Cl Mock Cat 6 2008

Mock CAT - 6

Test Booklet Serial Number: 7 7 0 3 6 4

INSTRUCTIONS Before the Test: 1. 2.

3. 4. 5. 6.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL THE SIGNAL TO START IS GIVEN. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, stop watches or any other device or loose paper. These should be left at a place as indicated by the invigilator. Use only an HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet. Enter in your Answer Sheet: (a) in Box 10 the Test Form Number, which appears at the bottom of this page, (b) in Box 11 the Test Booklet Serial number, which appears at the top of this page. Ensure that your personal data have been entered correctly on Side 1 of the Answer Sheet. Check whether you have entered your 7-digit Enrollment ID in Box 2 of the Answer sheet correctly.

At the Start of the Test: 1. As soon as the signal to start is given, open the Booklet. 2. This Test booklet contains 16 pages, including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet, verify that all the pages are printed properly and are in order. Also that the Test form Number indicated on the cover page and at the bottom of the inner pages is the same. If there is a problem with your Test Booklet, immediately inform the invigilator/supervisor. You will be provided with a replacement. How to answer: 1. This test has three sections which examine various abilities. These 3 sections have 60 questions in all with each section having 20 questions. You will be given two and half hours to complete the test. In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all three sections. 2. Directions for answering the questions are given before some of the questions wherever necessary. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question. 3. All questions carry 5 marks each. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of one-fourth of the marks alloted to the question. 4. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet. 5. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified. After the Test: 1. At the end of the test, remain seated. The invigilator will collect the Answer Sheet from your seat. Do not leave the hall until the invigilator announces. “You may leave now.” The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the Answer Sheets from all the candidates in the room. 2. You may retain this Test Booklet with you. Candidates giving assistance or seeking/receiving help from any source in answering questions or copying in any manner in the test will have their Answer Sheets cancelled.

MCT-0010/08

Test Form Number:

006

Space for rough work

SECTION – I Number of Questions = 20 DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 and 2: In each question, there are five sentences/paragraphs. The sentence/ paragraph labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E and they need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option. 1.

A. The economic slowdown has made it harder for many people to keep up their pace of saving for retirement. B. They live longer, for example, so they must pay for longer retirements. C. But women, especially, can find it difficult in tough times to invest enough to ensure a secure retirement. D. Their job histories are typically shorter, too, which translates into smaller accounts. E. After all, even under ideal circumstances, women face steeper obstacles than men in building a proper retirement nest egg. (1) CEBD (2) BCDE (3) EDCB (4) CEDB (5) DECB

2.

A. Barbie started as a toy, the kind of toy that got whisked off store shelves faster than Mattel, the doll’s first maker and now, thanks to Barbie, the world’s largest toy manufacturer, could restock those shelves. B. Barbie never got pregnant or old; she stood her own in stores as the mute brassy standard not just of beauty but also of lifestyle. C. With their purchasing power they voted against their own shapes, colors, and cultural identity, Barbie found herself in the bizarre position of defining culture. D. Around the world, she became an icon aspired to by both mothers and their daughters; who identified desperately with the rich, blonde Barbie from that rich, blonde country. E. Barbie’s star rose with post-war U.S. hegemony that made everyone in the world want fast-food, appliances, Coca-Cola, and, if you were a woman, blond hair and impossibly long legs. (1) BCDE (2) DBCE (3) CDBE (4) EBDC (5) EDBC

DIRECTIONS for Questions 3 and 4: In each question, there are three to five sentences. Each sentence has pair/s of words/phrases that are highlighted. From the highlighted words / phrase(s) select the most appropriate word(s) / phrases to form correct sentences. Then from the options given choose the right sequence 3.

One of the wealthiest and most respectable citizens of the borough [A] / burrow [B] had been missing for several days, which gave rise to suspicion of foul [A] / fowl [B] play. We congratulated him on his performance on [A] / at [B] the rehearsal. The reinforced islet [A] / eyelet [B] allows it to hang on a pegboard, a tool trailer or a basement wall. A rosy garland was the victor’s meed [A] / mead [B]. (1) BBAAB (2) AABBB (3) BBBBA (4) AABBA (5) ABBAB

4.

When Lena sighed she exhaled a heavy perfume of sashay [A] / sachet [B] powder. Very commonly a calender [A] / calendar [B] includes more than one type of cycle, or has both cyclic and acyclic elements. The claque [A] / clack [B] was quite vociferous in its [A] / it’s [B] support. Unaccustomed to sudden emergencies, her head began to swim, and her grip upon the bridal [A] / bridle [B] relaxed. (1) BBAAB (2) BBABA (3) BAAAB (4) ABABB (5) ABAAB

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 5 to 7: In each question, there are five sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option. 5.

A. A Farewell to Arms is a very dramatic book. B. Many scholars, such as Ray B. West, Jr., have compared its five-book structure to the traditional English five-act play. C. There are similarities to be drawn among the structure of the novel and tragic drama. D. The first book, like the first act in a play, introduces the characters and the situation of the story, and in the second book the romantic plot is developed. E. Book III provides climactic turning point: Frederic’s desertion of his post in the army and his decision to return to Catherine. (1) D & E

6.

