Sbi Clerical

SBI : General Awareness Held on 13-07-2008 1. Oscar Awards are given for the excellence in the field of (A) films (B) Literature (C) Sports (D) Politics (E) Status ANS: (A)

2. Which of the following is not a food crop ? (A) Wheat (B) Barley (C) Maize (D) Gram (E) Cotton ANS: (E)

3. Union Budget always presented first in (A) The Loksabha (B) The Rajyasabha (C) Joint session of Parliament (D) Meeting of the Union cabinet (E) The State Assemblies ANS: (A)

4. The Government of India has earmarked about Rs. 70,000 crore in Union Budget to help which of the following sections of the society ? (A) Children who are bonded labour (B) Persons working in hazardous industries (C) Farmers (D) People living below poverty line (E) None of these ANS: (E)

5. Jose Louise has taken over as the prime minister of (A) France (B) Argentina

(C) Spain (D) New zealand (E) Italy ANS: (C)

6. The conference of Economic/ Finance Ministers of ASEAN was held recently in (A) Jakarta (B) Bali (C) New Delhi (D) Tokyo (E) Islamabad ANS: (B)

7. Which of the following International forums/ organizations has made a decision of not to go for reckless lending ? (A) G-7 (B) G-8 (C) SAARC (D) World Bank (E) IMF ANS: (E)

8.Mahmood Ahmadinejad who was in India on an official visit recently is the (A) Prime Minister of Iraq (B) President of Iran (C) Prime Minister of Iran (D) President of Iraq (E) None of these ANS: (B)

9. India recently started "Maitree Express" to which of the following destinations ? (A) Islamabad (B) Karanchi (C) Dhaka (D) Kathmandu (E) None of these ANS: (C)

10. The first ever General elction took place in which of the following countries in Indian subcontinent ? (A) Bhutan (B) China (C) Pakistan (D) Bangladesh (E) Sri Lanka ANS: (A)

11. As per the latest figures published in the newspapers the growth of economy in India for the fiscal year ended March 2008 has been at which of the following levels ? About (A) 6 % (B) 6.5 % (C) 7 % (D) 7.5 % (E) 9 % ANS: (E)

12. Name of B.S.Yeddyurappa was recently in news as he has taken over as the (A) Governor of Karnataka (B) Chief Minister of Karnataka (C) Governor of Andhra Pradesh (D) Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh (E) None of these ANS: (B)

13. The Govt. of India Planning to put up a bill in the parliament to ensure free and compulsory education for all those who are of the age of (A) 3 Years (B) 5 Years (C) 6-14 Years (D) 12-20 Years (E) Upto 21 Years ANS: (C)

14. "World No Tobacco Day" is observed on which of the following days ? (A) Ist May

(B) 10th May (C) 21st May (D) 31 st May (E) 1st June ANS: (D)

15. Late Vijay Tendulkar who died recently was a famous (A) Social Work (B) Politician (C) Sportsman (D) Play Wright (E) None of these ANS: (D)

16. Mnay times we erad in newspapers about the GM Crops.What is the full form of GM ? (A) Genetically Marketed (B) Genetically Modified (C) Green & Moisturious (D) Globally Marketed (E) None of these ANS: (B)

17. Barack Obama whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ? (A) UK (B) USA (C) France (D) Italy (E) None of these ANS: (B)

18. Which of the following is an Oscar winning documentary on climate change in which former US Vice President Al Gore has featured as a narrator ? (A) An inconvenient truth (B) The Sea (C) Road to prediction (D) Remember My Name (E) None of these ANS: (A)

19. Defence minister from 27 nations recently gathered at which of the following places to discuss security amongst the countries of Asia Pacific Region ? (A) Beijing (B) New Delhi (C) Singapore (D) Kuala Lumpur (E) None of these ANS: (C)

20. Who amongst the following is NOT a Lawn Tennis Player ? (A) Serena Williams (B) Katarina Srebotnik (C) Andy Murray (D) Nichlas Almagro (E) Ricky Ponting ANS: (E)

21. The head office of the Stae Bank Of India is located in (A) Kolkat (B) New Delhi (C) Pune (D) Ahmedabad (E) None of these ANS: (E) Mumbai

22. Which of the following is NOT the name of the sensitive index of any global stock exchange ? (A) Nasdaq (B) Nikkei (C) Kospi (D) Dow (E) Combix ANS: (E)

23. Mnay times we read the term 'ECB'in financial newspapers.What is the full form of 'ECB'? (A) Essential Commercial Borrowing (B) Essential Credit & Borrowing (C) External Credit & Business

(D) External Commercial Borrowing (E) None Of These ANS: (D)

24. Who amongst the following is the new face in Union Cabinet after it was reshuffled recently ? (A) Mnai Shankar Aiyer (B) Rahul Gandhi (C) Priyanka (D) Jyotiraditya Scindia (E) None of these ANS: (D)

25. Who amongst the following has taken over as the chief minister of Nagaland ? (A) Manik Sarkar (B) Dinesh Nandan Sahay (C) P.Longon (D) K.Shankaranarayanan (E) None of these ANS: (E)

PAPER : SBI CLERK SOLVED PAPER (HELD ON 13-07-2008 SECOND SITTING) MARKETING APTITUDE / COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE 1. Bank MarketinG menas (A) Selling of Bnaks (B) Buting of banks (C) Merger of banks (D) selling bank's produts and services (E) Selling various items in banks ANS -(D) 2. Proper pricing is needed for (A) Extra charges of extra services (B) Levy of VAT (C) Good customer services (D) Putting burden on the customer (E) Service with extra facilities ANS -(C) 3. Alead means (A) Abank's marketing staff (B) Areligious leader (C) Bank's chairman (D) Target Customer (E) Leash tied to a dog ANS -(D)

4. A good salesman should be(A) Agressive (B) Pushy (C) Fierce (D) Polite, but firm (E) Talkative ANS -(D) 5. Relationship selling means (A) Preparing a list of relatives (B) Cross selling (C) Selling to relatives (D) Selling to strangers (E) Telemarketing ANS -(B) 6.ATM are (A) Branches of banks (B) Manned couters of banks (C) Unmanned , cash dispensers (D) All of these (E) None of these ANS -(C) 7. Home loans are granted to (A) Individuals (B) Institutions (C) Builders (D) All of these (E) None of these ANS -(A) 8. Credit cards are used for (A) Cash withdrawals (B) Purchase of air tickets (C) Purchase of consumable items from retail outlets (D) All of these (E) None of these ANS -(D) 9. HNI means (A) Highly negative individual (B) High growth individual (C) High neutral individual (D) Highly necessary individual (E) All of these ANS -(B) 10. What menu is selected to cut , copy, and pest ? (A) File

(B) Tools (C) Special (D) Edit (E) None of these ANS -(D) 11. The most important or powerful computer in a typical network (A) Desktop (B) Network client (C) Network server (D) Network station (E) None of these ANS -(C) 12. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into (A) Web sites (B) Information (C) Programs (D) Objects (E) None of these ANS -(C) 13. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage ? (A) GB (B) KB (C) MB (D) TB (E) None of these ANS -(D) 14. Which of the following is an example of connectivity ? (A) Internet (B) Floppy disk (C) Power cord (D) Data (E) None of these ANS -(A) 15. A collection of related file is called a (A) Character (B) Field (C) Database (D) Record (E) None of these ANS -(C)

PAPER : Bank Clerk Marketing and Money Question 2008 1. In which type of account, banks generally don’t pay interest— (A) Saving Account

(B) Current Account (C) Fixed Deposit Account (D) Interest is always payable in all types of account ANS:: B 2. A bank standing order would be suitable for paying— (A) Telephone accounts (B) Electricity accounts (C) Grocery bills (D) Mortgage repayments ANS:: D 3. Payment of a cheque cannot be made on a cash counter of bank if the cheque is— (A) Bearer (B) Cross (C) Order (D) All of these ANS:: B 4. Which of the following is not Commercial Bank? (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) State Bank of India (C) Canara Bank (D) Oriental Bank of Commerce ANS:: A 5. What is the Bank draft ? (A) Letter from the Bank (B) Cheque which a bank draws on itself (C) Instraction to a banker to collect a customer’s debt (D) Instruction not to honour a stop payment ANS:: B 6. The essential characteristic of whatever serves as money is that it must— (A) Be issued by the State (B) Be generally acceptable (C) Not be wholly fiduciary (D) Have some instrinsic value ANS:: B 7. One of the following is not an example of Near-Money, which ? (A) Bill of Exchange (B) Bonds and Debentures

(C) Equity shares of Ranbaxy Company Ltd. (D) Treasury bills of the Government of India ANS:: C 8. ‘Fiat Money’ is that which is— (A) Accepted by overseas banks only (B) Accepted temporarily in lieu of gold (C) Backed by gold or silver (D) Decreed as money by the government ANS:: B 9. Money is— (A) Acceptable only when it has intrinsic value (B) Constant in purchasing power (C) The most liquid of all assets (D) All of the above ANS:: C 10. Greshan’s law states that— (A) Bad money promotes good money in the system (B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation (C) Good money drives bad money out of circulation (D) Good money promotes bad money in the system ANS:: B 11. Value of Money— (A) Is independent of the price level (B) Is directly related to the price level (C) Is inversely related to the price level (D) None of the above ANS:: C 12. Demand pull inflation can be caused by money factors including— (A) A fall in consumption expenditure (B) A sharp increase in unemployment (C) A steep reduction in direct taxation (D) An increase in Income Tax ANS:: C 13. The process of deplation tends to favour— (A) Debtor and Creditiors a like (B) Debtor at the expense of Creditors (C) Creditors at the expense of Debtors

(D) Profit receivers at the expense of fixed income receivers ANS:: C 14. Which of the following statement is not completely true ? (A) An increase in the supply of money will result in inflation (B) Cost inflation occurs when prices rise to cover increased factor costs (C) Inflation occurs when the value of money declines (D) Inflation will have the effect of redistributing incomes within a country ANS:: A 15. Which of the following people is most likely to benefit from an inflationary situation ? (A) A person who buys units from the Unit Trust (B) A person who keeps his savings under the floor at home (C) A person makes a large private loan to a friend (D) A person who takes out a mortgage with a building society ANS:: D 16. The principal liability of a Joint Stock Bank relates to— (A) Its investment abroad (B) Its investment at home (C) Repayment of its customer’s deposits (D) Its requirements to make special deposits when requested ANS:: C 17. Which of the following is not a function of the Commercial Banks ? (A) Acting as a lender of last resort (B) Lending to the private and public sectors (C) The provision of a cheque system for setting debts (D) The provision of safe deposit facilities ANS:: A 18. When the Commercial Bank create credit areas which are in effect and increases— (A) The national debt (B) The supply of money (C) The purchasing power of the rupee (D) The real wealth of the country ANS:: B 19. A customer does not require a bank account to obtain— (A) A Loan (B) A Cheque Card (C) A Banker’s Draft (D) An Overdraft

ANS:: A 20. Which of the following is not a liability of Commercial Banks— (A) Security Holdings (B) Treasury deposit at banks (C) Demand deposits and time deposits (D) Borrowing from Central Bank ANS:: A 21. ‘Not negotiable’ written on a cheque crossing means— (A) The cheque cannot be paid to any one but the payee (B) The cheque is valid only for payment of the transaction for which it is made out (C) An honest person receiving a stolen cheque is liable to repay the rightful owner (D) The cheque must be paid into a bank ANS:: C 22. The Central Bank is not expected to perform the function of— (A) Acting as a clearing house (B) The banker to the government (C) Accepting deposit from Commercial Banks (D) Accepting deposits from general public ANS:: D 23. Increase in bank rates generally is followed by— (A) An increase in market rate of interest (B) A fall in market rates of interest (C) A rise only in the deposits rates but not the lending rates (D) A rise only in the lending rates ANS:: A 24. The major quantitative monetary tool available with the Central Bank is— (A) Retioning of credit (B) Regulation of consumer credit (C) Margin requirements (D) Reserve ratio requirements ANS:: D 25. Bank must refuse payment of a cheque where— (A) Cheque is not dated (B) Where cheque is stale, i.e. date has expired (C) Payment has been stopped by customer (D) The cheque is not presented during working hours of Bank ANS:: C

26. A ‘Stale’ cheque is one that is— (A) Over six months old (B) Converning an overdue payment (C) Cancelled by the drawer (D) Written on an account which is overdrawn ANS:: A 27. When the Central Bank sells securities, as a result— (A) The cash resources at the disposal of the commercial banks increase (B) The cash resources of the commercial banks remain unchanged (C) The cash resources at the disposal of commercial banks get diminished (D) None of the above ANS:: C 28. When a cheque is returned by the bank marked ‘Refer to Drawer’ this means the drawer— (A) Has instructed the bank not to pay the cheque (B) Whishes to be contacted before the cheque is cashed (C) Has improperly completed the cheque and must correct it before payment (D) Had insufficient funds in his account to pay the cheque ANS:: D 29. The current Bank Rate is— (A) 6% (B) 8% (C) 9% (D) 9·5% ANS:: A 30. It has been made compulsory for Non-Banking Financing Companies to get themselves registered with … before July 8, 1997. (A) RBI (B) SEBI (C) Government of India (D) None of the above ANS:: A 31. India ranks number … among the countries with the biggest growth potential in the world according to the latest report of world Economic Forum. (A) Six (B) Five (C) Four

(D) Three ANS:: D 32. Which is the ‘most competitive country’ of the world according to the latest report of world Economic Forum ? (A) Hong Kong (B) Singapore (C) United State of America (D) Netherlands ANS:: B 33. The maximum permissible limit of interest on postshipment rupee credit on demand bills for transit period upto 90 days is— (A) 13% (B) 14% (C) 15% (D) 16% ANS:: A 34. Which of the following statement is correct about India according to the World Bank’s latest calculations ? (A) India’s per capita national wealth is $ 25000 (B) India’s per capita incomeis $ 360 (C) India’s per capita income (according to purchasing power parity) is $ 2390 (D) All of the above ANS:: D 35. Scheduled commercial banks recorded nonperforming assets (NPAs) of … at the end of March 2006-07 against 1·8% during 2005-06. (A) 2·3% (B) 3·3% (C) 1·5% (D) 7·9% ANS:: C 36. Which of the following is not a tool in the hands of RBI to control the inflationary pressure in the country ? (A) Bank Rate (BR) (B) Special Drawing Rights (SDR) (C) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) (D) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) ANS:: B

37. Which of the following is/are included in Legal Tender Money in India ? (A) Coins and currency notes (B) Coins and bank drafts (C) Currency notes and SDRs (D) Currency notes issued by RBI ANS:: A 38. Which of the following is correctly matched? (A) CRR on FCNR (B) Scheme—12% (B) Bank Rate—6% (C) SLR on NRE deposits—31·5% (D) CRR on NRE—13% ANS:: B 39. India’s First Financial Archive has been set up at— (A) Mumbai (B) New Delhi (C) Ahmedabad (D) Kolkata ANS:: D 40. Which of the following Bank merged with Oriented Bank of Commerce ? (A) New Bank of India (B) Punjab Co-operative Bank (C) Bari Doab Bank (D) (B) and (C) both ANS:: D Answers 1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (D)

PAPER : SBI CLERK MODEL PAPER ONLINE NUMERICAL ABILITY

1. Let R = qs—4. When s=8, R=16. When s=10, R is equal toa. 11b. 14c. 20d. 21

Answer-d 3. If 272/3 × 81-1/2 = 3x, the value of x isa. -1b. 0c. 1d. 2 Answer -b

4. 0.333 .... × 0.444 .... is equal to a. 0.148148148 ....b. 0.777 ....c. 0.121212 ....d. 1.333 .... Answer-a 9. On converting the following base-2 numeral in base ten, 1101101, we geta. 96b. 104c. 108d. 109 Answer-d

10. The number of prime factors of (6)10×(7)17×(55)27 a. 54b. 64c. 81d. 91 Answer-d 11. A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds, while it crosses 100 meter long platform in 25 seconds. The length of the train is -a. 125mb. 135 mc. 159 md. 175 m Answer-c 12.Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both the taps are opened simultaneously and the tap A is closed after 3 minutes, then how much more time will it take to fill the tank by tap B?a. 7 min & 15 secb. 7 min & 45 secc. 8 min & 5 secd. 8 min & 15 sec Answer-d 13. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what ratio, the liquids be mixed in both the vessels so that the new liquid contains half milk and half water?a. 7:5b. 1:2c. 2:1d. 6:5

Answer-a 14.A car covers a distance of 715 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the car would have been 10 km/hr more, then it would have taken 2 hours less to cover the same distance. What is the original speed of the car?a. 45 km/hrb. 50 km/hrc. 55 km/hrd. 65 km/hr Answer-c 15.A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C alone does the work in 40 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in Answer-a 16. A person covered some distance in 12 hours. He covered half the distance by rail @ 75 km per hour and the rest by car @ 45 km/hr. The total distance covered by him wasa. 450 kmb. 675 kmc. 337.5 kmd. 1350 km Answer-b 17. A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times A's share, 4 times B's share and 7 times C's share are all equal. The share of C isa. Rs. 84b. Rs. 147c. Rs. 196d. Rs. 240 Answer-a 18. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 12000 and Rs. 9000 respectively. After 3 months C also joined them with a capital of Rs. 15000. The share of C in the half yearly profit of Rs. 9500 isa. Rs. 3500b. Rs. 3000c. Rs. 2500d. Rs. 4000 Answer-c 19.A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do it in 18 days. They started the work together but A left 3 days before the completion of the work. The total number of days to complete the work is Answer-b

20.The ratio of income of A and B is 5:4 and their expenditure is as 3:2. If at the end of the year, each saves Rs. 800, then the income of A is a. Rs. 1700b. Rs. 1800c. Rs. 2000d. Rs. 2200 Answer-c 21.A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked at it for 10 days together and then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 30 more days. B alone can finish the work in a. 48 daysb. 60 daysc. 75 daysd. 90 days Answer-d 22.The ratio between the curved surface area and the total surface area of a right circular cylinder is 1:2. If the total surface is 616 sq. cm, the volume of the cylinder isa. 1848 cm3b. 1232 cm3c. 1078 cm3d. 980 cm3 Answer-c 23.A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle isa. 30 cmb. 60 cmc. 72 cmd. 108 cm Answer-b 24.A man walking at the rate of 6km per hour crosses a square field diagonally in 9 seconds. The area of the field is-a. 125 sq. cmb. 112.5 sq. cmc. 110 sq. cmd. 100√2 sq. m Answer-b 25.A rectangular carpet has an area of 240 sq. cm. If its diagonal and the longer side are together equal to five times the shorter side, the length of the carpet is -a. 10 cmb. 24 cmc. 26 cmd. 27.5 cmAnswer-b26.The ratio of 435 : 25 is same asa. 4 : 1b. 2 :1c. 7 : 5d. 7 :10 Answer-a 27. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cube isa. √π : √6b. √π : √6c. √π : √3d. √6 : √π Answer-d

