Passed H12.docx

[Passed H12-224] HCNP-R&S Fast Track H12-224 Dumps Killtest During configuration of the WRED drop profile, the lower drop threshold and upper drop threshold for AF21 traffic are 35 and 90, the lower drop threshold and upper drop threshold for AF22 traffic are 30 and 90, and the lower drop threshold and upper drop threshold for AF23 traffic are 25 and 90. The maximum drop probability for AF21, AF22, and AF23 traffic is 10%. Before congestion occurs, which type of traffic can obtain bandwidth guarantee? A. AF21 B. AF22 C. AF23 D. AF21, AF22, and AF23 traffic Answer: A MUX VLAN provides a mechanism for network resource control based on VLANs. Which of the following concepts do not belong to the MUX VLAN? A. Principal VLAN B. Subordinate VLAN C. Guest VLAN D. Subordinate group VLAN Answer: C Which of the following aspects should be considered during preliminary analysis of a migration project? (Multiple Choice) A. Necessity B. Feasibility C. Risks D. Costs Answer: ABC In an IS-IS broadcast network, which multicast MAC address is used by a Level-2 muter as the destination address of sent IS-IS Hello packets? A. 0180-c200-0014 B. 0180-c200-0016 C. 0180-c200-0015 D. 0100-5E00-0002 Answer: C An AS boundary router can be an internal router or ABR and must belong to the backbone area. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: B Which of the following statements regarding a multicast distribution tree is false? A. There are two types of multicast distribution trees: SPT and RPT B. The PIM-SM protocol can generate both RPT trees and SPT trees

C. The PIM-DM protocol can generate both RPT trees and SPT trees D. The PIM-DM protocol can generate only SPT trees Answer: C Which of the following parameters is optional when you configure a RADIUS server template on a Huawei switch? A. Authentication server IP address and port B. Automatic RADIUS user detection C. Accounting server address and port D. Shared-key Answer: B Which of the following OSPF neighbor states occurs only on NBMA networks? A. Down B. Init C. Attempt D. 2-way Answer: C ASFF enables the firewall to support multi-channel protocols such as FTP and to define security policies for complex applications. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: A

H12-221 HCNP-Routing&Switching-IERS Examination Last Update:2018-09-12 17:30:18 1. (True or False) Each DD packet has a DD sequence number, which is used for DD packet acknowledgement. DD contains complete link state information. ( )

2. (Single Response) Which of the following statements regarding stub area configuration notes is true? ( ) A. The backbone area can be configured as a stub area. B. If an area is configured as a stub area, all the routers within this area must have stub area attributes configured. C. An ASBR can belong to a stub area. D. A virtual link can pass through a stub area.

3. (Single Response) What is the Origin attribute of the routes injected into BGP using the network command? ( ) A. IGP B. EGP C. Incomplete D. Unknown

4. (Single Response) Which of the following statements regarding Local-Preference is true? ( ) A. Local-Preference is a well-known mandatory attribute. B. Local-Preference affects traffic that enters an AS. C. Local-Preference can be transmitted between ASs. D. The default Local-Preference value is 100.

5. (True or False) The AS_Path attribute cannot take effect within an AS. Therefore, a BGP router will not advertise any Update message received from an IBGP peer to other IBGP peers. ( )

6. (True or False) The first four bits of a multicast IP address are fixed as 1110 and are mapped to the high 25 bits of a multicast MAC address. Among the last 28 bits of a multicast IP address, only 23 bits are mapped to a multicast MAC address, and information about the other 5 bits is lost. As a result, 32 multicast IP addresses are mapped to the same MAC address. ( )

7. (True or False) IGMPv1 defines a mechanism to select a querier when there are multiple routers on a shared network. ( )

8. (Multiple Response) What services and functions can ACLs be applied to the router AR3200? ( ) A. Routing policy B. Traffic classifier C. Firewall D. Policy-based routing

9. (Multiple Response) Which of the following statements regarding routing policy and policy-based routing are true? ( ) A. Policy-based routing is used to control packet forwarding without following routes in the routing table. B. A routing policy is used to control import, advertisement, and receiving of routing information. C. A routing policy is used to control packet forwarding without following routes in the routing table. D. Policy-based routing is used to control import, advertisement, and receiving of routing information.

10. (Single Response) Port isolation provides secure and flexible networking solutions for users. Which of the following statements regarding port isolation is false? ( ) A. Port isolation can be used for configuring Layer 2 isolation. B. By default, interfaces are isolated at Layer 2 but can communicate at Layer 3. C. Before the port isolation function takes effect on an interface, the port isolation function must be enabled. D. The port-isolate enable command can run in the system view.

