guaranteeing redemption for specie or gold. These notes had then been widely circulated as a method of exchange throughout the West. The state banks governed the issuance of these notes very loosely, and thus issued notes far in excess of what they could realistically redeem. In reaction to this situation, the Bank of the United States began to insist that the state banks redeem all notes that had passed into the hands of the Bank of the US, branches of which had been in the practice of redeeming the notes themselves and amassing large numbers of state bank notes which they assumed would be redeemed by the state banks. In order to pay the Bank of the US, the state banks had to demand payment of debts by the farmers of the Midwest. The result was a vast restriction in the amount of circulating money, and a substantial cutback in the amount of credit offered to farmers and speculators, dramatically slowing the economy. The credit squeeze coincided with increased foreign production and thus falling export demand for US crops. Agricultural prices, which had sparked the boom, dropped off sharply, bringing the value of land down. Farmers could not afford to pay their debts, and since speculators could not collect payment for lands they had sold, the value of land plummeted even further. Eventually, through maintained production, innovation, Page

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and economic measures by the federal government, prices stabilized and progress continued in settling the West, but at a slower rate than the boom of 1815 to 1819. The paralleling meteoric rises in agricultural prices and land values fed off of each other to define the character of the western economy. Despite the Republicans’ efforts to create a West filled with small subsistence farmers, high land prices and high-interest loans from state banks forced many settlers to focus on cash crops and enter the agricultural market, with which few had previous experience. 53.

Which of the following can be inferred from the practice of the state banks? (1) The state banks demanded payment of debts by farmers in order to revive the economy. (2) That they were not responsible for the Panic of 1819. (3) The crisis was evoked only by their wrong decisions. (4) They were equally responsible for the evoking the crisis. (5) That their workings were not properly regulated.

54.

The author, in the third paragraph indicates that: (1) The boom was not dependent on Agricultural prices. (2) The speculators waited for selling the lands after the credit squeeze. (3) There was a decrease in production by other countries. (4) The credit squeeze was one of the contributory factors towards the decrease in the value of land. (5) None of the above.

55.

Which of the following cannot be validated by the passage? (1) The farmers were completely dependent on the banks. (2) The agricultural sector saw a dramatic rise in prices. (3) Land prices rose spectacularly. (4) The economy was agriculture based. (5) Cash crops were preferred by the small farmers.

56.

According to the author, the Panic of 1819 was predominantly due to: (1) Decline in the value of land. (2) Collapse of the agriculture boom. (3) Newness of the trade. (4) Drop in agricultural prices. (5) None of the above.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 57 to 61: A related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair. 57.

58.

59.

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Eclogue : Poem : : (1) dirge : funeral (4) elegy : praise

(2) madrigal : song (5) epistle : homily

(3) aria : andante

Paddock: Animal (1) apiary : bees (4) estuary : insects

(2) doctor: stethoscope (5) refectory: sheep

(3) prison : buccaneer

Obtrusion : Intrusion (1) spuriousness : facade (4) encomium : reprehension

(2) plausibility : farfetchedness (5) unilateral : bilateral

(3) soreness : lesion

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60.

61.