28.The marked price of a table is Rs. 3000 and is available at successive discounts of 20% and 10% respectively. If there is an additional discount of 5% on cash payment, then what is the cash price of the table?a. Rs. 2400b. Rs. 2160c. Rs. 2100d. Rs. 2052 Answer-d 29.A trader marks his goods 25% above the C.P. but discounts 15% on the marked price. His gain percent in the deal isAnswer-b 30. A certain sum becomes Rs. 5290 in 2 years and Rs. 6083.50 in 3 years at C.I. The rate of interest per annum is -a. 10%b. 12%c. 15%d. 16⅔ % Answer-c 31.A person borrowed Rs. 500@ 3% per annum S.I and Rs. 600 @4½% per annum on the agreement that the whole amount will be returned only when the total interest becomes Rs. 126. The number of years, after which the borrowed sum is to be returned, isa. 2b. 3c. 4d. 5 Answer-b 32.A sum of Rs. 12,000 doubles in 5 years at C.I. What will be the amount after 20 years?a. Rs. 1,20,000b. Rs. 1,92,000c. Rs. 1,24,000d. Rs. 96,000 Answer-b 33. A person sold 320 mangoes for the C.P. of 400 mangoes. His gain percent isa. 10%b. 15%c. 12½%d. 25% Answer-d

34.On selling each of the rwo radios for Rs. 5000, a person neither gained nor lost. If he had sold one radio at 25% gain, then at what percent loss did he sell the other radio? Answer-a

35. A person bought some oranges @ Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same amount of oranges @ Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges @ Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs. 120. The total number of oranges bought by him was -a. 30 dozenb. 40 dozenc. 50 dozend. 60 dozen Answer-d 36.On selling a certain commodity for Rs. 425, there is as much gain as loss on selling it for Rs. 355. The C.P. of the commodity isa. Rs. 370b. Rs. 385c. Rs. 390d. Rs. 400 Answer-c 37.A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is increased by 5% then the amount will increase toa. Rs. 950b. Rs. 980c. Rs. 1010d. Rs. 1040 Answer-d 38.Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number isa. 24b. 36c. 17d. 72 Answer-d 39.A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 25 kg of paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in 2kg tins, the number of tins required for painting the house is -a. 15b. 12c. 10d. 20 Answer-a 40.Price of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the ratio of an employee's expenditure on food grains and other items is 2:5, by how much should his salary be increased so that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, assuming that his present salary is Rs. 3500?a. Rs. 300b. Rs. 350c. Rs. 375d. Rs. 475 Answer-d PAPER : State Bank of India Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam 2008 Solved Paper Quantitative Aptitude

Directions—(Q. 81–90) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ? 81. (8.2% of 365) – (1.75% of 108) = ? (A) 16.02 (B) 28.04 (C) 42.34 (D) 53.76 (E) None of these

82. [(135)2 ÷ 15 ´ 32] ÷ ? = 45 ´ 24 (A) 18 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 44 (E) None of these

83. (96)2 + (63)2 = (?)2 – (111)2 – 8350 (A) 33856 (B) 30276 (C) 174 (D) 184 (E) None of these

84. 4368 + 2158 – 596 – ? = 3421 + 1262 (A) 1066 (B) 1174 (C) 1247 (D) 1387 (E) None of these

85. 2172 ÷ ? = 1832 – 956 – 514 (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12 (E) None of these

86. 666.06 + 66.60 + 0.66 + 6.06 + 6 + 60 = ? (A) 819.56 (B) 805.38 (C) 826.44 (D) 798.62 (E) None of these

87. 15.594 – 4.312 – 3.517 – 1.689 = ?

(A) 6.706 (B) 6.760 (C) 6.670 (D) 6.607 (E) None of these

88. 205 ´ ? ´ 13 = 33625 + 25005 (A) 22 (B) 27 (C) 33 (D) 39 (E) None of these

89. 69 ÷ 3 ´ 0.85 + 14.5 – 3 = ? (A) 36.45 (B) 23.85 (C) 42.95 (D) 18.65 (E) None of these

90. (10)24 ´ (10)– 21 = ? (A) 3 (B) 10 (C) 100 (D) 1000 (E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 91–95) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ? 91. 12 6.5 7.5 12.75 27.5 71.25 ? (A) 225.75 (B) 216.75 (C) 209.75 (D) 236.75 (E) 249.75

92. 16 24 36 54 81 121.5 ? (A) 182.25 (B) 174.85 (C) 190.65 (D) 166.55 (E) 158.95

93. 12 12 18 45 180 1170 ? (A) 13485 (B) 14675

(C) 15890 (D) 16756 (E) 12285

94. 22 23 27 36 52 77 ? (A) 111 (B) 109 (C) 113 (D) 117 (E) 115

95. 16 14 24 66 256 1270 ? (A) 8564 (B) 5672 (C) 4561 (D) 7608 (E) 6340

Directions—(Q. 96–100) Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow — Number of Boys and Girls in Five Streams of a College Over the Years STREAMS YEAR Arts Science Commerce Management IT Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls 2002 556 414 619 505 668 612 770 633 670 515 2003 763 608 793 612 781 616 667 439 866 722 2004 672 519 540 516 859 713 778 727 781 619 2005 809 602 928 908 870 811 849 729 977 817 2006 745 510 884 820 967 819 562 938 990 808 2007 698 413 765 616 571 515 1288 1016 1151 1010

96. What is the total number of Boys, for all the Streams together, in the year 2004 ? (A) 4148 (B) 3630 (C) 4433 (D) 3247 (E) None of these

97. The number of Boys in Arts Stream in the year 2004 is approximately what per cent of the total number of Boys for all the years together in Arts Stream ? (A) 27 (B) 34

(C) 08 (D) 39 (E) 16

98. What is the ratio of the total number of Boys to the total number of Girls, from all the Stream together, for the year 2007 ? (A) 2 : 3 (B) 14 : 13 (C) 52 : 49 (D) 213 : 170 (E) None of these

99. What is the ratio of the total number of Boys to the total number of Girls in the Management Stream for all the years together ? (A) 9 : 8 (B) 71 : 86 (C) 91 : 83 (D) 27 : 23 (E) None of these

100. What is the average number of Girls from Commerce Stream for the given years ? (A) 681 (B) 675 (C) 618 (D) 657 (E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 101–105) What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 101. (935.82)2 = ? (A) 870000 (B) 867500 (C) 888800 (D) 875800 (E) 899800

102. 628.306 + 6.1325 ´ 44.0268 = ? (A) 820 (B) 970 (C) 1050 (D) 1175 (E) 900

103. (739% of 383) ÷ 628 = ?

(A) 10.00 (B) 4.50 (C) 15.75 (D) 19.25 (E) 24.15

104. (9795 + 7621 + 938) ÷ (541 + 831 + 496) = ? (A) 9 (B) 13 (C) 17 (D) 23 (E) 29

105. 814296 ´ 36 = ? ´ 96324 (A) 326 (B) 272 (C) 304 (D) 358 (E) 260

Directions—(Q. 106–110) Study the infor-mation carefully to answer the following questions— In an organization consisting of 750 emp-loyees, the ratio of Males to Females is 8 : 7 respectively. All the employees work in five different departments viz. HR, Management, PR, IT and Recruitment. 16 per cent of the Females work in Management Department. 32 per cent of Males are in HR Department. One–fifth of the Females are in the Department of Recruitment. The ratio of Males to Females in the Management Department is 3 : 2 respectively. 20 per cent of the total number of employees are in PR Department. Females working in Recruitment are 50 per cent of the Males working in the same Department. 8 per cent of the Males are in IT Department. The remaining Males are in PR Department. 22 per cent of the Females work in HR Department and the remaining Females are working in IT Department.

106. What is the total number of Females working in the IT and Recruitment Department together ? (A) 147 (B) 83 (C) 126 (D) 45 (E) None of these

107. What is the number of Females working in the HR Department ? (A) 77 (B) 70

(C) 56 (D) 134 (E) None of these

108. Number of Males working in HR Depart-ment from approximately what per cent of total number of the employees in the Organization ? (A) 20 (B) 28 (C) 32 (D) 9 (E) 17

109. Number of Males working in PD Department forms what per cent of the number of Females working in the same Department ? (rounded off two digits after decimal) (A) 22.98 (B) 16.68 (C) 11.94 (D) 6.79 (E) 27.86

110. What is the total number of employees working in the Management Department ? (A) 128 (B) 77 (C) 210 (D) 140 (E) None of these

111. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 19,800. At the end of three years is Rs. 7,128. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period ? (A) Rs. 8934.6784 (B) Rs. 8017.5744 (C) Rs. 7861.8754 (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these

112. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 400% and the denominator is increased by 500%, the resultant fraction is 1021 . What was the original fraction ? (A) 512 (B) 813 (C) 1714 (D) 47 (E) None of these

113. What is 26% of 55% of 1013 th of 6100 ? (A) 617 (B) 681 (C) 706 (D) 734 (E) None of these

114. The ages of Aarzoo and Arnav are in the ratio of 11 : 13 respectively. After 7 years the ratio of their ages will be 20 : 23. What is the difference in years between their ages ? (A) 4 years (B) 7 years (C) 6 years (D) 5 years (E) None of these

115. One-eighth of a number is 17.25. What will 73% of that number be ? (A) 100.74 (B) 138.00 (C) 96.42 (D) 82.66 (E) None of these

Direction—(Q. 116–120) Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow— Number of Girls Enrolled in Different Hobby Classes in Various Institutes in a Year 116. What is the respective ratio of total number of Girls Enrolled in Painting in the Institutes A and C together to those Enrolled in Stitching in the Institutes D and E together ? (A) 5 : 4 (B) 5 : 7 (C) 16 : 23 (D) 9 : 8 (E) None of these

117. Number of Girls Enrolled in Stitching in Institute B forms approximately what per cent of the total number of Girls Enrolled in Stitching in all the Institutes together ? (A) 29 (B) 21 (C) 33 (D) 37 (E) 45

118. What is the respecive ratio of total number of Girls Enrolled in Painting, Stitching and Dancing from all the Institutes together ?

(A) 44 : 48 : 47 (B) 43 : 47 : 48 (C) 44 : 47 : 48 (D) 47 : 48 : 44 (E) None of these

119. Number of Girls Enrolled in Dancing in Institute A forms what per cent of total number of Girls Enrolled in all the Hobby Classes together in that Institute ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) (A) 23.87 (B) 17.76 (C) 31.23 (D) 33.97 (E) 20.69

120. What is the total number of Girls Enrolled in Painting from all the Institutes together ? (A) 1150 (B) 1200 (C) 1275 (D) 1100 (E) None of these Answers with Explanation : 81. (B) ? = (8·2% of 365) – (1·75% of 108) = 365 ´ – 108 ´ = 29·93 – 1·89 = 28.04 Ans. 82. (C) ? = [(135)2 ÷ 15 ´ 32] ÷ (24 ´ 45) = ÷ (1080) = = 36 Ans. 83. (D) ?2 = (96)2 + (63)2 + (111)2 + 8350 = 9216 + 3969 + 12321 + 8350 = 33856 = (184)2 ? = 184 Ans. 84. (C) ? = 4368 + 2158 – 596 – 3421 – 1262 = 6526 – 5279 = 1247 Ans. 85. (A) 2172 ÷ ? = 1832 – 956 – 514 \?== = 6 Ans. 86. (B) ? = 666·06 + 66·60 + 0·66 + 6·06 + 6 + 60 = 805·56 Ans.

87. (E) ? = 15·594 – 4·312 – 3·517 – 1·689 = 15·594 – 9·518 = 6·076 Ans. 88. (A) ? = = = 22 Ans. 89. (E) ? = 69 ÷ 3 ´ 0·85 + 14·5 – 3 = 23 ´ 0·85 + 14·5 – 3 = 19·55 + 14·50 – 3 = 34·05 – 3 = 31·05 Ans. 90. (D) ? = (10)24 ´ (10)– 21 = (10)24 – 21 = (10)3 = 1000 Ans. 91. (B) 92. (A) 93. (E) 94. (C) 95. (D) 96. (B) Total no. of boys for all streams in 2004 = 672 + 540 + 859 + 778 + 781 = 3630 Ans. 97. (E) Reqd. Percentage =% = % = 15·84% 16% (Approximate) Ans. 98. (D) Reqd. Ratio = (698 + 765 + 571 + 1288 + 1151) : (413 + 616 + 515 + 1016 + 1010) = (4473) : (3570) = = 213 : 170 Ans. 99. (C) Reqd. Ratio = (770 + 667 + 778 + 849 + 562 + 1288) : (633 + 439 + 727 + 729 + 938 + 1016) = (4914) : (4482) = (91 ´ 54) : (83 ´ 54) = 91 : 83 Ans. 100. (A) Average number of girls from Commerce Stream for the given years = = = 681 Ans. 101. (d) ? = (935·82)2 = 875759·0724 875800 (Approximate) Ans.

102. (E) ? = 628·306 + 6·1325 ´ 44·0268 628 + 6 ´ 44 628 + 264 900 (Approximate) Ans. 103. (B) ? = (739% of 383) ÷ 628 = 2830·37 ÷ 628 4·50 (Approximate) Ans. 104. (A) ? = (9795 + 7621 + 938) ÷ (541 + 831 + 496) = (18354) ÷ (1868) = 9·825 9 (Approximate) Ans. 105. (C) ? = = 304·33 304 (Approximate) Ans. For questions 106 to 110 The data in the following table are based on the given information for these questions— Department Male Female Total H.R. 400 = 128 350 ´ = 77 205 Manage-ment 56 ´ = 84 350 ´ = 56 140 P.R. 400 – (128 + 84 + 32 + 140) = 400 – 384 = 16 150 – 16 = 134 750 ´ = 150 I.T. 400 ´ = 32 350 – (77 + 56 + 134 + 70) = 350 – 337 = 13 45

Recruitment 2 ´ 70 = 140 350 ´ = 70 210 Total 400 350 750 106. (B) Total No. of Females in I.T. and Recruit-ment Deptt. = 13 + 70 = 83 Ans. 107. (A) Number of females in H.R. Department = 22% of 350 = ´ 350 = 77 Ans. 108. (E) Required Percentage = ´ 100% = 17·06% = 17% (Approximate) Ans. 109. (C) Reqd. Percentage = ´ 100% = 11·94 Ans. 110. (D) Total number of employees in the Mana-gement = 84 + 56 = 140 Ans. 111. (B) Let the annual rate of interest = R%, Then as per question— ˙.˙ 7128 = Þ R = = 12% Reqd. Compound Interest = 19800 = 19800 = 19800 = = Rs. 8017·5744 Ans. 112. (d) Let the original fraction be . Then = Þ= = = Ans. 113. (e) Given Exp. = 26% of 55% of th of 6100 = ´ ´ ´ 6100 = 2 ´ ´ 10 ´ 61

= 11 ´ 61 = 671 Ans. 114. (c) Let the ages of Aarzoo and Arnav are 11x and 13x years Then, as per question— ˙.˙ = Þ 260x + 140 = 253x + 161 Þ (260 – 253)x = 161 – 140 Þ 7x = 21 x=3 Reqd. difference in years between their ages = 13x – 11x = 2 ´ 3 = 6 years Ans. 115. (a) Let the required number be x. ˙.˙ ´ x = 17·25 Þ x = 17·25 ´ 8 = 138 73% of the number = ´ 138 = 100·74 Ans. 116. (c) Reqd. Ratio = = = = 16 : 23 Ans. 117. (b) Reqd. Percentage =% = % = 20·83% 21% (app.) Ans. 118. (a) Reqd. Ratio = (Girls Enrolled in Painting) : (Stitching) : (Pancing) = (250 + 225 + 150 + 175 + 300) : (325 + 250 + 50 + 250 + 325) : (150 + 200 + 75 + 400 + 350) = (1100) : (1200) : (1175) = 44 : 48 : 47 Ans. 119. (e) Reqd. Percentage = % = % = 20·689% 20·69% Ans. 120. (d) Total number of girls enrolled in Painting from all the institutes = 250 + 225 + 150 + 175 + 300 = 1100 Ans.

