Cl Mock Cat 1 2008

Mock CAT - 1

Test Booklet Serial Number: 7 7 0 3 5 9

INSTRUCTIONS Before the Test: 1. 2.

3. 4. 5. 6.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL THE SIGNAL TO START IS GIVEN. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, stop watches or any other device or loose paper. These should be left at a place as indicated by the invigilator. Use only an HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet. Enter in your Answer Sheet: (a) in Box 10 the Test Form Number, which appears at the bottom of this page, (b) in Box 11 the Test Booklet Serial number, which appears at the top of this page. Ensure that your personal data have been entered correctly on Side 1 of the Answer Sheet. Check whether you have entered your 7-digit Enrollment ID in Box 2 of the Answer sheet correctly.

At the Start of the Test: 1. As soon as the signal to start is given, open the Booklet. 2. This Test booklet contains 20 pages, including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet, verify that all the pages are printed properly and are in order. Also that the Test form Number indicated on the cover page and at the bottom of the inner pages is the same. If there is a problem with your Test Booklet, immediately inform the invigilator/supervisor. You will be provided with a replacement. How to answer: 1. This test has three sections which examine various abilities. These 3 sections have 75 questions in all with each section having 25 questions. You will be given two and half hours to complete the test. In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all three sections. 2. Directions for answering the questions are given before some of the questions wherever necessary. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question. 3. All questions carry 4 marks each. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of 1 mark. 4. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet. 5. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified. After the Test: 1. At the end of the test, remain seated. The invigilator will collect the Answer Sheet from your seat. Do not leave the hall until the invigilator announces. “You may leave now.” The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the Answer Sheets from all the candidates in the room. 2. You may retain this Test Booklet with you. Candidates giving assistance or seeking/receiving help from any source in answering questions or copying in any manner in the test will have their Answer Sheets cancelled.

MCT-0005/08

Test Form Number:

001

Space for rough work

SECTION – I Number of Questions = 25 1.

Consider the set P = {–5, –3, –1, 1, 3, 5….} consisting of 1998 numbers. If ‘a’ be the average of the elements in P and ‘b’ be twice the average of the first 1998 natural numbers, then which of the following is equal to (a – b)? (1) –6 (2) 5 (3) –8 (4) –7 (5) –9

DIRECTIONS for Questions 2 and 3: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A basket containing a certain number of oranges and apples costs Rs. 248. If 1 apple is added to the basket, the average cost per fruit in the basket increases by Rs. 2 and if 1 orange is added to the basket, the average cost per fruit in the basket decreases by Rs. 1. It is also known that if 2 apples are replaced with 2 oranges, the average cost per fruit in the basket becomes Rs. 16. 2.

Find the total number of fruits in the basket initially. (1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12

(4) 13

(5) 14

3.

Find the average cost per fruit in the basket after an apple is replaced by an orange. (1) Rs. 22.18 (2) Rs. 18.48 (3) Rs. 25.81 (4) Rs. 19.27 (5) None of these

4.

If a0 = 2, a1 = 1 and a (1)

1 1001

(2)

n+1

×a

1 2002

n–1

=a

n–1

(3)

–a

1 2

n + 1,

then find the value of a1000. (4)

2 1001

(5)

3 1003

5.

In the coming state elections, Bharat Mata Party (BMP) will contest for 77 assembly seats. As BMP’s majority vote bank is distributed amongst three communities viz. A, B and C, it will give election tickets only to those workers who belong to these communities. The workers of communities B and C are split into factions. Every faction of community B has 15 workers and that of community C has 25 workers. There were no factions among the workers belonging to community A. If BMP gives a ticket to a worker, it must give tickets to every other worker belonging to the same faction. BMP distinguishes between any two workers only on the basis of their communities. In how many ways can BMP distribute its election tickets giving at least one ticket to each community? (1) 14 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 4 (5) 6

6.

If the length of the largest straight rod that can be put inside a cuboid is 10 m, then the surface area of the cuboid cannot be more than (2) 200 m2 (3) 400 m2 (4) 600 m2 (5) Cannot be determined (1) 100 m2

7.

Find the total number of integral solutions of the equation (407)x – (ddd)y = 2589, where ‘ddd’ is a three-digit number. (1) 0 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (5) 4

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1

DIRECTIONS for Questions 8 to 11: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions: Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B alone. Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A alone. Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone. Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone. Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements. 8.

In a circle, chord PQ intersects chord AB at N. What is the minimum length of the line segment AB? A: PN = NQ = 6 units. B: AB is the diameter. Further ∠PNA = 90° and NQ = 6 units.

9.

A milkman has 25 small cans, all of which are completely filled with milk. He also has one large can which is empty. Can he transfer all the milk contained in 15 of these small cans to the large can? A: The large can has a capacity of 500 liters. B: The average capacity of any 20 of the small cans is 25 liters.

10.

Last week the daily average rainfall in Vishakhapatnam and Warangal were R 1 mm and R 2 mm respectively. Had it not rained in Warangal on Sunday but had it rained in Visakhapatnam on Thursday and to as heavily as on Monday, the daily average rainfall for the week for both these cities would have been the same. How much did it rain in Warangal, last week? A: The last week’s combined daily average rainfall of the two cities was 3.2 mm. B: On Sunday, each of these cities experienced 2.1 mm of rainfall and on Monday each city experienced 1.4 mm of rainfall.

11.

What is the remainder when P2 is divided by 12, where ‘P’ is a prime number? A: P is of the form 4k + 3, where ‘k’ is a positive integer. B: P is of the form 2k – 1, where ‘k’ is an integer greater than 1.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 12 and 13: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. P and Q are the two ends of a straight road. There is a pit X on the road such that its distance from point P is two-fifth of the length of PQ. ‘A’ starts running from end Q and when he has covered one-third of the length PQ, ‘B’ and ‘C’ starts running towards ‘A’ from the end Q and end P respectively. The time taken by ‘A’ to reach the pit X is same as the time taken by ‘B’ to reach the point where ‘A’ was, when ‘B’ had started. ‘A’ crosses the pit to meet ‘C’ at a point whose distance from ‘B’ is equal to one-third of the total distance covered by ‘A’ by then. 12.