(3) A & D only

(4) B, C & D

(5) A, B & D

A. Development is a process whereby insignificant and imperceptible B. quantitative change lead to fundamental, qualitative changes. C. The latter occur not gradually, but rapidly and abruptly, in the form of a leap from one state to another. D. A simple example from the physical world might be the heating of water: a one-degree increase in temperature is a quantitative change, E. but on 100 degrees there is a qualitative change-water to steam. (1) E only

7.

(2) B only

(2) A & D

(3) C only

(4) A, C & D

(5) B, C & D

A. B. C. D.

The next steps towards globalisation comes from an unexpected quarter–global farmlands. Stung by growing food shortages, the Chinese government is encouraging its agricultural firms to buy or lease farmlands in Africa and South America to bolster food security back home. The new government policy comes in the wake of higher income levels that encourage E. spending away from staple rice diets and towards increasing consumption for meat. (1) C & E

(2) A & C

(3) B, C & D

(4) A only

(5) B & D

DIRECTIONS for Questions 8 to 11: Given below is a passage consisting of four paragraphs. In each paragraph the closing part of the last sentence has been left out. In each of the following questions, from the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. 8.

In or around 1605, European literature changed. No one realised it at the time, but when Don Quixote set off to save the world, a new kind of writing was born. The old forms of storytelling-the epic, the romance, the oral tale-would from now on be pitted against a boisterous young rival. Before long it would be universally acknowledged that a reader ____________________________________ . (1) hoping to enjoy a good story must be in search of a novel. (2) remains a literary force to be reckoned with. (3) articulates a basic human desire-the desire to be “many people, as many as it would take to assuage the burning desires that possess us.” (4) is a similar combination of irony, seriousness and principled reticence. (5) could reveal the immense, mysterious power of the pointless.

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9.

The novelty of the novel is of course connected with the rise of printing, and the growth of a literate public with time and money to spare. Beyond that, the sheer scale of the form allows storylines to be extended and multiplied as never before, crossing and re-crossing each other with ample scope for coincidence, surprise and contingency, and hence for the depiction of characters with whom, as William Hazlitt put it, the reader can “identify.” But the most momentous way in which novels distinguish themselves from other kinds of storytelling is that they give a central role to a supernumerary characterthe narrator—whose task is to transmit the story to us. All kinds of stories invite us to imagine the characters they portray, and involve ourselves in their fortunes and their follies; but to engage with novels we need ____________________________________ . (1) perplexed citizens engaged in a collective search for freedom and happiness. (2) counting against any political aspiration that arises from nationality, identity or tribal loyalty. (3) a gradual awakening from the paranoid fictions that are flourishing. (4) to go one step further and imagine the people telling the story, or even identify with them. (5) to demonstrate the power of the imagination.

10.

The art of reading a novel involves a dash of experiment, conjecture, even risk. It requires readers to try out different narrative perspectives, styles, even personalities, and so to explore the inherent variousness of experience, and to recognise the vein of arbitrariness that runs through any possible version of events. Novels, in short, are implicitly pluralistic. In this respect they resemble essays, which, as it happens, came into existence at more or less the same time (Montaigne launched the form in 1580, with Bacon following in 1597). Essays tend to be classier, more learned and more demanding–there is no essayistic equivalent of the “popular novel”–and even when written in a perfectly casual style, they are likely to be strewn with half-concealed quotations or allusions to flatter or perhaps annoy the smarter class of reader. As exercises in hesitation, exploration and experimental self-multiplication, they are like novels, only more so. You might even say that the novel aspires to the condition of the essay, and ____________________________________ . (1) keeps returning to the question of “the novel form.” (2) teaches us that there is no perfect way of carving up the world or recounting its stories. (3) there is certainly no shortage of novelists who have aspired to be essayists too. (4) it has its intellectual origins in the prodigious work of a novelist. (5) is an aspect of the ever-developing human spirit.

11.

Think of Eliot or Henry James, Woolf, Forster or Orwell, or Mann, Sartre, De Beauvoir, Camus and Mary McCarthy. And as the four recently published books now lying open on my kitchen table demonstrate, the essay-writing novelist is still a literary force to be reckoned with. In his luminous new collection, The Curtain, Milan Kundera argues that the special virtue of the novel lies in its ability to part the “magic curtain, woven of legends” that hangs between us and the ordinary world. The curtain has been put there to cover up the trivia of our lives, the forgotten old boxes and bags where “an enigma remains an enigma” while ugliness flirts with beauty, and reason courts the absurd. These neglected spaces were redeemed for literature, according to Kundera, at the moment when Cervantes got his readers to imagine Don Quixote as he lay dying while his niece went on eating, the housekeeper went on drinking and Sancho Panza went on being “of good cheer.” By inventing a narrator through whose consciousness such dumb events could be worked up into an affecting “scene,” Cervantes created a form of literature that could do justice to “modest sentiments”; and so a new kind of beauty– Kundera calls it “prosaic beauty”–was born. Henry Fielding took the technique further when he created a narrator who could charm his readers with benign loquacity, and Laurence Sterne completed the development by blithely allowing the story of Tristram Shandy ____________________________. (1) to rent the curtain that separates us from the prose of ordinary life. (2) to pass through a long night of lyrical self-absorption. (3) to emerge on the other side in a state of bewildered, uncertain enlightenment. (4) to specialize in moral wisdom. (5) to be ruined by the character trying to recount it.