PAPER : SBI CURRENT AFFAIRS 2008 QUESTIONS ANSWERS 1. WHO IS THE PRESENT CHAIRMAN OF CII ? ANS- K.V.KAMATH1 2. WHAT IS THE FULLFORM OF "BRIC" ? ANS- BRAZIL,RUSSIA ,INDIA,CHINA 3. WHICH FILM HAS BAGGED THE BEST MOVIE AWARDS IN IIFA AWARDS WHICH WAS HELD IN BANGKOK ? ANS- CHAK DE INDIA (YASH CHOPRA) 4. WHO IS THE WINNER OF FRENCH OPEN 2008 MEN'S TITLE ? ANS- RAFAEL NADAL 5. WHO IS THE WINNER OF DLF IPL CRICKET TOUNAMENT 2008 ? ANS- RAJASTHAN ROYALS 6. NATIONAL HUMAN RIGHTS COMMISSION CHAIRMAN? ANS- JUSTICE RAJENDRA BABU 7. WHO IS THE INDIAN HOCKEY COACH ? ANS- JOKIM KARVALO 8. WHICH FILM HAS BAGGED THE BEST FILM OF GOLDEN PALM AWARD IN CANNES FILM FESTIVAL 2008 ? ANS- ENTRE LES MURS (THE CLASS) 9. WHO IS THE winner of IIFA Best Actor award 2008 ? ANS- SHAHRUKH KHAN (CHAK DE INDIA) 10.WHO IS THE CHIEF OF INDIAN AIR FORCE ? ANS- FALI HOMI MAJOR 11.WHO IS THE MISS UNIVERSE INDIA 2008 ? ANS- SIMARAN KAUR MUNDI 12.WHO IS THE Miss INDIA WORLD 2008 ANS- PARVATHY OMNAKUTTAN 13.VENUE OF 15TH SAARC SUMMIT 2008? ANS- COLOMBO (SRI LANKA) 14.WHO GOT DADA SAHEB PHALKE RATNA AWARD 2008? ANS- B.R.CHOPRA 15.WHO IS THE WINNER OF WORLD CUP CRICKET 2007 ? ANS- AUSTRALIA 16.WHO IS THE WORLD CUP CRICKET 2007 RUNNER UP ? ANS- SRI LANKA 17.WHO IS THE WINNER OF FRENCH OPEN 2008 WOMENS TITLE ? ANS- Ana Ivanovic

18.WHO COMPLETED 16000 RUNS IN ODI RECENTLY ? ANS- SACHIN TENDULKAR 19.WHO IS THE PRESIDENT OF RUSSIA ? ANS-DMITRI MEDWEDEV 20.WHO IS THE PRIME MINISTER OF RUSSIA ? ANS- VLADIMIR PUTIN 21.WHO IS THE WORLD BANK PRESIDENT ? ANS- ROBERT ZOELLICK 22.INDIA HAS SUCCESSFULLY TEST FIRED AGNI III IN THE MONTH OF MAY 2008. WHICH TYPE OF MISSILE BELONGS TO AGNI III ANS - SURFACE TO SURFACE INTERMEDIATE RANGE BALLISTIC MISSILE PAPER : SBI CLERK COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ SBI BANK CLERK COMPUTER QUIZ Objective 10 questions 1. Why the document you created at home displays with a different font at school? Because you have a different printer at school than at home Because you have a different monitor at school than at home font you used at home is not installed on your school computer Because the version of Windows is different

2. Which keyboard shortcut centers selected text? Ctrl+C Alt+C There is no keyboard shortcut for this operation Ctrl+E

3. What is the default file extension for all Word documents? TXT WRD FIL DOC

4. Which key moves your cursor from one cell to the next in a table? Tab Shift Enter Ctrl+Enter

5. How many different documents can you have open at one time? No more that three Only one As many as your computer memory will hold No more than your Taskbar can display

6. In order to email a Word document from within Word:

Go to File/Send To/Mail Recipient Save the file as an email attachment Start Outlook and attach the file while open in Word. This is an impossible operation

7. Which keystroke will take you at the beginning or the end of a long document? Ctrl+PageUp and Ctrl+PageDown Shift+Home and Shift+End Ctrl+Home and Ctrl+End The only way is by using the right scroll bar

8. How many margins are on a page? Two (header and footer) Four (top, bottom, right, left) Two (landscape and Portrait) Two (top and bottom)

9.In order to save a Word document as a web page you need to: Put the appropriate graphics and links on the document Save the document in simple text format Use your web browser as an editor and save as URL Save as HTML

10. A document in portrait prints: The same characters per line with the same document in landscape More characters per line than the same document in landscape Less characters per line than the same document in landscape Smaller fonts in order to fit the same amount of characters per line with landscape PAPER : SBI BANK CLERK GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 10 1. The Sir C.V .Raman award for 2008 has been awarded to – M.Natarajan Sanjeev Ramchandra Inamdar Prof. G.Venkatraman Dr. Naresh Trehan 2. The 2007 FIFA Woman player of the year is – Birgit Prinz Christiane Marta Sania Mirza 3. The Mascot of the 2008 Olympic Games is-

Fuwa Izz Cobi 4. Which among the following States would observe 2008 as the‘Year of Education’ ? Uttar Pradesh Haryana Bihar Karnataka 5. Who has written “Superstar India : From Incredible to unstopable” ? Shobha De Kiran Desai Arundhati Roy Khushwant Singh 6. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007 ? Priya Ranjan Das Munshi Mani Shankar Aiyyar P.Chidambaram Sushama Swaraj 7. Fernando Lugo’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the president of Paraguay Sudan Afghanistan Pakistan 8. ISRO has launched successfully ten satellites through PSLV-C9 on 15th March,2008 30th March,2008 28th April,2008 4th May,2008 9. Which country will be host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ?

Maldives Sri Lanka India Pakistan

10. Who among the following has been chosen the Miss India Universe for the year 2008 ? Parvathy Omanakuttan Simaran Kaur Mundi Amrita Thapar Tanvi Vyas

PAPER : SBI Clerk Reasoning Sample Paper 1 In a certain code RIPPLE is written as 613382 & LIFE is written as 8192. How is PILLER written in that code ? (a) 318826 (b) 318286 (c) 618826 (d) 328816 (e) none of these 2 If GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, How is GATE coded? (a) 5427 (b) 5724 (c) 5247 (d) 2547 (e) None of these 3 If PALE, is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590 , how is PEARL coded in that code? (a) 29530 (b) 24153 (c) 25413 (d) 25430 (e) None of these 4 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded as 931785 , then state which is the correct code for the SEDATE (a) 918731 (b) 954185 (c) 814195 (d) 614781 (e) None of these 5 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded as 931785, then state which is the correct code for the ENDEAR (a) 524519 (b) 174189 (c) 128174 (d) 124179 (e) 164983

6 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 , how is COACH coded in that language (a) 38137 (b) 49148 (c) 48246 (d) 49145 (e) none of these 7 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 , how is COLLER coded in that language (a) 397749 (b) 497758 (c) 483359 (d) 493376 (e) none of these 8 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 , how is MECHRALE coded in that language (a) 95378165 (b) 25378195 (c) 27456137 (d) 27386195 (e) none of these 9 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what will be the code for DISTANT ? (a) 3765485 (b) 4798165 (c) 3697185 (d) 4768296 (e) none of these 10 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what will be the code for NEMISES ? (a) 7598656 (b) 8597656 (c) 8297626 (d) 435985 (e) none of these 11 If ROPE is coded as 6821 & CHAIR is coded as 73456, then what will be the code for CRAPE? (a) 73456 (b) 76421 (c) 77246 (d) 77123 (e) None of these 12 In a certain code, 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is written as ALUR. How is 23549 written in that code ? (a) ALEUT (b) ALGTU (c) ALGUT (d) ALGRT (e) None of these 13 In a certain code, a number 13479 is written as AQFJL and 5268 is written as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code? (a) QLPNKJ (b) QLPNMF (c) QLPMNF (d) QLPNDF (e) None of these In a certain language 36492 is written as SMILE and 058 is written as RUN, How are the following figures coded in that language ?

Q:14 33980 (a) SSLNR (b) SSLRN (c) SLSNR (d) SLNRS (e) None of these 15 6458 (a) MUIN (b) MINU (c) INUM (d) MIUN (e) IUMN 16 92486 (a) LEIMN (b) ELINR (c) LEINM (d) EILNM (e) LIENM 17 54324 (a) SIUEI (b) UISEI (c) USIIE (d) UISIE (e) SUEII 18 90089 (a) NLLRN (b) LRLNN (c) LLRRN (d) LRRNL (e) RLLNN 19 3425 (a) SEIU (b) SIUE (c) SRUI (d) RUSI (e) SIEU 20 29463 (a) ELISM (b) ELIMS (c) LIMSE (d) EILMS (e) None of these 21 If in a certain language PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 & RISK is coded as 2398, How is RIVETS coded in that language? (a) 687543 (b) 234769 (c) 496321 (d) 246598 (e) None of these. 22 If PLAY is coded as 8123 &RHYME is coded as 49367, How is MALE coded as ? (a) 6217 (b) 6198 (c) 6395 (d) 6285 (e) None of these 23 In a certain code language 24685 is written as 33776. How is 35791 written in that code.

(a) 44882 (b) 44880 (c) 46682 (d) 44682 (e) None of these. 24 In a certain code language 35796 is written as 44887. How is 35791 written in that code (a) 57914 (b) 55914 (c) 5934 (d) 5714 (e) None of these. 25 If MINJUR is coded as 312547 & TADA as 6898, How can MADURAI be coded as? (a) 3498178 (b) 3894871 (c) 384971 (d) 3894781 (e) None of these. ANSWER SHEET 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 acbacddcacbcbad 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 cbdebbaabd

Answers With Explantion :1. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. P as 3, I as 1, L as 8, E as 2, & R as 6. So, PILLER is coded as 318826. 2. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. G as 5, A as 2, T as 4 & E as 7. So GATE is coded as 5247. 3. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. p AS 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5, & L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153. 4. S is coded as 9, E as 1, D as 8, A as 7 & T as 3. So SEDATE is coded as 918731. 5. E is coded as 1, N as 2, D as 8, A as 7 & R as 4. So ENDEAR is coded as 128174. 6. C is coded as 4, O as 9, A as 1 & H as 5. 7. C is code as 4, O as 9, L as 3, E as 7, & R as 6. So, COLLER is coded as 493376. 8. M is coded as 2, E as 7, C as 4, H as 5, R as 6, A as 1 & L as 3. So, MECHRALE is coded as 27456137. 9. D is coded as 3, I as 7, S as 6, T as 5, A as 4, & N as 8. So the DISTANT is coded as 3765485. 10. N is coded as 8, E as 2, M as 9, I as 7 & S as 6. So NEMISES is coded as 8297626. 11. C is coded as 7, R as 6, A as 4, P as 2, & E as 1. So CRAPE is coded as 76421. 12. 2 is coded as A, 3 as L, 5 as G, 4 as U & 9 as T. So 23549 is coded as ALGUT. 13. 3 is coded as Q, 9 as L, 6 as P, 8 as N, 2 as M & 4 as F. So 396824 is coded as QLPNMF.

14. 3 is coded as S, 9 as L, 8 as N & 0 as R. So 33980 is coded as SSLNR. 15. 6 is coded as M, 4 as 1, 5 as U & 8 as N. So 6458 is coded as MIUN. 16. 9 is coded as L, 2 as E, 4 as I, 8 as N, & 6 as M. So, 92486 is coded as LEINM. 17. 5 is coded U, 4 as I, 3 as S & 2 as E. So 54324 is coded as UISEI. 18. 9 is coded as L, 0 as R & 8 as N. So, 90089 is coded as LRRNL. 19. 3 is coded as S, 4 as I, 2 as E & 5 as U. So 3425 is coded as SIEU. 20. 2 is coded as E, 9 as L, 4 as I, 6 as M & 3 as S. So, 29463 is coded as ELIMS. 21. R is coded as 2, I as 3, V as 4, E as 7, T as 6 & S as 9. So, RIVETS is coded as 234769. 22. Here M is coded as 6 , A is coded as 2 , L is coded as 1 , E is coded as 7 , therefore male is coded as 6217 23. In the code the letters at odd places are one place ahead & those at even places are one place before the corresponding letter in the word. So in 35791, 3is written as 4, 5 as 4,7 as 8, 9 as 8 & 1 as 0. The code becomes 44880. 24. 4 will be written as 5, 5 as 6, 8 as 9, 2 as 1, 3 as 4. So the code is 5914. 25. Code is M as 3, A as 8, D as 9, U as 4, R as, 7 & I as 1. So, MADHRI is coded as 3894781.

PAPER : SBI Clerical Staff Selection - Model Questions and Answers General English Directions—(Q. 41–55) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

A large majority of the poor in India are outside the formal banking system. The policy of financial inclusion sets out to remedy this by making available a basic banking ‘no frills’ account either with nil or very minimum balances as well as charges that would make such accounts accessible to vast sections of the population. However, the mere opening of a bank account in the name of every household or adult person may not be enough, unless these accounts and financial services offered to them are used by the account holders. At present, commercial banks do not find it viable to provide services to the poor especially in the rural areas because of huge transaction costs, low volumes of savings in the accounts, lack of information on the account holder, etc. For the poor, interacting with the banks with their paper work, economic costs of going to the bank and the need for flexibility in their accounts, make them turn to other informal channels or other institutions. Thus, there are constraints on both the supply and the demand side.

Till now, banks were looking at these accounts from a purely credit perspective. Instead, they should look at this from the point of view of meeting the huge need of the poor for savings. Poor households want to save and contrary to the common perception, do have the funds to save, but lack control. Informal mutual saving systems like the Rotating Savings and Credit Associations (ROSCAs), widespread in Africa and ‘thrift and credit groups’ in India demonstrate that poor households save. For the poor household, which lacks access to the formal insurance system and the credit system, savings provide a safety net and help them tide over crises. Savings can also keep them away from the clutches of moneylenders, make formal institutions more favourable to lending to them, encourage investment and make them shift to more productive activities, as they may invest in slightly more risky activities which have an overall higher rate of return.

Research shows the efficacy of informal institutions in increasing the savings of the small account holders. An MFI in the Philippines, which had existing account holders, was studied. They offered new products with ‘commitment features’. One type had withdrawal restrictions in the sense that it required individuals to restrict their right to withdraw any funds from their own accounts until they reached a self-specified and documented goal. The other type was deposit options. Clients could purchase a locked box for a small fee. The key was with the bank and the client has to bring the box to the bank to make the deposit. He could not dip into the savings even if he wanted to. These accounts did not pay extra money and were illiquid. Surprisingly, these products were popular even though these had restrictions. Results showed that those who opted for these accounts with restrictions had substantially greater savings rates than those who did not. The policy of financial inclusion can be a success if financial inclusion focuses on both saving needs and credit needs, having a diversified product portfolio for the poor but recognising that self-control problems need to be addressed by having commitment devices. The products with commitment features should be optional. Furthermore transaction costs for the poor could be cut down, by making innovative use of technology available and offering mobile vans with ATM and deposit collection features which could visit villages periodically.

41. What is the aim of the financial inclusion policy ? (A) A focus on savings needs rather than credit needs of the poor (B) Minimising utilisation of technology in banks so as to reduce transaction costs for the poor (C) To boost low savings volumes in banks by encouraging savings among the rural poor

(D) To make formal basic banking services available to the poor (E) To regulate the rate at which moneylenders lend to the poor 42. The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to— (A) Criticise the concept of financial inclusion (B) Point out the problems of financial inclusion (C) Discuss ways of making the financial inclusion policy successful (D) Compare financial inclusion policies of different countries (E) Cite research in support of role of MFIs in achieving financial inclusion 43. Which of the following can be inferred about products with commitment features ? 1. Demand for such products was high. 2. They were an effective means of increasing the savings of small account holders. 3. Such facilities can only be offered by informal institutions like MFIs. (A) All 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Both 1 and 3 (E) None of these 44. Why do the poor not utilise banking services ? 1. Informal institutions offer higher rates of interest than those in banks. 2. Costs of reaching banks have to be borne by the poor. 3. Bank personnel do not treat the poor respectfully because their savings amounts are minimal. (A) Only 2 (B) Both 1 and 2 (C) Both 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2, and 3 (E) None of these 45. Which of the following is a recommendation made by the author regarding financial inclusion ? (A) Reduce the paper work involved by seeking less information about the account holder (B) Lower transaction costs by utilising latest technology. (C) Make commitment features compulsory for all savings accounts (D) Entrust the responsibility of financial inclusion solely to MFIs (E) Provide credit facilities even to those without savings accounts

46. Which of the following factors affects ‘saving’ behaviour among the poor 1. Threats from moneylenders if they avail of banking services. 2. Documentation required before availing of banking services.

3. Lack of self-control. (A) Only 1 (B) All 1, 2 and 3 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 2 and 3 (E) None of these

47. What do the results of the study conducted in the Philippines indicate ? (A) Account holders in MFIs have higher savings rates than banks (B) Many of the poor have to turn to moneylenders because of strict restrictions in MFIs (C) Having accounts with restriction on withdrawal requires the bank to offer a higher rate of interest (D) There should be strong security measures for deposit option accounts for the poor (E) None of these

48. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ? (A) There are no informal means for the poor to save in India (B) Having savings encourages the poor to invest only in low risk ventures (C) There is a huge demand for savings facilities among poor households (D) Presently commercial banks feel that it is feasible to provide banking services to the poor in rural areas (E) There are many official innovative savings systems like roscas in Africa

49. What is/are the outcome(s) of encouraging savings for the poor ? 1. It frees them from the exploitation of moneylenders. 2. Banks are more willing to disburse loans to those who save. 3. They should invest in risky but high return ventures. (A) Only 1 (B) Both 1 and 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these

50. What was the view of banks regarding the bank accounts of the poor in the past ? (A) They were considered a problem since account holders information needed to be updated constantly (B) Focus should be more on providing savings facilities not credit

(C) Moneylenders should be regulated so that they share responsibility of disbursing loans to the poor (D) Products with commitment features will not be successful (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 51–53) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

51. purely : (A) morally (B) honestly (C) completely (D) perfectly (E) cleanly

52. demonstrate : (A) protest (B) occur (C) estimate (D) appear (E) prove

53. remedy : (A) medicine (B) solve (C) restore (D) therapy (E) heal Directions—(Q. 54-55) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

54. optional : (A) voluntary (B) compromise (C) pressure

(D) mandatory (E) free

55. accessible : (A) convenient (B) unavailable (C) unfavourable (D) unpleasant (E) formal Directions—(Q. 56–65) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any). 56. The scheme failed because / some states could not / manage not to raise / the necessaryfunds. No error. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 57. Real estate prices in the / business district of the city / are expected to rise / at 15% this year. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 58. By so early as next year / that leading investment bank / has plans to open / an office in New Delhi. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 59. There is lots of / supports from the employees / for the proposal to / merge with the parent company. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 60. Experts have recommended that / the government reconsidered / restrictions imposed on foreign / investment in real estate. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 61. The crucial point to / be discussed at the / meetings is how to / well implement the policy.No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 62. He wants to / set up a laboratory / to undertake research / into a vaccine for cancer. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

63. According to him / two factors which are / needy for success / are discipline and diligence. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 64. Because of the pace at / which the company is growing / I believe it will easily / achieve their target. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 65. It is truth / that India is / the largest consumer of / gold in the world. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Directions—(Q. 66–70) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer. 66. The bank is overstaffed, has led to low productivity. (A) Led to (B) Will lead towards (C) And has led in (D) Which has led to (E) No correction required 67. You delay in taking a decision conveys a negative impression. (A) You delay to take (B) If you delay taking (C) Your delay in taking (D) To delay by taking (E) No correction required 68. Today management student itself are opted to work for NGOs even though the salaries offered to them are low. (A) Student itself is (B) Students themselves are (C) Students have (D) Student himself has (E) No correction required 69. Absence off any guidelines, they are unwilling to take up the project. (A) Absent of (B) In the absence of (C) Because of the absence

(D) Without being absent (E) No correction required 70. Without the development of rural people the country can no claim to be developed. (A) Can never claim (B) Being claimed (C) Not able to claim (D) Have not any claim (E) No correction required Directions—(Q. 71–75) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e.. ‘All Correct’ as your answer. 71. The organization preferred to hire locale population as they understood the language and customer preferences. All Correct (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 72. In our opinion the exicting assessment system requires immediate revision.All Correct (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 73. In responds to the advertisement a sizeable number of candidates have submitted their applications. All Correct (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 74. There is no guarantee that if this model is adopted the entire sector will prosper.All Correct (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 75. With this unique initiative the company hopes to sustain its current growth rate. All Correct (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Directions—(Q. 76–80) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

