Obj

1) What are the three types of interfaces? Ans: 1.Input domain testing 2.Equivalence partitioning 3.Syntax checking 2) What three rules should be followed for all reviews? Ans: Three rules should be followed for all reviews: 1. The Product is reviewed, not producer. 2. Defects and issues are identified, not corrected. 3. All members of the reviewing team are responsible for the results of the review. 1) It is difficult to create test scenarios for high-level risks. (True / False) Ans: True. 2) During software acceptance (acceptance testing),__________ testing technique is relied upon for more accurate results (than other testing techniques listed below). a) White Box b) Black Box c) Incremental d) Thread Ans: Black Box 3) At a minimum, the developer should always execute Unit Regression Testing when a change is made. (True /False) Ans: True. 4) Modules are added in descending hierarchical order in ________ type of incremental testing. a) bottom up b)top down c)sandwich Ans: Top Down 5) __________ must be developed to describe when and how testing will occur. a) Test case b)test strategy c) test plan d)Risk Ans: Test Plan

1. Why is it important to measure the process of software engineering and software it produces? a. It is really not necessary unless the project is extremely complex. b. To determine costs and allow a profit margin to be set. c. To determine whether a software group is improving or not. d. To make software engineering more like other engineering processes. Ans: B (confused Between B and C) 2. A software quality metric that can be used at both the process and project levels is defect removal efficiency (DRE). a. True b. False Ans: A (DRE basically use to detect to defects before delivery) 3. Backfiring is the best way to compute function point measures once a software application is completed. a. True b. False Ans: A 4. Extended function point metrics are designed to be applied to a. business information systems applications b. PC applications c. real-time or embedded applications d. computer graphics applications 1

Ans: A 5. Evolutionary software process models a. Are iterative in nature b. Can easily accommodate product requirements changes c. Do not generally produce throwaway systems d. All of the above Ans: B 6. The rapid application development model is a. Another name for component-based development. b. A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly. c. A high-speed adaptation of the linear sequential model. d. All of the above. Ans: C 1. Testing begins at the component level and works “outward” towards the integration of the entire computer-based system. (True/False) True 2. For object-oriented systems, testing begins at the __object_______________ level. 3. Testers get involved with the project only when the testing steps are about to begin. (True/False) False 4. What is the role of an independent test group (ITG)? The main role is to ensure that quality is measured accurately. Since they are independent they give unbiased opinion about the product quality. They are independent as they report to different person/group whom development team reports. 5. Model of software failures (uncovered during testing) as a function of execution time is a graph resulting in _______________ shape. a) linear

b) parabolic

c) exponential

d) logarithmic

e) none of

the above 6. A software failure model is a graph between Failures per Test Hour _ (y-axis) and Execution Time (x-axis). a) Number of software failures; Execution Time b) Failures per test hour; Execution Time c) Execution Time; Failures per test hour d) Failures per test hour; Time taken to fix the failures 7. Define antibugging. Antibugging is a programming technique in which coding is done by taking a defensive approach to minimize the defects. 8. A ‘bathtub’ curve can be applicable to a) hardware

b) software

c) hardware and software

d) None of the above 2

Ans:-a 9. Alpha test is conducted at one or more customer sites by the end-user of the software. (True/False) True 10. Alpha tests are conducted in a _-controlled__ environment. a) controlled

b) non-controlled

11. Beta tests are conducted in a controlled environment. (True/False) 12. _alpha___test is conducted at the developer’s site by a customer. a) system

b) alpha

c) beta

d) None of the above

13. Name the three categories for debugging approaches. ?? 14. What is meant by error seeding and fault injection? Error Seeding : Error Seeding is a statistical method used to assess the number and characteristics of the faults remaining in the program. First faults are seeded into the program. Then the program is tested and the number of faults discovered is used to estimate the number of faults yet undiscovered. A difficulty with this technique is this that the seeded errors should represent the yet undiscovered errors. Fault Injection : Should be same as error seeding. Software Fault Injection is a form of software testing that is distinct from traditional black-box, system-level Software Testing; it allows software acquirers to determine software robustness when the software is fed anomalous input events. This is something that traditional Software Testing typically fails to address. Therefore, Software Fault Injection methods and tools provide a means for assessing the fault tolerance and trustworthiness of composed systems, and this technology assesses which components of the system require additional validation in order to demonstrate that certain behaviors (i.e. output events) from those components are not possible.

15. Distinguish between isolation and debugging. Isolation : Method thru which defects causing intermittent failure are captured. Debugging : The process of analyzing and correcting syntactic, logic and other errors identified during testing. Knowledge Domain 1: TEST PRINCIPLES AND CONCEPTS (contd...) 1. Name the causes from which most of the testing problems occur. Ans : Failure to define Test Objectives. Lack of support from Development Team. Lack of Training. Lack of use of effective techniques. 2. In Cost Effective situation, the cost of testing is less than the resultant loss from undetected defects. 3. As the cost of testing _increases_, the number of undetected defects _decreases. a)

decreases ; decreases

b)

increases ; increases

c)

increases ; decreases 3

d)

decreases ; remains same

e)

remains constant ; decreases

4. Optimum___ point in a testing cost curve (cost-effectiveness of testing curve) separates the ___Over Testing__condition and __Under Testing. condition. 5. At the optimum point condition in a testing cost curve, the cost of testing to uncover defects ___less_or same_____ the losses from those defects. 6. Define cost-effective perspective in testing. Cost Effective way of Testing is a way to achieve maximum advantage out of testing which means that Cost of Conduction Testing is less than the loss due to undetected defects. 7. Name the criteria involved in a testing policy. Two main criteria are Test Policy should be Organizations Policy. Testers should be involved from the beginning of the project. Not directly in the end. As quality can not be tested in build product. 8. Testing cost curve is a graph plotted between __Cost of Testing and _Loss due to undetected Defects. 9. Draw the Testing Cost Curve and the Optimum Test (where it occurs).