13.

Find the ratio of the speed of A to that of B. (1) 4 : 5 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 3 : 5

(5) 3 : 4

What fraction of the total distance PQ is covered by ‘A’ till he meets ‘C’? (1)

2

(4) 1 : 3

3 4

(2)

18 25

(3)

2 3

(4)

5 7

(5)

23 35

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14.

In the figure given below ABCD is a square and ∆PDC is isosceles with PD = PC. If the area of ∆PDC is twice the area of the square, then find the ratio of the area of ∆PDC that lies outside the square to the area of the square.

P

(1)

3 2

(2)

9 8

A

B

D

C

(3)

3 4

(4)

9 7

(5)

1 2

15.

The value of a quadratic function f(x) is negative for all values of x, except for x = 2. If f(x = 0) = – 10, then find the value of f(x = – 2). (1) – 40 (2) – 80 (3) – 60 (4) – 20 (5) Data Inconsistent

16.

A function f(n) is defined for all positive real values of ‘n’ such that f(n + 2) = f(n + 1) + f(n). If f(1) = f(2) = 1, then find the highest common factor of f (12 ) and f (30 ). (1) f(11)

(2) f(4)

(3) f(6)

(4) f(3)

(5) f(5)

17.

There were ten friends four of whom are Sanjay, Salim, Reena and Teena. A team of six is to be formed such that Reena & Teena are never together but Sanjay and Salim are always together. How many teams can be made? (1) 110 (2) 68 (3) 77 (4) 76 (5) 108

18.

Find the digit at the ten’s place of the number N = 7281 × 3264. (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

19.

(5) 7

In the figure given below, the two circles touch externally. AB is a diameter of the larger circle and C is the centre of the smaller circle. If ∆ABC has an area of 289 sq. cm, then which of the following can be the length of the line segment CD? D

90°

A

B

C (1) 26 cm

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(2) 28 cm

(3) 30 cm

(4) 32 cm

(5) None of these

3

20.

A point P is randomly chosen at a distance of 5 cm from the center of a circle. A chord AB is drawn passing through P. C is a point on the circumference of the circle such that AC = BC. If the radius of the circle is 13 cm, then which of the following cannot be a value of area(∆ABC)? (1) 96 cm2 (2) 216 cm2 (3) 169 cm2 (4) 84 cm2 (5) Both (2) and (3)

21.

Raju went to a shop to buy a certain number of pens and pencils. Raju calculated the amount payable to the shopkeeper and offered that amount to him. Raju was surprised when the shopkeeper returned him Rs. 24 as balance. When he came back home, he realized that the shopkeeper had actually transposed the number of pens with the number of pencils. Which of the following is certainly an invalid statement? (1) The number of pencils that Raju wanted to buy was 8 more than the number of pens. (2) The number of pens that Raju wanted to buy was 6 less than the number of pencils. (3) A pen cost Rs.4 more than a pencil. (4) A pencil cost Rs.12 less than a pen. (5) None of the above.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 22 and 23: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a school there are “m × n” students. On a particular day all the students of the school are asked to assemble at the school ground. The students stand in rows and columns such that there are ‘m’ rows and each row has ‘n’ students. Each student is allotted a number S(a, b), where ‘a’ and ‘b’ represent the row number and the column number at which the student is positioned. Each student is required to play a tennis match against another student such that the two students playing the match do not belong to the same row or to the same column. 22.

If m = n = 6, then find the total number of matches played by the students. (1) 430 (2) 470 (3) 490 (4) 410 (5) 450

23.

Each student gives ‘a’ toffees to every other student if ‘a’ is not more than ‘b’ and he/she gives ‘b’ toffees to every other student otherwise. If m = 3 and n = 5, then find the total number of toffees that exchanged hands. (1) 424 (2) 412 (3) 364 (4) 348 (5) 484

24.

If both the roots of the equation 2x2 + (4p – 1)x + 2p2 –1 = 0 are real, negative and unequal, then which of the following must be necessarily true?

25.

(1) p < −

1

(4) p < −

1 2

or p >

2 1 4

(2)

1 9
(5)

1 9
(3)

1 2


9 8

ABCD is a square of side 1 unit. P is a point on AB such that AP:PB = 1:3. If PC and BD intersect at a point X inside the square, then find the length of line segment PX. (1)

4

2

1

or p >

2 units 3

(2)

15 units 28

(3)

11 units 21

(4)

4 units 7

(5) None of these

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SECTION – II Number of Questions = 25

Cities

DIRECTIONS for Questions 26 to 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A car manufacturing company hired Mr. X to conduct a survey in six major cities of India to find the number of cars owned by the people living in the respective cities. Mr. X conducted the survey and gave the results to the company. In each of the cities Mr. X surveyed a random group of persons. The following table provides information about the results submitted by him to the company. Assume that until the completion of the survey, no one changed the city of his/her residence.

New Delhi Bangalore Mumbai Kolkata Chandigarh Hyderabad

Less than One Car 5 9 3 13 4 11

Less than Three Cars 11 21 22 31 19 21

Number of Persons Less than More than Two More than Four Seven Cars Cars Cars 31 28 17 47 34 10 39 31 15 47 21 14 51 34 18 49 37 16

26.

If the number of persons having at least eight cars in Kolkata is zero, then find the number of persons in Kolkata having exactly seven cars. (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 7 (5) 8

27.

In which city the number of persons having more than four cars and less than seven cars is the least? (1) Mumbai (2) Bangalore (3) Chandigarh (4) Kolkata (5) Hyderabad

28.

Find the total number of persons surveyed by Mr. X across all the cities. (1) 360 (2) 350 (3) 330 (4) 310

(5) Cannot be determined

29.

Out of the persons surveyed by Mr. X, in how many cities the number of persons having at least one car is lesser than the number of persons having at least one car in New Delhi? (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (5) 0

30.

Out of the persons surveyed by Mr. X across all the cities, how many persons have exactly one car? (1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 10 (5) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for Questions 31 to 34: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions: Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B alone. Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A alone. Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone. Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone. Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements. 31.