76. Mr. Srinivasan is …… to become Chairman of the group …… the retirement of his father.

(A) set, following (B) voted, subsequent (C) selected, despite (D) approved, because (E) decided, after 77. …… to your error the …… consignment has been delayed by a week. (A) According, important (B) Duly, urgent (C) Owing, entire (D) Added, crucial (E) Admitting, special 78. On account of the …… in sales the software firm has achieved an eight percent …… in net profit. (A) surge, fall (B) increase, rise (C) decline, slope (D) hike, loss (E) growth, advance 79. We are proud to say that today …… 26 percent of our total accounts are …… by women and senior citizens. (A) approximate, held (B) nearly, authorised (C) over, maintain (D) above, open (E) around, operated 80. The company has …… special training to employees on …… to trade online. (A) announced, benefits (B) offered, course (C) imparted, risks (D) sanction, skills (E) provided, how

Answewrs With Explanation : 41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (e)

51. (c) 52. (E) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (c) In C part not is redundant. 57. (e) 58. (A) Change ‘so’ to ‘as’. 59. (a) Change ‘is’ to ‘are’ because the subject is plural ‘lots of support’. 60. (b) Change ‘reconsidered’ to ‘reconsider or should reconsider’ because of parallelism of the two sentences. 61. (d) Change the position of adverb ‘well’, it should be used in the end of the sentence. 62. (e) 63. (c) Change ‘needy’ to ‘needed’ here we require a verb. 64. (d) Change ‘their’ to ‘its’ because its subject is singular. 65. (A) Change ‘truth’ to ‘true’ or ‘a truth’. 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (B) 70. (a) 71. (b) Change ‘locale’ to ‘local’ here we want an adjective. 72. (a) Change ‘exicting’ to ‘existing’. Exciting is not appropriate. 73. (a) Change ‘responds’ to ‘response’. 74. (e) Change ‘adopted’ to ‘adapted’. 75. (d) Change ‘currant’ to ‘current’. 76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (e) 80. (E) PAPER : SBI clerical Staff recruitment : General Awareness sample Question Paper 2008 Who amongst the following is the Head of the RBI at present? (1) Mr. K V. Kamath (2) Dr. Y.V. Reddy (3) Mr. Y.R. Narayanamurthy (4) Mr. O.P. Bhatt (5) None of these

India has different categories of Commercial banks. Which of the following is not one such category? (1) Private Banks (2) Commodity Banks (3) Nationalised Banks (4) Co-operative Banks (5) Foreign Banks

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently imposed a restriction on money flow in equity through ‘P-Notes’. What is the full form of ‘P-Notes’ ? (1) Permanent Notes (2) Purchase Notes (3) Participatory Notes (4) Private Notes (5) None of these

Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian cricket team which won the Twenty20 World Cup2007 ? (1) Yuvraj Singh (2) M.S. Dhoni (3) Rahul Dravid (4) Sourav Ganguly (5) None of these

The money which Government of India spends on the development of infrastructure in country comes from which of the following sources? [pick. up the correct statement(s)] (A) Loan from World Bank/ ADB, etc. (B) Taxes collected from the people. (C) Loan from the RBI. (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Both A & B (5) All A, B & C

Which of the following organisations / agencies has established a fund known as “Investor Protection Fund” ? (1) SEBI (2) NABARD (3) Bombay Stock Exchange (4) Ministry,.\of Health (5) None of these

Which of the following departments of the Government of India is helping banks in disbursement of rural credit by the banks? (1) Railways (2) State Road Transports (3) Posts & Telegraph (4) Ministry of Health (5) None of these

Which of the following types of banks are allowed to operate foreign currency accounts ? (A) Foreign Banks (B) Regional Rural Banks (C) Nationalised Banks (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) All A, B & C (5) None of these

Majority of rural people still prefer to go to which of the following for their credit needs? (1) Money lenders (2) Foreign banks (3) NABARD (4) RBI (5) All of these

Which of the following countries does not play international cricket? (1) Russia (2) England (3) South Africa (4) Pakistan (5) India

Which of the following countries in the world is the biggest consumer of gold? (1) USA

(2) Bangladesh (3) Russia (4) India (5) None of these

Many times we read in financial newspapers about ‘FII’. What is the full form of FII ? ‘ (1) Final Investment in India (2) Foreign Investment in India (3) Formal Investment in India (4) Fair Institutional Investment (5) Foreign Institutional Investment

The financial markets of which of the following countries were badly affected by sub prime crisis ? (1) Russia (2) Brazil (3) UK (4) USA (5) None of these

One of the former Prime Ministers of which of the following countries was detained in house arrest for a short period after his/her return from a long exile? (1) Germany (2) France (3) Pakistan (4) Brazil (5) None of these

Which of the following countries is facing problem of strike by the workers of the transport, electricity and gas companies as the present Government of the country has decided to end the pension to these workers? (1) USA (2) France (3) China

(4) Nepal (5) None of these

Benazir Bhutto is associated with which of the following political parties? (1) Muslim League (2) Pakistan People’s Party (3) Pakistan National Congress (4) Islamic Movement of Pakistan (5) None of these

Who amongst the following is the Secretary-General of UNO? (1) Al Gore (2) Shashi Tharoor (3) Gordon Brown (4) Hugo Chavez (5) None of these

Manmohan Singh called George Bush to explain the difficulties he is having in implementing agreements related with which of the following with USA? (l}Supply of Sugar (2) Civilian Nuclear Cooperation (3) Purchase o£ Fighter Planes (4) Purchase of Gas/Petroleum (5) None of these

Which of the following countries recently decided to launch a military action in Northern Iraq where many Kurdish PKK fighters are based and they are killing people from that country ? (1) India (2) Afghanistan (3) Pakistan (4) Bangladesh (5) Turkey

The “Orange Coalition Government” was formed once again in which of the following countries? (1) Russia (2) Ukraine (3) France (4) Germany (5) None of these

As reported in papers the UN World Food Programmes stopped distributing food in Mogadishu town after its local head was abducted by the government soldiers of the country. Mogadishu is the capital town of (1) Tanzania (2) Turkey (3) Cuba (4) Libya (5) Somalia

Who amongst the following leaders from USA visited Israel and Palestinian West Bank so that a solution to the Israel and Palestinian problem can be worked out? (1) George Bush (2) Al Gore (3) Bill Clinton (4) Condoleezza Rice (5) None of these

Which of the following countries is not elected by the UN General Assembly on the nonpermanent seats of the UN Security Council w.e.f. January 2008 ? (1) Libya (2) Vietnam (3) Croatia (4) Costa Rica (5) Pakistan

Which of the following countries is not happy with the USA’s decision to award a Congressional Medal to Dalai Lama of Tibet? (1) India (2) Pakistan (3) Nepal (4) Myanmar (5) China

Justine Henin won the Women’s Singles US Open Tennis Championship 2007 after defeating (1) Svetlana Kuznetsova (2) Sania Mirza (3) Dinara Safina (4) Mathalie Dechy (5) None of these India won the ONGC Nehru Cup Football Tournament 2007 by beating (1) Syria (2) Pakistan (3) Britain (4) France (5) None of these

Who amongst the following is selected for Basava Award (2006-07) by the Karnataka Government? (1) Manmohan Singh (2) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (3) Sonia Gandhi (4) Pratibha Patil (5) None of these

Shinzo Abe who was on a visit to India in recent past is the (1) Prime Minister of South Korea

(2) Prime Minister of North Korea (3) Prime Minister of Japan (4) President of South Korea (5) None of these

Abdullah Gul’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the President of (1) Turkey (2) Sudan (3) Afghanistan (4) Pakistan (5) None of these

Hem Dutta who was honoured with the prestigious Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhawana Award 2007 is a famous (1) author (2) social activist (3) player (4) film producer (5) scientist

Asafa Powell who created a new world record in 100 metres race is a citizen of (1) Jamaica (2) South Africa (3) India (4) USA (5) South Korea

The World Athletics Championship 2007 was organised in (1) Beijing (2) New Delhi (3) Osaka (4) Dhaka (5) London

Who amongst the following got third position in long jump event of the Bayer International Athletics Meet held in Germany in 2007 ? (1) Shiny Wilson (2) Anju Bobby George (3) Neha Sanwal (4) Prajakta Sawant (5) None of these

As per the recent agreement between India and one other country the Indian Rupee can be easily swapped with (1) Taka (2) Riel (3) Kyat (4) Yen (5) Rubble

The Government of India put a ban on export of which of the following commodities at the price below the price of the same in domestic market? (1) Steel (2) Chemical Fertiliser (3) Pharma products’ (4) Electronic goods (5) None of these

India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves declined sharply in recent past. What was the main reason for the same? (1) Heavy demand of the same by foreign tourists (2) Import of wheat from Pakistan & South Korea (3) Appreciation of Rupee Value (4) Instability in coalition government in Centre (5) None of these

Which of the following is a public sector unit ? (1) TCS (2) ICICI Bank (3) TESCO (4) BHEL (5) All of these

Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation Business Meet was organised in September 2007 in (1) New Delhi (2) Beijing (3) Tokyo (4) London (5) Sydney

Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian hockey team who won Asia Cup 2007 held in Chennai ? (1) Baichung Bhutia (2) Dilip Tirkey (3) Pankaj Advani (4) Manavjit Singh Sandhu (5) None of these

India launched which of the following satellites in September 2007? (1) EDUSAT (2) METSAT (3) CROSAT-IIB (4) INSAT-4CR (5) None of these

Answers 1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (5) 6. (1) 7. (5) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (5) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (5)

18. (2) 19. (5) 20. (2) 21. (5) 22. (4) 23. (5) 24. (5) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (3) 29. (1) 30. (2) 31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (5) 35. (1) 36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (5) 39. (5) 40. (4) • •

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PAPER : SBI Clerk Previous Year (2007) Solved Paper (General Awareness) 1.Who amongst the following cricketers became the ninth Indian to claim 150 or more wickets? (a) A.Kumble (b) A.Agarkar (c) S.Tendulkar (d) Harbhajan Singh (e) None of these Ans (c)

2. Who amongst the following returned to earth after a long 195 days stay in space ? (a) Angei Brewer (b) Mike Leinbach (c) Shruti Vadera (d) Sunita Williams (e) None of these Ans(d)

3. Japan PM shinzo Abe came to office last year with huge support in his favour. But since last few months he is facing problems in his political survival. Which of the following actions taken by him does / do not enjoy support of the people of Japan (Pick up the correct statement) ? 1. Decision to postpone parliament elections. 2. Falling to control inflation which has gone to the level of 12% an unusual phenomenon in the history of Japan. 3. Decision to allow USA to make an army Base in some of its Islands where USA will have its nuclear war-heads (a) Only 2 (b) Only 1 (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 3 (e) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans:(c)

4. European leaders agree on treaty was the news in leading news paper in recent past . Which of the following was the treaty on which leaders were of diverse views (Pick up the correct statement) ? 1. The treaty was to make the EURO money a universal currency for all financial / monetary transaction done by all the member countries w.e.f. April 2009. 2. Treaty was to defunct constitution of the European Union by a new one. 3. Poland one of the newest members of the union was threatening to use its veto power if any change is done in the present set up of the organization. (a) only 1 (b) only 2 (c) only 3 (d) Both 1 and 2 (e) Both 2 and 3 Ans(b)

5. "Rajpaksha threatens to resolve Lanka parliament" was the news in leading newspaper a few days back . Which of the following was the reason owing to which president threatens to take a drastic step ? (pick up the correct statements). 1. A number of MPs from Sri Lanka Freedom party defecting to join another party launched by another group of politicians. 2. A group of politicians under the leadership of former president Chandrika Kumartunga demanding the postponement of elctions for the post of president due in the month of November 2007 so that Chandrika can came back from exile and contest for the same. 3. Rajapaksha wants general public and also MPs to support his formula on peace with LTTE which is not accepatble to most of the MPs. (a) All 1,2 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) Both 1 and 2 (e) Only 1 Ans(a)

6. Madhesi national liberation front (MNLF) is an organixation active in which of the following countries ? (a) Pakistan (b) Myanmar (c) Uganda (d) Iran (e) Nepal Ans(e)

7. As per the Economic survey 2006-07 the food grain production may not touch the target fixed for the year. What is the atrget of the same set for the period? (a) 100 million tonnes (b) 220 million tonnes (c) 175 million tonnes (d) 250 million tonnes (e) 320 million tonnes Ans(b)

8. Which of the following sector banks brought its equity share (follow on public issue) for the price was set as Rs. 940 per equity ? (a) ICICI Bank (b) Karnataka Bank (c) UTI Bank (d) HDFC Bank (e) None of these Ans(a)

9. Prime minister of India recently unveiled an agricultural package during his visit to 53rd meeting of the National Development Concil. What is the size of the package > (a) Rs. 10,000 Crores (b) Rs. 1s,000 Crores (c) Rs. 20,000 Crores (d) Rs. 25,000 Crores

(e) Rs. 30,000 Crores Ans(d)

10. Which of the following States achieved 100% financial inclusion (each and every family in the state has atleast one bank account). ? (a) Delhi (b) Maharashtra (c) West Bengal (d) Kerala (e) None of these Ans(d)

11. Rafael Nadal won the French Open men's single title 2007 after defeating who amongst the follwing ? (a) Mark Knowles (b) Mahesh Bhupati (c) Daniel Nestor(d) Pawel Vizner (e) Roger Federer Ans(e)

12. Who amongst the following has taken over as the chairman of the 18th Law Commission set-up recently ? (a) Justice A.R.Lakshmanan (b) Justice Bhagwan Das Rana (c) Justice T.L.Venkatraman Iyer (d) Mrs. Suryakanta Patil (e) None of these Ans(a)

13. Who amongst the following was honoured with the Jawaharlal Nehru award for the International Understanding given away recently ? (a) Mr. Umaru Yar Adua (b) Mr. Luiz Inacio Lula Da Silva (c) Mr. Vladimir Putin (d) Mr. Felipe Calderon

(e) None of these Ans(b)

14. Who amongst the following actors won the award for Best actor in 8th International Film Academy Award Ceremony held recently? (a) Saif Ali Khan (b) Sanjay Dutt (c) Arshad Warsi (d) Abhishek Bachchan (e) Hrithik Roshan Ans(e)

15. Which of the following rates is not decided by the Reserve Bank of India ? (a) Bank Rate (b) Repo Rate (c) Reserve Repo Rate (d) Income Tax Rates (e) All of these Ans(d)

16. The world Economic forum was held recendly in (a) Malaysia (b) Kuwait (c) Iran (d) Brazil (e) Indonesia Ans(a)

17. Which of the following African countries recently launched its communication satellite for the first time (The satellite was launched from China) ? (a) Nigeria (b) Keniya (c) Zimbabwe (d) Mauritius

(e) None of these Ans(a)

18. 'Dausa' which has been in news recently is a town in (a) Gujarat (b) Madhya Pradeh (c) Bihar (d) Uttar Pradesh (e) Rajasthan Ans(e)

19. Which of the following was the major issue of discussion in the G-8 Summit held in Germany ? (a) Subsidy to agro product (b) Climate protection (c) Financial Aid to Iraq (d) Nuclear technology and possiblity of space war (e) None of these Ans(b)

20. Which of the following countries has decided to build a road to the Base camp of Mt. Everest ? (a) India (b) China (c) Nepal (d) Myanmar (e) None of these Ans(b) PAPER : SBI Bank Clerk Model Paper 2008 (General English) Directions (Question 1 to 10) Read the list of words given below and choose from the options the word that is the nearest in meaning to the given word. 1. Exiguous a) tall

b) large c) wide d) scanty e) broad 2. Recreancy a) recreation b) recuperation c) bravery d) cowardice e) obstinate 3. Proscribe a) to nominate b) to be supportive of c) to give early warning signals d) outlaw e) none of these 4. Ingest a) enrage b) invigorate c) to absorb d) burn up completely e) to stir up 5. Monticule a) a small river b) a small hut c) a lane d) a small hill e) a small plane 6. Compendious a) comprehensive b) illustrative c) unbearable d) elaborate e) none of the above 7. Nadir a) asylum b) heaven

c) depth d) nebulous e) none of the above 8. Somnambulistic a) sleepwalking b) ghost dancing c) women’s group activity d) colourful scenario e) over-eating 9. primordial a) feeling of elation b) original c) elementary d) daunting e) none of the above 10. Somber a) Causing sleep b) Squalid c) Gloomy d) Complacent e) Malicious

Directions (Question 11 to 20) Against each key word are given by alternative meanings. Choose the one that is the opposite in meaning to the given word. 11. Sanctimonious a) holy b) Realistic c) Humble d) Callous e) Pessimistic 12. Munificent a) Miserly b) Faulty c) Perplexing d) Rudimentary e) Grandiose

13. Opaque a) Vague b) Firm c) Transparent d) Poor e) None of the above 14. Restive a) Unrestrained b) Communicate c) Peaceful d) Quarrel e) Disturbing 15. Catapult a) Reach great heights b) Downfall c) Caterpillar d) Gaining e) Losing 16. Enigmatic a) Industrious b) Mysterious c) Enthusiastic d) Straightforward e) Sincere 17. Traipse a) Walk b) Stroll c) Crawl d) Run e) None of the above 18. Piquant a) Jovial b) Merry c) Blunt d) Rigorous e) Shocking 19. Bigoted

a) Dignified b) Tolerant c) wide d) Contrite e) Sincere 20. Obliquity a) Thin b) Frank c) Self-righteous d) Depreciation e) Conformity

Directions (Question 21 to 25) In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is given in bold letters. Five alternative meanings of the bold part of the sentence are given below. Choose the correct one. 21. The soldiers had been shut up for a long time; they painted the town red when they were let out. a) ran about wildly trying to kill people b) decided to shun fighting and shedding blood c) caused disturbance in the town by noisy merry-making d) were asked to be ready for any emergency e) were advised not to incur troubles by thoughtless actions. 22. John used very ugly words against his kind uncle; he threw down the gauntlet before him. a) he behaved as if he was a very great and important person b) he put several conditions for negotiations c) he abused and insulted uncle’s son d) he showed his readiness to leave the place e) he threw the challenge 23. He is a strange fellow and it is very difficult to deal with him; it seems that he has a bee in his bonnet. a) an obsession about something b) peculiar habit of confusing others c) unreliable and inconsistent way of behaving

d) to face problems as a result of his senseless actions e) an achievement to be proud of 24. I am reasonably sure that all his schemes will end in smoke. a) will produce good results b) bear no fruits c) benefit the poor and the downtrodden d) motivate the employees to produce more e) be severely criticized by the public 25. The dacoits took to their heels when the police arrived. a) took shelter in the thick jungle b) opened indiscriminate fire c) took to flight d) unconditionally challenged e) renewed their resolve to fight Answers 1. scanty 2. cowardice 3. none of the above (proscribe means to prohibit or ban) 4. to absorb 5. a small hill 6. comprehensive 7. depth 8. sleepwalking 9. elementary 10. gloomy 11. callous 12. miserly 13. transparent 14. peaceful 15. downfall 16. straightforward 17. crawl 18. jovial 19. dignified 20. conformity