Loss Due to Untected Defects

Test Cost Curve 120 100 80 60 40 20 0

Loss Due to Untected Defect Testing Cost 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Testing Cost

10. What is The Domino Effect ? 11. Name the technological developments that caused organizations to revise their approach to testing. 12. What is testing policy? Testing Policy is Organizational Senior Management Policy towards Testing which should has impact on overall Organization. 13. Name the two components of the testing strategy and define them. a. Test Factor : The issue that needs to be addressed in Testing. b. Test Phase : The SDLC phase in which the test will be conducted. 14. _d______________ method, which is a true organizational policy, is used to establish a testing policy. a)

Management Directive 4

b)

Information Services Consensus Policy

c)

Users Meeting

d)

All the three above

e)

None of the above

15. Quality /Testing Policy_______ is an organizational responsibility. 16. Management Directive____method) is an economical and effective method to write a testing policy. 17. Testing after coding is the only Big Bang Technique (??? I am not sure)_ technique used to determine the adequacy of the system. 18. Mention the stages of a traditional software development life cycle. a. Conception b. Initiation c. Requirement d. Design e. Testing f. Implementation g. Retirement 19. It is not unusual to hear of testing consuming 50% of the development budget. (True / False) Ans:-T 20. Studies have shown that the majority of system errors occur in the _ Design _phase. a)

Requirements

b)

Design

c)

Code

d)

Testing

e)

Operation & Maintenance

21. Coding errors amount to _c.36% _ % of all detected system errors. a) 20

b) 25

c) 36

d) 50

e) 64

22. Studies show that approximately two-thirds of all detected system errors can be attributed to errors made during the design phase. (True / False) Ans:T 23. Over __50% % of the life cycle costs of a software system are spent on maintenance. a) 40

b) 50

c) 60

d) 30

e) None of the above

24. In designing a test strategy, _Risk__ become the basis or objective of testing. 25. List the considerations in Developing Testing Methodologies. a. Acquire and study the test strategy b. Determine the type of developing project c. Determine the type of software system d. Determine the project scope. e. Identify the tactical risks f. Determine when testing should occur g. Build the system test plan. h. Build the unit test plan.

26. Strategic risks are the low-level business risks faced by the software system. (True / False) Ans:-F 5

27.Strategic Risks are the high-level business risks faced by the software system.

27. Tactical risks are the high-level business risks faced by the software system. (True / False) Ans: T 29. Tactical risks are subsets at a lower level of the strategic risks. (True / False) Ans: T 30. What is the reason in decomposing the strategic risks into tactical risks? So that Test Scenarios can be created. It is hard to create Test situations for Strategic Risks. 31. Name the categories into which tactical risks can be divided. Structural Risks Technical Risks Size Risks 32 Test Plan. must be developed to describe when and how testing will occur. 33. What is incremental testing? Testing the interfaces between the unit tested programs as well as between components. 34. It is difficult to create test scenarios for high-level risks. (True / False) Ans: T 35. What are the different types of incremental testing? a. Top-Down b. Bottom Up 36. __ White Box _ testing assumes that the path of logic in a unit or program is known. a) White Box

b) Black Box

c) Static

d) Performance

e) None of

the above 38. During software acceptance (acceptance testing), _ b) Black Box

testing technique is

relied upon for more accurate results (than other testing techniques listed below). a) White Box

b) Black Box

c) Incremental

d) Thread

39. When evaluating the paybacks received from various test techniques, _White(Glass) Box Testing _ produces a higher defect yield than other dynamic techniques when planned and executed correctly. 40. What qualities must an individual possess to test effectively a software application? Good Communication Skill Good Error Guessing Good Analytical Skill Knowledge of Programming Concepts 41. Due to a change in design, the requirements for an already coded (built) software component (i.e., 1 software component among 10 software components in an application) got modified in its entirety.

The developer had to modify the code based on the new

requirements. Your role as a test manager is to choose the appropriate type of regression test to minimize the impact to the project schedule. What are the types and which type of regression test would you choose? Full Regression Test 6

42. At a minimum, the developer should always execute Unit Regression Testing when a change is made. (True / False) Ans: T 43. What are the rules that should be followed for all reviews? 1. Only the work product should be reviewed. Not the Author. That means the Review results should not be used in performance evaluation of Author. 2. Focus should be on finding the defects not on the solution of defects. 3. Reviewers should work as a team. They should all be responsible for finding the defects. 4. Review meeting should not last for more than two hours. 5. Review findings must be documented. 44. What is ‘stage containment’ as referred to reviews? “Stage Containment”: identifying defects in the stage in which they were created, rather than in later testing stages. Reviews are generally greater than 65% effective Testing is often less than 30% effective The earlier defects are found the less expensive they are to correct

Skill Category: 6 - Test Planning Process 1. What is the purpose/objective of a test plan? The main purpose is to organize and manage the Test Efforts and maximize the resource utilization to carry out testing tasks. Detailed Objectives Improve Testing Coverage Avoid unnecessary repetitions Analyze the program and spot good test cases quickly 2. "Testers are in a lose-lose situation". What does this mean? If they find more bugs – They are blamed for delaying the project, Developers are not happy and developers become defensive too. If they find less bugs – They are blamed for poor quality, Test manager is not happy , Upper Management is not happy. 3. What is it that tester(s) complain usually? Less testing Time, Low Priority to test 4. Test plan is a __bridge___ between the testers and the project team / users describing the role of testing in the project. 5. The test plan should provide: APPLY] a) background information on the software being tested the software c) test objective d) risks that need to be taken care of

[SELECT ALL THAT

b) details of each individual testing

e) specific tests to be performed

7

6. List the concerns that testers face in assuring that the test plan will be complete. Not Enough Training Us versus Them mentality Lack of Test Tools Lack of Management Understanding/Support of testing Lack of Customer and User Involvement Not Enough Time for testing Over Reliance On Independent Testers Rapid Changes Testers Are in a Lose-Lose Situations Having to Say ‘No’ 7. The concern "Us-versus-Them Mentality" occurs/arises a) when developers and testers are on the same side of testing issue b) between testers and end-users c) when developers and testers are on opposite sides of testing issue d) between developers and end-users 8. Developing the test plan can be shown to be _second___ step on the 11-step software testing process. 9. Which of the following tester's concern leads to the syndrome "throw it over the wall"? a) Us-versus-Them Mentality b)

Lack of customer and user involvement

c)

Not enough time for testing

d) Overreliance on independent testers e)

Having to say no

Ans: d 10. Test planning is an activity that commences after the product requirements analysis documents are ready. (True/False) Ans: F 11. List the input(s) used in developing the test plan. Software Contract Software Project Plan ( Which contains Project Schedule) Requirements Document Design Document