Venality : Honesty (1) verity : falsehood (4) waylay : attack

(2) zephyr : breeze (5) deluge : flood

(3) wordy : verbose

Bucolic : Urban (1) ravenous : hungry (4) soporific : sleepy

(2) choleric : amiable (5) fanatic : zealot

(3) boisterous : noisy

DIRECTIONS for Questions 62 to 64: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. The arrival of the cloned sheep Dolly seems to have taken the world by surprise. New York State rushed through an anti-cloning law, a French minister babbled about six-legged chickens and news editors dashed around looking for pictures of Hitler. Reporters were visibly discomforted to find that Britain actually had better laws in place to stop human cloning than other countries, for this left them without their usual line of attack. But all were agreed that this news had come (in Bryan Appleyard’s words) from left field. The first cloned animal was not expected for decades, if at all. I beg to differ. The only surprising thing about Dolly was that she took us by surprise. I mean this on three levels: the news did not leak; cloning has been done before; and it is routine practice in parts of the animal kingdom. Dolly is already six months old and scores of people must have known about her. The Roslin Institute is obviously more leak-proof than the cabinet. The principle of cloning was established nearly 30 years ago when John Gurdon cloned a tadpole from the cell of an adult frog. And, on a more evolutionary scale, the possibility of cloning is all around us: dandelions do it. So do whiptail lizards, greenfly, amoebae, strawberry plants and yeast. It so happens that our ancestors (who were also Dolly’s) surrendered the ability to clone themselves between 200m and 400m years ago. Quite why they gave up remains a mystery, the most plausible explanation being that for large, long-lived creatures it is crucial to change the molecular locks every generation to keep parasites guessing. That requires sex. This is not to detract from Dolly’s importance. Predictable she may have been, she none the less represents the first asexually produced mammal that has ever lived (unless you count two sheep produced last year by cloning embryonic tissue). It is likely, despite what some have been arguing, that the technology which worked for sheep will eventually be made to work for human beings if we wish it to. Should we then take cuttings of ourselves? The hurdles to be overcome are great. The technique has never yet worked with mice, because mice embryos begin differentiating much earlier in development than sheep embryos; human embryos are intermediate in this respect between mice and sheep. The cloned cell must still go through normal development within a womb, which for now requires the cloner to find a willing mother for their twin (and thus makes it probable that the first cloner will be a woman). And the Roslin Institute’s technique has a success rate of less than 0.5 per cent. But these are small hurdles compared with the gigantic leap of establishing that adult mammal cells contain sufficient information to develop into new individuals. Cloned human beings are possible; getting there is a matter of elbow grease, not genius. Should we greet the prospect with delight or horror? Imagine first the medical reasons why we might want to clone ourselves. We might grow the clone as a nerveless laboratory tissue: a spare supply of bone marrow, a skin graft or even-a long way in the future-a whole spare organ such as a liver. Genetically identical tissue is far less likely to be rejected than tissue from another person, even a sibling. People have already borne children with the specific intention of using them as bone marrow donors for their ill siblings. Ethically, cloning is no different.

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62.

The author of the passage is primarily concerned with: (1) The surprise clone-Dolly. (2) The potential and applications of cloning. (3) Hurdles in cloning. (4) Highlighting the discomfort of the ‘responsible citizens’ with cloning. (5) Acceptance of cloning as a positive development.

63.

According to the author, cloning and marrow donors are comparable: (1) Because the end use of both can be same. (2) Because it is a process in the laboratory. (3) Because siblings are used in the procedure. (4) Because our genes need identical tissues. (5) Because both involve similar organs.

64.

The passage most likely describes: (1) Dolly’s arrival as a threat. (2) Cloned people as universal horrors. (3) The pessimism of the modern age. (4) The panic created by cloning. (5) Dolly’s arrival as a great advance.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 65 to 67: Fill in the blanks of the following sentences using one from the words, idioms or phrases provided in the five alternatives. 65.

The spokeswoman referred to a recent incident of ragging __________ of her speech. (1) in due course (2) in course (3) in that (4) in wake (5) in the making

66.

The removal of poverty is a ________________, everybody’s at it. (1) Hemlock’s trap (2) Herculean mess. (3) Penelope’s web. (4) Dionysian task. (5) Mercurial endeavour.

67.

There is no ___________ allocation of wealth in our country. (1) far and near (2) first and foremost (3) out and out (4) fair and square (5) few and far

