Cl Mock Cat 5 2008

Mock CAT - 5

Test Booklet Serial Number: 7 7 0 3 6 3

INSTRUCTIONS Before the Test: 1. 2.

3. 4. 5. 6.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL THE SIGNAL TO START IS GIVEN. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, stop watches or any other device or loose paper. These should be left at a place as indicated by the invigilator. Use only an HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet. Enter in your Answer Sheet: (a) in Box 10 the Test Form Number, which appears at the bottom of this page, (b) in Box 11 the Test Booklet Serial number, which appears at the top of this page. Ensure that your personal data have been entered correctly on Side 1 of the Answer Sheet. Check whether you have entered your 7-digit Enrollment ID in Box 2 of the Answer sheet correctly.

At the Start of the Test: 1. As soon as the signal to start is given, open the Booklet. 2. This Test booklet contains 20 pages, including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet, verify that all the pages are printed properly and are in order. Also that the Test form Number indicated on the cover page and at the bottom of the inner pages is the same. If there is a problem with your Test Booklet, immediately inform the invigilator/supervisor. You will be provided with a replacement. How to answer: 1. This test has three sections which examine various abilities. These 3 sections have 75 questions in all with each section having 25 questions. You will be given two and half hours to complete the test. In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all three sections. 2. Directions for answering the questions are given before some of the questions wherever necessary. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question. 3. All questions carry 4 marks each. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of 1 mark. 4. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet. 5. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified. After the Test: 1. At the end of the test, remain seated. The invigilator will collect the Answer Sheet from your seat. Do not leave the hall until the invigilator announces. “You may leave now.” The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the Answer Sheets from all the candidates in the room. 2. You may retain this Test Booklet with you. Candidates giving assistance or seeking/receiving help from any source in answering questions or copying in any manner in the test will have their Answer Sheets cancelled.

MCT-0009/08

Test Form Number:

005

SECTION – I Number of Questions = 25 DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The line graph provides information about the weight(in ‘000 tonnes) of eight different crops namely Rice(R), Wheat(W), Pulses(P), Maize(M), Bajra(B), Jowar(J), Potatoes(PO) and Onions(O) produced in India. The bar graph provides information about the weight(in ‘000 tonnes) of the crops produced in ten different states of India namely Haryana(H), Uttar Pradesh(U), Punjab(P), West Bengal(W), Madhya Pradesh(MP), Gujarat(G), Tamil Nadu(T), Andhra Pradesh(A), Karnataka(K) and Maharashtra(M). Assume that these eight mentioned crops are the only crops produced in India and that these ten mentioned states are the only states in India that produce crops.

20

25 20 15 10 5 0

25 18

17

13

16 9

19

11

WEIGHT

WEIGHT

30

18

16

14

15

13 12

11

10

7

15

13

9

5 0

R

W

P

M

B

CROPS

J PO O

H

U

P

W MP G

T

A

K

M

STATES

1.

If W, P, B and M are the only crops that are produced in the states of H, U, P and T, then the weight of the crop P produced in the state G as a percentage of the total weight of the crops produced in the state G cannot be more than (1) 88.75% (2) 80.5% (3) 86.25% (4) 81.25% (5) 85.75%

2.

If the crops PO and O are produced in exactly 3 states and no other crop is grown in these 3 states, then the state in which the crop PO is definitely not produced is (1) G (2) M (3) MP (4) U (5) H

Additional Information for questions 3 and 4: Maximum possible number of crops are produced in equal quantities(by weight) in all the given states. 3.

What is the number of crops that are not produced in equal quantities in the given states? (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 1 (5) 2

4.

At most what weight(in ‘000 tonnes) of the crop W is produced in the state MP? (1) 2.4 (2) 2.8 (3) 3.8 (4) 3.4 (5) 4.8

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 5 to 8: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. An entrance test “JAT” was conducted for admission to a B-school called “SLRI”. The test had 15 questions divided under three sections each having five questions. Each question had five answer options among which only one was a correct answer. Students were awarded twelve marks for marking every correct answer option. If no more than two incorrect answer options are marked in any section, 2 marks per incorrect answer option are deducted from candidate’s total score. For marking every subsequent incorrect answer option in that section, 4 marks per incorrect answer option are deducted from candidate’s total score. No marks are deducted if a candidate does not mark any answer option of a question. Immediately after the test each of the three coaching institutes A, B and C published their own list of correct answer options to all the questions in the test. A few days after that, “SLRI” published the list of correct answer options to all the questions in “JAT”. The lists of correct answer options published are given in Table - I. “SLRI” also declared that out of the five candidates namely Rohit, Megha, Amar, Feroz and Richa the three who had more marks than at least two of the other candidates, were eligible for the second round of selection process. The answer options marked by each of the mentioned candidates are given in Table - II. (“NA” means that the candidate did not mark any answer option of that question). Sections Section-1

Section-2

Section-3

Sections

Question Number 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Question Number 1 2 Section-1 3 4 5 6 7 Section-2 8 9 10 11 12 Section-3 13 14 15

2

Table – I A a b c c e d d d a c a a b d e

Table – II Rohit Megha a a c b c a c c d e d d e d d c a a b NA a a a b a c d d b e

B a b a a e d d c a c a c c d e

C b b a c e d b c a c a d c d b Amar a NA a a e d d c a c b a c d e

SLRI a b a c e d d c a c a a c d e Feroz a b c a e d d NA a c a a c NA b

Richa a NA a a e d d c a NA a b c d b

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5.

Based on the lists of correct answer options published by the three institutes, all the five candidates calculated their total marks. For any question, if and only if the answer option marked by a candidate matched with the answer options published in atleast two of the institutes, the candidate considered it to be the correct answer option otherwise it was considered to be the incorrect answer option. What could have been the highest marks obtained in section-3 of “JAT” by any of the five candidates? (1) 16 (2) 46 (3) 44 (4) 32 (5) 30

6.