8

12. Match the "TEST FACTOR" with the appropriate "TEST": FACTOR TEST (a) RELIABILITY

TEST

(i) Recovery Testing

(b) FILE INTEGRITY (c) ACCESS CONTROL

(ii) Manual, Regression & Functional Testing (iii) Stress Testing

(d) CONTINUITY OF PROCESSING (iv) Compliance Testing (e) SERVICE LEVEL (f) PORTABLE

(v) Functional Testing (vi) Operations Test

(g) EASE OF OPERATION

(vii) Disaster Testing

Pick ONE from the given choices: A. (a)-(v); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii); (e)-(vii); (f)-(iii); (g)-(vi) B. (a)-(ii); (b)-(v); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii); (e)-(iv); (f)-(vii); (g)-(vi) C. (a)-(ii); (b)-(v); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i); (e)-(iii); (f)-(vii); (g)-(vi) D. (a)-(v); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i); (e)-(vi); (f)-(vii); (g)-(iii) Ans:C 13. Choose the one from the list of TEST FACTORS given below that doesn't map to Functional Testing. a) Reliability Performance

b) File Integrity f) Coupling

c) Audit Trail

d) Correctness

e)

Ans: e 14. What are the contents of a Software/Test Matrix? Test Matrix is a Table (or an arrangement), which contains different Modules to be tested as Rows and Types of Testing techniques to be conducted as Columns. One or more kind of testing techniques can be conducted for one module. 15. Name any 5 structural attributes of the software, which you might have worked upon, that may be impacted and thus require testing. Maintainability Reliability Complexity Efficiency Usability

Skill Category: 10 - Acceptance Testing 1. What is acceptance testing? 9

Acceptance Testing is formal testing conducted to determine whether a software system satisfied its acceptance criteria and to enable the buyer to determine whether to accept the system. Software acceptance testing is usually the final opportunity of the customer to examine the software and to object the developer for insufficient or incorrect software. 2. Software acceptance is a(n) ______________ process of approving or rejecting software systems during development or maintenance, according to how well the software satisfies predefined criteria. Answer) incremental 3. Acceptance test is _______________ step in the "V" concept testing process model. Answer) SEVENTH 4. Formal final software acceptance testing must occur at the end of the ____________ process. Answer) development 5. What are the features/items that software acceptance, in a life cycle process, has to care for? Answer) As a life cycle process, software acceptance enables: • Early detection of software problems (and time for the buyer to plan for possible late delivery) • Preparation of appropriate test facilities • Early consideration of the user’s needs during software development In Software Acceptance Testing Contract and Acceptance Criteria are most important things those are required to be taken care of. 6. If you happen to be the customer/user of the software, what are (your) the responsibilities for software acceptance? 1) Creation (or Update/review) of Acceptance Test Plan 2) Resource and Schedule for Acceptance Testing 3) Special Data collection for Acceptance Testing 4) Training Logistics for Acceptance Testing 5) Following Standard Practices while carrying out any tasks. 7. ________________ testing is designed to determine whether the software is "fit" for the user to use. Answer) ACCEPTANCE 8. The concept of "fit" in acceptance testing is important in _____________ and _____________. Answer) DESIGN ; TESTING 9. Mention the four components of fit in acceptance testing. Answer) The four components of fit in acceptance testing are: 1. Data 10

2. People 3. Structure 4. Rules 10. What are the concerns that a software user faces in making the acceptance decision? Answer) The concerns that a software user faces in making the acceptance decision are: a) Acceptance testing must be integrated into the overall development process b) Cost and time for acceptance testing will not be available c) The implementers of the project plan being unaware of the acceptance criteria d) The users do not possess required skill sets to perform acceptance testing 11. The acceptance-testing workbench begins with software __________________ for the system specifications. Answer) that has been system tested 12. What is a 'Use Case'? Answer) A Use Case is a description of how a user (or another system) uses the system being designed to perform a given task. Use case is a set of sequence of steps describing an interaction between user and system.

13. What is a System Boundary Diagram? Give an example. Answer) A System Boundary Diagram depicts the interfaces between the software being tested and the individuals, systems, and other interfaces. The purpose of the system boundary diagram is to establish the scope of the system and to identify the interfaces that need to be developed. Example: System Boundary Diagram for an automated teller machine (ATM).

Bank Customer

ATM Control System

Security Alarm System

Best Bank ATM

ATM Service Technician

ATM System Administrator

14. 'Test Cases' cannot be developed with system users and designers as the 'Use Cases' are being developed. (True/False) Answer) FALSE 15. What are the acceptance requirements that a system must meet in acceptance testing? 11

Answer) Acceptance requirements that a system must meet can be divided in 4 categories:

a) Functionality requirements, which relate to the business rules that the system b) c) d)

must execute. Performance requirements, which relate to operational requirements such as time or resource constraints. Interface quality requirements, which relate to a connection to another component of processing. Overall software quality requirements are those that specify limits for factors or attributes such as reliability, testability, correctness, and usability.

16. Name the inputs for the acceptance-testing workbench. Answer) The three inputs for the acceptance-testing workbench are: 1. Interim Work Products 2. Tested Software 3. Unresolved defect list 17. There should be _____________ relationship between use case definitions and test cases. Answer) one-to-one 18. ________________ is the input to the test case work paper. Answer) Use case description 19. Software acceptance is a ____________ process during which users and developers identify criteria for the acceptance of software systems. Answer) contractual 20. What is the objective of acceptance testing? The objective of acceptance testing is to determine throughout the development cycle that all aspects of the development process meet the user's needs.

MOST DEFINITIONS ARE FROM CSTE GUIDE BOOK 1. What is the percent of the total cost of quality that comes from rework? 15-50% 2. What is the percent of the total gross of sales that come from product failure? 20% (Manufacturing Business) 30% (Service Sector) 3. What is the cost of quality? Prevention Cost + Appraisal Cost + Failure Cost (Total cost in multiple iterations – cost of doing things right first time) 12

4. What is management by fact? Management by fact is using quantitative measures and metrics to manage the planning, execution, and reporting of software testing. 5. What are the three types of interfaces? • Interfaces o Person/Machine - Interfaces that include the operating system and the development languages that are available, as well as the input/output facilities. o Communications Interfaces - Interfaces that include transmission of information between computers and remote equipment (e.g., transmission of computer data over networks.) o Program Interfaces - Interfaces for the exchange of information, whether on the same computer, or distributed across multiple tiers of the application architecture. 6. What is boundary value testing? The kind of testing in which test data or test cases are selected by identified the boundaries that separate valid and invalid conditions. Tests are conducted to test the inside and outside of these boundaries, in addition to these boundary points. Experience suggests that these tests have higher payoff than selecting the random values for testing. 7. What is decision/branch coverage strategy? Branch Coverage Testing seeks to ensure that every branch has been executed. Branch Coverage can be tested by probes inserted at points in the program that represent arcs from branch points in the flow graphs. 8. Which of the following is not one of the 6 Structural Test Approaches? Options not present … These are six Structural Testing

o Load/Stress . o Execution o Recovery o Operations o Compliance (to process) o Security 9. Which of the following is not one of the 8 Functional Test Approaches? o Requirements o Regression o Error Handling o Manual Support. o Interfaces/Intersystem o Control o o

Parallel – Acceptance Testing

11. Which of the following is not a perspective of quality? a. transcendent b. product-based c. translucent d. user-based e. value-based f. manufacturing based Ans:Translucent 13

12.