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 12 and 13: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

PASSAGE Objections to the principle of autonomy may be expected from two sides. Behaviorists will continue to prefer their conception of organic drive with its capacity for manifold conditioning by ever receding stimuli. Whereas purposivists will be unwilling to accept a pluralistic principle that seems to leave motives so largely at the mercy of learning. The behaviorist is well satisfied with motivation in terms of organic drive and conditioning because he feels that he somehow has secure anchorage in physiological structure (The closer he approaches physiological structure the happier the behaviorist is.) But the truth of the matter is that the neural physiology of organic drive and conditioning is no better established, and no easier to imagine, than is the neural physiology of the type of complex autonomous units of motivation here described. Two behavioristic principles will be said to account adequately for the instances of functional autonomy previously cited, viz., the circular reflex and cross-conditioning. The former concept, acceptable enough when applied to infant behavior, merely says that the more activity a muscle engages in, the more activity of the same sort does it engender through a self-sustaining circuit. This is, to be sure, a clear instance of autonomy, albeit on a primitive level, oversimplified so far as adult conduct is concerned. The doctrine of cross-conditioning refers to subtle recession of stimuli, and to the intricate possibility of cross-connections in conditioning. For instance, such ubiquitous external stimuli as humidity, daylight, gravitation, may feed collaterally into open channels of activity, arousing mysteriously and unexpectedly a form of conduct to which they have unconsciously been conditioned. For example, the angler whose fishing expeditions have been accompanied by sun, wind, or a balmy June day, may feel a desire to go fishing whenever the barometer, the thermometer, or the calendar in his city home tells him that these conditions prevail. Innumerable such crossed stimuli are said to account for the arousal of earlier patterns of activity. Such a theory inherits, first of all, the well-known difficulties resident in the principle of conditioning whenever it is made the sole explanation of human behavior. Further, though the reflex circle and cross-conditioning may in fact exist, they are really rather trivial principles. They leave the formation of interest and its occasional arousal almost entirely to chance factors of stimulation. They give no picture at all of the spontaneous and variable aspects of traits, interests, or sentiments. These dispositions are regarded as purely reactive in nature; the stimulus is all-important. The truth is that dispositions sort out stimuli congenial to them, and this activity does not in the least resemble the rigidity of reflex response. A variant on the doctrine of cross-conditioning is the principle of redintegration. This concept admits the existence of highly integrated dispositions of a neuropsychic order. These dispositions can be aroused as a whole by any stimulus previously associated with their [p.153] functioning. In this theory likewise, the disposition is regarded as a rather passive affair, waiting for reactivation by some portion of the original stimulus. Here again the variability of the disposition and its urge-like quality are not accounted for. The stimulus is thought merely to reinstate a complex determining tendency. Nothing is said about how the stimuli themselves are selected, why a motive once aroused becomes insistent, surmounting obstacles, skillfully subordinating conflicting impulses, and inhibiting irrelevant trains of thought. In certain respects the principle of autonomy stands midway between the behavioristic view and the thoroughgoing purposive psychology of the hormic order. It agrees with the former in emphasizing the acquisition of motives, in avoiding an a priori and unchanging set of original urges, and in recognizing (as limited principles) the operation of the circular response and cross-conditioning. It agrees with the hormic

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psychologist, however, in finding that striving-from–within is a far more essential characteristic of motive than stimulation–from–without. It agrees likewise in distrusting the emphasis upon stomach contractions and other “excess and deficit stimuli” as “causes” of mature behavior. Such segmental sources of energy even when conditioned cannot possibly account for the “go” of conduct. But functional autonomy does not rely as does hormic theory upon modified instinct, which after all is as archaic a principle as the conditioning of autonomic segmental tensions, but upon the capacity of human beings to replenish their energy through a plurality of constantly changing systems of a dynamic order 12.

Which of the following supports functional autonomy? (1) Subtle accumulation of stimuli. (2) Cross connections in Conditioning (3) Complex channels of activity. (4) Organic drive. (5) Learning.

13.

The author would agree with which of the following statements (1) The theory of organic drive and conditioning is closest to truth because of its basis in physiological structure. (2) The neural physiology of organic drive and conditioning has been very well established . (3) The neural physiology of the type of complex autonomous units of motivation is very easy to imagine. (4) The stimulus is not all important: Dispositions select out congenial stimuli. (5) None of the above.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 14 to 17: Given below is a passage consisting of four paragraphs. In each of the following paragraphs unjumble the highlighted line in the passage and answer the questions that follow. 14.