21. caused disturbance in the town by noisy merry-making 22. he threw the challenge 23. an obsession about something 24. bear no fruits 25. took to flight

PAPER : SBI CLERK REASONING ABILITY MODEL PAPER Directions : - Select the related letters / word / number / figure from the given alternatives 1 Editor : Magazine (a) Movie (b) Scene (c) Drama (d) Director

2 Hinduism , Christianity , Islam : Religion (a) Ear , Nose , Eyesight : Vision (b) Plus , Minus , Multiple : division (c) Winter , Spring , Summer : Season (d) Humid , Hot , Tundra : Region

3 WOLF : FLOW :: WARD : ? (a) BROW (b) DRAW (c) CRAW (d) SLAW

4 GRAIN : TIZRM :: BRAIN : ? (a) XRIKL (b) YIZRM(c) OPRST (d) ASQMI

5 CUT : BDTVSU :: TIP : ? (a) UVHJOQ (b) SUHJOQ (c) USJHQO (d) SUJHOQ

Q-6 19 : 59 :: 17 : ? (a) 51 (b) 53 (c) 55 (d) 57

Q-7 14 : 20 :: 16 : ? (a) 23 (b) 48 (c) 10 (d) 42

Q-8 100 : 102 :: 100000 : ? (a) 105 (b) 104 (c) 1003 (d) 1004

DIRECTIONS : (QUESTIONS 9 to 13) select the one which is different from the other three . 9 (a) Mile (b) Centimeter (c) Litre (d) Yard

10 (a) High - Up (b) Past - Present (c) Often - Seldom (d) Fresh - Stale

11 (a) 11 - 127 (b) 9 – 85 (c) 7 – 53 (d) 5 – 29

12 (a) 26 Z (b) 24 X (c) 22 V (d) 20 S

13 (a) 8 , 64 , 112 (b) 36 , 6 , 206 (c) 48 , 4 , 202 (d) 9 , 27 , 263

14 In the following series of numerals , which digit has maximum frequency ?

846734378344563464348 (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 3

15 If the day after tomorrow is Friday , what day will the third day after tomorrow be (a) Saturday (b) Monday (c) Sunday (d) Friday

16 If the ratio of the area of two squares is 16 : 1 , then the ratio of their perimeter is (a) 4 : 1 (b) 16 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 4

17 The shade of 18 ft high pole is 20 ft. . Find the length of shade of 27 ft long pole . (a) 36 ft (b) 30 ft (c) 34 ft (d) 40 ft

18 A scores more runs than B but less than C . D scores more than B but less than A . Who is the lowest scorer ? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

19 In the alphabets from A to Z , which is the third letter to the right of the letter which is midway between K & S ? (a) R (b) Q (c) P (d) O

20 If first November falls on Monday , then what day will the 25th November be ? (a) Tuesday (b) Thursday (c) Wednesday (d) Friday

21 The length of room is twice its breadth . If the area of the room is 242 sq meters , then find

out its breadth (a) 11 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 9

22 If the product of two numbers is 10 & their sum is 7 , then the larger of the two number is (a) – 2 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 3

23 Which letter is used only in one of the given words ? Speak , Reap , Shark (a) S (b) P (c) K (d) H

24 A tortoise covers one kilometer in 4 hours . It takes rest for 20 minutes after every kilometer .How much time does it takes for the tortoise to cover 3.5 kilometers ? (a) 14 hours (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 12

25 Of which of the following words , which one will be at the 3rd position in the dictionary ? 1. socks 2. Shocks 3. Sharp 4. snooker (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

ANSWER 12345 ccbbb 6 7 8 9 10 bdaca 11 12 13 14 15 adacc 16 17 18 19 20

abbab 21 22 23 24 25 acdca PAPER : SBI Clerk Previous Paper (General English) Directions—(Q. 41–55) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. A large majority of the poor in India are outside the formal banking system. The policy of financial inclusion sets out to remedy this by making available a basic banking ‘no frills’ account either with nil or very minimum balances as well as charges that would make such accounts accessible to vast sections of the population. However, the mere opening of a bank account in the name of every household or adult person may not be enough, unless these accounts and financial services offered to them are used by the account holders. At present, commercial banks do not find it viable to provide services to the poor especially in the rural areas because of huge transaction costs, low volumes of savings in the accounts, lack of information on the account holder, etc. For the poor, interacting with the banks with their paper work, economic costs of going to the bank and the need for flexibility in their accounts, make them turn to other informal channels or other institutions. Thus, there are constraints on both the supply and the demand side.

Till now, banks were looking at these accounts from a purely credit perspective. Instead, they should look at this from the point of view of meeting the huge need of the poor for savings. Poor households want to save and contrary to the common perception, do have the funds to save, but lack control. Informal mutual saving systems like the Rotating Savings and Credit Associations (ROSCAs), widespread in Africa and ‘thrift and credit groups’ in India demonstrate that poor households save. For the poor household, which lacks access to the formal insurance system and the credit system, savings provide a safety net and help them tide over crises. Savings can also keep them away from the clutches of moneylenders, make formal institutions more favourable to lending to them, encourage investment and make them shift to more productive activities, as they may invest in slightly more risky activities which have an overall higher rate of return.

Research shows the efficacy of informal institutions in increasing the savings of the small account holders. An MFI in the Philippines, which had existing account holders, was studied.

They offered new products with ‘commitment features’. One type had withdrawal restrictions in the sense that it required individuals to restrict their right to withdraw any funds from their own accounts until they reached a self-specified and documented goal. The other type was deposit options. Clients could purchase a locked box for a small fee. The key was with the bank and the client has to bring the box to the bank to make the deposit. He could not dip into the savings even if he wanted to. These accounts did not pay extra money and were illiquid. Surprisingly, these products were popular even though these had restrictions. Results showed that those who opted for these accounts with restrictions had substantially greater savings rates than those who did not. The policy of financial inclusion can be a success if financial in

clusion focuses on both saving needs and credit needs, having a diversified product portfolio for the poor but recognising that self-control problems need to be addressed by having commitment devices. The products with commitment features should be optional. Furthermore transaction costs for the poor could be cut down, by making innovative use of technology available and offering mobile vans with ATM and deposit collection features which could visit villages periodically.

41. What is the aim of the financial inclusion policy ? (A) A focus on savings needs rather than credit needs of the poor (B) Minimising utilisation of technology in banks so as to reduce transaction costs for the poor (C) To boost low savings volumes in banks by encouraging savings among the rural poor (D) To make formal basic banking services available to the poor (E) To regulate the rate at which moneylenders lend to the poor

42. The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to— (A) Criticise the concept of financial inclusion (B) Point out the problems of financial inclusion (C) Discuss ways of making the financial inclusion policy successful (D) Compare financial inclusion policies of different countries (E) Cite research in support of role of MFIs in achieving financial inclusion

43. Which of the following can be inferred about products with commitment features ? 1. Demand for such products was high. 2. They were an effective means of increasing the savings of small account holders. 3. Such facilities can only be offered by informal institutions like MFIs.

(A) All 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Both 1 and 3 (E) None of these

44. Why do the poor not utilise banking services ? 1. Informal institutions offer higher rates of interest than those in banks. 2. Costs of reaching banks have to be borne by the poor. 3. Bank personnel do not treat the poor respectfully because their savings amounts are minimal. (A) Only 2 (B) Both 1 and 2 (C) Both 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2, and 3 (E) None of these

45. Which of the following is a recommendation made by the author regarding financial inclusion ? (A) Reduce the paper work involved by seeking less information about the account holder (B) Lower transaction costs by utilising latest technology. (C) Make commitment features compulsory for all savings accounts (D) Entrust the responsibility of financial inclusion solely to MFIs (E) Provide credit facilities even to those without savings accounts

46. Which of the following factors affects ‘saving’ behaviour among the poor ? 1. Threats from moneylenders if they avail of banking services. 2. Documentation required before availing of banking services. 3. Lack of self-control. (A) Only 1 (B) All 1, 2 and 3 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 2 and 3 (E) None of these

47. What do the results of the study conducted in the Philippines indicate ? (A) Account holders in MFIs have higher savings rates than banks (B) Many of the poor have to turn to moneylenders because of strict restrictions in MFIs (C) Having accounts with restriction on withdrawal requires the bank to offer a higher rate of interest

(D) There should be strong security measures for deposit option accounts for the poor (E) None of these

48. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ? (A) There are no informal means for the poor to save in India (B) Having savings encourages the poor to invest only in low risk ventures (C) There is a huge demand for savings facilities among poor households (D) Presently commercial banks feel that it is feasible to provide banking services to the poor in rural areas (E) There are many official innovative savings systems like roscas in Africa

49. What is/are the outcome(s) of encouraging savings for the poor ? 1. It frees them from the exploitation of moneylenders. 2. Banks are more willing to disburse loans to those who save. 3. They should invest in risky but high return ventures. (A) Only 1 (B) Both 1 and 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these

50. What was the view of banks regarding the bank accounts of the poor in the past ? (A) They were considered a problem since account holders information needed to be updated constantly (B) Focus should be more on providing savings facilities not credit (C) Moneylenders should be regulated so that they share responsibility of disbursing loans to the poor (D) Products with commitment features will not be successful (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 51–53) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

51. purely : (A) morally

(B) honestly (C) completely (D) perfectly (E) cleanly

52. demonstrate : (A) protest (B) occur (C) estimate (D) appear (E) prove

53. remedy : (A) medicine (B) solve (C) restore (D) therapy (E) heal Directions—(Q. 54-55) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 54. optional : (A) voluntary (B) compromise (C) pressure (D) mandatory (E) free

55. accessible : (A) convenient (B) unavailable (C) unfavourable (D) unpleasant (E) formal

Directions—(Q. 56–65) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any). 56. The scheme failed because / some states could not / manage not to raise / the necessaryfunds. No error. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

57. Real estate prices in the / business district of the city / are expected to rise / at 15% this year. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

58. By so early as next year / that leading investment bank / has plans to open / an office in New Delhi. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

59. There is lots of / supports from the employees / for the proposal to / merge with the parent company. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

60. Experts have recommended that / the government reconsidered / restrictions imposed on foreign / investment in real estate. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

61. The crucial point to / be discussed at the / meetings is how to / well implement the policy.No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

62. He wants to / set up a laboratory / to undertake research / into a vaccine for cancer. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

63. According to him / two factors which are / needy for success / are discipline and

diligence. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

64. Because of the pace at / which the company is growing / I believe it will easily / achieve their target. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

65. It is truth / that India is / the largest consumer of / gold in the world. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions—(Q. 66–70) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer. 66. The bank is overstaffed, has led to low productivity. (A) Led to (B) Will lead towards (C) And has led in (D) Which has led to (E) No correction required

67. You delay in taking a decision conveys a negative impression. (A) You delay to take (B) If you delay taking (C) Your delay in taking (D) To delay by taking (E) No correction required

68. Today management student itself are opted to work for NGOs even though the salaries offered to them are low. (A) Student itself is (B) Students themselves are (C) Students have (D) Student himself has (E) No correction required

69. Absence off any guidelines, they are unwilling to take up the project. (A) Absent of (B) In the absence of (C) Because of the absence (D) Without being absent (E) No correction required

70. Without the development of rural people the country can no claim to be developed. (A) Can never claim (B) Being claimed (C) Not able to claim (D) Have not any claim (E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 71–75) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e.. ‘All Correct’ as your answer. 71. The organization preferred to hire locale population as they understood the language and customer preferences. All Correct (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

72. In our opinion the exicting assessment system requires immediate revision.All Correct (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

73. In responds to the advertisement a sizeable number of candidates have submitted their applications. All Correct (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

74. There is no guarantee that if this model is adopted the entire sector will prosper.All

Correct (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

75. With this unique initiative the company hopes to sustain its current growth rate. All Correct (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions—(Q. 76–80) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

76. Mr. Srinivasan is …… to become Chairman of the group …… the retirement of his father. (A) set, following (B) voted, subsequent (C) selected, despite (D) approved, because (E) decided, after

77. …… to your error the …… consignment has been delayed by a week. (A) According, important (B) Duly, urgent (C) Owing, entire (D) Added, crucial (E) Admitting, special

78. On account of the …… in sales the software firm has achieved an eight percent …… in net profit. (A) surge, fall (B) increase, rise (C) decline, slope (D) hike, loss (E) growth, advance

79. We are proud to say that today …… 26 percent of our total accounts are …… by women

and senior citizens. (A) approximate, held (B) nearly, authorised (C) over, maintain (D) above, open (E) around, operated

80. The company has …… special training to employees on …… to trade online. (A) announced, benefits (B) offered, course (C) imparted, risks (D) sanction, skills (E) provided, how

Answewrs With Explanation : 41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (e) 51. (c) 52. (E) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (c) In C part not is redundant. 57. (e) 58. (A) Change ‘so’ to ‘as’. 59. (a) Change ‘is’ to ‘are’ because the subject is plural ‘lots of support’. 60. (b) Change ‘reconsidered’ to ‘reconsider or should reconsider’ because of parallelism of the two sentences. 61. (d) Change the position of adverb ‘well’, it should be used in the end of the sentence. 62. (e) 63. (c) Change ‘needy’ to ‘needed’ here we require a verb. 64. (d) Change ‘their’ to ‘its’ because its subject is singular. 65. (A) Change ‘truth’ to ‘true’ or ‘a truth’. 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (B) 70. (a) 71. (b) Change ‘locale’ to ‘local’ here we want an adjective. 72. (a) Change ‘exicting’ to ‘existing’. Exciting is not appropriate. 73. (a) Change ‘responds’ to ‘response’. 74. (e) Change ‘adopted’ to ‘adapted’. 75. (d) Change ‘currant’ to ‘current’. 76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (e) 80. (E)

PAPER : SBI CLERK GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (BOOKS & AUTHOR)

1. Who is the author of "The Kalam effect: My years with the president"? (a) P.M.Nayar (b) Sonia Gandhi (c) L.K.Adwani (d) Arun Shaurie ANS (a)

2. Who is the author of the book "Superstar India : From Incredible to Unstopable"? (a) L.K.Adwani (b) Arundhati Roy (c) Shobha De (d) Vikram Seth ANS (c)

3. The Sanskrit poet called as the Indian Shakespeare? (a) Kalidasa (b) Thulasidas (c) Sudraka (d) Kautilya ANS (a)

4. Mulk Raj Anand is the author of (a) The Post Office (b) Gora (c) India Wins Freedom (d) Coolie ANS (Try Yourself)

5. Who is the author of the book 'My other two daughters'? (a) Lalu Prasad Yadav (b) Surjit Singh Barnala (c) E.M. Forster (d) Paul Kennedy ANS (b)

6. Who is known as the Father of Detective Story (a) Arthur Conan Doyle (b) Bram Stoker (c) Edgar Allen Poe (d) None of the above ANS (c)

7. Man-The Maker of His Own Destiny' – book was written by

(a) V.S. Naipaul (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Guenter Grass (d) Swami Vivekananda ANS (d)

8. Find out the odd one (a) Louis Fischer (b) Ibsen(c) William Shakespeare (d) Sherlock HolmesANS (d) Others are writers. Sherlock Holmes is a character 9.One among the following is not written by Kalidasa (a) Saakunthalam (b) Raghu Vamsam (c) Rith Samharam (d) Kaavyadooth ANS (d)

10. 'Sonia, a Biography' was written by (a) Sonia Gandhi (b) Arundhathi Roy (c) Rasheed Kidvai (d) V.K. Madhavan Kutty ANS (c)

11. One among the following is not a Harry Potter story (a) Chamber of secrets (b) The philosopher's stone (c) Half blood prince (d) Naked Truth ANS (d)

12. Jules Verne, a French science fiction writer wrote a book, which carried a more or less accurate prediction of the launching of Apollo-8. Which is the book (a) From the Earth to the moon (b) All under Heaven (c) A Midsummer Night's Dream (d) Past and Present ANS (a)

13. Who is the author of "A Passage to England"? (a) E.M. Forster (b) Nirad C. Chaudhari (c) G.B. Shaw (d) Winston Churchill ANS (b)

14. "Does IT matter" is a book written by (a) Bill Gates (b) N. R. Narayanan (c) Nicholas Carr (d) Thomas D. Harris (e) None of these ANS (c)

15. 'Beyond time' is the book written by (a) Namita Gokhale (b) Ruskin Bond (c) William Balrymple (d) Josef Korbel (e) None of these ANS (e)

16. The famous book 'Anandmath' has been authorised by (a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Sri Aurobindo ANS (b)

17.Who wrote a book describing the theory of economic drain of India during British rule? (a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Lala Lajpat Rai (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Jawaharlal Nehru ANS (a)

18. The author of the book 'Waiting for Godot' is: (a) Ruth Harring (b) Susan Sontag (c) Samuel Beckett (d) Ben Jonson ANS (c) Waiting for the Mahatma - R. K. Narayanan Waiting to Exhale - Terry Mc Millan

19. "The Vedas contain all the truth", was interpreted by: (a) Swami Vivekananda (b) Swami Dayanand (c) Swami Shraddhanand (d) S. Radhakrishnan ANS (b)

20. Sirr-i-Akbar was the Persian translation of fifty-two Upanishads by which son of shah Jahan? ANS - Dara Shikoh

21.In "The Travels of Gulliver", what is the first things two Lilliputians discuss when they meet in the morning? ANS - The health of the sun

22."The man who knew infinity" is the biography of (a) Rene Descartes (b) Stephen Hawking (c) Albert Einstein (d) S. Ramanujan ANS (d)

23.What was the original name of 'Alice in Wonderland' when Lewis Carroll first showed it to novelist Henry Kingsley in 1863? ANS - Alice's Adventures Underground

24. The author of the book "Waiting for the Mahatma" is (a) R.K Narayan (b) N.A Palkhiwala (c) Amrita Pritam (d) M. Malgonkar ANS (a)

25. Under the patronage of which ruler of the Javanese house of Mataram, was the epic poem 'Arjuna vivaha' written? ANS - King Airlangga

26. To whom, in his own words, did Rudyard Kipling dedicate his collection, 'Plain Tales From the Hills'? ANS - To the wittiest woman in India

27. 'Beyond the Last Blue Mountain' is R.M Lala's biography of which Indian? ANS - J. R. D. Tata

28. Which of Agatha Christie's books was the first to be serialised in the Evening News under the title 'Anna the Adventure'? ANS - The Man In The Brown Suit

29. Who has authored the book A Brief History of Time? (a) Carl Sagan (b) Issac Asimov (c) John Gribbin (d) Stephen Hawking ANS (d)

30. The book 'Living with Honour' is written by (a) Arundhati Roy (b) Shiv Khera (c) Pramod Batra (d) Vikram Seth ANS (b)