True or False. Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things. False 13. Which of the following is not one of Deming's 14 points for management? a. Adopt a new philosophy b. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets for the work force c. Mobility of management d. Create constancy of purpose Ans: c 14. True or False. The largest cost of quality is from production failure. True 15. Defects are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle? a. Requirements b. Analysis & Design c. Construction d. Implementation Ans: b 16. A review is what category of cost of quality? a. Preventive b. Appraisal c. Failure Ans:b 17. True or False. A defect is related to the term fault. True 18. What type of change do you need before you can obtain a behavior change? a. Lifestyle b. Vocabulary c. Internal d. Management Ans:c 19. Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs? a. 10-20 b. 40-50 c. 70-80 d. 5-10 Ans:b 20. The purpose of software testing is to: a. Demonstrate that the application works properly b. Detect the existence of defects c. Validate the logical design Ans:b 21. True or False. One of the key concepts of a task force is that the leader be an expert in leading groups as opposed to an expert in a topical area. True 22. Match the following terms with their definitions: a. Black box testing b. White box testing c. Conversion testing d. Thread testing e. Integration testing Definitions not found : Here are the definitions as per CSTE Guide Book

14

Black Box Testing : A test techniques that focuses on testing the functionality of the program , component, or application against its specifications without the knowledge of how the system is constructed ; usually data or business process driven. Logic or path is unknown. White Box Testing : A test technique that assumes that path of the logic of the program is known. White box testing is usually consists of testing paths, branch by branch, to produce predictable results. This test technique is usually used by the development team in testing units and components. Conversion Testing : A test technique that validates the effectiveness of data conversion process, includes fields to field mapping, and data transaction. Thread Testing : Test technique in which a string of unit which accomplish a specific function is tested. Integration Testing: Testing two or more programs or components that interact with each other to validate the quality and correct data transfer and interfaces. 1. The three main parts to a system presentation are: Preparing, presenting, and closing.

2. An oral system proposal: a. Allows the project leaders to walk users through the important features of the solution to their problem b. Gives the customer a chance to ask questions and clarify what the proposal left unanswered c. Replaces a written system proposal

3. The purpose of a system proposal closing is to: a. Succinctly overview the proposal b. Emphasize that you have the best solution to the problem c. Get the approval to proceed

4. Ans:c 5. During a proposal presentation you should: a. Emphasize that you have the best solution to the customer’s problems b. Emphasize that your project team is well equipped to implement the solution c. Sell the corporate experience of your project staff and yourself d. Sell your enthusiasm to do the project effectively, efficiently, and economically e. All the above

Ans:e 6. What are three things that constrain a solution? Solution constraints. Think time, people, budget

7. You should put all the discussion details in your transparencies. True / False You should NOT put all the discussion details in your transparencies. Details go in discussion, not transparency. The discussion expands on transparency points.

Ans:F 8. A common guideline to presenting a presentation is: Tell them what you are going to tell them, tell them, and then tell them what you just told them. 9. Why should you not present for more than one hour? Normal ability to concentrate is extremely limited after one hour. Take a break and reconvene if necessary

Section 5_35 Quiz: 15

1. A core concept of quality philosophies is that grass-roots efforts are an effective means to improve quality. True / False Ans:F Most quality improvement philosophies require that management take ownership and leadership of quality improvement efforts. 2. _______________ is defined as doing things right. EFFICIENCY is doing right things right. Effectiveness is doing the right things. 3. Achieving quality requires: A. Understanding the customer’s expectations B. Exceeding the customer’s expectations C. Meeting all the definitions of quality D. Focusing on the customer E. All the above Ans:E 4. Quality can be defined through internal means. True / False Quality cannot be defined without the customer. Ans:F 5. The essence of a quality internal product is: A. Improving internal processes B. Delivering the right product C. Customer satisfaction Ans:C 6. The cost of poor quality is usually less than 15 % of the cost of doing business. True / False The cost of poor quality is generally known to be up to 50% of the cost of doing business. Ans:F 7. The gains from continuous process improvement will fall off over time because internal processes can never be perfect. True / False Ans:F The gains from continuous process improvement (the basis of TQM, otherwise known as Kaizen) can never fall off because the reduction in rework reduces cost and then pays for more productive output. 8. Steps to implementing a Quality Culture would NOT include: A. Creating a department that focuses on quality improvement B. Listening to customers to determine their requirements C. Demonstrating executive leadership and commitment D. Identifying costs of quality and focusing on prevention All levels of an organization must take ownership of the quality culture transformation Ans:A 9. Deming’s Fourteen Points for Management can be summed up by: A. Create constancy of purpose by breaking down barriers between departments B. Cease dependence on inspection to achieve quality C. Stop focusing on judgment results and start focusing on improvement of processes 16

D. Improve constantly and forever the system of production and service to improve quality and productivity and to decrease costs The other points are part of Deming’s fourteen points, but only C sums them up. Ans:C INSTRUCTIONS Three sets of questions follow that are typical of the types of questions included on the CSTE examinations EXCEPT these questions are exclusively based on the skill courses in this manual. The actual exam will be based on the complete Common Body of Knowledge for the Information Systems Software Testing Profession. The answers are also included. These question sets follow: For Answers Refer Question Set Number of Questions to Answer Set A B C