As capitalism has transformed throughout the ages, so too have its virtues. In the early stages of modernity, where bucks could be made only outside the stifling constraints of feudal society, the money-maker was a roamer and a chancer: he travelled in search of his fortune, swindling and pursuing madcap schemes. With the development of capitalist societies, money was better made at home. The ideal money-maker was now a prudent bookkeeper, who wasted nothing and ploughed his profits back into the business, renouncing his own consumption and frowning on sensual pleasure. The model bookkeeper was the eighteenth-century American, Benjamin Franklin, (A) for his with of austere celebration recommendations productive virtues, and getting up early, saving one’s pennies and not eating too much at lunch. If the sentence (A) is rearranged, the FIFTH word from the start is (1) of (4) his

15.

(2) for (5) austere

(3) recommendations

The capitalist bookkeepers’ theoretician was German sociologist Max Weber, whose 1910 book The Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism argued that the key feature of capitalism was that making money becomes ‘a calling’, an end in itself. The bourgeois (B) for the worked sake, denying of work himself the fruits of the pre-modern. His labour man would have been flummoxed by this, says Weber: what is the point of this, ‘to sink into the grave weighed down with a great material load of money and goods’? If the sentence (B) is rearranged, the SEVENTH word from the start is (1) of

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(2) the

(3) labour

(4) denying

(5) worked

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The protestant ethic didn’t hold sway for long, though; even in Weber’s time, it was on the wane. With the growth of mass consumerism and radical politics in the late-nineteenth and early-twentieth centuries, the new generation damned the traditional bourgeois work ethic as stuffy and restrictive. Benjamin Franklin’s aphorisms – (C) time is now ringing hollow money; a heavy heart the light purse means– were by. While Franklin’s prime concern was to be ‘useful’, the French poet Charles Baudelaire judged that: ‘To be a useful man has always appeared to me as something quite hideous.’ If the sentence (C) is rearranged, the FIFTH word from the start is (1) light

17.

(2) were

(3) means

(4) money

(5) purse

A new ethic was replacing Franklin’s religion of work, and this was analysed in Daniel Bell’s 1976 book The Cultural Contradictions of Capitalism. Bell identified a new countercultural ethic, based not on production but on consumption: the virtue was not public duty but the celebration of sensual enjoyment, the exploration and liberation of the self. Rather than saving every penny and denying oneself, there was now a revelling in abundance and in sensation. Not working to work, but enjoying to enjoy. In the 1920s, and then again in the 1960s, this countercultural wave rose up with particular force, shaking the work ethic to its foundations. (D) Capitalism is one of twenty-first century ethic of what is the question contemporary the, of the most pressing of our times. US political theorist Benjamin Barber’s new book, Consumed, is an interesting contribution to this question. If the sentence (D) is rearranged, the NINTH word from the start is (1) what

(2) is

(3) century

(4) ethic

(5) contemporary

DIRECTIONS for Questions 18 to 20: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

PASSAGE In his 1992 book A History of the Mind, Humphrey argued that consciousness is grounded in bodily sensation rather than thought, and proposed a speculative evolutionary account of the emergence of sentience. Seeing Red is a refinement and extension of those ideas. Put simply, we don’t so much have sensations as do them. Sensation is “on the production side of the mind rather than the reception side.” When the spiky-haired cartoon character is looking at the red screen, he is doing red. He is redding. The evolutionary history of sensory enactments like redding (or hotting and so on) can be traced to the bodily reactions of primitive organisms responding to different environmental stimuli, noxious and nutritive. Imagine an “amoeba–like” creature floating in the ancient seas. Like all other organisms, it has a structural boundary, which is the frontier between “self” and “other.” The animal’s survival depends on cross border exchanges of material, energy and information, and, as it moves around, some events at the border are going to be “good” for it and some “bad.” It must have the ability to respond appropriately-as Humphrey puts it, “reacting to this stimulus with an ouch! To that with a whoopee!” At first the responses are localised to the site of stimulation, but evolution endows more specialised sensory zones, this for chemicals, that for light–and a central control system, a proto-brain, which allows for co-ordinated responses to specific stimuli: “Thus, when, say, salt arrives at its skin, the animal detects it and makes a characteristic wriggle of activity–it wriggles ‘saltily.’ When red light falls on it, it makes a different kind of wriggle–it wriggles ‘redly.’” These are the prototypes of human sensation. With the march of evolutionary history, life gets more complex for the animal and it becomes advantageous for it to have an inner representation of events happening at the surface of its body. One way of accomplishing this is to plug into those systems already in place for identifying and reacting to stimulation. The animal’s representation of “what’s going on?” (and what it “feels” about it) is achieved by monitoring what it is doing