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 68 and 69: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Whether management trainers preach that ELT is doomed unless it embraces the management practices of IBM and Samsung, or they argue that clever theories are useless in the face of ELT’s hydra-like complexity, they can at least agree on one thing: teachers are the best people to be ELT managers and also the worst. As Maureen McGarvey, who runs International House’s ELT management diploma, puts it: “We fail because we think good teachers make good managers. So our pedagogical skills get us promoted into posts for which we are not equipped.” This weakness in the ELT career ladder has been recognised for some time, and in response management training is being added to ELT and applied linguistics MAs. It is now also possible to enrol on stand-alone management training courses such as IH’s distance diploma or the new Advanced Diploma in Language Training Management (ADLTM) produced by the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (Ucles). Most of these courses base their syllabuses on the vast body of general management theory derived from industry and business, because very little specific research has been done into ELT management. And this is where disagreement arises among trainers. Those who believe that the classical principles of management are universal and can be applied to ELT no matter what form it takes, aim to arm their candidates with that theory. Others teach that there are no rules in ELT management, and instead aim to give their candidates the tools they will need to interpret, adapt and reject the principles depending on the needs of the moment. Happily, though, trainers do agree on one thing: most teachers have evolved an impressive range of management skills without even realising it. To get hundreds of students a week to learn something as complex as a language is to have mastered advanced interpersonal skills, time management, communication and presentation skills. But while teachers’ “people skills” would leave most shop-floor managers gasping with admiration, they are notoriously bad at basic functional skills such as financial management, strategic planning and marketing. In the pressured environment of most ELT management training courses - only around 100 hours of teaching time on diplomas and sometimes less on MA management modules - it makes sense to focus on those areas where teachers need most help. Yet, although skills such as profit and loss analysis may be vital, they are not the skills that teachers find themselves tested in when they are promoted into management. The typical first-rung management post is director of studies, but it can also be the most challenging. It combines all the duties of curriculum and pedagogical management with the supervision of costs, facilities, hundreds of students and, most problematic of all, teachers. These are the over-qualified, independent thinkers who, in the words Terry Phillips, “see themselves as policeman on behalf of the profession against an uncaring and disinterested management.” Managers very quickly find themselves facing teachers across the barricades. Phillips is an ELT management consultant who teaches on Reading university’s MA in TEFL, and he believes that when there is conflict with staff, the mistake managers make is to be themselves: thoughtful, intuitive and sensitive. “That’s the last thing you’ve got to be,” he says. “Managing conflict is not about being a clever person, it’s about managing the situation. My experience is that there is a body of knowledge that can help you understand how conflicts occur and can save you many hours of heartache.” But, he adds, “having concepts that you just sit down and learn can be anathema to teachers”.

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68.

Which of the following is true as per the passage? (1) It is useless for teachers of ELT to learn management theory. (2) Teachers of ELT accumulate a lot of management skills through teaching itself. (3) Management theory is not suited to the ELT context as it is meant for managers and not teachers. (4) Teachers are bad at basic functional skills like “People Skills”. (5) Both 2 and 4

69.

The author would most likely agree with which of the following ? (1) Management theory can be universally applied. (2) Managers of ELT should manage the situation and not just be thoughtful, intuitive and sensitive. (3) Due to shortage of time, ELT management courses find it difficult to focus on those weak areas or skills which teachers need. (4) Teachers should stick to their job of teaching and not stray into management. (5) None of the above

DIRECTIONS for Questions 70 to 72: Each question is a logical sequence of statements with a missing link, the location of which is shown parenthetically. From the five choices available you are required to choose the one which best fits the sequence logically. 70.

Models of language evolution focus on two primary questions: How language emerged, and how languages continue to change over time. (_________). Cangelosi (1999) studied the evolution of simple communication systems, but with an emphasis on the emergence of associations not only between objects (meaning) and symbols (signal), but also between the symbols themselves (syntax). In particular, the aim was to demonstrate that simple syntactic relations (a verb-object rule) could evolve through a combination of communicative interactions and cross-generational learning in populations of neural networks. (1) The simulations indicate how a simple noun-verb communication system can evolve in a population of networks (2) An important feature of the first question is the emergence of syntactic communication. (3) The simulations, populations of networks evolved based on their ability to forage in an environment consisting of a two-dimensional 100 × 100 array of cells (4) The networks in this simulation did not start out with a predetermined syntactic system. (5) The networks had standard feed-forward architecture with a single hidden unit layer and were trained using back propagation.

71.

The philosophy of entrepreneurship development is based on the assumption that entrepreneurs are not only born but can also be identified, trained and thus created. (_____________).Pineapple cultivation has tremendous potential to generate gainful employment, promoting trade practices, avenues of setting processing industries and tremendous export potential which can bring progressive improvement in the socio- economic status of farmers in Nagaland. (1) Dimapur district has four rural development blocks out of which pineapple is grown at a large scale in Medziphema rural development block (2) To know the attitude of the pineapple growers towards improved package of practices of pineapple cultivation. (3) The various concepts and theories advocated by the researchers envisage that the emergence of entrepreneurs in a society depends upon closely inter-linked economic, social, religious, cultural and psychological variables. (4) Entrepreneurs can be visualized as change agents who are eager to break away from present economic activity to take up a relatively new line of activity of doing business at their own. (5) The socio-economic and personal characteristics of the pineapple growers and the entrepreneurial characteristics of pineapple growers are important.