36 25 20

A B C

1. What type of change do you need before you can obtain a behavior change? o a) Lifestyle o b) Vocabulary o c) Internal o d) Management Ans:b 2. Quality assurance is the process by which product quality is compared with applicable standards, and the action taken when nonconformance is detected. o True o False Ans:f 3. Pick the best tactic to use in constructive criticism to help the worker understand his or her solution to the criticism. o a) Do it in public, while others are listening, so they too can learn from other people's mistakes. o b) Be prepared to help your subordinate improve his or her performance. o c) Criticize the individual rather than the product, because the individual creates problems with the product. o d) Explain to the employee what will happen to his or her career if the employee's behavior doesn't change. Ans:b 4. The objective of risk analysis is to help IT management strike an economic balance between the impact of risks and the cost of protective measures. o True o False Ans:f 5. In quantifying risk, the term RE represents: o a) Risk expense o b) Related expense o c) Risk exposure Ans:c 17

6. A standard is not an expected norm. o True o False Ans:f 7. Quality and quality assurance are synonymous. o True o False Ans:f 8. Productivity is increased if value is added to a product. o True o False Ans:t 9. National Quality Awards are intended to foster continuous improvement activities. o True o False Ans:t 10. Vision is a clear definition of the result you are trying to achieve. o

True

o

False

Ans:t 11. What is the present value of money of a $10,000 expenditure that you will spend one year from now if money is worth 14 percent? o o o o

a) b) c) d)

$2630 $8770 $1600 $8600

Ans:b 12. Quality control relates to a specific product or service. o True o False Ans:t 13. The objective of the present value of money calculation is to convert future dollars into current dollars. o True o False Ans:t 14. What is the primary objective of the system proposal from the producer's viewpoint? o a) To present the costs/benefits of the proposal o b) To obtain an agreement for more work o c) To standardize presentations Ans:b 15. The receivers of an information systems service are known as users. o True o False Ans:t 16. Almost one-half of a programmer's time is spent identifying and fixing errors in specifications. o True o False Ans:t 17. Which two elements are the major causes of documentation problems? o a) Low priority o b) Forgetfulness o c) Not enough time o d) Personal attitudes Ans:a,d

18

18. When installing an information processing tool into your work environment, you can select an informal or formal procurement sequence. Which list is the formal procurement sequence? o

a) Technical requirements o b) Selection criteria User review Identify candidate Generate RFP User review Issue RFP Score candidates Proposal evaluation Select tool Select source

Ans:a 19. A process allows the same quality to be replicated from product to product, often by the use of standards and procedures. o True o False Ans:t 20. The term "defect" is related to the term "fault" because a fault is a defect, which has not yet been identified. o True o False Ans:t 21. A latent defect is the same as a fault. o True o False Ans:t 22. The average time between consecutive failures in a system or component during a specified period is known as the mean time between failures (MTBF). o

True

o

False

Ans:t 23. A program whose purpose is to reduce the number of defects produced is known as a quality improvement program. o True o False Ans:t 24. The inspection is an evaluation technique that relies on visual examination of an item. o True o False Ans:t 25. The functionality/structure of the system created to solve a problem, satisfy a user need (note that this is the creative part of the design process) is known as the fishbone diagram. o True o False Ans:f 26. The process used for documenting user’s requirements is known as validation. o True o False Ans:f 27. A process/activity during which a high number of defects occur is known as a defect-prone process. 19

o

True

o

False

Ans:t 28. Name the three categories of costs associated with cost of quality. Preventive, Failure, and Appraisal 29. What category would inspections, walkthroughs, and testing qualify as? Appraisal 30. What category would creating of a help desk qualify as? Failure

31. What category would training qualify as? Preventive 32. Rework activities are Failure costs. CIRCLE THE CORRECT RESPONSE: 33. The conduct of an inspection of source code is quality control/quality assurance. Quality Control/Quality Assurance Ans:QC 34. A computer operator verifies that the jobs to be run that day have been run. Quality Control/Quality Assurance Ans:QC 35. A task force selects and installs a system development methodology. Quality Control/Quality Assurance Ans:QA 36. A computer programmer conducts unit tests to validate that the program works. Quality Control/Quality Assurance Ans: QC SAMPLE QUESTION SET B 1. The ______________ is an application of process management and quality improvement concepts to software development and maintenance. o o o

a) Malcolm Baldridge b) ISO 9000 c) SEI/CMM 20

o d) QS14000 Ans:c 2. Quality can be separated from the controls associated with it? o True o False Ans:f 3. What is one of the most powerful quality control tools? Checklist

4. The number-one skill needed for the tester analyst is listening. o True o False Ans:t 5. The intent of the quality control checklist should be to improve the quality of the product being controlled by investigative means. o True o False Ans:t 6. A large portion of the cost of quality is usually the cost of rework. o True o False Ans:t 7. Quality assurance means the same as total quality control. o True o False Ans:t 8. In the IT workbench, quality, and performance of the work are the responsibility of the QA department. o True o False Ans:f 9. Identify five participant roles during a formal inspection. Moderator Author/producer Reader Inspector Recorder 10. Function points measure the lines of code. o

True

o

False

Ans:f 11. Function points quantify data processing work outputs. True o False Ans:t 12. Measurement of function points cannot be used for comparing two different kinds of systems. o

o

True

o

False

Ans:f 13. Function points are hardware and software independent. o

True

o

False 21

Ans:t 14. There are three major activities in function point counting. o

True

o

False

Ans:t 15. The three parts of the function point count must be determined individually. o True o False Ans:t 16. Identify the 5 function types: External Input type External Inquiry type External Interface File type External Output type Logical Internal file type

17. The process of identifying the kinds of software failures that can occur and then quantifying how likely it is that they will actually occur is: a) Configuration management b) Risk management c) Contingency planning d) Process improvement Ans:b 18. The Baldrige award is a world-wide quality award. o o o o

o

True

o

False

Ans:f 19. What is the relationship between testing and quality assurance? o o o

a) QA is part of a complete testing process b) Testing and QA are two terms for the same thing c) Testing is part of a complete QA process

Ans:c 20. Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs? a) 10-20 b) 40-50 c) 70-80 Ans:b 21. Software errors are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle? o o o

o o o

a) Requirements b) Construction c) Acceptance test

Ans:a 22. The purpose of software testing is to: o o o

a) Demonstrate that the application works properly b) Detect the existence of defects c) Validate the logical design