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about it. “Thus… to sense the presence of salt at a certain location the animal monitors its own command signals for wriggling saltily… to sense the presence of red light, it monitors its signals for wriggling redly.” Such self-monitoring by the subject is the prototype of “feeling sensation.” Evolution then takes the animal to another level at which it comes to care about the world just beyond its body, so that, for example, it becomes sensitive to the chemical and air pressure signals of the proximity of predator or prey. This requires quite another style of information processing. “When the question is ‘What is happening to me?’ the answer that is wanted is qualitative, present-tense, transient, and subjective. When the question is ‘What is happening out there in the world?’ the answer that is wanted is quantitative, analytical, permanent, and objective.” The old sensory channels continue to provide a body-centred picture of what the stimulation is doing to the animal, but a second system is set up “to provide a more neutral, abstract, body– independent representation of the outside world.” This is the prototype of perception. At this stage the animal is still responding to stimulation with overt bodily activity, but eventually it achieves a degree of independence and is no longer bound by rigid stimulus-response rules. It still needs to know what’s going on in the world, so the old sensory systems stay in service, and it still learns about what is happening to it by monitoring the command signals for its own responses. But now it can issue virtual commands, which don’t result in overt action. In other words, it no longer wriggles. Rather than going all the way out to the surface of the body, the commands are short-circuited, reaching only to a point on the incoming sensory pathway. Over evolutionary time the target of the command retreats further from the periphery until “the whole process becomes closed off from the outside world in an internal loop within the brain.” Sensory activity has become “privatised.” 18.

Which is the thematic highlight of this passage? (1) That all perception is unconscious. (2) That selfhood and consciousness are entwined “in-the-moment”. (3) That sensation and perception are separable. (4) That the sensory systems underlie conscious awareness. (5) That the perceptual awareness underlies conscious awareness.

19.

Which of the following would have been true if the prototype of perception preceded sensation? (1) The goal of the authority would have moved away additionally from the fringe. (2) The body would not have been bound by a stiff stimulus-response system. (3) The being would have been taken to another level beyond its body. (4) The evolution of consciousness would have been ultimately doomed. (5) The reconciling of brain function and consciousness would have been faster.

20.

According to the passage, the term “privatised” refers to: (1) The target-command process getting perceptive and recognizing emotions. (2) The target-command process gaining evidence through varied actions. (3) The target-command process receiving recognition by the brain. (4) The target-command process getting entwined in the system. (5) The target-command process getting individualized.

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SECTION – II Number of Questions = 20 DIRECTIONS for Questions 21 to 25: Answer the questions independent of each other. There are exactly three pairs of siblings among ten children namely Sam, Joe, Tim, Ron, Ken, May, Bob, Ian, Den and Emy such that no child is common in these pairs. Mr. Vaughan randomly selects four children and in each selection there is exactly one pair of siblings and the other two children do not have any sibling. Some of the selections done by him are listed in the table given below.

Selections

21.

I II III IV

Sam Ken Tim May

Tim Ron Ian Bob

Den Joe Bob Den

May Bob Emy Sam

Which of the following can never be a selection done by Mr. Vaughan? (1) Den, Ken, Sam and May (2) Ian, Emy, May and Ron (4) Ron, Sam, Joe and May (5) Sam, Den, Ken and Bob

(3) Tim, Ken, Joe and Ron

22.

Five thieves namely Amar, Bhuvan, Chirag, Dhruv and Elan have been assigned five codes namely A, B, C, D and E not necessarily in this particular order. Also, each thief has been assigned only one of the mentioned codes. For none of the thieves, the first alphabet of his name is same as his assigned code. The code assigned to both Amar and Chirag is neither B nor E. Further, the code assigned to both Dhruv and Elan is neither A nor C. If the code assigned to Amar is D, what is the code assigned to Bhuvan? (1) C (2) D (3) E (4) A (5) Cannot be determined

23.

A rugby team has 15 players such that each player is wearing only one Jersey. The Jerseys of these 15 players are numbered 1 to 15 such that there is only one number on one Jersey. While playing a game on the rugby field, the players identify each other by their jersey numbers. For example, the player wearing the jersey number 7, is identified as “Jersey 7”. As per the team’s strategy, “Jersey x” always passes the ball to “Jersey y” such that y is exactly three numbers ahead of x. For example, “Jersey 1” always passes the ball to “Jersey 4 ” whereas “Jersey 15” always passes the ball to “Jersey 3”. Out of 1001 consecutive passes between his team members, at most how many times did “Jersey 6 ” pass the ball? (1) 102 (2) 200 (3) 201 (4) 202 (5) Cannot be determined.

24.

The number assigned by Professor Chaurasia to each of the 26 alphabets namely A, B, C, ......, Y and Z is 1, 2, 3, ......, 25 and 26 respectively. He makes a selection of certain alphabets such that his selection includes all the vowels and all those alphabets which have been assigned a number that is prime. He forms a five-letter word using the alphabets from his selection. Which of the following is definitely not a word formed by him? (1) IGCAM (2) SCEKA (3) SUOEM (4) UQKAE (5) OGVUE

25.