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Rahul and Raman are in a queue to purchase tickets. How many people are there in the queue? A: There are 20 people behind Rahul and 20 people in front of Raman. B: There are 5 people between Rahul and Raman.

5

32.

Twenty five percent of the population of a city is married. The total number of people who work is 80 percent of the married population and 20 percent of the working males in the city are unmarried. Find the number of working females as a percentage of the unmarried population of the city. A: Forty five percent of the population are females and sixty percent of the females are not married. B: The number of working males is two percent of the number of unmarried males.

33.

In a particular class there are 100 students and the number of students playing cricket, hockey and football is 48, 50 and 36 respectively. 16 students who play cricket also play hockey. There are 24 students who play football but do not play cricket. Find the number of students that play only cricket. A: The number of students who play exactly two sports out of which one is cricket is 12. B: The number of students who play hockey but do not play football is 32.

34.

What is the value of (2P + Q) if it is divisible by 4? (Here, each of P, Q, R and S are positive integers) A: P × Q = 2. B: P + Q + R + S = 6 and R > S.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following table provides partial information about the composition of six different alloys namely A, B, C, D, E and F. Each of these six different alloys contains the five different elements namely Zinc, Tin, Lead, Copper and Nickel. An alloy G contains alloys A, B and C in the ratio 2:1:3. It was also noted that in the alloy G, tin, lead and copper are present in equal proportion. Assume that impurities do not contain any of the five mentioned elements.

A B C D E F 35.

Zinc 10% 25% 15% 20% 5% 40%

Tin 40% 15% 25% 50% 10%

Lead

Copper

50% 20% 15% 25% 5%

5% 30% 5% 30%

Nickel 10% 5% 35% 10% 15% 15%

Find the percentage of copper in alloy A. (1)

95 % 9

(2)

95 % 3

(3)

25 % 9

(4)

25 % 3

(5)

175 % 9

36.

An alloy X that contains 15% nickel, at least 15% zinc and at most 20% copper, is to be made. How many combinations of at most three of the six mentioned alloys can be used to make X? (1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six (5) Two

37.

Which of the following can be the ratio in which the alloys A, E and F could be mixed to get at least 12% lead in the resulting mixture? (1) 4:1:1 (2) 2:1:3 (3) 1:2:3 (4) 1:2:4 (5) 4:2:5

38.

A hypothetical alloy Z is formed using the alloys mentioned in the table and the percentage of Nickel in it was found to be 8.25%. The percentage of alloy B in alloy Z is at most (1) 95.46% (2) 83.12% (3) 97.24% (4) 89.16% (5) 75.48%

6

001

DIRECTIONS for Questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Jane is a movie buff and has a huge collection of movies on her personal computer. She decided to categorize the movies under four parameters namely the year of its release, duration, theme and the number of times she has seen each of these movies. The year of the release of each movie is one out of the five years viz. 2003, 2004, 2005, 2006 and 2007. The duration of each movie is one out of the five durations viz. 60 minutes, 90 minutes, 120 minutes, 150 minutes and 180 minutes. The theme of each movie is one out of the five themes viz. Action, Thriller, Romance, Drama and Tragedy. Jane has seen each movie at least once and at most five times. The following table provides partial information about the classification of movies done by Jane on the basis of various parameters. For, example in Table 1, 43 (in bold) is the number of movies of duration 60 minutes released in the year 2003. This holds true across all the tables given below. Table 1

2003 2004 2005 2006 2007

60 minutes 90 minutes 120 minutes 150 minutes 180 minutes 43 58 33 19 60 37 9 57 29 15 30 46 48 39 28 19 21 30 67 29 53 69 33 25 39 Table 2

2003 2004 2005 2006 2007

Action 48 65 28 43 49

Thriller 54 19 19 7 60

Romance 38 25 33 18 32

Drama 47 38 59 39 48

Tragedy 26 0 52 59 30

Four times 18 59 23 31 39

Five times 68 24 26 60 50

Four times 43 * 39 * 39

Five times * 60 * 39 *

Table 3

Action Thriller Romance Drama Tragedy

Once 55 18 19 33 13

Twice 45 19 33 52 37

Thrice 47 39 45 55 28 Table 4

60 minutes 90 minutes 120 minutes 150 minutes 180 minutes 39.

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Once 32 33 19 * 29

Twice 39 * 40 21 *

Thrice * 29 * 53 *

In table 4, certain values got deleted and are denoted by asterix (*). How many of the deleted values can be uniquely determined? (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 7 (5) 8

7

40.

How many movies of duration 90 minutes have been seen atleast thrice by Jane? (1) 99 (2) 96 (3) 98 (4) 97 (5) Cannot be determined

Additional Information for questions 41 and 42: The number of movies of duration 60 minutes seen thrice by Jane is maximum possible. 41.

Find the number of movies of duration 60 minutes that have been seen more than thrice by Jane. (1) 44 (2) 43 (3) 45 (4) 49 (5) 42

42.

At least how many movies of duration 120 minutes have been seen five times by Jane? (1) 35 (2) 36 (3) 37 (4) 38 (5) 39

DIRECTIONS for Questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. After the 2007-2008 cricket season , the ICC calculated the number of runs scored by ten batsmen namely Peiterson, Kallis, Sehwag, Sachin, Smith, Boucher, Symonds, Ponting, Yousuf and Younis in that season. It is known that out of these ten batsmen, Sehwag scored the least number of runs. The following bar- graph provides information about the number of runs scored ( in excess or as a deficit) by Peiterson, Smith, Boucher, Younis and Symonds as a comparison to runs scored by Sehwag, Kallis, Ponting, Sachin and Yousuf. For example, the difference between the number of runs scored by Peiterson and Ponting is 63, which means it could be either 63 less or 63 more than Ponting.

120 105 99

Number of Runs

100

84 80 60

75

72

66

63

60

57

60 51

48 40 20

36

39 30

24

21

27

24

9

15

18

Kallis

Ponting

Sachin

15

12

9

0 Sehwag Pieterson 43.

44.