From the previous question, refer the method that the candidates applied for calculating their individual total marks in “JAT”. After comparing their individual total marks with the total marks of each of the other four candidates, some of the candidates expected to become eligible for the second round of selection. Who amongst all such candidates were definitely eligible for the second round of selection based on the list of correct answer options published by “SLRI”? (1) Megha, Amar and Richa (2) Megha and Amar (3) Amar and Richa (4) Amar, Feroz and Richa (5) Megha

7.

Two months after it published the list of correct answer options, “SLRI” deleted question numbers 3, 8 and 15 from “JAT”. The school now calculated the total scores of the five candidates based on their answer options to the remaining 12 questions. Who is/are the student(s) whose eligibility status (either eligible or ineligible) for the second round of selection, got changed because of this? (1) Richa (2) Amar (3) Both Amar and Richa (4) Feroz (5) Cannot be determined

8.

Amongst the three institutes, the institute whose list of correct answer options had the maximum number of matches with the list of correct answer options published by “SLRI”, was rated as the best institute by the credit rating agency, KRISIL. Which of the institutes was rated as the best institute? (1) Both A and B (2) Both B and C (3) C (4) A and C (5) B

DIRECTIONS for Questions 9 to 12: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions: Mark (1) If the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B alone. Mark (2) If the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A alone. Mark (3) If the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone. Mark (4) If the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone. Mark (5) If the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements. 9.

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A company launched five products namely X, Y, K, Z and W in five different months of the year 2007 January, March, June, August and May such that only one product was launched in each month. X and W were launched in the months that have names starting with the same alphabet. Z was not the last product that was launched and W was neither the second nor the third product that was launched. In which month Z was launched? A: Y was not the second or the last product that was launched. B: K was not the third or the last product that was launched.

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10.

Carol has three different kinds of pets dogs, cats and rabbits. The number of pets of each kind with Carol is more than 1 but is not more than 6. If the total number of pets with Carol is 12, then what is the number of rabbits with Carol? A: The number of dogs is same as the number of cats and the number of rabbits is not more than the number of dogs. B: The number of cats is three more than the number of dogs and the number of rabbits is less than the number of cats.

11.

The position of the line segment AB at time t = 0 is shown in the figure given below, where 0° < x < 90°. The point A is fixed and the line segment AB is rotating at a uniform rate in the X-Y plane in an anticlockwise direction. In which of the four quadrants will the line segment AB lie at time t = 30 seconds? Y B A

x°

X

A: The angular distance covered by the line segment AB in every 5 seconds is 615°. B: The angular distance covered by the line segment AB in every 10 seconds is 640°. 12.

A

C

X B

X is stationed at point B facing point A on a straight road AB. Y is stationed at a point between A and B facing point B. X and Y start moving towards each other simultaneously and both of them reverse the direction in which they are moving once they reach the respective ends of the road. Do A and B meet facing each other when they meet for the second time? A: Y is standing between the points C and B. C is the mid point of AB and the ratio of the speeds of X and Y is 4:5. B: Y is standing between the points A and C. C is the point which divides AB in the ratio 1:2 and the ratio of the speeds of X and Y is 4:1.

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 13 to 16: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Aseem, Ayaan and Samantha are students who appeared for the board examinations in March 2008. Each of the three mentioned students appeared for tests in six different subjects namely Maths, Social Studies, Science, English, Hindi and Commerce. The following table provides information about the marks obtained by each student in every subject as a percentage of the aggregate number of marks obtained by that student in all the six subjects. Aseem Ayaan Samantha

Maths 12% 10% 20%

Social Studies Science 20% 18% 10% 36% 20% 10%

English 10% 24% 16%

Hindi 24% 5% 10%

Commerce 16% 15% 24%

The marks lost by each of the three students in each of the six subjects are due to five different reasons namely P, Q, R, S and T. The following bar graph provides information about the marks lost by each student due to each of the mentioned reasons as a percentage of the aggregate marks lost by that student in Maths. This holds true for all the given six subjects.

36%

Percentage

40% 30% 20%

12%

22%

20%

S

T

10%

10% 0% P

Q

R Reasons

The marks lost by Assem, Ayaan and Samantha in each subject as a percentage of the marks obtained by each one of them in that subject is 40%, 25% and 20% respectively. 13.

If the total marks obtained by Samantha, Ayaan and Aseem in all the subjects is in the ratio 1: 2: 5, then the marks obtained by Ayaan in Social Studies as a percentage of aggregate marks obtained by Samantha in Social Studies and Aseem in Commerce is (1) 20% (2) 16% (3) 15% (4) 18% (5) 24%

14.

If the marks lost by Aseem, Samantha and Ayaan in English is the same, then the marks lost by Ayaan in Science due to reason R as the percentage of the total marks obtained by Aseem in all the subjects is (1) 2% (2) 0.6% (3) 1% (4) 1.5% (5) 0.2%

Additional Information for questions 15 and 16: The marks obtained by Aseem in Maths is not less than the marks obtained by Ayaan in Social Studies and marks obtained by Ayaan in English is not less than the marks obtained by Samantha in Hindi. 15.

If the marks obtained by Samantha in Commerce is 144, then at least how many marks is obtained by Aseem in Science? (1) 25

16.

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1 4

(2) 40

1 4

(3) 48

3 4

(4) 32

1 2

(5) 37

1 2

If the marks lost by Ayaan in English due to reason Q is 45, then the marks lost by Samantha in Maths due to reason T cannot be more than (1) 50 (2) 32 (3) 36 (4) 40 (5) 45

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DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 21: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Mr. Alfonso has six cars such that each car is of a different brand. The cars with Mr. Alfonso are of one out of the six brands Chevrolet, Ferrari, Honda, Mercedes, BMW and Hyundai. In the months of January and February in the year 2008, Mr. Alfonso drove only one car a day. The following table gives details about the days in January and February 2008 on which he did not drive a car of each of the given six brands. Given that January 1, 2008 was a Tuesday.