7 containers namely C1, C2, C3, C4, C5, C6 and C7 are filled with one out of the 7 liquids namely A, B, C, D, E, F and G not necessarily in this particular order. C2, C4 and C6 are filled with A, E and C respectively. C1 is neither filled with D nor G. C7 is neither filled with B nor D. If C1 is filled with F, which liquid is filled in C7? (1) A (2) G (3) C (4) Either (2) or (3) (5) Cannot be determined

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 26 to 29: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Five friends namely Salim, Sanjay, Sunil, Gaurav and Tarun played a game, which lasted for 6 weeks namely Week 1, Week 2, Week 3, Week 4, Week 5 and Week 6 in that order. In the game each of the friends selected exactly five players out of the ten players namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J at the beginning of week 1. Only at the end of each week the friends were allowed to substitute at most three players from their respective team. The players who substituted the existing players were out of the 10 mentioned players. The number of points earned by each friend is the sum total of the points earned by the players in his team during a particular week. The total number of points earned by each friend at the end of any week is the cumulative sum total of the points earned by him in all the weeks that have passed by Ranks 1 to 5 are awarded to the friends at the end of each week. Between any two friends a numerically lesser rank is given to the friend who has more number of points.

Week 1 60 100 15 45 125 50 10 200 175 120

A B C D E F G H I J

Teams

Players

TABLE 1 provides information about the number of points earned by the mentioned players in each of the six weeks. TABLE 2 provides information about the composition of the teams selected by the friends at the beginning of week 1.

Salim B D E H J

Week 2 100 80 25 60 80 75 120 50 25 210

Table – 1 Number of Points Week 3 Week 4 25 150 125 50 200 125 45 80 20 140 150 40 200 60 125 110 85 90 50 100

Table – 2 Sanjay Sunil A E C G F H G I I A

Gaurav B C F I E

Week 5 40 100 25 150 20 180 25 75 145 60

Week 6 125 60 80 125 60 150 50 75 150 50

Tarun J I D A E

Gaurav got minimum possible number of points in each of the weeks after week 1 sequentially. 26.

27.

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Find the number of points earned by Gaurav in week 5. (1) 170 (2) 230 (3) 215 (4) 210

(5) 245

In how many weeks B, J and E were present together in the team selected by Gaurav? (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (5) 4

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Additional Information for questions 28 and 29: Sanjay substituted exactly four players across all the six weeks. He did not substitute any player at the end of weeks 1 and 2. In the remaining weeks, the substitutions made by him were such that he earned maximum possible number of points. 28.

29.

Find the number of points earned by Sanjay in week 5. (1) 650 (2) 615 (3) 570 (4) 605

(5) 590

How many players were there in the team selected by Sanjay for exactly three weeks such that the three weeks are consecutive? (1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4 (5) 3

DIRECTIONS for Questions 30 to 32: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below The shopkeeper of a particular shop announces that the selling price of all the items sold from his shop will change only on the first day of each of the three months namely January, February and March. The selling price of an item in the month of January will change with respect to the marked price of that particular item and the selling price of an item in the months of February and March will change with respect to the marked price of that particular item in the previous month. The following table provides information about six of the items that are available for sale from his shop. Further, the table provides the maximum and the minimum possible selling price of each of the six items during each of the mentioned three months.

% change in selling price every month

30.

Minimum Selling Maximum selling Price in any price in any month (in Rs.) month (in Rs.)

Items

Marked Price(in Rs.)

January

February

March

Shirt-1

300

10

5

10

275

335

Shirt-2

400

5

10

8

345

450

Trouser-1

500

8

12

10

425

575

Trouser-2

550

5

10

10

450

600

Shoe-1

900

15

10

10

750

1000

Shoe-2

800

10

10

10

700

800

What is the selling price(approximate) of Shirt-1 in the month of March? (1) Rs.312 (2) Rs.282 (4) Either (1) or (2) (5) Cannot be determined

(3) Rs.318

31.

Rahim bought one of the mentioned Shirts and Trouser-1 in any of the three given months. What is the maximum possible amount Rahim paid for this purchase? (1) Rs.887 (2) Rs.897 (3) Rs.995 (4) Rs.987 (5) Rs.700

32.

What could be the minimum possible difference between the selling price of the two mentioned shoes at any point of time in the given three months? (1) Rs.44.55 (2) Rs.40.85 (3) Rs.37.75 (4) Rs.49.25 (5) Rs.53.75

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Number of Representatives

DIRECTIONS for Questions 33 to 36: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a UN summit, one representative from each of the 15 countries are participating. The representatives at the summit speak seven different languages namely Hindi, English, Spanish, Portuguese, German, French and Arabic. Three representatives speak two languages each; two representatives speak three languages each; five representatives speak five languages each; one representative speaks one language and four representatives speak four languages each. The following bar graph provides information about the number of representatives that speak a particular language. The graph provides information about only three languages but does not specify them.

12 10

10

9 7

8 6 4 2 0 Language 1

Language 2

Language 3

33.

If at least 5 representatives speak each language, then at most how many representatives speak a particular language? (1) 15 (2) 11 (3) 14 (4) 12 (5) 13

34.

If minimum possible number of representatives that speak a particular language is 7, then what is the number of languages that are spoken by 7 representatives each? (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 1 (5) 2

35.