31. The book 'Cricket My Style' is written by (a) Sunil Gavaskar (b) Sachin Tendulkar (c) Kapil Dev (d) Mohinder Amarnath ANS (c)

32. Who wrote the book 'The Book of Indian Birds' ANS - Dr. Salim Ali

33. 'Economic History of India' was written by ANS - R. C. Dutt

34.The oldest of the vedic literature is (a) Sama Veda (b) Yajur Veda (c) Rig Veda (d) Atharva Veda ANS (c)

35. 'Leelavathi' the famous sanskrit grantha is a book on ANS - Mathematics

36. Who is the author of ‘An Equal Music’ (1999) ANS - Vikram Seth

37. Who wrote the poem ‘Passage to India’ in 1871 ANS - Walt Whitman (American Poet)

38. Who is the author of the book ‘The Canterbury Tales’ ANS - Geoffrey Chaucer

39. Who is the author of the book ‘Anna Karenina’ ANS - Leo Tolstoy

40.Who is the author of the book ‘The Adventures of Tom Sawyer’ ANS - Mark Twain

41. Who is the author of the book ‘The Adventures of Sherlock Holmes’? ANS - Sir Arthur Conan Doyle

42.Who is the author of the book ‘The Comedy of Errors’? ANS - William Shakespeare

43. Who is the author of the book ‘Animal Farm’ ANS - George Orwell

44. Who is the author of the book ‘The Rime of the Ancient Mariner’? ANS - Samuel Taylor Coleridge

45. Who is the author of the book, ‘Through the Looking-Glass’? ANS - Lewis Carroll

46. Who is the author of the book, ‘All’s Well That Ends Well’? ANS - William Shakespeare

47. Who is the author of the book ‘Akbar-nama’ ANS - Abul Fazl

48. Who is the author of the book ‘The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn’? ANS - Mark Twain

49. Who is the author of the book ‘Antony and Cleopatra’? ANS - William Shakespeare

50. Who is the author of the book , Philosophiae Naturalis Principia Mathematica (Mathematical Principles of Natural Philosophy, 1687) ANS - Sir Isaac

51. Who is the author of the book "Jyoti Punj"? (a) L.K.Adwani (b) Atal Bihari Vajpeyi (c) Narendra Modi (d) Vikram Seth ANS (c)

52. Who is the author of the book "Jyoti Punj"? (a) L.K.Adwani (b) Sushma Swaraj (c) Narendra Modi (d) Jaswant Singh ANS (a)

PAPER : SBI BANK CLERK GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 1. The Kishenganga Power Project is in-

A. Orissa B. Maharashtra C. Gujarat D. Jammu & Kashmir Ans (D) 2. The late Nirmala Desh Pande was a famous A. diplomat B. astrologer C. Social activist D. film-star Ans (C) 3. Who has been awarded the Prem Bhatia Award for the year 2008 ? A. Nilanjana Bose B. Rupashree Nanda C. Nirupama Subramanian D. None of these Ans (C) 4. Microwave ovens cook dishes by means of A. Ultraviolet rays B. Infra-red rays C. Convection D. Conduction Ans (D) 5. Most of the phenomena related to weather take place in A. stratosphere B. ionosphere C. mesosphere D. troposphere Ans (D) 6. The current President of the World Bank is A. Dominique Strauss-Kahn B. James D. Wolfansen C. Barbara Cartland D. Robert Zoellick Ans (D) 7. Amartya Sen, the NRI Nobel laureate got the honour for his work on A. Game theory B. Securities analysis C. Poverty and famines D.Impact of Industrialization Ans (C) 8. The Quit India resolution was passed at the

A. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1940 B. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1941 C. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1942 D. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1945. Ans (C) 9. Who among the following is not a ghazal singer? A. Talat Aziz B. Chandan Dass C. Peenaz Masani D. Jagdev Singh Ans (D) 10. Nobel Prize for literature in 2007 was received byA. Doris Lessing B. Albert Al Gore C. Mohammad Yunus D. None of these Ans (A) 11. Meteorites are the heavenly bodies A. between the Mars and the Jupiter B. between the Saturn and the Neptune C. between the Mars and the Venus D. that burn brightly on entering the Earth’s atmosphere Ans (D) 12. P-5 is a group of A. highly developed countries B. Highly populous countries C. Permanent members of the Security Council D. Established nuclear powers Ans (C) 13. Arrange the following in chronological order: a. Dandi March b. McDonald Award c. Hanging of Bhagat Singh d. Meerut conspiracy case A. a, b, c, d B. b, a, c, d C. d, c, a, b, D. d, a, c, b Ans (A) 14. Which of the following is a land-locked state? A. Gujarat B. Andhra Pradesh C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Tamil Nadu Ans (C) 15. Which of the following is not an official language as per the 8th schedule? A. Konkani B. Sindhi C. Manipuri D. English Ans (D) 16. Which of the following used in making computer chips ? A. Carbon B. Uranium C. Silicon D. Rubidium Ans (C) 17. In order to see an undersea object while in a ship, you would make use of a A. telescope B. periscope C. marinoscope D None of these Ans (B) 18. Baan Ki-moon , the UNO Secretary-General belong to A. Saudi Arab B. Egypt C. South Korea D. Brazil Ans (C) 19. The deepest ocean in the world is A. The Indian ocean B. The Atlantic ocean C. The Pacific ocean D. None of these Ans (C) 20. The oldest mutual fund in India is the A. SBI Mutual Fund B. BOB Mutual Fund C. PNB Mutual Fund D. Unit Trust of India Ans (D) 21. A candidate for elections to the Lok Sabha stands to lose his Deposit Money if he fails to get A. 1/5 of the total valid votes B. 1/8 of the valid votes

C. 1/6 of the valid votes polled D. none of these Ans (A) 22. The Varanasi–Kanyakumari National Highway is called A. N.H. – 8 B. N. H. – 7 C. N.H. – 12 D. N.H. – 9 Ans (B) 23. Which of the following areas of output is witnessing a new revolution? A. oilseeds B. fisheries C. fruits D. cereals Ans (A) 24. The W.T.O. came into being on A. 1st April, 1995 B. 1st April, 1994 C. 1st Jan., 1995 D. 1st Jan., 1996 Ans (C) 25. Bangal was partitioned during the viceroyalty of A. Lord Rippon B. Lord Curzon C. Lord Hardinge D. Lord Minto Ans (B) 26. Tata purchased Jaguar and Rover fromA. Hyundai B. Maruti-Suzuki C. Ford Motor D. General Motor Ans (C)

PAPER : SBI BANK CLERK GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 10 1. The Sir C.V .Raman award for 2008 has been awarded to – M.Natarajan Sanjeev Ramchandra Inamdar

Prof. G.Venkatraman Dr. Naresh Trehan 2. The 2007 FIFA Woman player of the year is – Birgit Prinz Christiane Marta Sania Mirza 3. The Mascot of the 2008 Olympic Games isFuwa Izz Cobi 4. Which among the following States would observe 2008 as the‘Year of Education’ ? Uttar Pradesh Haryana Bihar Karnataka 5. Who has written “Superstar India : From Incredible to unstopable” ? Shobha De Kiran Desai Arundhati Roy Khushwant Singh 6. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007 ? Priya Ranjan Das Munshi Mani Shankar Aiyyar P.Chidambaram Sushama Swaraj 7. Fernando Lugo’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the president of Paraguay Sudan

Afghanistan Pakistan 8. ISRO has launched successfully ten satellites through PSLV-C9 on 15th March,2008 30th March,2008 28th April,2008 4th May,2008 9. Which country will be host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ? Maldives Sri Lanka India Pakistan

10. Who among the following has been chosen the Miss India Universe for the year 2008 ? Parvathy Omanakuttan Simaran Kaur Mundi Amrita Thapar Tanvi Vyas PAPER : SBI CLERK COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ SBI BANK CLERK COMPUTER QUIZ Objective 10 questions 1. Why the document you created at home displays with a different font at school? Because you have a different printer at school than at home Because you have a different monitor at school than at home font you used at home is not installed on your school computer Because the version of Windows is different

2. Which keyboard shortcut centers selected text? Ctrl+C Alt+C There is no keyboard shortcut for this operation Ctrl+E

3. What is the default file extension for all Word documents? TXT WRD FIL DOC

4. Which key moves your cursor from one cell to the next in a table? Tab Shift Enter Ctrl+Enter

5. How many different documents can you have open at one time? No more that three Only one As many as your computer memory will hold No more than your Taskbar can display

6. In order to email a Word document from within Word: Go to File/Send To/Mail Recipient Save the file as an email attachment Start Outlook and attach the file while open in Word. This is an impossible operation

7. Which keystroke will take you at the beginning or the end of a long document? Ctrl+PageUp and Ctrl+PageDown Shift+Home and Shift+End Ctrl+Home and Ctrl+End The only way is by using the right scroll bar

8. How many margins are on a page? Two (header and footer) Four (top, bottom, right, left) Two (landscape and Portrait) Two (top and bottom)

9.In order to save a Word document as a web page you need to: Put the appropriate graphics and links on the document Save the document in simple text format Use your web browser as an editor and save as URL Save as HTML

10. A document in portrait prints: The same characters per line with the same document in landscape More characters per line than the same document in landscape Less characters per line than the same document in landscape Smaller fonts in order to fit the same amount of characters per line with landscape • •

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PAPER : SBI Clerk General Awareness Solved Paper

1. India has successfully test-fired its 150-250 km range Prithvi missile On May 23, 2008. Prithvi Missile is a — (A) Surface to surface missile (B) Surface to air missile (C) Land to sea missile (D) Air to air missile 2. Which of the following High Courts has recently quashed the merit list issued in 2006 and 2007 by the centre and the UPSC— (A) Bhopal High Court (B) Rajasthan High Court (C) Madras High Court (D) Guwahati High Court 3. Recently in May 2008 a assembly election was held in the India State of— (A) Manipur (B) Karnataka (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) None of the above 4. People’s Democratic Party emerged second largest party with 33·01% in elections held in— (A) Bhutan (B) Nepal (C) Zimbabwe (D) Italy 5. According to the World Conservation Union Report, the number of plant species in India listed as threatened is— (A) 247 plant species (B) 250 plant species (C) 275 plant species (D) 255 plant species 6. Which of the following states passed a Bill in March 2008, amending the Registration Act 1908 to prohibit foreigners from buying land in the state— (A) Kerala (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Goa (D) Maharashtra

7. The renowned science fiction writer Arthur C. Clarke who died in Sri Lanka, originally hailed from— (A) Australia (B) Britain (C) Finland (D) U.S.A. 8. Who received Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmanent and Development for 2007— (A) Bill Gates (B) Nelson Mandela (C) Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation (D) Arthur C. Clarke 9. World Press Freedom Day is observed on— (A) May 3 (B) May 15 (C) May 25 (D) May 27 10. Which of the following Indian Political Leader has written the book "Jyoti Punj"? (A) L.K.Adwani (B) Sonia Gandhi (C) Jaswant Singh (D) Narendra Modi 11. India has successfully launched how many satellires simultaneously ? (A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 7 (D) 4 12. Jules Verne is Europe’s— (A) Space shuttle (B) Missile shield system (C) Biggest spacecraft (D) Mission to Antarctica 13. India’s National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme has prepared the country’s first— (A) Dirrohoea map

(B) Malarial map (C) Bird flu map (D) Cancer map 14. ‘The World Is What It Is’ is the biography of— (A) V. S. Naipal (B) Khushwant Singh (C) Amrita Preetam (D) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam 15. According to a World Bank Report India got remittances in 2007 worth— (A) $ 30 billion (B) $ 35 billion (C) $ 25 billion (D) $ 27 billion 16. The Summit of OIC (Organization of Islamic Countries) was held in March in— (A) Senegal (B) Morocco (C) Pakistan (D) Indonesia 17. According to latest WHO report the number of estimated TB cases found every year in India is— (A) 2·2 million (B) 1·9 million (C) 1·5 million (D) 1·7 million 18. Tata purchased Jaguar and Rover from— (A) Hyundai (B) Maruti Suzuki (C) Ford Motor (D) None of the above 19. According to a survey, the country which has the highest number of internet users is— (A) U.S.A. (B) China

(C) Japan (D) Germany 20. India won its first tri series against Australia in— (A) Brisbane (B) Melbourne (C) Sydney (D) Perth 21. According to Prime Minister’s Economic Advisory Council (EAC) headed by C. Rangrajan the economic growth rate for 2008-09 will remain at— (A) 8% (B) 8·5% (C) 9% (D) 8·9% 22. The Pritzkar Architecture Prize has been won by— (A) Bill Gates Foundation (B) William Harvey (C) Jea Nouvel (D) None of the above 23. Which of the following cricket players has been banned for violating the player’s code of conduct by PCB ? (A) Danish Kaneria (B) Shoaib Malik (C) Mohammad Yousuf (D) Shoaib Akhtar 24. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has now been extended to all 604 districts of the country with a total budget outlay of— (A) 18000 crore (B) 16000 crore (C) 15000 crore (D) 14000 crore 25. Inflation which soared above 7% in the month of April is measured by— (A) Consumer Price Index (B) Retail Price Index

(C) Whole Sale Price Index (D) Industrial Price Index 26. The winner of Bahrain Grand Prix is— (A) Lewis Hamilton (B) Kartikeyan (C) Felipe Massa (D) Robert Kubica 27. The winner of Miss India Earth 2008 is— (A) Tanvi Vyas (B) Suman Kaur (C) Rashmi Sehgal (D) Rani Sharma 28. In face of rising prices, Central Government has decided to set strategic Reserve of foodgrains over and above buffer stock. The limit of the reserve is— (A) 10 million tonnes (B) 7 million tonnes (C) 6 million tonnes (D) 5 million tonnes 29. Which of following newspapers/magazines won six Pulitzer prizes— (A) The New York Times (B) The Times Magazine (C) The Washington Post (D) The Guardian 30. ‘Leftism in India, 1917-1947’ is a book written by— (A) S. R. Chaudhuri (B) K. Kanwar (C) R. Nagaswamy (D) Sudipto Chatterjee 31. Recently President Pratibha Patil visited three countries. Which of the following was not the part of her trip— (A) Argentina (B) Chile

(C) Mexico (D) Brazil 32. GJM stands for— (A) General Justice Movement (B) Gorkha Janmukti Morcha (C) Gorkhaland Janshakti Morcha (D) Gorkha Janjagriti Morcha 33. The elections of which of the following countries were marred by controversy— (A) Italy (B) Spain (C) Zimbabwe (D) Nepal 34. Supreme Court has upheld the law enacted in 2006 providing 27% for candidates belonging to— (A) SCs (B) STs (C) OBC (D) Minorities OBC 35. At which of the following places have the remains of early human history been found in excavation— (A) Chittorgarh (B) Bhavnagar (C) Kolkata (D) Karaikal 36. ‘Salwa Judum’ is— (A) Terrorist organization (B) A branch of naxalite (C) Name of a police force (D) An anti naxalite movement 37. When was Nepal declared a Secular Nation— (A) in 2005 (B) in 2007

(C) in 2008 (D) in 2006 38. The Director General of UN Food and Agriculture Organisation of present is— (A) Jacques Diouf (B) Kundekeh K. Yumkella (C) Jammel Al Hiyilan (D) Michael Griffin 39. According to a research, stem cells from skin can treat— (A) Alzhumer (B) Schizophrenia (C) Parkinson’s disease (D) None of the above 40. Which of the following States Hs declared 2008 as the "year of Education" ? (A) Bihar (B) Haryana (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Gujarat Answers with Hints 1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) . 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (B) India’s Vector Borne Disease Control Programme has prepared the country’s first malarial map identifying India’s 60 most malarial endemic districts that report over 50% of the country’s malaria’s cases. 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (B) 22. (C) The Pritzkar Architecture Prize, considered to be equivalent of Nobel Prize for architecture has been won french architect Jea Nouvel for his creative experimentation in architecture. 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C) The Washington Post has won six Pulitzer Prizes, including Public service award for its reporting on conditions of U.S. War Veterans. 30. (A) 31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (C) The Supreme Court on April 10, 2008 upheld the law enacted in 2006 providing a quota of 27 per cent to the other Backward Classes in Central Educational Institutions. 35. (C) 36. (D) Salva Judam is an antinaxalite movement formed by group of people against attack

from maxalites. The movement started from Dantewada district (Chhattisgarh). 37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (B)

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Paper : State Bank of India Clerical Exam July 6, 2008 Reasoning Paper Following questions are the part of the SBI clerical exam test that was held on July 6, 2008. Considering the pattern same set of questions are expected in various other banks clerical written test as well as in the forthcoming SBI clerical exam test.

1. In a certain code DATE is written as #%$@ and STYLE is written as «$© @. How is DELAY written in that code? (1) #@ %© (2) #©$%@ (3) #@$%© (4) #$ %© (5) None of these 2. In a certain code DETAIL is written as BJMUFE. How is SUBMIT written in that code? (1) UJWCVT (2) NJUCVT (3) NJUTVC (4) UJNTVC (5) None of these 3. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the second, the fourth, the sixth and the ninth letters of the word PROACTIVE, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one word can be formed your answer is M and if no such word can be formed your answer is N. (1) A (2) E (3) T (4) M (5) N 4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FOREHAND each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) 17 (2) 31 (3) 23

(4) 13 (5) 21 Q. 6-10. These questions are based on the following arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow. T6#IJ1%LE3K9@AH7B©D2U$R4«8 6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) JI1 (2) EL3 (3) @9A (4) 7HB (5) R4$ 7. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? 6IJ %E3 9AH ? (1) B©2 (2) 7©D (3) 7BD (4) BD2 (5) None of these 8. If all the vowels are removed from the above arrangement which element will be sixth to the right of fourth element from the left? (1) 9 (2) K (3) 3 (4) @ (5) None of these 9. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 10. Which element is fifth to the right of eleventh from the right end? (1) $

(2) U (3) 1 (4) 3 (5) None of these Q. 11-15. In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:(1) if only conclusion I follows. (2) if only conclusion II follows. (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. (5) if both conclusions I and II follow. Statements: 11. All taps are wells. Some wells are canals. All canals are rivers. Conclusions: I. Some rivers are taps. II. Some wells are rivers. Statements: 12. Some files are papers. Some papers are books. All books are journals. Conclusions: I. Some papers are journals. II. Some files are journals. Statements: 13. Some apples are grapes. Some grapes are mangoes. No mango is guava. Conclusions: I. Some guavas are apples. II. No guava is apple. Statements:

14. Some computers are screens. Some screens are movies. Some movies are scripts. Conclusions: I. Some computers are movies. II. Some screens are scripts. Statements: 15. All pearls are gems. All gems are diamonds. All corals are gems. Conclusions: I. All pearls are diamonds. II. All corals are diamonds.