11. (Single Response) On a network running RSTP, some devices use STP. When RSTP-enabled switches detect a topology change, which method is used by the RSTP-enabled switches to notify STP-enabled switches of the topology change? ( ) A. RSTP BPDUs with the TC are used. B. STP BPDUs with the TC are used. C. RSTP BPDUs with the TCA are used. D. STP BPDUs with the TCA are used.

12. (Multiple Response) RSTP defines different ports compared with STP. Which of the following ports cannot work in forwarding state? ( ) A. Root port B. Designated port C. Backup port D. Alternate port

13. (Single Response) Which of the following statements regarding MUX VLAN is true? ( ) A. You do not need to configure the principal VLAN and subordinate VLAN in sequence. B. The MUX VLAN function must be enabled on an interface so that it can take effect. C. The principal VLAN and the subordinate VLAN of the MUX VLAN can be the same VLAN. D. The MUX VLAN can contain only one subordinate group VLAN.

14. (Single Response) Which of the following statements regarding an SPT switchover after RPT setup is false? ( ) A. An RPT cannot provide multicast forwarding for a long time. B. Because all multicast traffic passes through an RP router, the RP router may become the data forwarding bottleneck. C. An SPT has the shortest path and provides higher forwarding performance than an RPT. D. A RPT cannot be used to forward high volumes of traffic.

15. (Single Response) Which of the following statements regarding the summary automatic command and BGP route summarization is false? ( ) A. This command enables automatic summarization for the locally imported routes. B. After this command is configured, BGP summarizes routes based on natural network segments. C. After this command is configured, BGP sends only the summarized routes to peers. D. This command is used to implement automatic summarization. Automatic summarization takes precedence over manual summarization.

16. (Single Response) What is the function of the detail-suppressed keyword in the aggregate command? ( ) A. It suppresses the delivery of generated summarized routes to the IP routing table. B. It suppresses the delivery of specific routes to the IP routing table. C. It only advertises the summarized routes to other BGP peers. D. It advertises both the summarized routes and specific routes to other BGP peers.

17. (Multiple Response) Which of the following statements regarding the MED value are true? ( ) A. According to BGP route selection rules, the MED value has a lower priority than AS_Path, PreferredValue, Local-Preference, and Origin. B. The default MED value of BGP routes is 0. C. By default, BGP can compare the MED values of routes from different ASs. D. By default, if there is no MED value in routes, the value 0 is used. If the bestroute med-none-asmaximum command is configured, the maximum MED value 4294967295 is used.

18. (Multiple Response) Which of the following statements regarding DR/BDR are false? ( ) A. All DR others establish neighbor relationships with DR and BDR only. B. In a broadcast network, DR and BDR must be elected. A broadcast network without a DR or BDR cannot operate normally. C. DR others listen on the multicast address 224.0.0.5. D. DR others listen on the network address 224.0.0.6.

19. (Single Response) Which of the following statements regarding OSPF external route types is false? ( ) A. OSPF includes Type 1 and Type 2 external routes. B. The cost of a Type 1 external route is the addition of the AS external cost and the AS internal cost (the cost from a router to an ASBR). C. The cost of a Type 2 external route is the AS external cost. D. A Type 2 external route is always preferred over a Type 1 external route when other conditions are the same.

20. (Single Response) Which of the following statements regarding different LSA types is false? ( ) A. DD packets contain only LSA summary information, including LS Type, LS ID, Advertising Router, and LS Sequence Number. B. LS Request packets contain only LS Type, LS ID, and Advertising Router. C. LS Update packets contain complete LSA information. D. LS Ack packets contain complete LSA information.

Answer: 1.F 2.B 3.A 4.D 5.T 6.T 7.F 8.ABCD 9.AB 10.D 11.B 12.CD 13.B 14.A 15.D 16.C 17.ABD 18.ABD 19.D 20.D 1. (Multiple Response) Which of the following LSPs are established in Downstream Unsolicited (DU) label advertisement mode and ordered label distribution control mode? ( ) A. When the edge node finds a new destination address in its routing table that does not belong to any existing FEC, the edge node does not create a new FEC for the destination address. B. An LSP is established by binding an FEC to a label and advertising the binding relationship to the neighboring LSR. C. If the egress node has available labels for distribution, it allocates labels for the FEC and sends a label mapping message to the upstream node. D. After receiving a label mapping message, the LSR adds the corresponding entry to the label forwarding table. 2. (Multiple Response) Which of the following statements regarding the LDP session establishment process are true? ( ) A. Two LSRs send a Hello message to each other. If the Hello message carries the transport address, the LSR with a greater transport address initiates a TCP connection. B. If the Hello Message does not carry the transport address, destination IP addresses of the Hello Message are used to establish a TCP connection. The LSR with the larger IP address initiates a TCP connection. C. The initiator sends an Advertisement message to negotiate parameters for establishing an LDP session. These parameters include the LDP version, label distribution control mode, value of the Keepalive timer, maximum length of the PDU, and label space. D. If the responder accepts negotiated parameters, it sends an Initialization message and then a Keepalive message to the initiator. 3. (Single Response) MPLS VPN is used to solve some limitations of traditional VPN technology. Which are the major limitation that MPLS VPN solves? ( ) A. Private routes cannot communicate with each other. B. Leased lines are expensive. C. Bandwidth resources cannot be fully used. D. The address space is overlapping. 4. (Single Response) A VPN instance is also called a VPN routing and forwarding (VRF) table. Which of the following statements is false? ( ) A. VPN instances on a PE are independent of each other. B. Each VPN instance can be regarded as a virtual router, which maintains an independent address space and has one or more interfaces connected to the VPN. C. A PE maintains multiple routing and forwarding tables, including a public routing and forwarding table and one or more VRFs. D. A VPN instance can be bound to multiple sites. Multiple sites can be bound to one VPN instance. 5. (Multiple Response) DHCP snooping is a security feature that can be used to defend against various attacks, including ( ) A. Starvation attacks by changing the CHADDR field value B. Bogus DHCP server attacks