8

Smith

Boucher

Younis

Out of these ten batsmen, who scored the maximum number of runs? (1) Ponting (2) Boucher (3) Smith (4) Kallis

Yousuf Symonds

(5) Sachin

How many batsmen have scored more number of runs than Pieterson but less than that by Symonds? (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (5) 0

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45.

The ICC formed five teams such that each team comprised of exactly five batsmen. Among the following teams, which team has scored the least aggregate number of runs? (1) Sehwag, Symonds, Kallis, Yousuf and Younis. (2) Smith, Yousuf, Pieterson, Symonds and Sachin. (3) Boucher, Symonds, Sehwag, Kallis and Smith. (4) Smith, Younis, Yousuf, Pieterson and Symonds. (5) Sehwag, Younis, Symonds, Ponting and Smith.

46.

If the total number of runs scored by Yousuf in the 2007 – 2008 season is 1450, then how many out of the ten mentioned batsmen scored not less than 1510 runs? (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (5) 4

DIRECTIONS for Questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. On the annual fund raising day, the total amount contributed by five IIT alumni viz. A, B, C, D and E, was equal to the total money required for upgradation of Library and Hostel at the IIT. Pie charts I and II give the details of their individual contributions as a percentage of the total amount required for upgradation of Library and Hostel respectively. Pie Chart III and IV give the break up of the total expenditure incurred on the upgradation of Library and Hostel respectively.

Pie Chart I E 5.00%

Pie Chart II

A 20.00%

E 35.00%

B 20.00%

B 15.00%

D 50.00%

C 10.00%

D 10.00%

Pie Chart III

Central Air Conditioning 15.00%

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C 20.00%

Pie Chart IV Mess 10.00%

Additional Staff 15.00%

New Reading Rooms 20.00%

A 15.00%

Gymnasium 20.00% Computerisation New Hostel Wing 50.00% 60.00%

Recreational Activities 10.00%

9

47.

If E contributed a total of US$ 0.25 Mn and B contributed a total of US$ 0.185 Mn, then what was the amount spent on the “Computerisation” of library ? (1) US $ 0.35 Mn. (2) US $ 0.19 Mn. (3) US $ 0.55 Mn. (4) US $ 0.15 Mn. (5) Cannot be determined

48.

The total amount contributed by D was twice the total amount contributed by C. If the fund spent on “New Reading Rooms” was US $ 0.12 Mn, then what amount was spent on “New Hostel Wing”? (1) US $ 0.22 Mn. (2) US $ 0.32 Mn. (3) US $ 0.42 Mn. (4) US $ 0.36 Mn. (5) None of these.

49.

A’s contribution was not less than that of C’s. If the amount spent for “Recreational Activities” was US $ 0.36 Mn, then the amount spent on the “Additional Staff” was not less than (1) US $ 0.27 Mn. (2) US $ 0.15 Mn. (3) US $ 0.72 Mn. (4) US $ 0.10 Mn. (5) US $ 0.49 Mn.

50.

If C contributed an equal amount of money for the upgradation of the Library and the Hostel, then which of the following is true? (1) 27% of the amount contributed by A was spent on the upgradation of the Library. (2) 40% of the amount contributed by B was on the upgradation of the Hostel. (3) 9% of the amount contributed by D was on the upgradation of the Library. (4) 77% of the amount contributed by E was on the upgradation of the Library. (5) All of these.

10

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SECTION – III Number of Questions = 25 DIRECTIONS for Questions 51 to 54: In each question, there are five sentences. The sentence labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option. 51.

A. B. C. D. E.

I think about this when I take my own children to galleries. My most artistic child is actually the most bored by galleries. So, I take my children to see idiosyncratic art, such as the Turner prize but they often think it’s silly. You just don’t know what is going to capture their attention. Although I’m the daughter of a painter, art didn’t light me up in the way theater and stories did– that is why it’s so important for children to get access to a broad range of culture.

(1) ECDB 52.

(4) DCBE

(5) EDCB

(2) DBEC

(3) EBCD

(4) DEBC

(5) BCDE

A. Many animals possess protective markings to avoid predation, including patterns to reduce the risk of detection, to indicate that the animal is toxic or inedible, or to mimic another animal or object. B. Many eyespots are effective in startling or intimidating predators, and can help to prevent or stop an attack. C. In addition, many creatures such as butterflies, moths, and fish possess two or more pairs of circular markings, often referred to as ‘eyespots’. D. However, recent work by zoologists indicates that this widely-held hypothesis has no experimental support. E. For the past 150 years it has been assumed that this is because they mimic the eyes of the predator’s own enemies. (1) CBED

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(3) DECB

A. Multiculturalism is best understood neither as a political doctrine with a programmatic content nor a philosophical school with a distinct theory of man’s place in the world but as a perspective on or a way of viewing human life. B. This does not mean that they are determined by their culture in the sense of being unable to rise above its categories of thought and critically evaluate its values and system of meaning. C. Rather that they are deeply shaped by it and can overcome some but not all of its influences. They necessarily view the world from within a culture, be it the one they have inherited and uncritically accepted or reflectively revised or, in rare cases, one they have consciously adopted. D. Its central insights are sometimes misinterpreted by its advocates and needs to be carefully reformulated if it is to carry conviction. E. Human beings are culturally embedded in the sense that they grow up and live within a culturally structured world and organize their lives and social relations in terms of a culturally derived system of meaning and significance. (1) EDCB

53.

(2) EBCD

(2) EBDC

(3) BCDE

(4) CDBE

(5) EDBC

11

54.