Chevrolet Ferrari Honda Mercedes BMW Hyundai

Sunday Tuesday Sunday Tuesday Friday Sunday

Monday Thursday Wednesday Monday Monday Tuesday

Wednesday Saturday Thursday Wednesday Saturday Wednesday

Friday Monday Friday Thursday Tuesday Saturday

The number of days in January and February 2008 on which he drove a car of brand Chevrolet, Ferrari, Honda, Mercedes, BMW and Hyundai is denoted by CH, FE, HO, ME, BM and HY respectively. It is also known that HO > ME > CH > BM > HY > FE. The following pie – chart gives details about the number of days in January and February 2008 on which he drove a car of brand Honda, BMW and Hyundai.

Percentage_Break up Honda, 25% Others, 50% BMW, 15% Hyundai, 10% 17.

Given that the number of days in January 2008 on which Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Honda is the maximum. What is the number of days in February 2008 on which he drove the car of brand Honda? (1) Zero (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four

18.

If Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Ferrari only once on each of the possible different days of a week in the given two months, what is the total number of days in the given two months on which he drove the car of brand Chevrolet? (1) 11 (2) 12 (3) 13 (4) 10 (5) Cannot be uniquely determined.

19.

Which of the following statements CANNOT be true? (1) The difference between the number of days on which Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Mercedes and Chevrolet is 3. (2) Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Mercedes only in January 2008. (3) Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Ferrari only in January 2008. (4) The difference between the number of days on which Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Chevrolet and Ferrari is 9. (5) More than one of the above given statements.

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Additional Information for questions 20 and 21: Mr. Alfonso drove the cars of the brand Mercedes only in February 2008. 20.

The difference between the total number of days on which Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Mercedes and Chevrolet in January and February 2008 is (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1 (5) Cannot be uniquely determined.

21.

The total number of Fridays on which Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Ferrari cannot be more than (1) Five (2) Four (3) One (4) Two (5) Three

DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 25: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are 10 friends. These 10 friends are divided into three different groups namely group X, group Y and group Z. Each group must contain at least two friends. Additional Information Given: 1. B and J are in the same group. 2. D, E and F are in different groups. 3. A is in group X. 4. C is not in group Y and D is not in group Z. 5. H, I and C are in the same group. 22.

If C and D are in the same group, then which of the following friends can never be in the group which has exactly three friends? (1) B (2) E (3) F (4) G (5) Both (2) and (3)

23.

If F is in group X and G is not in group Y, then how many of the following pairs of friends cannot be in the same group? I. (J, F) II. (D, G) III. (C, E) IV. (D, I) V. (B, E) VI. (A, H) (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2 (5) 1

24.

Which of the following persons can never be in the group that has six friends? (1) A (2) G (3) D (4) Both (1) and (2) (5) (1), (2) and (3)

25.

If there are exactly five friends in group Z, then which of the following persons is definitely in group Y? (1) J (2) D (3) E (4) G (5) None of these

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SECTION – II Number of Questions = 25 DIRECTIONS for Questions 26 to 28: Given below is a passage, whose paragraphs have been jumbled up. Read the paragraphs carefully and arrange them in a sequence to answer the questions given at the end of the passage.

PASSAGE – 1 1.

September 11 shocked many Americans into an awareness that they had better pay much closer attention to what the US government does in the world and how it is perceived. Many issues have been opened for discussion that were not on the agenda before. That’s all to the good.

2.

Such perceptions are not changed by the fact that, on September 11, for the first time, a western country was subjected on home soil to a horrendous terrorist attack of a kind all too familiar to victims of western power. The attack goes far beyond what’s sometimes called the “retail terror” of the IRA, FLN or Red Brigades.

3.

Post-September 11 surveys in the Arab world reveal that the same reasons hold today, compounded with resentment over specific policies. Strikingly, that is even true of privileged, western-oriented sectors in the third-world.

4.

In the most sober establishment journal, Foreign Affairs, Samuel Huntington wrote in 1999: “While the US regularly denounces various countries as ‘rogue states,’ in the eyes of many countries it is becoming the rogue superpower ... the single greatest external threat to their societies.”

5.

For such reasons, the post-September 11 rantings of Osama bin Laden - for example, about US support for corrupt and brutal regimes, or about the US “invasion” of Saudi Arabia - have a certain resonance, even among those who despise and fear him. From resentment, anger and frustration, terrorist bands hope to draw support and recruits.

6.

We should also be aware that much of the world regards Washington as a terrorist regime. In recent years, the US has taken or backed actions in Colombia, Nicaragua, Panama, Sudan and Turkey, to name a few, that meet official US definitions of “terrorism” - that is, when Americans apply the term to enemies.

7.

Today we do ourselves few favours by choosing to believe that “they hate us” and “hate our freedoms”. On the contrary, these are attitudes of people who like Americans and admire much about the US, including its freedoms. What they hate is official policies that deny them the freedoms to which they too aspire.

8.

The president is not the first to ask: “Why do they hate us?” In a staff discussion 44 years ago, President Eisenhower described “the campaign of hatred against us [in the Arab world], not by the governments but by the people”. His National Security Council outlined the basic reasons: the US supports corrupt and oppressive governments and is “opposing political or economic progress” because of its interest in controlling the oil resources of the region.

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9.

It is also the merest sanity, if we hope to reduce the likelihood of future atrocities. It may be comforting to pretend that our enemies “hate our freedoms,” as President Bush stated, but it is hardly wise to ignore the real world, which conveys different lessons.

10.

To cite just one recent example: in the August 1 issue of Far Eastern Economic Review, the internationally recognised regional specialist Ahmed Rashid writes that in Pakistan “there is growing anger that US support is allowing [Musharraf’s] military regime to delay the promise of democracy”.

26.

Which of the following would be the third paragraph of the sequentially arranged passage? (1) Paragraph 6 (2) Paragraph 1 (3) Paragraph 8 (4) Paragraph 10 (5) Paragraph 5

27.