C. TCP flag attacks D. Man-in-the-middle attacks and IP/MAC spoofing attacks 6. (Multiple Response) Which of the following are included in the full lifecycle guest management of the Agile Controller? ( ) A. Account registration B. Account approval and distribution C. Account authentication D. Account audit and deregistration 7. (Multiple Response) Which of the following statements regarding terminal security management of the Agile Controller are true? ( ) A. Supports one-click restoration to reduce maintenance costs of terminals. B. Allows installation of only standard software, implementing desktop office standardization. C. Forces installation of clients meeting security requirements and prevents terminal data leaking. D. Prohibits installation of non-standard software to reduce the virus infection risks. 8. (Multiple Response) What are the mainly methods of data collection? ( ) A. Collection by physical optical splitter B. Collection through port mirroring C. Centralized collection by NMS D. Automatic collection 9. (Multiple Response) Which of the following items can be used as the filtering conditions for historical alarm query on eSight? ( ) A. Alarm severity B. First occurrence time C. Alarm source D. Alarm name 10. (Single Response) Which information of labels is used for simple traffic classification? ( ) A. DSCP priority B. IP precedence C. MPLS EXP priority D. 802.1p priority 11. (True or False) After add interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 is configured in the trust zone view of the USG series firewall, GigabitEthernet0/0/1 does not belong to the local zone anymore. ( ) 12. (Single Response) For interzone packet filtering, which traffic is belong to transmitted to outbound direction? ( ) A. Trusted zone -> Untrusted zone B. Untrusted zone -> Trusted zone C. Untrusted zone -> DMZ D. Trusted zone -> Local zone

13. (Single Response) Which of the following statements regarding Network Address and Port Translation (NAPT) and No Port Translation (No-PAT) is true? ( ) A. After NAPT translation, all packets are from the same IP address for external users. B. In No-PAT mode, only the transport layer protocol port number can be converted. C. In NAPT mode, only the network layer protocol address can be converted. D. In No-PAT mode, the network layer protocol address can be converted. 14. (Single Response) Which of the following statements regarding VRRP is false? ( ) A. VRRP determines the device role in the virtual router based on device priorities. B. If the backup router works in non-preemption mode, the backup router with a higher priority does not become the master router as long as the master router does not fail. C. Even if there is the master router, the backup router will preempt to be the master router. D. When two routers with the same priority preempt to be the master router, the IP addresses of interfaces are compared. The router with a larger IP address of the interface is selected as the master router. 15. (Single Response) Which command is used to enable association between BFD and VRRP? ( ) A. vrrp vrid 1 track bfd-session session-name 1 reduced 100 B. bfd-session vrrp vrid 1 track session-name 1 reduced 100 C. track vrrp vrid 1 bfd-session session-name 1 reduced 100 D. vrrp vrid 1 track bfd-session-name 1 reduced 100 16. (Single Response) In the SDN network architecture, which device is used to calculate the path and deliver the flow table? ( ) A. Application server B. Controller C. Orchestrator D. Device 17. (True or False) VXLAN is irrelevant to SDN technology. ( ) 18. (Single Response) How is OPEX defined? ( ) A. Maintenance cost B. Total cost of ownership (TCO) C. Operating cost D. O&M cost 19. (Single Response) In vAR application scenarios, which functions of the AR Router can be virtualized on a server? ( ) A. Firewall B. VoIP C. NAT D. VPN 20. (True or False) SDN and NFV are essentially the same concept and both define network function virtualization. ( )