A. Students aren’t taught to read and draw maps of different scales and to analyze places, distances, areas and distributions using maps. B. Our cognitive abilities allow us to use those mental maps to answer questions. C. Mapping exercises help build students’ mental maps, or those maps that we all see “in our mind’s eye.” D. Instead, students in today’s classrooms are shown simple maps of places they are studying, with the intent being to learn the place names and something about the places. E. Our brains are capable of being trained not only to draw mental maps, but also to zoom and pan across those maps, to associate many different spatial patterns and to make decisions based on the analysis. (1) BCDE

(2) BEDC

(3) CBED

(4) BDEC

(5) BDCE

DIRECTIONS for Questions 55 to 57: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Passage In the play Travesties, Tom Stoppard’s character James Joyce asks: “What now of the Trojan war if it had been passed over by the artist’s touch? Dust. A forgotten expedition prompted by Greek merchants looking for new markets. A minor redistribution of broken pots.” Contrast what it is for us, mediated by Homer: an epic of gods and heroes, struggle, lust and glory. The point generalises. Thackeray remarked how a bald, stupid, heartless little man with a paunch became the majestic Louis XIV if put in the right shoes, robes and wig—and that then, having set up the fantasy, we had to worship the result. The mirage suits us better than the truth. The late Jean Baudrillard pursued the same theme, with his theatrical declamation that “Le gulf war n’existe pas”(excessive publicity of the gulf war). On the face of it, this is a crashing falsehood—which we must therefore read, charitably, as pointing to some other claim. That is the French style, and it is a close cousin to any use of metaphor. Those who called Mrs Thatcher the iron lady did not mean that she clanked when she walked. Baudrillard was not concerned with the artist’s touch but with what happens when television and other media purport to take us to the field of action. The 1990 Gulf war was modelled by planners using simulations; it was won, if we call a massacre a victory, largely by pilots looking at computer screens; and it was relayed to the public by television. Most consumers of these images get no reality check; the image is all we have to go on. And the image does not come to us innocently. What happened in 1990 may, indeed, have been something more than a war: an episode in America’s cultural narcissism, a hallucinatory projection of its fears and fantasies, a Faustian pact between developed capitalism and virtual reality, a promotional video, or a simulacrum indistinguishable from Disneyland. So Baudrillard’s hyperbole had a serious point. He often provoked outrage by it, but when, for instance, he tactlessly suggested that the iconic place of Nazi atrocities as a symbol of evil makes it “logical” to ask whether they even existed, his point was not to ally himself with the David Irvings of this world, but to suggest that for many political and cultural purposes, the answer is irrelevant. As with God, it is our investment that matters, not whether it is invested in a fiction. Baudrillard’s ideas about simulated reality seem to have touched on an old philosophical panic. Perhaps our senses are no better than our televisions. Perhaps nature has varnished and spun the pictures we receive. They too are commodities, bought in to provide sustenance. Perhaps, at the limit, we live in a virtual reality; unable to comprehend our real position, sentenced to a woeful life of dreams, myth, fiction and illusion. Baudrillard,

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the inspiration for the Matrix films, tried to distance himself from the trite opposition of one moment seeing through the glass darkly and then coming face to face with reality, yet he enjoyed playing with its ingredients. I do not think this was wise, since generalised scepticism implies that there is nothing especially wrong about America or late capitalism or consumer society—and would any self-respecting culture critic want to draw that conclusion? In any event, it is not all simulacra. We are participants in a public world, not hermits trapped in our own private cinemas. The cure for the sceptical nightmare is action. Nobody stays sceptical while crossing the street, or choosing dinner. Nor while dodging bombs and shells, even if they are sent by people watching computer screens. In the hurly-burly of survival, there is a lot that is hors texte (outside the text)—although this is more true for the artisan driving nails or baking bread than for the politician (or academic) whose work is confined to the production of signs and messages. French postmodernism may be passing, but it had a point. Even if engagement with the world is the cure, the respite it gives may be short-lived. No sooner has the real moment gone than the work of memory begins, once more selecting, massaging, suppressing and spinning. That moment is like a glimpse of the naked king, or the politician’s one-day dash into the war zone: it may be a glimpse of truth, but even if we are honest enough to see anything we do not want to see, that in turn may just reinvigorate the work of disguise. That can’t have been the real Louis XIV, or the real Iraq. And heaven forfend that people see them like that— otherwise it might really destroy our legacy, or at any rate the bit that counts: its representation in self-image, story and picture. 55.

What, do the examples of James Joyce and Thackeray exemplify in the passage? (1) People are skeptical towards appearances. (2) The excessive use of fantasy. (3) The artist’s touch is close to the truth. (4) The use of extravagant exaggeration. (5) Shattering of myths.

56.

According to the passage, what makes Baudrillard’s hyperbole serious? (1) Because it exposes a deeper reality which escapes superficial perception. (2) Because it is a comment on a display of fascism. (3) Because it is a comment on an over dependence on metaphors. (4) Because it talks about simulacrum of war on the television. (5) Because it is a comment on the gullible public.

57.

Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage? (1) Baudrillard has based his ideas about simulated reality on philosophy. (2) Memory takes us away from the actual truth. (3) The author is concerned about people questioning the nature of delusion as this could destroy our legacy. (4) Action and engagement with the world can give us a glimpse of truth. (5) None of the above.

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 58 to 60: In each question, there are three to five sentences. Each sentence has pair/s of words/phrases that are highlighted. From the highlighted words / phrase(s) select the most appropriate word(s) / phrases to form correct sentences. Then from the options given choose the right sequence 58.

As he spoke to the critic the artist continued to put fresh colours on his [A] palette/palate[B] and examine the blank canvas. The witness was asked to [A] indict/indite[B] the reasons why he thought Mr. Palmer should be convicted. The teacher was clearly taken aback by the [A] presumption/assumption [B] of the student when she demanded an explanation for his misbehaviour in class. Andrew informed his friend gleefully that he had managed to secure a [A] buyout/buy-in [B] from the directors of his company in the matter of taking over the latter’s retail outlet. The [A] principle/principal [B] players in the sordid saga now unfolding before the public are either dead or missing. (1) BABBA (2) ABABB (3) BABBB (4) AAABB (5) AAABA

59.

Because of its striking war stories, The Peters’ Club, largely [A] composed /comprising [B] of war veterans, absorbed the newcomer quickly into his fold. The Smiths, clearly worried about the increasingly [A] froward / forward [B] conduct of their daughter, decided to seek the [A] council / counsel [B] of their friend Dr. Edwards. There seemed to be a [A] similitude / simulacrum [B] of the truth in what the thief had to say about the strong moral [A] compulsion / compunction [B] he had felt when robbing the old lady. (1) BABAB (2) ABBAB (3) AABAB (4) BBBAB (5) ABABA

60.