Which of the following would be the opening paragraph? (1) Paragraph 7 (2) Paragraph 1 (4) Paragraph 9 (5) Paragraph 2

28.

(3) Paragraph 3

Which of the following is likely to continue the passage further? (1) An international Gallup poll in late September found little support for “a military attack” by the US in Afghanistan. In Latin America, the region with the most experience of US intervention, support ranged from 2% in Mexico to 16% in Panama. (2) The current “campaign of hatred” in the Arab world is, of course, also fuelled by US policies toward Israel, Palestine and Iraq. The US has provided the crucial support for Israel’s harsh military occupation, now in its 35th year. (3) The September 11 terrorism elicited harsh condemnation throughout the world and an outpouring of sympathy for the innocent victims. But with qualifications. (4) They presumably also welcome the “Bush doctrine” that proclaims the right of attack against potential threats, which are virtually limitless. The president has announced: “There’s no telling how many wars it will take to secure freedom in the homeland.” That’s true. (5) Threats are everywhere, even at home. The prescription for endless war poses a far greater danger to Americans than perceived enemies do, for reasons the terrorist organisations understand very well.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 29 to 31: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE – 2 Structuralism is a theory of humankind in which all elements of human culture, including literature, are thought to be parts of a system of signs. Critic Robert Scholes has described structuralism as a reaction to “’modernist’ alienation and despair.” European structuralists such as Roman Jakobson, Claude Lévi.-trauss, and Roland Barthes (before his shift toward poststructuralism) attempted to develop a semiology, or semiotics (science of signs). Barthes, among others, sought to recover literature and even language from the isolation in which they had been studied and to show that the laws that govern them govern all signs, from road signs to articles of clothing. Structuralism was heavily influenced by linguistics, especially by the pioneering work of Ferdinand de Saussure. Particularly useful to structuralists was Saussure’s concept of the phoneme (the smallest basic speech sound or unit of pronunciation) and his idea that phonemes exist in two kinds of relationships: diachronic and synchronic. A phoneme has a diachronic, or “horizontal,” relationship with those other phonemes that precede and follow it (as the words appear, left to right, on this page) in a particular usage, utterance, or narrative—

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what Saussure, a linguist, called parole (French for “word”). A phoneme has a synchronic, or “vertical,” relationship with the entire system of language within which individual usages, utterances, or narratives have meaning—what Saussure called langue (French for “tongue,” as in “native tongue,” meaning language). An means what it means in English because those of us who speak the language are plugged into the same system (think of it as a computer network where different individuals can access the same information in the same way at a given time). Following Saussure, Lévi-Strauss, an anthropologist, studied hundreds of myths, breaking them into their smallest meaningful units, which he called “mythemes.” Removing each from its diachronic relations with other mythemes in a single myth (such as the myth of Oedipus and his mother), he vertically aligned those mythemes that he found to be homologous (structurally correspondent). He then studied the relationships within as well as between vertically aligned columns, in an attempt to understand scientifically, through ratios and proportions, those thoughts and processes that humankind has shared, both at one particular time and across time. Whether Lévi-Strauss was studying the structure of myths or the structure of villages, he looked for recurring, common elements that transcended the differences within and among cultures. Structuralists followed Saussure in preferring to think about the overriding langue, or language of myth, in which each mytheme and mytheme-constituted myth fits meaningfully, rather than about isolated individual paroles, or narratives. Structuralists also followed Saussure’s lead in believing that sign systems must be understood in terms of binary oppositions (a proposition later disputed by poststructuralist Jacques Derrida). In analyzing myths and texts to find basic structures, structuralists found that opposite terms modulate until they are finally resolved or reconciled by some intermediary third term. Thus a structuralist reading of Milton’s Paradise Lost (1667) might show that the war between God and the rebellious angels becomes a rift between God and sinful, fallen man, a rift that is healed by the Son of God, the mediating third term. Although structuralism was largely a European phenomenon in its origin and development, it was influenced by American thinkers as well. Noam Chomsky, for instance, who powerfully influenced structuralism through works such as Reflections on Language (1975), identified and distinguished between “surface structures” and “deep structures” in language and linguistic literatures, including texts. 29.

It can be inferred that structuralism primarily seeks to (1) isolate individual elements from the whole. (2) understand the unity permeating in and through the diversity of human culture. (3) resolve opposing terms in human culture. (4) eliminate the study of the isolated elements of human culture. (5) prove that myths can be scientifically explained.

30.

Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage? A. The main aim of structuralists was to find that third element which would resolve opposition. B. Poststructuralism was opposed to structuralism. C. Structuralism would have died a premature death if the concept of phoneme had not been elucidated by Saussure. (1) Only A (2) A and C (3) B and C (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

31.

The relationship between Levi strauss’s work and that of Saussure can be said to be? (1) Strauss refined Saussure’s theory. (2) Strauss showed that anthropology was connected to linguistics. (3) Strauss showed the superiority of langue over paroles. (4) Strauss applied Saussure’s theory to find commonality in structures. (5) Strauss provided evidence which proved that Saussure’s theory was universally applicable.