Answers:1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (5) 6. (5) 7. (4) 8. (1) 9. (5) 10. (2) 11. 2 12. 1 13. 2 14. 4 15. 5

Quiz : Important General Knowledge Questions with Answers No.

Question

Answer

01

The first Prime minister of Bangladesh was

Mujibur Rehman

02

The longest river in the world is the

Nile

03

The longest highway in the world is the

Trans-Canada

04

The longest highway in the world has a length of

About 8000 km

05

The highest mountain in the world is the

Everest

06

The country that accounts for nearly one third of the total teak production of the world is

Myan mar

07

The biggest desert in the world is the

Sahara desert

08

The largest coffee growing country in the world is

Brazil

09

The country also known as "country of Copper" is

Zambia

10

The name given to the border which separates Pakistan and Afghanistan is

Durand line

11

The river Volga flows out into the

Capsian sea

12

The coldest place on the earth is

Verkoyansk in Siberia

13

The country which ranks second in terms of land area is

Canada

14

The largest Island in the Mediterranean sea is

Sicily

15

The river Jordan flows out into the

Dead sea

16

The biggest delta in the world is the

Sunderbans

17

The capital city that stands on the river Danube is

Belgrade

18

The Japanese call their country as

Nippon

19

The length of the English channel is

564 kilometres

20

The world's oldest known city is

Damascus

21

The city which is also known as the City of Canals is

Venice

22

The country in which river Wangchu flows is

Myanmar

23

The biggest island of the world is

Greenland

24

The city which is the biggest centre for manufacture of automobiles in the world is

Detroit, USA

25

The country which is the largest producer of manganese in the world is

USA

26

The country which is the largest producer of rubber in the world is

Malaysia

27

The country which is the largest producer of tin in the world is

Malaysia

28

The river which carries maximum quantity of water into the sea is the

Mississippi

29

The city which was once called the `Forbidden City' was

Peking

30

The country called the Land of Rising Sun is

Japan

31

Mount Everest was named after

Sir George Everest

32

The volcano Vesuvius is located in

Italy

33

The country known as the Sugar Bowl of the world is

Cuba

34

The length of the Suez Canal is

162.5 kilometers

35

The lowest point on earth is

The coastal area of Dead sea

36

The Gurkhas are the original inhabitants of

Nepal

37

The largest ocean of the world is the

Pacific ocean

38

The largest bell in the world is the

Tsar Kolkol at Kremlin, Moscow

39

The biggest stadium in the world is the

Strahov Stadium, Prague

40

The world's largest diamond producing country is

South Africa

41

Australia was discovered by

James Cook

42

The first Governor General of Pakistan is

Mohammed Ali Jinnah

43

Dublin is situated at the mouth of river

Liffey

44

The earlier name of New York city was

New Amsterdam

45

The Eifel tower was built by

Alexander Eiffel

46

The Red Cross was founded by

Jean Henri Durant

47

The country which has the greatest population density is

Monaco

48

The national flower of Britain is

Rose

49

Niagara Falls was discovered by

Louis Hennepin

Quiz : Important General Knowledge Questions with Answers Part - 2 No.

Question

Answer

50

The national flower of Italy is

Lily

51

The national flower of China is

Narcissus

52

The permanent secretariat of the SAARC is located at

Kathmandu

53

The gateway to the Gulf of Iran is

Strait of Hormuz

54

The first Industrial Revolution took place in

England

55

World Environment Day is observed on

5th June

56

The first Republican President of America was

Abraham Lincoln

57

The country famous for Samba dance is

Brazil

58

The name of Alexander's horse was

Beucephalus

59

Singapore was founded by

Sir Thomas Stamford Raffles

60

The famous British one-eyed Admiral was

Nelson

61

The earlier name of Sri Lanka was

Ceylon

62

The UNO was formed in the year

1945

63

UNO stands for

United Nations Organization

64

The independence day of South Korea is celebrated on

15th August

65

`Last Judgement' was the first painting of an Italian painter named

Michelangelo

66

Paradise Regained was written by

John Milton

67

The first President of Egypt was

Mohammed Nequib

68

The first man to reach North Pole was

Rear Peary

69

The most famous painting of Pablo Picasso was

Guermica

70

The primary producer of newsprint in the world is

Canada

71

The first explorer to reach the South Pole was

Cap. Ronald Amundson

72

The person who is called the father of modern Italy is

G.Garibaldi

73

World literacy day is celebrated on

8th September

74

The founder of modern Germany is

Bismarck

75

The country known as the land of the midnight sun is

Norway

76

The place known as the Roof of the world is

Tibet

77

The founder of the Chinese Republic was

San Yat Sen

78

The first Pakistani to receive the Nobel Prize was

Abdul Salam

79

The first woman Prime Minister of Britain was

Margaret Thatcher

80

The first Secretary General of the UNO was

Trygve Lie

81

The sculptor of the statue of Liberty was

Frederick Auguste Bartholdi

82

The port of Banku is situated in

Azerbaijan

83

John F Kennedy was assassinated by

Lee Harry Oswald

84

The largest river in France is

Lore

85

The Queen of England who married her brother-in-law was

Catherine of Aragon

86

The first negro to be awarded the Nobel Peace Prize was

Ralph Johnson Bunche

87

The first British University to admit women for degree courses was

London University

88

The principal export of Jamaica is

Sugar

89

New York is popularly known as the city of

Skyscrapers

90

Madagascar is popularly known as the Island of

Cloves

91

The country known as the Land of White Elephant is

Thailand

92

The country known as the Land of Morning Calm is

Korea

93

The country known as the Land of Thunderbolts is

Bhutan

94

The highest waterfalls in the world is the

Salto Angel Falls, Venezuela

95

The largest library in the world is the

United States Library of Congress, Washington DC

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(Exam Info) Civil Services Examination, 2009 (Date : 06 - 12 - 2008 : Notice No. 04/2009-CSP ) EMAIL ALERTS:

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(NOTIFICATION) Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam 2009 Test Your IAS Exams Preparation.Give Online Mock Exams. Submitted by IASguru on Sat, 2008-12-06 08:24.

• • • •

Exam Notifications IAS UPSC

IMPORTANT Date : 06 - 12 - 2008 Civil Services Examination, 2009 Examination Notice No. 04/2009-CSP

1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION: The Candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all eligibility condition for admission to examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions Mere issue of admission certificate to the candidate will not imply that his candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission. Commission take up verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents only after the candidate has qualified for interview/Personality Test. 2.APPLICATION FORM : Candidates must apply in the Common Application Form devised by the Commission for its examination, which can be purchased from the Designated Head Post Offices/Post Offices (specified in Appendix III of the notice) throughout the country against cash payment of Rs. 20/- (Rupees Twenty only). Each such form can be used only once and only for one examination.

In case of any difficulty in obtaining Application Forms from the designated HPOs/POs, the candidates should immediately contact the concerned post Master or UPSC's "FORMS SUPPLY MONITORING CELL" over Telephone No. 011-23389366/FAX No. 011-23387310. Candidates are advised to read carefully the "Instructions for filling up the Application Form" given in Appendix-II of this notice.

3.

LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF APPLICATIONS :

All applications must reach the "Secretary, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi - 110069" either by hand or by Post/Speed Post or by Courier, on or before the 5th January, 2009

The candidates should not that applications will be received by hand only one at a time at the desginated counter(s) and not in bulk, till 5 PM only.

However, in respect of candidates residing abroad or in certain remote localities specified in para 6 of this Notice the last date for receipt of application by Post/Speed Post only (not by Hand or by Courier) is 12th January, 2009

4.Penalty for wrong answer (In objective type paper). Candidates should note that their will be penalty (Negative Marking) answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Question Papers.

5.FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES : In case of any guidance/information/clarification regarding their applications, candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC's Facilitation Counter near gate 'C' of its campus in person or over Telephone No. 01123385271/011-23381125/011-23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs and 17.00 hrs.

6.

MOBILE PHONES BANNED :

(a) Mobile phones, pagers or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.

(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not be bring any of the banned items including mobile phones/pagers to the venue of the examination, as arrangement for safekeeping cannot be assured.

F.1/9/2008-E.I.(B): Preliminary Examination of the Civil Services Examination for recruitment to the Services and posts mentioned below will be held by the Union Public Service Commission on the 17th May , 2009 in accordance with the Rules published by the Department of Personnel & Training in the Gazette in India Extraordinary dated the 6th December, 2008. Services/posts to which recruitment is to be made through the Examination are : (i) Indian Administrative Service. (ii) Indian Foreign Service. (iii) Indian Police Service. (iv) Indian P & T Accounts & Finance Service, Group ‘A’. (v) Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Group ‘A’. (vi) Indian Revenue Service (Customs and Central Excise) Group 'A' (vii) Indian Defence Accounts Service, Group ‘A’. (viii) Indian Revenue Service, Group ‘A’. (ix) Indian Ordnance Factories Service, Group 'A' (Assistant Works Manager,Non-technical) (x) Indian Postal Service, Group ‘A’. (xi) Indian Civil Accounts Service, Group ‘A’. (xii) Indian Railway Traffic Service, Group ‘A’. (xiii) Indian Railway Accounts Service, Group ‘A’. (xiv) Indian Railway Personnel Service, Group ‘A’. (xv) Post of Assistant Security Officer, Group 'A' in Railway Protection Force. (xvi) Indian Defence Estates Service, Group ‘A’. (xvii) Indian Information Service (Junior Grade), Group ‘A’. (xviii) Indian Corporate Law Service, Group "A" (xix) Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service, Group ‘B’ (Section Officer’s Grade) (xx) Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Civil Service, Group 'B'. (xxi) Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Police Service, Group 'B'. (xxii) Pondicherry Civil Service, Group 'B' (xxiii) Pondicherry Police Service, Group 'B' The number of vacancies to be filled on the results of the examination is expected to be approximately 580. The number of vacancies is liable to alteration.

Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes and Physically disabled categories in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government. Note : Services identified suitable for physically disabled category and number of vacancies reserved there against is as under :-

Sl. No.

Name of the Service

Category(s) for which identified

*Functional Classification

*Physical requirements

No. of Reserved Vacancy

1.

Indian Administrative Service

(i)Locomotor disability, (ii) Visual impairment and (iii)Hearing impairment

(i) BA, OL, OA, BH, MW

(i) S, ST, W, SE, H, RW T

4 (category not yet finalised )

(ii) PB

(ii) F, PP, L, KC, B, S, ST, W, H, RWT

(iii) PD

(iii) F, PP, L, KC, B, S, ST, W, SE, RWT

(i)Locomotor Disability (ii) Visual Impairment (iii)Hearing Impairment

OL, OA, OAL

S, ST, W, RW, C, MF, SE

1 (in the category of Locomotor Disability)

Indian Revenue Service (Customs & Central Excise, Gr.`A’)

(i)Locomotor disability, (ii)Hearing impairment

OL, OA,

S, ST, W, BN, L, SE,MF, RW , H, C

1 (in the category of Locomotor Disability)

Indian P&T Accounts & Finance Service, Gr.`A’

(i)Locomotor Disability (ii) Visual Impairment (iii)Hearing Impairment

OL, OA, OAL, BL

(i)Locomotor Disability (ii) Visual Impairment (iii)Hearing Impairment

OL, OA, OAL

(i)Locomotor Disability (ii) Visual Impairment (iii)Hearing Impairment

OL, OA, OAL, BL

(i)Locomotor disability, (ii)Hearing

(i) OA, OL, OAL, BL

2

3

4.

5

6

7

Indian Foreign Service

Indian Audit & Accounts Service, Gr.`A’

Indian Defence Accounts Service, Gr. ‘A’

Indian Revenue Service (IT), Gr. `A’

LV HH

HH

S, W, SE, RW, C

LV HH

LV

S, ST, W, BN, SE, RW, H, C

HH

LV

S, ST, W, BN, SE, RW, C

HH

(i) S, ST, W, SE, RW, C

2 (1 each for Locomotor disability and

8

9

10

11

12

13.

14.

15.

Indian Ordnance Factories Service, Gr.`A’

Indian Postal Service, Gr. ‘A’

Indian Civil Accounts Service, Gr. ‘A’

Indian Railway Accounts Service, Gr. ‘A’

Indian Railway Personnel Service, Gr. ‘A’

Indian Defence Estates Service, Gr.’A’

Indian Information Service, Gr.`A’

Indian Corporate Law Service, Gr'A'

impairment

(ii) HH

Hearing Imp.)

(i)Locomotor Disability (ii) Visual Impairment (iii)Hearing Impairment

OA, OL, OAL

PD

Hearing/speaking or communication

1 (in the category of Hearing Impairment)

(i)Locomotor Disability (ii) Visual Impairment (iii)Hearing Impairment

OA, OL, OAL, BL

S, ST, W, BN, RW, SE, H, C

(i)Locomotor Disability (ii) Visual Impairment (iii)Hearing Impairment

OA, OL, OAL, BL

(i)Locomotor Disability (ii) Visual Impairment (iii)Hearing Impairment

OA, OL, OAL, BL

(i)Locomotor Disability (ii) Visual Impairment (iii)Hearing Impairment

OA, OL

(i)Locomotor disability (ii)Blindness or Low Vision (iii) Hearing Impairment

OA, OL

(i)Locomotor Disability (ii) Visual Impairment (iii)Hearing Impairment

OA, OL, OAL, BL

(i)Locomotor Disability (ii) Hearing Impairment

Not yet finalised

LV

B, LV

1(in the category of Visual Impairment)

HH

LV

S, ST, W, SE, RW, H,C

HH

LV

S, ST, W, SE, RW, H,C

Not yet finalised

S, ST, W, SE, RW, H,C

Not yet finalised

HH

B, LV HH

S, ST, W, BN, MF, PP, KC, SE, RW, H, C

LV HH

B, LV

S, ST, W, SE, RW, H,C

1 (in the category of Visual Impairment)

ST, RW, SE, S, B, H

2(1 each for locomotor disability and hearing impairment)

HH

Not yet finalised

16.

17.

Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service, Gr.`B’ (Section Officers’ Grade)

Delhi , Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep , Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Civil Service, Gr.’B’

(i)Locomotor Disability (ii) Visual Impairment (iii)Hearing Impairment

OA, OL,

(i)Locomotor disability, (ii)Hearing impairment and (iii)Visual impairment

OA, OL, OAL, BL

LV

S, ST, W, BN,MF, SE, RW, H, C

HH

S, ST, W, SE, RW, MF, H, C

LV

HH

18.

19.

Delhi , Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep , Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Police Service, Gr.’B’

(i)Locomotor disability, and (ii)Hearing impairment

Pondicherry Civil Service, (Group B)

(i)Locomotor disability, (ii)Hearing impairment and (iii)Visual impairment

OL HH

OA, OL, OAL, BL LV

S, ST, W, BN, PP, KC, MF, SE, RW, H, C

S, ST, W, SE, RW, H, C

HH

(For details about functional classification and Physical Requirements para 9 of this notice may please be referred.) Above information is tentative: 2. (A) Centre of Examination : The examination will be held at the following centres : AGARTALA

GANGTOK

PATNA

AHMEDABAD

HYDERABAD

PUDUCHERRY

AIZWAL

IMPHAL

PORT BLAIR

ALIGARH

ITANAGAR

RAIPUR

ALLAHABAD

JAIPUR

RANCHI

AURANGABAD

JAMMU

SAMBALPUR

BANGALORE

JODHPUR

SHILLONG

BAREILLY

JORHAT

SHIMLA

BHOPAL

KOCHI

SRINAGAR

CHANDIGARH

KOHIMA

THIRUVANATHAPURAM

CHENNAI

KOLKATA

TIRUPATI

CUTTACK

LUCKNOW

UDAIPUR

DEHRADUN

MADURAI

VISHAKHAPATNAM

DELHI

MUMBAI

DHARWAD

NAGPUR

DISPUR

PANAJI (GOA)

The centres and the dates of holding the examination as mentioned above are liable to be changed at the discretion of the commission. While every effort will be made to allot the candidates to the centre of their choice for examination, the commission may, at their discretion allot a different centre to a candidate, when circumstances so warrant. blind candidates will, However, be required to take the Examination at the any one of seven centres, viz. Chennai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Kolkata, Lucknow, Dispur and Mumbai only. Candidates admitted to the Examination will be informed of the time table and place or places of examination. The candidates should note that no request for change of centre will normally be granted. However when a candidate desires a change in centre from the one he had indicated in his Application Form for the Examination, he must send a letter addressed to the Secretary, Union Public Service Commission, giving full justification as to why he desires a change in centre. Such requests will be considered on merits but requests received in the Commission’s Office after 6th February, 2009 will not be entertained under any circumstances nor will such communications be replied to. B. Plan of Examination :

The Civil Services Examination will consist of two successive stages (vide Appendix I Section I below). (i) Civil Services Preliminary Examination (Objective type for the selection of candidates for the Main Examination; and (ii) Civil Services Main Examination (Written and Interview) for the selection of candidates for the various Services and posts noted above. Applications are now invited for the Preliminary Examination only. Candidates who are declared by the Commission to have qualified for admission to the Main Examination will have to apply again in the detailed application form which would be supplied to them. The Main Examination is likely to be held in October/November, 2009. 3. Eligibility Conditions : (i) Nationality

(1) For the Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police Service, a candidate must be a citizen of India. (2) For other services, a candidate must be either :— (a) A citizen of India, or (b) a subject of Nepal, or (c) a subject of Bhutan, or (d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India. or (e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Srilanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. Provided further that candidates belonging to categories (b), (c) and (d) above will not be eligible for appointment to the Indian Foreign Service. A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him by the Government of India. (ii) Age Limits : (a) A candidate must have attained the age of 21 years and must not have attained the age of 30 years on 1st August, 2009, i.e. he must have been born not earlier than 2nd August, 1979 and not later than 1st August, 1988. (b) The upper age limit prescribed above will be relaxable: (i) upto a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe. (ii) upto a maximum of three years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates. (iii) upto a maximum of five years if a candidate had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period from the 1st January, 1980 to the 31st day of December, 1989. (iv) upto a maximum of three years in the case of Defence Services personnel disabled in operations during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof: (v) upto a maximum of five years in the case of ex-servicemen including Commissioned Officers and ECOs/SSCOs who have rendered at least five years Military Service as on 1st August, 2009 and have been released (i) on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year from 1st August, 2009) otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency, or (ii) on account of physical disability attributable to Military Service, or (iii) on invalidment. (vi) upto a maximum of five years in the case of ECOs/SSCOs who have completed an initial period of assignment of five years Military Service as on 1st August, 2009 and whose assignment has been extended beyond five years and in whose case the Ministry of Defence issues a certificate that they can apply for civil employment and that they will be released on three month's notice on selection from the date of receipt of offer of appointment. (vii) upto a maximum of 10 years in the case of blind, deaf-mute and Orthopaedically handicapped persons. NOTE I-Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and the Other Backward Classes who are also covered under any other clauses of para 3(ii) (b) above, viz. those coming under the category of Ex-servicemen, persons domiciled in the State of J & K, blind, deaf-mute and orthopadically handicapped etc. will be eligible for grant of cumulative age-relaxation under both the categories. NOTE II-The term ex-servicemen will apply to the persons who are defined as ex-servicemen in the Exservicemen (Re-employment in Civil Services and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended from time to time.