Next, the actor playing Julius Caesar walked on to the stage and in a harsh, [A] imperial / imperious[B] tone commanded the rioting crowd to become silent. As nightfall approached, the horsemen climbed up the hill and took shelter in the [A] corpse/copse [B] they had first seen a few hours ago. ‘Having given due thought to the matter,’ the lawyer said, ‘I find your proposal [A] wholly / fully [B] unacceptable.’ The main street boasted of a new row of [A] semidetached / halfdetached [B] houses that belied the [A] urban / urbane [B] legend that had spread about the notoriety of the neighbourhood. (1) ABAAB (2) BBAAB (3) BBAAA (4) AABBA (5) BBBAB

DIRECTIONS for Questions 61 to 63: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Passage All modern economies are centrally managed, some more, some less. Whether achieved by private enterprise in the main or under central direction, once established modern technology imposes its own internal logic by which it must be worked. All advanced economies, whether their ancestral record is capitalist or socialist, act under the common compulsions of the same technology. In the essentials of their operation and their impact upon the people, the contrast between the two economic systems has therefore lost much of its sharpness. The distinction between capitalism and socialism has now mainly a historical significance in respect of the methods by which economic advance was pursued in the past. It is commonly believed that they represent opposing ideologies which have continuing relevance for directing public policy. This belief must be questioned, since both capitalism and socialism seem to be headed for the same destination of progressive expansion of production and a rising standard of material attainment for the people. This is a commendable goal, but cannot be identified with the ultimate purpose of organized existence which an ideology is intended to define and towards which it is meant to inspire action. If capitalism and socialism have ceased to be meaningful

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models even for economic action today, it is permissible to suggest that they could never have served to express the larger and more abiding values of man’s aspiration. Scientific socialism has been professedly concerned with economic ends and claims its supreme virtue and historic destiny to be to lay down an institutional framework in which the expanding forces of production can have unfettered play. Its opponents have argued that they can do better in the same respect under their system, but they could do so without eclipse of man’s economic freedom. In fact, the latter are able to fulfill their promise only by increasing encroachments on this freedom in the interests of the effective functioning of an expanding economy. Both sides are fighting for the same end and are coming to adopt the same overall strategy, one of them exultantly, the other reluctantly and haltingly. It is consequently no matter of surprise that they do not represent true alternatives of public policy to the newly independent countries striving for economic betterment. If anything, the preference of these countries is for the course which seems more straightforward and logical and promises speedier results. The expression of this preference is tempered in practice only by calculation of favours which may be expected from one or the other side. If there is true possibility of a different course of human development, that still remains to be adequately propounded. There are many indications that such a plea would be timely, because the consequences of allowing technological progress to become the overriding determinant of the pattern and quality of human living has begun to cause disquiet and concern among the most prosperous nations. This is a significant portent. In the past, arguments against unrestricted pursuit of material expansion came mostly from the poor or from advocates of an ascetic life. They could be dismissed as making a virtue of necessity or proceeding from an individual or sectarian idiosyncrasy which had no application to normal behaviour. Perhaps the only notable exception was the philosophy of the good life preached and practiced by the Athenians of classical Greece. This was not an ideal of privation or mortification, but of the fullest growth of the human personality by a harmonious development of all its appetites and faculties. But although the world has continued to retain every admiration for the works of intellect and craftsmanship of that period, the social organization of the city state based on slavery was considered to have no relevance for the problems of later times. Perhaps this total rejection was unwise. Perhaps features of the Athenian pattern deserve to be salvaged for reinterpretation in contemporary terms to show the way to sanity in human growth. 61.

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Why is the social organization of the Athenian city considered irrelevant? (1) The Athenian city’s infrastructure is a representation of idiosyncratic tastes which is unacceptable in the capitalist set up. (2) The Athenian city’s framework preaches ascetic virtues that are ineffectual in today’s world. (3) The Athenian city’s basis of organization is slavery and one seems to understand that nothing valuable can be achieved from it. (4) The Athenian city, though aesthetically rich and based on slavery, cannot contribute to human history in any other way. (5) The Athenians’ teachings of self discipline and structure to human life cannot exist in a time when technological progress governs mankind.

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62.

According to the author, why is it that neither capitalism nor socialism represents true alternatives of public policy? (1) Both sides are keenly interested in the moderate functioning of the economy. (2) Both sides are, although divided on many relevant issues, narrow and straightforward in their approach. (3) Both sides are, naturally, rooted in their ideologies and prefer a course that fulfills the interests of the public. (4) Both sides are aiming at similar results; however, their intentions and motives are adulterated by their respective interests and endeavours. (5) Both sides are aiming higher and the resultant effect is openly revealing the weaknesses of their respective strategies.

63.

According to the author, which of the following statements would be true? (1) The Athenians of classical Greece focused on that aspect of life which can prosper only through economic growth and expansion. (2) Human development accepts and acknowledges the presence and relevance of mortification and thus it ceases to depend upon economic development. (3) In the age of modern technology and human advancement, the artistic faculties of humans are irrelevant and hence remain unfulfilled. (4) Economic development is an indication of fulfillment of all human desires. (5) Human development cannot depend merely on economic and technological progress.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 64 to 66: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. 64.

When presenting a city, people usually recite facts: its history and important buildings. What effect would it have if the strategy were reversed, if cities were spoken about from the perspective of empty space rather than facts? We would say that a Medieval town grows from its square, that Haussman’s Paris embodies the array of avenues, and that modernist architecture displays transparency in all the glass facades, which enable one to literally see through the building so that the image of the building begins to disintegrate in one’s gaze. After the transparent building came the reflecting building, which replaced glass with reflective windows, and the transparency of the body with the reflections of its surroundings. Because of that it resides in the city in a very special way __________________________. (1) Some buildings appear unpredictable, organic, like wild growth in the city. (2) Contrary to other buildings, which strive to be present in space, it pretends not to be there. (3) It is these reflecting buildings and vacant houses that essentially represent urban human settlements. (4) The empty spaces within a crowded city of important buildings reveal the tragic emptiness that prevails in modern human life. (5) The character of the buildings fills the essence of the city’s empty spaces and to a certain degree directs the future growth of the city.