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 32 to 35: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE – 3 Leslie A. Adelson, whom Andreas Huyssen has accurately called “the leading scholar in the field of ‘TurkishGerman literature,’” seeks in her latest book to redefine those often arbitrarily applied terms “Turkish” and “German.” Adelson adamantly advocates for understanding “Turkish” and “German” less as historically loaded labels and more as the names of two living cultures that exist essentially inside one another. Although her title includes the phrase “A New Critical Grammar of Migration,” much of the secondary material, analysis, and primary texts are not so new at all. Instead, Adelson has based this book on at least three previous journal articles and one conference paper.Readers familiar with Adelson’s previous articles will find themselves rereading key passages from those publications transplanted verbatim into the book manuscript. In addition, they will find that the chief aims of the articles have much in common with the book’s goals as well. Knowing this research history, one central question emerged for me as a reviewer: what would motivate readers to devote time to a book that at first glance simply seems to repeat previously-published material? As I read further, however, more and more valid reasons became clear. One general answer might be that, although Adelson obviously incorporates previous research, The Turkish Turn just as clearly indicates steady development and productive expansion of theoretical ideas that address viewing Turkish literature as an inextricable part of German culture. One more specific answer is that Adelson’s new twist more intently considers “the literature of Turkish migration as part of an evolving national tradition of Holocaust memory in Germany” . By reorganizing and supplementing old material, the author, in her own words, attempts to broach the “relative novum in German literature” of the “sustained combination of story lines about Turkish migration and twentieth-century German history” . In most of her works on Turkish-German literature, Adelson contends in one formulation or another that German and Turkish experiences since World War II and again since reunification share more similarities than differences . In her 2000 article as well as the present book, she identifies her central frustration with current German Studies: “Despite the fact that ensuing migrations and births have made Turks the largest minority in unified Germany, they are rarely seen as intervening meaningfully in the narrative of postwar German history” . As far back as her 1994 publication “Opposing Oppositions: Turkish-German Questions in Contemporary German Studies,” and as recently as a paper presented in 2004, “Hello Germany! Toward a New Critical Grammar of Migration,” Adelson has been proposing innovative methods for confronting nonconstructive labels that have encased Turks and Germans in the language of stereotype. In her latest study, she reiterates her scholarly interest in overturning ways that other scholars have defined the relationship between Turkish-German citizens and German society as the dominant culture. To name one example, Adelson demands her readers to reject boldly the prevalent idea that Turkish literature is “situated in a predictable sense ‘between two worlds’” . According to the author, taking this first step and subsequently performing the suggested style of reading would allow scholars to produce a more complete picture of the Turkish experience as a fundamental part of German history. In addition, this enlightened reading highlights ways that Turkish literature “touches” German history as incontestably as German literature meets German history. As in previous texts, the author again aims to expand the analytical paradigms scholars have used to study German-Turkish relationships in this century. Expanding current methods of analysis involves, for Adelson, devising methodological alternatives in order to produce new readings of narratives from authentic Turkish voices, including Aras Ören, Emine Sevgi Özdamar, Zafir Senoçak, and Feridun Zaimoglu.

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In order to study anew previously analyzed works such as Der Hof im Spiegel (2001), Gefährliche Verwandtschaft (1998), and Kanak Sprak (1995), Adelson broadly splits the study into three thematicallydivided chapters with subdivisions featuring theoretical and literary analysis. In its own way, each of the divisions skillfully encourages and sustains her far-reaching intention of “undoing accepted ideas and methods of analysis and dichotomies after the Third Reich” , as well as imparting an undeniable “Turkish inflection of German memory” . In the first chapter, “Dialogue and Storytelling,” she focuses on the medium of dialog and its corresponding opposite, silence, in various texts to intimate specific ways that Turks have begun to join the conversation about the German past. By embracing or remaining just outside dialogs with Germans, Turkish characters in the texts leave ambiguous impressions. On one hand, they have begun finding their own words for the Nazi past, while on the other, they simultaneously desire and yet do not desire to join these conversations. Focusing on this key issue, Adelson emphasizes the common ground that Germans and Turks share. In contexts like these, according to Adelson, Germans and Turks produce “touching tales,” and thereby reveal their overwhelming similarities. Chapter 2 carries the ambiguous title “Genocide and Taboo,” which once again causes Turkish history and German history to touch. In this chapter, Adelson contemplates the “crisis of historical consciousness” in the twentieth century, but especially since the 1990s, when the “culture of memory [underwent] a radical shift” . Focusing on the novel, Perilous Kinship (2001), Adelson describes how the intertwined worlds at work in the story represent the “entangled tale of German taboos” . In the spirit of shattering old stereotypes, the second part of the chapter elucidates how, for example, mention of the Holocaust in Kanak Sprak essentially “defies myths of the lovable oppressed Turk” and rejects images of the silenced, victimized “defiant young Turks”. Adelson deftly uses these examples to support her claims that the new triangulated formation between Germans, Jews, and Turks “releases conventional victim/perpetrator labels” . Not limiting the discussion of genocide to the Holocaust, Adelson also presents and analyzes texts that consider the Turks’ double memory work of dealing with the Armenian genocide as well as the Holocaust in Germany. Chapter 3, “Capital and Labor,” illuminates the role that economics and labor have played in forming the conventional picture of the Turk in Germany. Adelson cites theories that make migrant laborers into emblematic subjects of a global economy only to ask readers to challenge such outdated tropes . In a discussion that spans popular perception of the Turkish Gastarbeiter to popular perception of headscarves as “related to a gendered critique of violence” , Adelson leaves no stone unturned in her profound consideration of the formation and sustainability of Turkish stereotypes in Germany in this century. The chapter’s combination of extensive theory and close readings encourages viewing literature and literary theory at the “crossroads of German national history and Turkish migration” . Adelson’s three all-embracing chapters strongly imply that this intersection marks the point of a major, yet ignored or underestimated, national German transformation. 32.

Adelson does not (1) Advocate understanding “Turkish” and “German” as historically loaded labels. (2) Propose innovative methods for confronting non-constructive stereotypical labels. (3) Incorporate previous research in the Turkish Turn. (4) Reorganize and supplement old material in the Turkish Turn. (5) View turks as intervening meaningfully in post war German History.

33.

The primary purpose of Adelson is to (1) Refute the domination of German culture. (2) To refute the idea that Turkish literature and German literature are disjoint. (3) To prove that significant overlaps exist between Turkish and German culture. (4) To prove that Turks have played a significant role in German history. (5) To prove that the use of stereotypes-Turkish and German- should be examined.

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34.