Ans:b 22

23. For black-box testing: a) The tester is completely unconcerned about the internal behavior of the program o b) The tester is concerned with finding circumstances in which the program does not behave according to specifications o c) Test data is derived solely from specifications o d) All of the above Ans:d 24. Boundary value testing: o

a) is the same as equivalence partitioning tests b) test boundary conditions on, above, and below the edges of input and output equivalence classes. o c) tests combinations of input circumstances o d) is used in white-box testing strategy Ans:b 25. Decision/branch coverage strategy: o o

a) b) c) d) Ans:c o o o o

always satisfies statement coverage is used in black-box testing means that every branch direction is traversed at least once is the same as condition coverage SAMPLE QUESTION SET D

1. The National Quality Awards provide a basis for successful benchmarking against other companies. o

True

o

False

Ans:t 2. Information systems organizations should have standards and procedures on running meetings. o

True

o

False

Ans:t 3. The Pareto analysis is most effective for: o o o

a) Ranking items by importance b) Showing relationships between items c) Measuring the impact of identified items

Ans:a 4. One of the key concepts of a task force is that the leader be an expert in leading groups as opposed to an expert in a topical area. o

True

o

False

Ans:t 5. The more common benefits associated with a service-level agreement are: o o o

a) Establish two-way accountability b) Make complaining easy c) Provide the basis for an IS budget 23

o d) All of the above Ans:d 6. The two major differences between internal auditing and quality assurance involve their respective statement of responsibilities and common body of knowledge. o

True

o

False

Ans:t 7. Within an organization, a service-level agreement is most effective when it is an ongoing negotiation and improvement process. o True o False Ans:t 8. A nonsampling error relates to the sample properly reflecting the true characteristics of the population. o True o False Ans:f 9. The cost of quality is usually the: o o o

a) Cost of prototyping b) Cost of rework c) Cost of risk assessment

Ans:b 10. Motorola's objective of reaching "Six Sigma" translates into defective parts per million.

3.4

11. Name the seven basic quality tools: Histogram Control Chart/Run Chart Stratification Scatter Diagram Fishbone (Cause-Effect) Diagram Pareto Chart Check Sheet 12. Policies provide: a) Guidance to decision makers b) Broad direction to decision makers c) Detailed prescription to decision makers Ans:a,b 13. A measurement system is established to measure the effectiveness of system and unit testing. Quality Control/Quality Assurance? Ans:QA 14. Which of the following test approaches is not a structured test approach? o o o

a) b) c) d) Ans:c o o o o

Load/stress Operations Regression None of the above 24

15. A quantitative measurement used to determine test completion is: o o o

a) Defect measurement b) Requirements coverage c) Statistical analysis

Ans:b 16. Acceptance testing means: a) Testing performed on a single stand-alone module or unit of code b) Testing after changes have been made to ensure that no unwanted changes were introduced o c) Testing to ensure that the system meets the needs of the organization and the end user. Ans:c 17. Consensus means: o o

o o o o

a) b) c) d)

Majority rules You don’t have to like it, you just have to be able to accept it Whatever the boss says Compromise

Ans:b 18. Joe is performing a test to see that it complies with the user requirement that a certain field be populated by using a dropdown box containing a list of values. Joe is performing: o o o o

a) b) c) d)

White-box testing Black-box testing Load testing Regression testing

Ans:b 19. Sue is told to prepare a report on the most commonly occurring product defects. She reviews the software defect reports, which categorize the defects as coding errors, requirements errors, documentation errors, etc. The best tool to report this information is: o o o o

a) b) c) d)

A histogram A Pareto diagram A cause and effect diagram A scatter plot

Ans:b 20. Which of the following is NOT included in ISO guidelines? o o o o

a) b) c) d)

Purchaser and Supplier Internal Quality System Audits Documentation Management principles

Ans: d

25

Which one of the following activities is the most efficient and most cost effective at identifying Defects?

a) b) c) d) e)

Design/code inspection Beta test Unit test Prototyping Risk analysis

Ans:c 2) When does metrics validation occur? a) b) c) d) e) Ans:b 3)

After the test Throughout the life cycle After the final software release During the test During requirements definition I. II. III. IV. V. VI. VII.

Customer focus Radical process improvement Incremental process improvement Quality control specialists are key Assumption of unsound processes Human side of quality Measurement and analysis

In the statements above, what are the key elements in the TQM philosophy?

a) b) c) d) e)

I, II, IV, and VI III, IV, V, and VII I, III, VI, and VII I, II, VI, and VII I, III, V, and VI

Ans:d 4) With whom does the responsibility rest for an inspection process performed for a specific software artifact?

a) b) c) d) e)

The recorder The reader The moderator The developer/author The management

Ans:c 5) Identification, control, auditing, and status accounting are functions of which one of the following?

a) b) c) d)

Inspection Quality assurance Configuration management Testing 26

e) Verification and validation Ans:c 6)

I. Closeness of the accuracy between the population defective rate and the sample defective Rate II. Desired level of confidence III. Skewness of the graph IV. Kurtosis of the graph V. Variability of the data

When designing a plan for estimating the defective rate of a software population, the sample size depends on which two of the criteria listed above? I and IV I and II II and V IV and V I and III

9)

I. II. III. IV. V.

Input domain Processing Output Acceptance criteria Data quality

Which of the above examples are included in requirements statements?

a) b) c) d) e)

I, II, and III II, III, and V I, II, III, and IV I, II, III, and V II, III, and IV

Ans:c 10) Which one of the following is NOT part of clean room development?

a) b) c) d) e)

White box testing Statistics-based testing Formal specifications Block-structured development Specification validation

11) Which one of the following is used as a tool for tracking an SQA project?

a) b) c) d) e)

PERT chart Pareto chart Cause and effect chart Run chart Control chart

Ans:b 27

12) Your audit indicates that the corporate quality management system did NOT work as it should have. How should this finding be categorized? a) Minor nonconformance b) Deficiency c) Major nonconformance d) Catastrophic failure e) Observation

13) Your audit indicates that the corporate quality management system did NOT work as it should have. How should this finding be categorized?

a) b) c) d) e)

Minor nonconformance Deficiency Major nonconformance Catastrophic failure Observation

14) What is testing in which the inner structure and control flow are known and used in constructing test cases?

a) b) c) d) e) Ans:d

15)

Regression testing Platform testing Unit testing White box testing Black box testing

I. Defect removal efficiency II. Function point normalization of quality data III. Defect tracking IV. Formal inspections

Which of the above factors are NOT included in the ISO SQA documentation?

a) b) c) d) e)