Which of the following cannot be TRUE? (1) German, French, Spanish and English are spoken by 9 representatives each. (2) English and Arabic are spoken by 15 and 11 representatives respectively. (3) One representative is speaks Portuguese. (4) Hindi, English and Portuguese are spoken by 8 representatives each and 5 representatives speak Spanish. (5) None of the above.

36.

For at most how many languages, the number of representatives who speak it is greater than the number of representatives who speak Language 1? (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1 (5) 5

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 37 to 40: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. There are three stationery shops namely Shop I, Shop II and Shop III that sell five different types of articles namely Pencils, Erasers, Pens, Sharpeners and Diaries. On a particular day only five children namely Aamna, Arjun, Alice, Anisha and Ajay bought articles from these three mentioned shops.Also, Ajay did not buy a eraser from shop II. Table 1 provides information about the number of articles of each type bought from each of the three shops. Table 2 provides information about the number of articles bought by each child from each of the three shops. Table 3 provides information about the number of articles of each type bought by each of the five children.

Pencils Erasers Pens Sharpeners Diaries

Aamna Arjun Alice Anisha Ajay

Table – 1 Shop I Shop II 1 0 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 3

Pencils 2 0 1 0 0

Shop III 2 1 3 0 1

Table – 2 Shop I Shop II Shop III 1 3 2 Aamna 1 0 1 Arjun 3 3 0 Alice 2 0 3 Anisha 0 1 1 Ajay

Table – 3 Erasers Pens 1 0 0 1 2 2 1 2 1 1

Sharpeners 1 0 0 1 0

Diaries 2 1 1 1 0

37.

For how many children is it possible to exactly determine which article they bought from which shop? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5

38.

From which shop did Aamna bought the 2 pencils? (1) Both from Shop I (2) Both from Shop III (3) 1 each from Shop I and II (4) 1 each from Shop I and III

(5) Cannot be determined

Additional Information for questions 39 and 40: The following table provides information about the price (in Rupees) at which these mentioned articles are sold to the mentioned children by the respective shops.

Shop I Shop II Shop III

Pencils 5 4 3

Erasers 1 3 4

Pens 10 20 16

Sharpeners 2 1 4

Diaries 40 45 60

39.

Find the total amount spent by Alice on the articles she bought from these three mentioned shops. (1) Rs. 83 (2) Rs. 76 (3) Rs. 81 (4) Rs. 71 (5) Cannot be determined.

40.

Which child amongst the mentioned children spent the maximum amount on the articles bought by him/her from these three mentioned shops? (1) Aamna (2) Arjun (3) Alice (4) Anisha (5) Ajay

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SECTION – III Number of Questions = 20 DIRECTIONS for Questions 41 and 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Three persons Anil, Biswas and Chandra are standing at three different points on a circular track. At time t = 0 they start running simultaneously in the clock wise direction on the circular track with uniform speeds. At time t = T it was observed that Anil, Biswas and Chandra are at the points where Biswas, Chandra and Anil were at time t = 0. The time taken by Anil, Biswas and Chandra to complete one lap of the track is 4, 6 and 12 minutes respectively. 41.

42.

What is the minimum possible value of T(in seconds)? (1) 60 (2) 75 (3) 90 (4) 120

(5) 150

If the length of the circular track is 240 metres, then what is the shortest distance(along the circular track) between Anil and Chandra at time t = 900 seconds? (1) 80 metres (2) 60 metres (3) 120 metres (4) 90 metres (5) 100 metres

DIRECTIONS for Questions 43 to 45: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Mr. Contractor hires some workers on daily wage basis. The hired workers are categorized under three different grades viz. Non-Skilled, Skilled and Supervisory. Following table gives the number of workers in each grade. Using three different formulae, as given in the table, he calculates the daily wage payable to the workers.

Grade of the Worker

Total number of Workers

Non - Skilled

x

Skilled

y

Supervisory

  (x + y )   max  1,       10  

Daily Wage of a Worker

( in Rs ). w(x) = max ( 75,153 – 3x ) w ( y ) = max (120,310 – 10y ) w (s ) = 2w ( x ) + w ( y )

Note:[x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x. 43.

What is the minimum possible amount Mr. Contractor must pay to the supervisor(s) hired for a job that also requires 30 other workers not all of whom are Non-Skilled? (1) Rs.810 (2) Rs.1092 (3) Rs.960 (4) Rs.1080 (5) Rs.1908

44.

Excluding the number of supervisors, what is the minimum possible number of workers that can be hired by Mr. Contractor so that a Non-Skilled worker gets as much amount of money in his daily wage as a Skilled worker gets? (1) 45 (2) 30 (3) 27 (4) 17 (5) 13

45.