The closest meanings of the words-novum and trope-as used in the passage are (1) New and outdated (2) New and metaphor (3) Game and Figure of speech (4) Cult and metaphor (5) Trend and Figure of speech

35.

According to Adelson, Germans and Turks are similar because (1) Both leave ambiguous impressions while talking about the past. (2) Turks have begun to join German conversations. (3) Germans have started accommodating Turks in their dialogues. (4) Both carry similar poignant impressions about the past. (5) The words used by both are similar in various contexts.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 36 to 39: Upstream & Downstream Arguments: In the following questions a passage is given with four statements following it. Read the passage and on the basis of the information available decide if: a. b. c. d.

If If If If

the the the the

argument argument argument argument

is is is is

an upstream argument a downstream argument a lateral argument irrelevant to the passage.

Then from the answer choices choose the option where the statements have been labeled correctly. Example of upstream, downstream and lateral arguments. Passage: Ram was keen to get admission into the IIM’s - the top notch management institutions in India. Upstream Argument: If the passage is a direct conclusion or inference that can be drawn from the statement, the statement is an upstream argument E.g. Ram studied very hard for the entrance exam for the IIMs and even joined the best coaching class for the entrance exam. One gets to know why Ram studied very hard from the passage. Therefore in case of an upstream argument the passage logically follows the question statement Downstream Argument: If the statement is a direct conclusion or inference that can be drawn from the passage then the argument is a downstream argument. E.g. Getting admission into an IIM would be positive for Ram’s Career. This would clearly be a downstream argument. Here, the statement happens to logically follow the passage. Lateral Argument: If the statement supports the passage but is neither upstream nor downstream, then it is a lateral argument E.g. The IIMs hold an entrance exam called CAT.

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Here the statement adds to the passage and supports it. However, it is neither an inference nor a conclusion. Such an argument is called a Lateral Argument. Also, a lateral argument is not related to the central idea of the passage but is not completely irrelevant to the topic of discussion. 36.

The interview is an essential part of a successful hiring program because, with it, job applicants who have personalities that are unsuited to the requirements of the job will be eliminated from consideration. i. Apart from relevant qualification and experience, a candidate who is hired for a job should ideally have a personality that matches the demands of the job for him or her to perform effectively. ii. In a recent case where a senior executive in a Fortune 500 company was hired and fired within a short span of time it was found that the executive had been hired without having undergone a formal interview. iii. Different jobs call for different personalities – the aggressive go-getter, the pensive deliberator, the quick thinking decision-maker and so on. iv. These days many companies are outsourcing the recruitment of their personnel to professional hiring agencies who are experienced in modern recruitment practices. (1) badc (2) bacd (3) acbd (4) abcd (5) cbad

37.

A recent spate of launching and operating mishaps with television satellites led to a corresponding surge in claims against companies underwriting satellite insurance. i. Most television satellites are produced in such small numbers and operate under such unpredictable circumstances that they are necessarily heavily insured. ii. The manufacturers of satellite television operate in an oligopolistic market framework. iii. Insurance premiums shot up, making satellites more expensive to launch and operate, in turn, adding to the pressure to squeeze more performance out of currently operating satellites. iv. The use of satellites in television broadcasting has gained importance as viewers have become used to real-time exposure to events happening around the globe. (1) bdac (2) cabd (3) cdba (4) adbc (5) dcab

38.

When widespread tax evasion forces the government to raise income tax rates, causing the tax burden on non-evading taxpayers to become heavier, this encourages even more taxpayers to evade income taxes by hiding taxable income. i. The government does not face this peculiar problem when it comes to collection of corporate taxes, duties and levies. ii. It is important for the government to realize its income tax collection targets to meet its revenue goals in a fiscal year. iii. Usually, when the government establishes income tax rates in order to generate a certain level of revenue, it does not allow adequately for revenues that will be lost through evasion. iv. When people evade income taxes by not declaring taxable income, a vicious cycle results. (1) badc (2) bcad (3) dacb (4) bcda (5) acda

39.

It is unlikely for an individual starting a new company to be skilled in the diverse business areas the company needs to excel in. i. It is important for a new company to simultaneously pursue successful strategies in different business areas, viz. marketing, technology and management ii. Companies founded by groups are more likely to succeed than companies founded by individuals. iii. Recent statistics on start-up ventures floated over the last two years show that more ventures have failed in the technology space than in any other area. iv. New companies are more likely to succeed when their founders are from diverse backgrounds and can provide adequate skills in marketing, management and technical abilities. (1) cbda (2) bcda (3) adcb (4) abcd (5) cadb

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 40 to 42: In each question, there are five sentences or parts of sentences that forms a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage. Then choose the most appropriate option. 40.

41.

42.

A. B. C. D. E. (1)

Thatched roofs catch the fire in the summer. Send a word to me if this happens. I shall definitely give an ear to the message. The messenger who brings the message will be rewarded. A and C (2) D only (3) C and E

(4) A, C and D

(5) A, B and E

A. B. C. D. E. (1)

One of the most important line of evidence for the inheritance of intelligence in humans comes of from studies of similar twins which were separated shortly after birth and reared in different homes. A, B and C (2) B and E (3) C only

(4) C, D and E

(5) A, D and E.

A. B. C. D. E. (1)

Whatever his shortcoming in other fields, at least in the Geography it was not possible to fault his performance for he rightly said that Switzerland lies among France, Italy Austria and Germany. A, B and D (2) A and D (3) B, D and E

(4) C and D

(5) Only E

DIRECTIONS for Questions 43 to 45: In each question, there are three to five sentences. Each sentence has pair/s of words/phrases that are highlighted. From the highlighted words / phrase(s) select the most appropriate word(s) / phrases to form correct sentences. Then from the options given choose the right sequence 43

A smooth final rehearsal should augur [A] / auger [B] well for the grand finale. Various oral [A] / aural [B] effects preceded the migraine headache. The boys spent the night in jail because no one would stand bail [A] / bale [B] for them. The debater refused to cede [A] / seed [B] the point to her opponent. The police fight a [A] / the [B] relentless battle against crime. (1) AAABA (2) BBBAB (3) ABAAA (4) BAAAA (5) BBAAA

44.