Answer： 1.BCD 2.AD 3.D 4.D 5.ABD 6.ABCD 7.ABCD 8.ABC 9.ABCD 10.C 11.F 12.A 13.D 14.C 15.A 16.B 17.T 18.C 19.ABCD 20.F 1. (Multiple Response) Which of the following cabling modes are commonly used in a data center? ( ) A. TOR B. DOD C. EOR D. PHP E. NSF 2. (Simple Response) Which of the following features is not applied to enterprise WANs? ( ) A. Wide coverage B. Difficult O&M C. Multiple types D. High costs of utilization 3. (Multiple Response) Data center switches greatly differ from campus switches. Which of the following features are specific to data center switches but are not supported by campus switches? ( ) A. MSTP B. TRILL C. NFV D. FCoE E. VXLAN 4. (True or False) If the number of checked goods is different from the number of goods on the packing list, you can unpack and inspect goods and then contact the vendor to handle the inconsistency. ( ) 5. (Single Response) Which of the following authorization items is not required for risky operations? ( ) A. Management authorization B. Technology authorization C. Customer authorization D. Administrative authorization 6. (Multiple Response) Which of the following statements regarding the device software upgrade necessity are true? ( ) A. The new software version continuously increases new functions. B. The new software version continuously improves usability. C. The new software version continuously improves stability. D. You are advised to immediately upgrade the system software to the latest version. 7. (Single Response) Which of the following is the core idea of network troubleshooting? ( ) A. Service traffic path check B. Determining and analysis C. Information collection

D. Top-down 8. (Multiple Response) Which of the following tasks need to be completed during the planning stage of a project? ( ) A. Work out the technical design B. Know the project background C. Determine the model of network devices in the project D. Make clear the requirements of a project 9. (Multiple Response) Which of the following contents are included in a migration project solution? ( ) A. Migration preparation B. Migration implementation C. Rollback solution D. Contingency plan 10. (Single Response) Which of the following work is not prepared before the migration? ( ) A. Hardware test B. Software test C. Expenses D. Tools 11. (Single Response) During MSTP troubleshooting, the display current-configuration command is executed to obtain the configuration file of the device. Which of the following statements is false? ( ) A. Check the port configuration to verify that the MSTP-enabled port is configured (for example, using the bpdu enable command) to send protocol packets. B. The port connected to a user device has MSTP disabled or is configured as the edge port. C. The BPDU tunnel configuration has no impact on MSTP. D. Check whether the interface is added to the correct VLAN. 12. (Single Response) If all data packets are lost when you ping the peer host, which of the following methods is the most appropriate for subsequent troubleshooting? ( ) A. Configuration comparison B. Bottom-up C. Service traffic path check D. Top-down 13. (Multiple Response) During follow-up operations of the structured network troubleshooting process, which of the following parties does not require advertisement of information? ( ) A. Parties affected by the fault B. Authorization parties in each phase of troubleshooting C. Other vendors and service providers D. Users who are interested in the root cause for the fault 14. (Single Response) A network administrator fails to access devices on the internal network through Telnet. Which of the following causes is the most impossible? ( ) A. The route is unreachable, and the client fails to establish a TCP connection with the server.

B. The number of login users reaches the upper limit. C. An ACL is bound in the VTY user interface view. D. The protocol inbound all command is configured in the VTY user interface view. 15. (Multiple Response) Which of the following items are used to remind customers of information security? ( ) A. Account sort-out reminder B. Password update reminder C. Log protection reminder D. Data backup reminder 16. (Single Response) During the structured network troubleshooting process, which of the following statements regarding the fault identification phase is true? ( ) A. Focus on how to better solve faults, regardless of whether a fault is within your own responsibility scope. B. Pay attention to user feedback and identify faults based on user feedback. C. To minimize the fault effect, try not to let others know the network fault. D. Check whether the troubleshooting is within your own responsibility scope. 17. (Single Response) If a fault is located on a router that works in redundancy mode with another router, which of the following methods is the most appropriate for subsequent troubleshooting? ( ) A. Configuration comparison B. Bottom-up C. Service traffic path check D. Top-down 18. (Multiple Response) Which of the following causes may result in an IS-IS neighbor relationship fault? ( ) A. The devices on two ends of a link have the same system ID. B. The devices on two ends of a link have inconsistent IS-IS levels. C. When an IS-IS Level-1 neighbor relationship is established, the devices on two ends of a link have inconsistent area addresses. D. The IP addresses of interfaces on two ends of a link are on different network segments. 19. (Single Response) Which of the following events represent the end of the network planning stage? ( ) A. Project initiation B. Bid release C. Contract signing D. Preliminary project acceptance 20. (Single Response) Which of the following network features is described by counters such as mean time between failures (MTBF) and mean time to repair (MTTR)? ( ) A. Scalability B. Availability C. Security D. Cost-effectiveness

Answer： 1.AC 2.C 3.BDE 4.F 5.D 6.ABC 7.A 8.BD 9.ABCD 10.C 11.C 12.B 13.ABC 14.A 15.ABCD 16.D 17.A 18.ABCD 19.B 20.B