II and III I and IV I and II I and III II and IV

15) Which one of the following is a method to identify the minority of areas causing the majority of problems?

a) b) c) d) e)

Predictive analysis Capability analysis Reliability modeling Pareto analysis Usage analysis

Ans:d 16) One annual award for quality is named for a former Secretary of Commerce. While it is not explicitly for software, organizations that 28

win or merely compete for this award tend to produce higher-quality software. In the above statement, what is the name of this award?

a) b) c) d) e)

Duran Award Baldridge Award Deming Award Crosby Award Taylor Award

Ans:b 17) A project you are working on will have four incremental builds. To which build or builds should the requirements be mapped?

a) b) c) d) e)

All First and last only Last only First only None

Ans:c 18)

I. Formality II. Clarity III. Completeness

In the examples above, what is the primary purpose of taking the minutes at configuration control board meetings?

a) b) c) d) e)

III II and III II I and II I and III

19) What is the dominant standards-making body in the United States?

a) b) c) d) e) 20) I. II. III. IV.

ISO ANSI AFNOR CCITT ASQ

Product feasibility Software requirements Software Design Acceptance test

Which of the above reviews are necessary in order to ensure the traceability of requirements in the implemented software?

a) II, III, and IV b) I, II, and IV c) II and III 29

d) I and II 21)

I. Checklists have been perfected. II. Checklists continue to evolve. III. Measurements are focused on status of activities. IV. Measurements are focused on performance. V. Reliance on qualitative metrics continues. VI. A method to quantify metrics is established.

As the organization matures from CMM Level 3 to Level 4, which of the above occur with respect to configuration management?

a) b) c) d) e)

I, III, and VI II, III, and V II, IV, and VI II, III, and VI I, II, and V

22) I. Checklists have been perfected. II. Checklists continue to evolve. III. Measurements are focused on status of activities. IV. Measurements are focused on performance. V. Reliance on qualitative metrics continues. VI. A method to quantify metrics is established. As the organization matures from CMM Level 3 to Level 4, which of the above occur with respect to configuration management?

a) b) c) d) e)

I, III, and VI II, III, and V II, IV, and VI II, III, and VI I, II, and V

23) In the Capability Maturity Model, at which level is effective measurement mastered?

a) b) c) d) e)

Level 1 Level 2 Level 3 Level 4 Level 5

Ans:e 24) What do you call a collection of descriptions of the data items for

the benefit of programmers and others who might need to refer to them?

a) b) c) d) e)

A specification A data dictionary A repository A data model A data map

Ans:b 30

25) You are participating in a milestone review for a test. Lower complexity modules are being tested first. Halfway through the scheduled test time, 100 major faults have been reported and test coverage is 35 percent. Management asks if you are concerned. In the above scenario, what is your best response?

a) No--you are halfway through the test and you have no catastrophic faults.

b) Yes--you are only halfway through the test and you have a lot of faults.

c) No--the lower complexity modules are being tested first. d) Yes--the lower complexity modules are being tested first. e) Yes--test coverage is only 35 percent though the test is halfway through its schedule.

26) Which one of the following is the most cost-effective? a) Let defects surface during beta testing. b) Detect defects during unit testing. c) Prevent defects rather than detect them. d) Ignore minor defects. Ans:c e) Detect defects during system testing. 27)

I. II. III. IV.

Psychology of inspection Technical knowledge Management participation Inspection process training

Which of the factors above are important factors in successful inspections?

a) b) c) d) e)

II, III, and IV II and IV I, II, and III I and II I, II and IV

28) In object-oriented programming, what is the inclusion within a program object of all the resources needed for the object to function? (For example, the methods and the data)

a) Emulation b) Encapsulation c) Decapsulation d) Encryption e) Simulation Ans:b 29) Which one of the following is true of a cumulative frequency distribution?

a) It is often a straight line. b) It can curve upward or downward. 31

c) It always curves upward. d) It always curves downward. e) It is similar to a scatter plot. Ans:a,b 30) What is the term for migrating an aging legacy application to a new version?

a) b) c) d) e)

Restructuring Regression Reengineering Reusability Reverse engineering

Ans:c 31)

I. Requirements are formally reviewed. II. Requirements are formally approved. III. Requirements are placed under configuration control. IV. Requirements are implemented in code.

Using the above statements, when are requirements considered baselined?

a) I, II, and III b) I and II c) I, III, and IV d) I only e) I, II, III, and IV Ans:b 32)

I. Inspection participation II. Clean-room development III. Configuration control tools IV. Component reuse

Of the activities listed above, which can be considered defect prevention methods?

a) b) c) d) e)

I, II, III, and IV II, III, and IV IV II II and IV

33) What test demonstrates to the users and buyers that the system fulfills the contractual requirements?

a) b) c) d) e) Ans:a 34)

Acceptance test System test Validation test Regression test Unit test

I. Planning II. Overview III. Preparation 32

IV. Inspection Meeting V. Rework VI. Follow-up Per the above examples, after which phases are inspections mandatory?

a) I, II, III, IV, and V b) I, II, IV, V, and VI c) I, II, III, IV, and VI d) I II, III, IV, and V e) I, III, IV, V, and VI Ans:d 35) Testing on a number of modules or programs combined into a package is what type of testing?

a) b) c) d) e)

Unit testing Regression testing Acceptance testing Integration testing System testing

Ans:d 36) What is the single most important component in a software QA program?

a) b) c) d) e) Ans:b,e 37)

Automated data collection Trained software QA analysts Comprehensive checklists Commitment from senior management Accurate data collection

What is external testing that involves the customers?

a) Stress testing b) System testing c) Beta testing d) Integration testing e) Platform testing Ans:c 38) What is a test called that is executed to ensure that NONE of the unchanged code has been corrupted by the changed code?

a) Acceptance test b) Regression test c) Unit test d) Mutation test e) Integration test Ans:e 39)

What is the dominant SQA certification body in the United States? 33

a) b) c) d) e)

IEEE ACM NIST ASQ ANSI

40) What is the term for decomposing a software program so that latent design information can be extracted?

a) Restructuring b) Reusability c) Reverse engineering d) Regression e) Reengineering Ans:e 41) On which one of the following is statistical quality control based?

a) b) c) d) e)

Sampling 50% inspection 90% inspection 95% inspection 100% inspection

Code: ZC11223-WYHH-UHSY(1st)

42) You are participating in a program review. A large number of requirements discrepancies are being discovered, yet the software development organization has a CMM rating of 3.