Note III-The age concession under para 3(ii) (b) (v) and (vi) will not be admissible to Ex-Servicemen and Commissioned Officers including ECOs/SSCOs who are released on own reguest. NOTE IV- Notwithstanding the provision of age-relaxation under para 3(ii) (b) (vii) above, a physically disabled candidate will be considered to be eligible for appointment only if he/she (after such physical examination as the Government or appointing authority, as the case may be, may prescribe) is found to satisfy the requirements of physical and medical standards for the concerned Services/posts to be allocated to the physically disabled candidates by the Government.

Save as provided above the age limits prescribed can in no case be relaxed. The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which extract must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate. These certificates are required to be submitted only at the time of applying for the Civil Services (Main) Examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above. NOTE 1:- Candidates should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Secondary Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted. Note 2 :- Candidates should also note that once a Date of Birth has been claimed by them and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently (or at any other Examination of the Commission) on any grounds whatsoever. Note 3 :- The candidate should exercise due care while entering their date of birth in column 8 of the application form for the Preliminary Examination. If on verification at any subsequent stage, any variation is found in their date of birth from the one entered in their matriculation or equivalent Examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the commission under the Rules. (iii) Minimum Educational Qualifications : The candidate must hold a degree of any of Universities incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University Under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, or possess an equivalent qualification. Note I : Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render them educationally qualified for the Commission’s examination but have not been informed of the results as also the candidates who intend to appear at such a qualifying examination will also be eligible for admission to the Preliminary Examination. All candidates who are declared qualified by the Commission for taking the Civil Services (Main) Examination will be required to produce proof of passing the requisite examination with their application for the Main Examination failing which such candidates will not be admitted to the Main Examination. The applications for the main examination will be called sometime in the month of July/August, 2009. Note II : In exceptional cases the Union Public Service Commission may treat a candidate who has not any of the foregoing qualifications as a qualified candidate provided that he has passed examination conducted by the other Institutions, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission justifies his admission to the examination. Note III : Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by Government as equivalent to professional and technical degree would also be eligible for admission to the examination. Note IV : Candidates who have passed the final professional M.B.B.S. or any other Medical Examination but have not completed their internship by the time of submission of their applications for the Civil Services (Main) Examination, will be provisionally admitted to the Examination provided they submit along with their application a copy of certificate from the concerned authority of the University/Institution that they had passed the requisite final professional medical examination. In such cases, the candidates will be required to produce at the time of their interview original Degree or a certificate from the concerned competent authority of the University/Institution that they had completed all requirements (including completion of internship) for the award

of the Degree.

(iv) Number of attempts : Every candidate appearing at the Civil Services Examination, who is otherwise eligible, shall be permitted four attempts at the examination. Provided that this restriction on the number of attempts will not apply in the case of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe candidates who are otherwise eligible. Provided further that the number of attempts permissible to candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes, who are otherwise eligible, shall be seven. This relaxation will be available to the candidates who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates. Provided further that a Physically handicapped will get as many attempts as are available to other non-physically handicapped candidates of his or her community, subject to the General Category shall be eligible for seven attempts. The relaxation will be available to the physically handicapped candidates who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates. Note:(i)

An attempt at a Preliminary Examination shall be deemed to be an attempt at the Examination.

(ii) If a candidate actually appears in any one paper in the Preliminary Examination, he/she shall be deemed to have made an attempt at the Examination. (iii) Notwithstanding the disqualification/cancellation of candidature, the fact of appearance of the candidate at the examination will count as an attempt.

(v) Restrictions on applying for the examination : A candidate who is appointed to the Indian Administrative Service or the Indian Foreign Service on the results of an earlier examination and continues to be a member of that service will not be eligible to compete at this examination. In case such a candidate is appointed to the IAS/IFS after the Preliminary Examination of Civil Services Examination, 2009 is over and he/she continues to be a member of that service, he/she shall not be eligible to appear in the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2009 notwithstanding his/her having qualified in the Preliminary Examination, 2009. Also provided that if such a candidate is appointed to IAS/IFS after the commencement of the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2009 but before the result thereof and continues to be a member of that service, he/she shall not be considered for appointment to any service/post on the basis of the result of this examination viz. Civil Services Examination, 2009. (vi) Physical Standards : Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to Civil Services Examination. 2009 as per guidelines given in Appendix-III of Rules for Examination published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary dated 6th December, 2008. 4. FEE : A candidate seeking admission to examination must pay to the Commission a fee of Rs. 50.00 (Rupees Fifty only) through a single Central Recruitment Fee Stamp of requisite denomination. Central recruitment Fee Stamp (NOT postage stamps) may be obtained from the post office and affixed on the application form in the space provided therein. The stamp must be got cancelled from the issuing Post Office with the date stamp of the post office in such a manner that the impression of the cancellation mark partially overflows on the application form itself but within the space provided on the form. The impression of the cancellation mark should be clear and distinct to facilitate the identification of date and the Post Office of issue. Candidates residing abroad should deposit the prescribed fee in the office of India's High Commissioner, Ambassador or representative abroad as the case may be for credit to account head "051-Public Service Commission-Examination Fees" and attach the receipt with the application.

Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes are not required to pay any fee. No Fee exemption is, However, Available to OBC Candidates and they are required to pay the full prescribed fee. Physically disabled persons are exempted from the payment of fee provided they are otherwise eligible for appointment to the Services/Posts to be filled on the results of this examination on the basis of the standards of medical fitness for these Services/Posts (including any concessions specifically extended to the physically disabled). A physically disabled candidate claiming fee concession will be required by the Commission to submit along with their detailed application form, a certified copy of the certificate from a Government Hospital/Medical Board in support of his claim for being physically disabled. NOTE : Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision for fee exemption, a physically disabled candidate will be considered to be eligible for appointment only if he (after such physical examination as the Government or the appointing authority, as the case may be, may prescribe) is found to satisfy the requirements of physical and medical standards for the concerned Services/Posts to be allocated to Physically disabled candidates by the Government. 'Postage Stamps' will in no case be accepted in lieu of 'Central Recruitment Fee Stamp'. Candidates should note that the fee sent through Indian Postal Orders, Bank Draft, Money Order, Crossed Cheque, Currency notes or Treasury Challan etc. will not be accepted by the Commission and such applications will be treated as without fee and will be summarily rejected.

Note I : Applications not accompanied by the prescribed Fee (Unless remission of Fee is claimed) shall be summarily rejected. Note II : Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee be held in reserve for any other examination or selection. Note III : If any candidate who took the Civil Services Examination held in 2008 wishes to apply for admission to this examination, he must submit his application so as to reach the Commission’s Office by the prescribed date without waiting for the results or an offer of appointment. Note IV : Candidates admitted to the Main Examination will be required to pay a further fee of Rs. 100/- (Rs. One hundred only). 5. How to Apply: (a) The UPSC have developed an application form common for all their examinations which will be processed on computerised machines. This application form alongwith an Information Brochure containing general instructions for filling up the form, an acknowledegment card and an envelope for sending the application is obtainable from the designated Head Post Offices/Post Offices throughout the country as listed in Appendix-III of Notice against cash payment of Rs. 20/- (Rupees twenty only). Form should be purchased from the designated Post Offices only and not from any other agency. This form can be used only once and for only one examination. Candidates must use the form supplied with the Information Brochure only and they should in no case use photocopy/reproduction/unauthorisedly printed copy of the Form. Since this form is electronically scannable, due care should be taken to fill up the application form, correctly. While filling up the application form, please refer to detailed instructions given in Appendix-II of this Notice. The candidate should also fill up in the relevant places of the Acknowledgement Card, their Application Form Number (8-digit) and the name of the examination. The applicants are required to affix the postage stamp of Rs. 6/- on the Acknowledgement Cards and sent the same along with Application Form to UPSC. If an applicant fails to affix the postage stamp of requisite amount, his Acknowledgment Cards will be not be despatched and Commission will not be responsible for non-receipt of acknowledgement cards by the applicant. . The duly filled in application form and the acknowledgement card should then be mailed in the special envelope supplied with the Information Brochure. The Candidates should also write the name of examination viz. "Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2009" on the envelope before despatching it to "Secretary, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahajahan Road, New Delhi-110069". (b) All candidates, whether already in Government Service, or in Government owned industrial undertakings or other similar organisations or in private employment should submit their applications direct to the Commission. If any candidate forwards his application through his employer and it reaches the Union Public Service Commission late, the application, even if submitted to the employer before the closing date, will not be considered. Persons already in Government service, whether in a permanent or temporary capacity or as workcharged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises are however,

required to submit an undertaking that they have informed in writing their Head of Office/Department that they have applied for the Examination. Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their applications will be liable to be rejected/candidature will be liable to be cancelled. NOTE 1 : While filling in his application form, the candidate should carefully decide about his choice for the centre and optional subject for the Examination. More than one application from A candidate giving Different centres and/or optional subjects will not be accepted in any case. Even if a candidate sends more than one completed application the Commission will accept only one application at their discretion and the Commission's decision in the matter shall be final. If any candidate appears at a centre/optional subject other than the one indicated by the Commission in his Admission Certificate, the papers of such a candidate will not be valued and his candidature will be liable to cancellation. NOTE-2 : Since These application forms are to be processed in a computerised system, Due care should be taken by the candidates to fill up their application form correctly. Necessary instructions for filling up the form may be seen at appendix II. No column of the Application should be left blank. Incomplete or defective applications shall be summarily rejected. No representation or correspondence regarding such rejection shall be entertained under any circumstances. Candidates are not required to submit along with their applications any certificate in support of their claims regarding Age, Educational Qualifications, Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes/Other Backward Classes and Physically disabled etc. Which will be verified at the time of the Main examination only. The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. Preliminary Examination, Main (Written) Examination and Interview Test will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the Preliminary Examination, Main (written) Examination and Interview Test, it is found that they do not fulfil any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission. If any of their Claims is found to be Incorrect, they may render themselves liable to disciplinary action by the Commission in terms of rule 14 of the rules for the Civil Services Examination, 2009 reproduced below : A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of : (i) Obtaining support for his candidature by the following means, namely :– (a) offering illegal gratification to, or (b) applying pressure on, or (c) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the examination, or (ii) impersonating, or (iii) procuring impersonation by any person, or (iv) submitting fabricated documents or documents which have been tampered with, or (v) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information, or (vi) resorting to the following means in connection with his candidature for the examination, namely (a) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means, (b) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the examination. (c) influencing the examiners, or (vii) using unfair means during the examination, or (viii) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches in the scripts, or

(ix) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow examinees to boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like, or (x) harassing or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of their examinations, or (xi) being in possession of or using mobile phone, paper or any electronic equipment or device or any other equipment capable of being used as a communication device during the examination; or (xii) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their admission certificates permitting them to take the examination; or (xiii) attempting to commit or as the case may be abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses; may in addition to rendering himself liable to criminal prosecution, be liable. (a) to be disqualified by the Commission from the examination for which he is a candidate and/or (b) to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period (i) by the Commission from any examination or selection held by them; (ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them; and (c) if he is already in service under Government to disciplinary action under the appropriate rules. Provided that no penalty under this rules shall be imposed except after (i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation, in writing as he may wish to make in that behalf; and (ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed to him into consideration. 6. Last date for receipt of applications : (i) The completed Application Form must reach the Secretary, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi 110069 on or before 5th January, 2009. (ii) In respect of applications received only by post (by post/speed post) from the candidates residing in Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Jammu & Kashmir, Lahaul and Spiti District and Pangi Sub-Division of Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh, Andaman and Nicobar Islands or Lakshadweep or abroad, the last date for receipt of applications is 12th January, 2009 till 5 PM only. The benefit of extended time will be available only in respect of applications received by post/speed post from the above mentioned areas/regions. In the case of applications received by hand or through courier service, benefit of extended time will not be available regardless of the place of residence of the applicant. Candidates who are claiming the benefit of extended time should clearly indicate in column 13 (II) of the application form, the area code of the particular area or region (e.g. Assam, Meghalaya, J&K etc.) where they are residing. In case they fail to do so, the benefit of extended time will not be allowed to them. NOTE:-(i) Candidates should clearly note that the Commission will in no case be responsible for non-receipt of their application or any delay in receipt thereof on any account whatsoever. No application received after the prescribed last date will be entertained under any circumstances and all the late applications will be summarily rejected. They should therefore, ensure that their applications reach the Commission's Office on or before the prescribed last date. NOTE:-(ii) Candidates can also deliver their applications personally at the Commission's counter against proper acknowledgement. The Commission will not be responsible for the applications delivered to any other functionary of the Commission. NOTE:-(iii) The candidates should note that applications will be received by hand only one at a time at the designated counter(s) and not in bulk, till 5 PM only. NOTE:-(iv) Applications received through Couriers or Courier Services of any type shall be treated as having been received "By hand" at the Commission's Counter.

7. Acknowledgement of applications : Immediately on receipt of an application from a candidate, the Acknowledgement Card submitted by him alongwith the application form will be despatched to him by the Commission’s office duly stamped in token of receipt of his Application. If a candidate does not receive the Acknowledgement Card within 30 days, he should at once contact the Commission by quoting his Application Form No. (8-digit) and name & year of examination. Candidates delivering the application form in person at the Commission’s Counter will be issued Acknowledgement Card at the Counter itself. The mere fact that a candidate’s application has been acknowledged by the Commission does not mean that his candidature for the examination has been accepted by the Commission. Candidates will be informed at the earliest possible about their admission to the examination or rejection of their application. 8. Correspondence with the Commission: The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the candidates about their candidature except in the following cases: (i) Every candidate for this examination will be informed at the earliest possible date of the result of his application. Admission certificates, indicating the Roll Nos. will be issued to the candidates who are admitted to the examination. The admission certificate will bear the photograph of the candidate. If a candidate does not receive his admission certificate or any other communication regarding his candidature for the examination three weeks before the commencement of the examination, he should at once contact the Commission. On receipt of such a communication, Admission certificate or a duplicate copy thereto will be issued to the admitted candidate. Information in this regard can also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter located in the Commission’s Office either in person or over phone Nos. 011-23381125/23385271/23098543. In case no communication is received in the Commission's office from the candidate regarding non-receipt of his admission certificate atleast 3 weeks before the examination, he himself will be solely responsible for nonreceipt of his admission certificate. It may be noted that the Admission Certificate will be issued at the address as photocopied from the application form filled in by the candidate. The candidate should, therefore, ensure that address given by him in the application form is correct and complete with pin code. No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination unless he holds a certificate of admission for the examination. On the receipt of Admission Certificate, check it carefully and bring discrepancies/erros, if any, to the notice of UPSC immediately. The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be purely provisional based on the information given by them in the application form. This will be subject to verification of all the eligibility conditions by the UPSC. The mere fact that a certificate of admission to the Examination has been issued to a candidate, will not imply that his candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission or that entries made by the candidate in his application for the Preliminary examination have been accepted by the Commission as true and correct. Candidates may note that the Commission takes up the verification of eligibility conditions of a candidate, with reference to original documents, only after the candidate has qualified for Civil Services (Main) Examination. Unless candidature is formally confirmed by the Commission, it continues to be provisional. The decision of the Commission as to the eligibility or otherwise of a candidate for admission to the Examination shall be final. Candidates should note that the name in the Admission Certificate in some cases, may be abbreviated due to technical reasons. (ii) In the event of a candidate receiving more than one admission certificate from the Commission, he should use only one of these admission certificates for appearing in the examination and return the other(s) to the Commission Office. (iii) A candidate must see that communications sent to him at the address stated in his application are redirected, if necessary. Change in address should be communicated to the Commission at the earliest opportunity. Although the Commission make every effort to take account of such changes, they cannot accept any responsibility in the matter. (iv) Candidates are informed that as the Preliminary Examination is only a screening test, no marks sheets will be supplied to successful or unsuccessful candidates and no correspondence will be entertained by the Commission, in this regard. (v) If a candidate receives an admission certificate in respect of some other candidate on account of handling error, the same should be immediately returned to the Commission with a request to issue the correct AC.

Candidates may note that they will not be allowed to take the examination on the strength of an admission certificate issued in respect of another candidate.

Important : All communications to the Commission should invariably contain the following particulars. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Name and year of the examination. Application Form Number (8-digit) Roll Number (if received) Name of candidate (in full and in block letters) Complete postal address as given in the application.

N.B. I. Communication not containing the above particulars may not be attended to. N.B. II. Candidates should also note down their application form number (8 digit) for future reference. They may be required to indicate the same in connection with their candidature for the Civil Services (Main) Examination. 9. Physical Requirements for the Disabled Candidates:The eligibility for availing reservation against the vacancies reserved for the physically disabled persons shall be the same as prescribed in "The Persons with Disability (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995". Provided further that the physically disabled candidates shall also be required to meet special eligibility criteria in terms of physical requirements functional classification (abilities disbailities) consistent with requirements of the identified service/post as may be prescribed by its cadre controlling authority. The physical requirement and functional classification can, for example, be one or more of the following: Code

Physical Requirements

F 1.Work performed by manipulating (with Fingers) PP2. Work performed by pulling & pushing L 3. Work performed by lifting KC

4. Work performed by kneeling and crouching

B 5. Work performed by bending S 6. Work performed by sitting (on bench or chair) ST7. Work performed by standing W8. Work performed by walking SE9. Work performed by seeing H10. Work performed by hearing/speaking RW 11. Work performed by reading and writing.

Code BL

Functional Classification

1. both legs affected but not arms

BA 2. both arms affected a. impaired reach b. weakness of grip. c. ataxic BLA 3. both legs and both arms affected.

OL 4. one leg affected (R or L) a. impaired reach b. weakness of grip c. ataxic OA

5. one arm affected (R or L) - do -

BH

6. stiff back and hips (cannot sit or stoop).

MW 7. muscular weakness and limited physical endurance. B 8. the blind PB D

9. partially blind 10. the deaf

PD 11. partially deaf. Note: Above lists are only illustrative 10. Withdrawal of applications : No request for withdrawal of candidature received from a candidate after he has submitted his application will be entertained under any circumstances. -------(KUMAR SANJAY BARIAR) Joint Secretary Union Public Service Commission

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