Yesterday, Mr. Contractor hired three supervisors and some other workers. At the end of the day, he paid exactly Rs.200 each to the Skilled workers. What is the maximum possible amount did Mr. Contractor spend to pay the daily wages of all the workers, including the Supervisors? (1) Rs.5236 (2) Rs.5200 (3) Rs.5350 (4) Rs.5200 (5) Cannot be determined

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 46 and 47: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The total number of students in three different sections namely I, II and III is ‘AA’, ‘BB’ and ‘CC’ respectively. The total number of students in the mentioned three sections is ‘DD0’. Assume that A, B and C are distinct natural numbers and D is a non zero digit. All the mentioned numbers are in the same base and the base is not greater than 9. 46.

47.

How many distinct values of (A, B and C) are possible? (1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 8

(5) 6

What is the maximum value of (A + B + C) ? (1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 16

(5) None of these

(4) 18

DIRECTIONS for Questions 48 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In the following figure, arc AB is a quadrant of the circle with center at point O and radius 4 units. Further, OC = OD, OC:OA = 3:4.

O

C

G

D B

A

48.

49.

What is the ratio of the length of AG to GD? (1) 2:1 (2) 4:3 (3) 5:3

2 3

(2)

7 8

(3)

3 2

(4)

6 7

(5)

1 2

A circle C is drawn such that it touches the quadrant at the point E and the mid point of AB at F. What is the radius(in units) of the circle C? (1) 2 − 2

14

(5) 3:2

What is the area (in square units) of the ∆ AGC? (1)

50.

(4) 3:1

(2)

2 −1

(3) 4 − 2 3

(4)

3 −1

(5) None of these

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 51 and 52: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. ABCD is (4 × 4) matrix. Each cell in the matrix has to be filled in with the one of the four numbers 1, 2, 3 and 4 such that the cells in each row, each column and each of the four square matrix AEIH, EBFI, HIDG and IFCG are filled in with one of the four numbers 1, 2, 3 and 4. For example,

E

A

H

B

1

2

3

4

4

3

2

1

2

4I 1

3

3

1

2

D

51.

4 G

F

C

If certain cells are filled in with numbers as shown in the figure given below, then the total number of ways in which all the cells of the given (4 × 4) matrix can be filled in with the four numbers is

A

E 2

H

3

D

52.

(2) 4

F

I 3

(1) 2

B

(3) 8

2 G

C (4) 16

(5) 32

The total number of ways in which all the cells of the given (4 × 4) matrix can be filled in with the four numbers is (1) 576 (2) 768 (3) 168 (4) 384 (5) 192

DIRECTIONS for Questions 53 and 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A natural number ‘N’ less than 1000 exists such that when the units digit of ‘N’ is erased, the resulting number is the factor of ‘N’. 53.

What is the sum of all the possible value of ‘N’ such that ‘N’ is a two-digit number more than 35? (1) 942 (2) 968 (3) 934 (4) 994 (5) 912

54.

How many values of ‘N’ are possible such that ‘N’ is a three-digit number? (1) 100 (2) 101 (3) 90 (4) 91 (5) None of these

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15

DIRECTIONS for Questions 55 and 56: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A square ABDE and a regular pentagon BPQRC are drawn on the sides AB and BC respectively of an equilateral triangle ABC. The square and the pentagon lie completely outside the triangle ABC and the length of the side of the triangle ABC is 1 unit. Several isosceles triangles are drawn such that all the vertices of the triangle is among the points A, B, C, D, E, P, Q and R. Also, atleast one of the points A, B and C is a vertex of such an isosceles triangle. 55.

What is the area(in square units) of the ∆ AEC? (1)

56.

1 2

(2)

1 4

(3)

1 2 2

(4)

2 3

How many distinct such isosceles triangles can be drawn? (1) 16 (2) 17 (3) 18 (4) 19

(5)

1 2

(5) None of these

DIRECTIONS for Questions 57 and 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Given that f(1) = 1, f(2x) = 4f(x) + 6 and f(x + 2) = f(x) + 12x + 12 for all real values of x. 57.

58.

What is the value of f(20)? (1) 502 (2) 1068

(3) 1198

(4) 4678

(5) None of these

What is the value of f(22) – f(5)? (1) 1247 (2) 681

(3) 1741

(4) 1547

(5) 1377

59.

The cost of 6 desks is equal to the aggregate cost of 6 chairs and 1 table. The aggregate cost of 6 desks and 3 tables is equal to the cost of 12 chairs. Which of the following statements is false? Assume that the cost of each chair is same and this holds true for the desks as well as the tables. (1) The cost of 5 tables is equal to the aggregate cost of 5 chairs and 2 desks. (2) The cost of 5 chairs is equal to the cost of 4 desks. (3) The cost of 2 desks is equal to the aggregate cost of 1 chair and 1 table. (4) The cost of 3 desks is equal to the aggregate cost of 2 chairs and 1 table. (5) The cost of 10 chairs is equal to the aggregate cost of 5 tables and 2 desks.

60.

There are “n” necklaces in a safe box (n > 1). Every necklace has the same number of diamonds. Each necklace has at least 2 diamonds. The total number of diamonds in these “n” necklaces is between 500 and 600. If this data is sufficient to find the value of n, then what can be the value of “n”? (1) 22 (2) 23 (3) 27 (4) 29 (5) None of these

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