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72.

Markets have inherent and well-known inefficiencies. One factor is failure to calculate the costs to those who do not participate in transactions. These “externalities” can be huge. That is particularly true for financial institutions whose task is to take risks, calculating potential costs for themselves. (___________) Hence the financial market “underprices risk” and is “systematically inefficient,” as John Eatwell and Lance Taylor wrote a decade ago. (1) Usually their appetite for risk-taking is moderated by long-term profit-making objectives. (2) But they do not take into account the consequences of their losses for the economy as a whole. (3) The threat becomes more severe when financial institutions are allowed “to innovate in the new economy” (4) The role of state capitalist institutions is to socialize cost and risk and privatize profit (5) They can sometimes go terribly wrong in calculating the risk associated with certain kinds of transactions they do

DIRECTIONS for Questions 73 to 75: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Twentieth Century philosophical thought has expressed itself for the most part through two great Movements: the phenomenological and the analytical. Each movement originated in reaction against idealistic—or at least anti-realistic—views of “the world”. And each has collapsed back into an idealism not different in effect from that which it initially rejected. Both movements began with an appeal to meanings or concepts, regarded as objective realities capable of entering the flow of experience without loss of their objective status or of their power to reveal to us an objective world as it would be if there were no subjective apprehensions of it. Both movements ended with a surrender of the objectivity of meanings and concepts in this strong sense, coming to treat them as at most more-or-less shareable components of a somehow communalized experience, but in any case incapable of revealing how things are irrespective of actual human experience. For the old Egocentric Predicament, with its “ideas” etc., is substituted a Lingocentric or Histrocentric Predicament of “language” and its elements. Hilary Putnam speaks for the current consensus: ‘Internal realism says that we don’t know what we are talking about when we talk about “things in themselves”’. Was this collapse back into anti-realism the result of some new discovery, perhaps about the relationship of consciousness to language—as might be suggested by the emergence of “language” in this century as the focal point for philosophical discussion? Or is it merely the result of finding that, after all, the replacement of sensations and ideas by language and its elements, in the effort to understand our consciousness of the world, does not deal with fundamental questions about how objects are present to us in consciousness? Statements from Putnam and others (Derrida) suggests that it is the latter. In particular, it does not deal with the question of what the “inside” and “outside” of consciousness amounts to, and with the prior question of what the mind or language does to things in the process of cognizing them. History shows that the problem of attaining objectivity is created mainly by the assumption that consciousness—whether linguistically interpreted or not—in taking something as object is “creative” of a boundary which cannot be crossed by consciousness (reference, concepts, etc.). Efforts to cross this uncrossable boundary result in the insertion of magical elements—”ideas” or “terms” or “rules”—into the act without regard to how the act as a whole fits together. The magical element achieves tie up with the “world”, variously interpreted by a Locke or Berkeley, a Quine or Wittgenstein, without regard to its coherent integration into the structure of the individual mind and act of thought. (Of course abstract patterns of integration are always suggested). What I call “the ontological principle of determinancy” is thus violated. This principle holds that everything that exists, including events, of which an act of consciousness is one type, is bounded and internally structured and externally related in specific ways, with no “gaps.” Most significantly, for every entity, there are entities which are and entities which are not parts of it, and qualities which are and are not properties of it or of its parts. This determines an ontological “inside” for the entity, a determinate Page

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wholeness, which in turn through its specific type makes the entity “accessible” in various appropriate ways— including the “intentional”—to others and others to it. With respect to the present century, analytic philosophers failed the test of determinancy from the beginning. Consider G. E. Moore’s abortive attempt to introduce the “act” of consciousness to refute idealism. Or the recourse to “ideal” languages in philosophical analysis—which were not languages at all, not even ideal ones. The turn to “natural” languages has not really fared much better with reference to the issue of determinancy of structure in the linguistic or conscious act. Examination of analyses from Wittgenstein and Putnam will perhaps show this to be the case. 73.

According to the author twentieth century philosophical thinking is restricted to: (1) the anti-realistic movement. (2) the phenomenological and the questioning. (3) a surrender of objectivity. (4) a communalized experience. (5) veiled human experiences.