65.

Masks are representative of many different things in African history and culture. Ancestry is very important to the African people to show honor to their ancestors. They design the masks with elaborate hair and jewelry to show great wealth and honor so their ancestors will be pleased with them and bring blessings. Ancestors are greatly to be feared if they are angered __________________________. (1) So the people are very careful to be honoring to them at all times. (2) So Masks are greatly revered in African culture. (3) So the people take special care not to appease them. (4) So the people live in constant apprehension and fear. (5) So, the people put a lot of effort in designing the masks and jewellery.

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66.

Emotional exhaustion being a core constituent of burnout refers to a chronic state of feeling that a person’s emotional resources are overtaxed or depleted in attempts to meet job demands. It is internally consistent, stable overtime, and is responsive to work stress . Emotional exhaustion may be considered as an immediate response gap between environmental pressures and available resources . The construct exhibits stronger relations to important outcomes and is important in mediating the effects of other burnout components of cynicism and personal accomplishment . Empirical evidence provides support to the fact that an emotionally exhausted employee is weakly committed to supervisor and organization, considers quitting, performs poorly on the job, and is unwilling to engage in organization citizenship behaviors __________________________. (1) Hence, emotional exhaustion should be avoided by the working individuals as it pychologically demotivates them. (2) A person’s internal state of mind is of key importance to judge his stability factor and carve his future goals. (3) Therefore, environmental pressures should be minimised to reduce the burn out factor of employees. (4) For the organization, the consequences of emotional exhaustion are significant, as it leads to increased withdrawal behaviors, and reduced job performance. (5) Therefore, the supervisors should be accountable for the low performance on the part of their team members as they play a pivotal role in emotional exhaustion.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 67 to 69: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Passage It was Durkheim’s thesis that the ever increasing division of labour in society was bringing into being a more differentiated and complex society which was characterized by what he called organic solidarity as opposed to the mechanical forms of solidarity which prevailed in earlier times. What holds a society together or how is social integration possible? In his view social integration in modern industrial society was leading towards the formation of a society which was in its social and economic structures characterized by the division of labour, that is, a functionally differentiated society. Under such conditions, he believed, social integration required a particular kind of cultural cohesion that would be in harmony with social structures. The older forms of cultural cohesion - such as the idea of community - were losing their hold because they were based on a too direct (or ‘mechanical’, as he claimed) relationship between the individual and society. His question, then, related to the connection between social integration and cultural cohesion under the conditions of societal differentiation. A differentiated society could only be based on cultural forms of solidarity that were differentiated, that is based on generalized values. In his view this could only be realized in the evolution of co- operative relations between groups, in particular occupational groups, and through education. Such a value system would not be based on the values of a particular group in society but shared civic values. The second perspective Durkheim proposed was that the actual historical experience of his time was not illustrative of this new organic form of solidarity, for civic morality was everywhere in crisis. The phenomenon of suicide epitomized the anomie which Durkheim thought was creeping into European society in its transitional stage between traditional society and the truly modern stage, the latter which he associated with the European. Anomie results when there is a break-down in solidarity, when a discord emerges between culture and society, and as a result individuals no longer feel integrated into the society.

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Later Durkheim moved to a more advanced position seeing cultural cohesion in terms of the formation of cultural ‘representations’ which expressed the ‘collective conscience’. These representations were the objectified self- images, or representations, of society. What happens, he wondered, when two collective consciences confront each other. ‘For one people to be penetrated by another’, he argued, ‘it must cease to hold to an exclusive patriotism, and learn another which is more comprehensive’. Durkheim goes on to argue: ... this relation of facts can be directly observed in most striking fashion in the international division of labour history offers us. It can truly be said that it has never been produced except in Europe and in our time. But it was at the end of the eighteenth century and at the beginning of the nineteenth century that a common conscience of European societies began to be formed. Though he opposed the negatively defined conservative view of the move from the cohesive world of community to the individualistic world of society - he was ambivalent on the merits of society. He did not think modern society, because of its differentiated structures, could recover the traditional idea of community as a fusion of culture and society; yet, ‘the social’ was something deeply ambiguous. It could provide the individual with more autonomy but it could also undermine it in the formation of anomie. His sociology pointed to the view that social integration required a co-operative framework for social groups and one in which education would play an ever greater role in generating cultural cohesion around the formation of generalized values. The idea of how a society represents itself and creates a cognitive space which constitutes, what he called, the ‘meeting ground’ between two collective consciences is an issue of central importance in understanding European integration in terms of the problematic of the relationship between social integration and cultural cohesion. A century later we have still not moved beyond Durkheim’s fear that the degenerating forces of anomie are creeping into the vacuum created by the divergence of the social and the cultural. 67.

What is the thematic highlight of this passage? (1) Social cohesion is an impossible task to accomplish in the face of various divergences. (2) Cultural cohesion implies greater integration into the collective consciousness of the society. (3) A reversal to the traditional community is an attractive alternative to the present situation. (4) A cooperative framework may enhance the idea of social integration of the individual. (5) The social and cultural differentiation has made the harmonization difficult leading to individual’s segregation.

68.

Which of the following would have been true if cultural cohesion would have been in complete harmony with social structures, which is a hypothetical situation according to the passage? (1) Every individual would been have integrated his own inner self with the prevalent social norms. (2) The resultant cognitive space would have created new reasons for conflict and compromise. (3) A criminal would have remained inculpable even if he indulged in deviant behaviour. (4) There would have been enough space for an artist to express himself without any fear of repercussions. (5) Individuals would have integrated themselves into the new hierarchy.

69.

It has been claimed in the passage that “education would play an ever greater role in generating cultural cohesion...”According to the passage, which of the following seem(s) appropriate reason(s) for such a claim? A. Education would facilitate in understanding generalized values. B. It would make people more patriotic towards their own collective conscience. C. The cohesion in the arena of culture will lead to greater understanding and appreciation of differences. (1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) A & B (5) A & C

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 70 to 72: In each question there are five sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage. Then choose the most appropriate option. 70.