In the rainy season, raincoats and umbrellas really sell [A] / cell [B]. Her constant chatter greats [A] / grates [B] on my nerves. The shelf was made of gneiss [A] / nice [B]. We could hear the horses naying [A] / neighing [B] in the vicinity. The behaviour patterns of teenagers are [A] / is [B] very unpredictable these days. (1) BAABA (2) BBBAB (3) BAABB (4) AAABA (5) ABABA

45.

She needed to pear [A] / pare [B] down her monthly expenses. We heard the grown [A] / groan [B] of the hinges as the crane lowered the weighty cargo into the vessel’s hold. After a momentary paws [A] / pause [B] the audience broke into cheers. The aircraft [A] / aircrafts [B] were flown out once the storm had subsided. The central part of the hangar [A] / hanger [B] is of a cylindrical shape consisting of five steel arches covered with concrete. (1) AAABA (2) BBBAA (3) BBBBA (4) ABABA (5) BBAAB

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 46 to 50: Fill up the blanks, numbered (46), (47) ..... up to (50), in the passages below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank. I feel that we magicians, especially mentalists, feel that we have to apologize for creating fantasy. That is why there is so much debate in mentalist circles on how one should structure, or even have, a statement ___(46)___ that what we are doing isn’t real. Sometimes this ranges from the goofy to the clever to the misleading. I think all approaches are wrong. It is ironic to me that the one group of people trying to ___(47)___ peoples’ feelings of astonishment, wonder, and magic are magicians. We should be at the front of the line promoting magic and wonder. We should not be making excuses for creating surprise, joy, and magic. We should be the ones, not tearing other peoples’ beliefs down but building up the ___(48)___ value that a sense of wonder can bring to people. Yet, so many magicians are so scared to create a magic that is so strong that people are really getting into it. It is my opinion that most people are thirsty to experience real wonder. I know that I am. I got into magic like many of you did: I had an experience with a magician that brought a sense of wonder to me. This feeling was like a white flash of brilliance that seared into my mind a sense that there is something more than the ___(49)___ “real” world. This event happened to me around six years old and it placed within me a desire to learn more about magic and it led me to become a magician. My personal ___(50)___ about how magic should be presented is very different from my early years. I want to make people experience what I felt when I experience magic for the first time. 46

(1) celebrating (4) impounding

(2) gruntling (5) floundering

(3) proclaiming

47.

(1) sabotage (4) corroborate

(2) aggrandise (5) ratify

(3) permeate

48.

(1) pecuniary (4) perimetric

(2) therapeutic (5) esoteric

(3) underlying

49.

(1) surreal (4) prosaic

(2) execrable (5) theurgic

(3) sorcerous

50.

(1) desire (4) quandary

(2) affliction (5) ambitions

(3) paradigm

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SECTION – III Number of Questions = 25 DIRECTIONS for questions 51 to 54: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions: Mark (1) If the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B alone. Mark (2) If the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A alone. Mark (3) If the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone. Mark (4) If the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone. Mark (5) If the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements. 51.

What is the remainder when (P6 + P4 + Q) is divided by 3, where ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are natural numbers? A: Both P and Q are prime numbers and each divides (P + Q) completely. B: Both P and Q are not divisible by 3 and Q is a perfect square.

52.

If P, Q, R and the roots of the equation Px2 + Qx + R = 0 are integers, then what is the sum of the roots of the given equation? A: The roots of the given equation are positive, real and equal. Also, (P + Q + R) is equal to the smallest possible non negative integer. B:

R = 2 and the maxima of Px2 + Qx + R exists. P

53.

Points P and Q lie on the diagonal BD of rectangle ABCD. Find the area of rectangle ABCD. A: The lengths of perpendiculars dropped from P on AD and BC are 2 cm and 4 cm respectively. The lengths of perpendiculars dropped from Q on BC and CD are 3 cm and 4 cm respectively. B: The lengths of perpendiculars dropped from P on CD and AD are 1 cm and 2 cm respectively. The lengths of perpendiculars dropped from Q on BC and CD are 4 cm and 3 cm respectively.

54.

There are two beakers, the first beaker is filled with a solution having milk and water in the ratio P:Q and the second beaker is empty. Two liters of the solution is taken from the first beaker and is poured into the second beaker. What is the volume of the solution left in the first beaker? A: The quantity of water in the second beaker is 50%(by volume) of the total solution in it. B: The quantity of milk left in the first beaker is 40%(by volume) of the original quantity of milk in the that beaker.

55.

Ajay, Vijay and Dhananjay purchased 1, 10 and 25 notebooks for a total of Rs.14, Rs.130 and Rs.300 respectively from a stationery shop. In his transaction with Ajay and Dhananjay, the shopkeeper made a profit of p% and q% respectively such that p = 2q. How much profit did the shopkeeper make in his transaction with Vijay?(Assume that the shopkeeper bought each note book at the same price) (1) 22% (2) 25% (3) 28% (4) 30% (5) 27%

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56.

PQRS is a square and T is point that lies in the same plane but outside the square. If areas of ∆ TPQ,

∆TQR and ∆ TRS are 2 cm 2, 3 cm 2 and 4 cm2 respectively, then what can be the possible area of ∆ TPS? (1) 6 cm2

(2) 9 cm2

(3) 4 cm2

(4) 1 cm2

(5) Both (2) and (4)

57.

There are 10 students out of which three are boys and seven are girls. In how many different ways can the students be paired such that no pair consists of two boys? (1) 630 (2) 1260 (3) 105 (4) 210 (5) None of these

58.

For how many values of (P – Q), the following equations have a common integral root? x2 – Px – Q = 1 x2 – Qx + P – 2Q = 10 (here, P and Q are integers and P > Q) (1) 1

59.