74.

According to the author, the problem in attaining Objectivity is caused by: (1) A regression into anti-realism. (2) Understanding of the consciousness of the world. (3) Difficulty in maintaining detachment. (4) The belief in the boundary created by consciousness. (5) The emergence of language as a focal point.

75.

The author, in the third paragraph, implies that: (1) The principles of ontology are violated. (2) Imperatives flout logical assimilation. (3) There is disregard for determinate wholeness. (4) There is a specific structure for everything. (5) Every access is predetermined.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 76 to 80: Read the arguments and answer the questions that follow. 76.

Housing property rentals in city A should go up even more. This will attract more landlords to rent out their houses, which in turn will improve the availability of houses in city A. Thus, bringing down the housing property rentals in the long run. Of the following, which is the assumption made in the above paragraph? (1) Rents are low at present. (2) Landlords are interested only in rents. (3) Tenants are willing to pay more. (4) In the long run, the number of houses available for rent will exceed the number of people looking for houses. (5) Managing property rentals is an organized activity in city A.

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77.

Families whose generations have been involved in preserving paintings are not so much into this profession because of their love for artwork. They have been nurtured and trained in this profession whereas independent restorers of paintings adopt this profession precisely because of their love and passion for artwork. Even though certain families have been into this profession for years, it is the independent painting restorers who are able to gain clientele much faster than the experienced families. Hence, soon these families will have to look for alternative professions. Which of the following statements would most strengthen the conclusion presented above? (1) The business of restoring paintings is an extremely sensitive market where the client is deeply concerned about the overall reputation of the restorer. (2) Unlike independent restorers, families that are in the business of restoring paintings for years have a deeper understanding of painting styles and restoration techniques. (3) True patrons of art are more concerned about the quality of restoration rather than about who restores the painting. (4) Unlike families that are driven by business, independent restorers are able to provide individual attention and custom restoration services to the clients. (5) Restoration of paintings requires a keen eye for detail and a sincere effort towards understanding the artists’ style.

78.

Children who consistently learn music or painting at an early age demonstrate a deeper understanding of their environment and are able to cope with their peers and seniors more amicably. Due to this, educators believe that getting children to learn music or painting at an early age will increase and hone their social skills. Which of the following statements shows a flaw in the reasoning presented above? (1) A child’s social skills usually develop at an early stage and remain fixed into his personality. (2) Development of social skills depends on the exposure that a child receives through interacting and conversing with his parents, siblings, relatives and friends. (3) Social skills are essential for any child as they are also responsible for shaping the personality of the child. (4) Peers and seniors can also help students who feel shy or uncomfortable while interacting with other at school or outside of it. (5) Children, who possess good social skills go for learning music and painting.

79.

Mr. A is terminally ill. He is suffering from acute pain and his condition is deteriorating with each passing day. Unable to bear with his condition, he has requested for euthanasia. Doctors attending to him have approved his case for mercy killing. However, the court has rejected the plea of Mr. A for mercy killing. Among the following options which could serve as the most plausible reason for the court to turn down the plea of Mr. A? (1) Mr. A is Roman Catholic and his faith does not approve of suicide in any form. (2) There are some cases where people suffering from a similar disease have recovered completely. (3) There are some practitioners of alternate medicine who claim that they can cure Mr. A. (4) Courts are not competent to decide upon the medically complicated matters. (5) There is another group of doctors, which does not agree to the recommendations made by the doctors attending to Mr. A.

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80.

With the increase in the number of vehicles in the city, the government is trying hard to resolve issues related to available space for parking vehicles in public areas. Around one thousand new vehicles add to the present traffic situation daily. This causes further problems of traffic congestion. In order to resolve the issues, the government has suggested the construction of underground and multi-level parking spaces especially in and around market areas. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above argument? (1) The government hopes to meet the present demand for parking space especially in the congested areas within the city. (2) Some traffic from neighbouring towns is diverted to pass through the city which creates additional traffic congestion. (3) By providing additional parking space in areas in and around the market, the government is ignoring the greater need for parking space in residential areas. (4) Issues related to traffic congestion cannot be resolved unless the government ensures that all traffic rules are obediently followed by drivers and pedestrians. (5) The incompetence of the traffic control department leads to inconvenience for most commuters in the city.

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