A. In every democratic and more-or-less secular countries, B. similar questions arise about precise extent to which religious sub-cultures C. should be allowed to live on their own rules and laws. D. One set of questions emerge when believers demand, and often get, E. an opt-out from the law of the land. (1) C & E (2) C only (3) E only (4) B,C & E (5) C, D & E

71.

A. B. C. D. E.

72.

A. The warm January weather may have B. melted the snow in Davos, but the growing prospect of catastrophic wars C. over water shortages were this year’s biggest climate-change related worry. D. Special mention: Coca-Cola, which is doing its bit for creative capitalism with an E. extensive programme to protect water supplies to the developing world. (1) A, B & D (2) B, C & D (3) B & D (4) B only (5) D only

What lies in this loss of faith? One cause is the feeling that an overly loose monetary policy got the economy into this mess. Repeated cuts in interest rates during the last downturn, while in 2000-03, fuelled the housing and credit bubbles that are now bursting to such damaging affect. The legacies of that boom—falling asset prices, high consumer debt and bank losses—may now hamper the ability of central banks to prop the spending. (1) A & B (2) B, C & E (3) C & D (4) E only (5) B only

DIRECTIONS for Questions 73 to 75: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Passage As Popper represents it, the central problem in the philosophy of science is that of demarcation, i.e., of distinguishing between science and what he terms ‘non-science’, under which heading he ranks, amongst others, logic, metaphysics, psychoanalysis, and Adler’s individual psychology. Popper is unusual amongst contemporary philosophers in that he accepts the validity of the Humean critique of induction, and indeed, goes beyond it in arguing that induction is never actually used by the scientist. However, he does not concede that this entails the scepticism which is associated with Hume, and argues that the Baconian/Newtonian insistence on the primacy of ‘pure’ observation, as the initial step in the formation of theories, is completely misguided: all observation is selective and theory-laden — there are no pure or theory-free observations. In this way he destabilises the traditional view that science can be distinguished from non-science on the basis of its inductive methodology. Popper, then, repudiates induction, and rejects the view that it is the characteristic method of scientific investigation and inference, and substitutes falsifiability in its place. It is easy, he argues, to obtain evidence in favour of virtually any theory, and he consequently holds that such ‘corroboration’, as he terms it, should count scientifically only if it is the positive result of a genuinely ‘risky’ prediction, which might conceivably have been false. For Popper, a theory is scientific only if it is refutable by a conceivable event. Every genuine test of a scientific theory, then, is logically an attempt to refute or to falsify it, and one genuine counterinstance falsifies the whole theory. In a critical sense, Popper’s theory of demarcation is based upon his perception of the logical asymmetry which holds between verification and falsification: it is logically impossible

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to conclusively verify a universal proposition by reference to experience, but a single counter-instance conclusively falsifies the corresponding universal law. In a word, an exception, far from ‘proving’ a rule, conclusively refutes it. Every genuine scientific theory then, in Popper’s view, is prohibitive, in the sense that it forbids, by implication, particular events or occurrences. As such it can be tested and falsified, but never logically verified. Thus Popper stresses that it should not be inferred from the fact that a theory has withstood the most rigorous testing, for however long a period of time, that it has been verified; rather we should recognise that such a theory has received a high measure of corroboration. and may be provisionally retained as the best available theory until it is finally falsified (if indeed it is ever falsified), and/or is superseded by a better theory. Thus, while advocating falsifiability as the criterion of demarcation for science, Popper explicitly allows for the fact that in practice a single conflicting or counter-instance is never sufficient methodologically to falsify a theory, and that scientific theories are often retained even though much of the available evidence conflicts with them, or is anomalous with respect to them. Scientific theories may, and do, arise genetically in many different ways, and the manner in which a particular scientist comes to formulate a particular theory may be of biographical interest, but it is of no consequence as far as the philosophy of science is concerned. Popper stresses in particular that there is no unique way, no single method such as induction, which functions as the route to scientific theory, a view which Einstein personally endorsed with his affirmation that ‘There is no logical path leading to [the highly universal laws of science]. They can only be reached by intuition, based upon something like an intellectual love of the objects of experience’. Science, in Popper’s view, starts with problems rather than with observations — it is, indeed, precisely in the context of grappling with a problem that the scientist makes observations in the first instance: his observations are selectively designed to test the extent to which a given theory functions as a satisfactory solution to a given problem. 73.

What is the primary purpose of the author of the passage? (1) To illustrate different ways of demarcating between science and non-science (2) To highlight the ultimate inability of falsifiability to provide satisfactory corroboration of a scientific theory (3) To negate the primacy of observation in the formation or testing of scientific theories (4) To demonstrate that existing scientific methodologies permit the acceptance of scientific theories that are at best good approximations of highly universal theories of science (5) To discuss the reasons why Popper is viewed as unusual among contemporary philosophers

74.

The idea of ‘falsification’ as used in the passage would apply to which of the following statement(s)? (1) The ability to conclude whether ‘all ferrous metals are attracted by a magnetic field’ from the observation of a single ferrous metal that is not attracted by a magnetic field (2) The ability to conclude whether ‘at least one swan is black’ from observing only grey swans in repeated testing (3) The ability to disprove the theory of evolution from the observation of a single fossil rabbit dating from the era of the dinosaurs (1) Only 1 (2) 1 and 2 (3) 2 and 3 (4) 1 and 3 (5) 1, 2 and 3

75.

The author of the passage is most likely to agree with which of the following? (1) The theory of falsifiability could be applied to statements such as ‘murder is evil’ when the maker of the statement is seen to indulge in an act of murder (2) Science starts from observations and leads to theories and problems (3) Practical falsification may not be enough to discard a theory which is otherwise viewed as sound (4) No scientific theory can be a good theory because all scientific theories are inherently prohibitive (5) While the method of falsification is logically asymmetrical , the same is not true of the method of induction

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