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

(5) 6

Find the sum of all the integers N > 1 such that the each prime factor of N is either 2, 3 or 7 and N is not divisible by any perfect cube greater than 1. (1) 2820 (2) 4004 (3) 5186 (4) 3184 (5) 6186

DIRECTIONS for Questions 60 and 61: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Some particular dates, when written in the format ‘mm/dd/yy’, it is found that (yy) = (mm) × (dd). For example: 22nd April 1988 is written as 04/22/88, where 88 = 4 × 22. 60.

What is the maximum possible number of days in a single year, in which this could happen? (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9 (5) 5

61.

How many years in the 18th century had no such day that satisfied yy = mm × dd? (1) 20 (2) 23 (3) 18 (4) 21 (5) 19

62.

A store owner plans to sell two types of MP3 players. One type costs the store owner $200 each; the other type costs $400 each. The $200 models yield a profit of $25 dollars each and the $400 models a profit of $30 each. The store owner estimates that the total demand for the MP3 players will not exceed 300 units. The store owner can invest up to $80,000 on the inventory of MP3 players. The store owner sells some models of each type to maximize the profit. What is the value of the maximum possible profit the store owner can make? (1) $8000 (2) $7000 (3) $9000 (4) $7500 (5) $6000

63.

The sum of the reciprocal of integers ‘a’ and ‘b’ is equal to the sum of twice the reciprocal of ‘c’ and the reciprocal of ‘10a’. What is the value of (a + b)? (a, b, c are three distinct integers between 0 and 10). (1) 2c – 1 (2) 2c (3) 2c + 1 (4) 2c + 3 (5) None of these

64.

For which of the following values of ‘p’, (x + p)(x + 10) + q = (x + m)(x + n) + r for all values of x, where m, n are integers and q and r consecutive integers with q > r? (1) 30 (2) 12 (3) 24 (4) 8 (5) Both (2) and (4)

65.

A pond is inhabited by only four types of fishes, namely A, B, C and D. There are 25 percent more fishes of type A than type C, 10 percent fewer fishes of type B than type A, and 20 percent of the fishes are of type D. If there are 144 fishes of type B, then how many fishes are there in the pond? (1) 407 (2) 540 (3) 532 (4) 601 (5) 600

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66.

A bag has 10 balls which are red or blue or green in colour. In every trial, one ball is drawn and put back in the bag before the next trial. The probability of not getting a blue ball in either of the two 49 81 . . The probability of getting two green balls in two consecutive trials is consecutive trials is 100 100 What is the probability of getting balls of three different colours in three consecutive trials? (1)

67.

7 100

21 250

(3)

7 250

(4)

21 500

(5)

3 125

In the X-Y plane, P and Q are points on straight lines 4y = x and 3y = x respectively. If R(10, 3) is the midpoint of line segment PQ, then find the length of line segment PQ. (1) 2 5 units

68.

(2)

(2) 3 5 units

(3) 4 2 units

(4) 5 2 units

(5) None of these

In the figure shown below, O is the center of a circle with radius 10 cm. A line AB passes through the ¼ point M which lies on the circle. With M as the centre and AM as the radius, a semicircle ATB is drawn. If AT is a tangent to the circle at point T, then find the length of BS.

T O M

A (1) 5 3 cm

(2) 8 3 cm

(3) 12 cm

S B (4) 10 cm

(5) 8 cm

DIRECTIONS for Questions 69 and 70: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A company intending to advertise its products through a particular TV channel, finds that the advertisement rates applicable for a particular day are as follows. Times Slots 0600 to 1200 hrs 1200 to 1800 hrs

Rates $300 per min $125 per min

The channel has 70,000 viewers during the time slot 0600 to 1200 hours. 69.

If the channel charges the same amount per viewer per minute for an advertisement in both the mentioned time slots, then how many viewers watch that channel in the time slot 1200 to 1800 hours? (1) 30,266 (2) 29,166 (3) 28,000 (4) 31,000 (5) 25,000

70.

The company has $10,000 to spend on advertising on the given day. If the company does not want less than 25% of its total number of advertisements to be aired in either of the mentioned time slots, then how many one minute advertisements should the company book so that the channel can air maximum possible number of advertisements of that company in the time slot 0600 to 1200 hours? (Assume that the entire budget of $10,000 need not be completely spent.) (1) 32 (2) 34 (3) 46 (4) 29 (5) 39

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71.

What is the smallest possible positive integer such that the product of all its digits equals to 9!? (1) 2578899 (2) 13856789 (3) 2345678 (4) 12345789 (5) None of these

72.

In the figure shown below, all the vertical lines are parallel to each other. All the horizontal lines are parallel to each other and are equally spaced. What fraction of the area of ABCD, is shaded?

(1)

1 2

(2)

2 3

A

B

D

C (3)

1 4

(4)

1 3

(5) Data Insufficient

73.

Three elements a, b and c are selected from the set A = {2, 3, 5, 6, 7} to form a three-digit number ‘abc’, where a < b < c. Similarly, two elements p and q are selected from the set B = {0, 1, 8, 9} to form a two-digit number ‘pq’, where p > q. Let, M be the total number of all the possible values of ‘abc’ and N be the total number of all the possible values of ‘pq’. What is the value of (M – N)? (1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 4 (5) 1

74.

In a triangle ABC, the incircle touches the three sides AB, BC and CA at the points D, E and F respectively. If the length(in cm) of the sides AB, BC and CA are three consecutive even numbers, then which of the following cannot be the radius(in cm) of the incircle? (1) 2

(2)

7

(3)

15

(4)

32

(5)

3

75.

Gautam decided to go to a temple only on first and the last day of a year. He continues to go to the temple in this fashion till the time he finds that he has visited the temple atleast once on each of the different days of a week. The minimum number of days required to achieve this is (1) 1255 (2) 1462 (3) 1463 (4) 1827 (5) 1826

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