In the scenario above, the project is probably in which one of the following stages of the lifecycle? a) Maintenance b) Design c) Unit testing d) Deployment/roll-out e) System testing 43)

I. Essential complexity is derived from cyclomatic complexity. II. Cyclomatic complexity is derived from essential complexity. III. Cyclomatic complexity is often much larger than essential complexity. IV. Essential complexity is often much larger than cyclomatic complexity. V. Essential complexity and cyclomatic complexity are usually within five percent of each other.

34

In the above examples, what is the relationship between essential complexity and cyclomatic complexity? I and IV I and V II and IV II and V I and III

a) b) c) d) e) 46)

What is the dominant international standard-issuing body?

a) b) c) d) e)

IEEE ANSI ACM ISO AQC

47) On which one of the following does a CMM Level 5 organization focus on?

a) b) c) d) e) Ans:d

48)

Product stabilization Cost improvement Schedule improvement Process improvement Process stabilization

I. II. III. IV. V.

Defect correction Defect prediction Personnel appraisal Resource allocation Cost estimation

The items listed above are possible uses of data collected during code inspections. Which are the only acceptable uses of the data?

a) b) c) d) e)

I, II, and III I, II, and V II, IV, and V I, II, IV, and V II, III, IV, and V

48) What is the primary difference between Verification & Validation (V&V) and Test & Evaluation (T&E)?

a) Testing is only one component of V&V, albeit the most critical. b) The essence of V&V rests in requirements traceability; the essence of T&E is in the actual exercising of the software.

c) V&V is always performed by an outside entity; T&E is always performed internally.

35

d) The essence of V&V is in the actual exercising of the software; the essence of T&E is in requirements traceability. e) V&V can be accomplished without executing the software, though it usually is not. 50) What happens to the cost of fixing software defects as software development progresses?

a) b) c) d) e) 51)

It It It It It

decreases linearly. decreases exponentially. remains constant. increases exponentially. increases linearly.

I. Configuration control II. Performance III. Reliability IV. Efficiency V. Responsiveness VI. Presentation

The items listed above represent a partial list of areas of emphasis for software QA. Which one of these is the most important area of emphasis for weapon system software?

a) b) c) d) e)

I II III IV VI 52)The following is a partial list of items required at the final software audits before going into production. I. Requirements specifications II. Final source code III. All approved change proposals IV. Operation and support manuals V. Software test plan VI. Coding standards

a) II and V b) I, III, and V c) II, III, V and VI d) I, IV, and VI e) III, V, and VI Ans:d 53) What type of testing is the lowest form of testing? a) b) c) d)

System testing Integration testing Performance testing Regression testing 36

e) Unit testing Ans:e 54)

I. Defining SQA milestones II. Assigning SQA resources III. SQA scheduling IV. SQA budgeting V. Selecting software development tools that will interface with the SQA tools VI. Reviewing any contracts with subcontractors for SQA requirements In the above statements, which of the tasks are included in planning the overall SQA effort?

a) b) c) d) e)

I, II, III, and V I, II, III, and IV III, IV, V, and VI II, III, V, and VI I, III, V, and VI

55) ABC Corp. is developing an online transaction system. It will be used by a maximum of 350 data entry clerks. The requirements are not well defined, and the customer wants frequent, extensive reviews of the product under development.

In the scenario above, which is the best development model to use?

a) b) c) d) e) 56)

Canonical Bottoms-up Rapid prototyping Spiral Waterfall

I. II. III. IV. V.

Requirements Design Coding Document Bad fixes

Of the software defect types are listed above, which three are the most difficult to identify?

a) b) c) d) e)

II, III, and IV I, IV, and V I, II, and V III, IV, and V I, III, and V

57) Which one of the following is a method to identify the minority of areas causing the majority of problems?

a) Capability analysis b) Pareto analysis 37

c) Predictive analysis d) Reliability modeling e) Usage analysis Ans:b 58) For which one of the following is the Capability Maturity Model a framework?

a) b) c) d) e)

Environment improvement Requirements improvement Organizational improvement Process improvement Product improvement

59) I. II. III. IV.

Policymaker Technical specialist Project manager Software development manager

The personnel listed above represent a partial list of candidates for the configuration control board (CCB). In addition to software QA and software CM, which of these personnel should be included on the CCB?

a) b) c) d) e)

II and III I, II, III, and IV II II and IV I and II

60) After which phase is the inspection process optional?

a) b) c) d) e)

Rework Planning Preparation Inspection meeting Overview

61) I . Entities II. Relationships III. Algorithms IV. Inputs V. Outputs Unlike the standard IFPUG function point metric, the British Mark II function point metric includes counts of which two objects in the above examples? a) III and V b) II and III c) I and III d) I and II e) III and IV

38

1. a. b. c. d.

Software testing activities should start as soon as the code is written during the design stage when the requirements have been formally documented as soon as possible in the development lifecycle

2. a. b. c. d.

Faults found by users are due to: poor quality software poor software and poor testing bad luck insufficient time for testing

3. a. b. c. d. e.

What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it? to show that the system will work after release to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release to find as many bugs as possible before release to give information for a risk-based decision about release to use up the time between the end of development and release

4. Which of the following statements is not true: a. Performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of the whole system. b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test. c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, Inspection, etc). d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible. 5. a. b. be c. d. e.

When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be: as polite, constructive and helpful as possible firm about insisting that a bug is not a "feature" if it should fixed diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism subservient, after all the developers know what they are doing a, b and c above

6. a. b. c. d.

In which order should tests be run? the most important tests first the most difficult tests first (to allow maximum time for fixing) the easiest tests first (to give initial confidence) the order they are thought of

7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. Why? a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing. b. wages are rising 39

c. the fault has been built in to more documentation, code, tests, etc. d. none of the above 8. Which is not true - The black box tester a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document b. should be able to understand the source code c. is highly motivated to find faults d. is creative to find the system's weaknesses 9. a. b. c. d. e.

A test design technique is a process for selecting test cases a process for determining expected outputs a way to measure the quality of software a way to describe in a test plan what has to be done all of the above

10. Testware (test cases, test data, etc.) a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released software system

Domain 1 Objective questions 1) Which of the following is not a part of cost of quality? a) Production costs b) Appraisal c) Prevention costs d) Failure Ans: a 2) Which of the following is not a misconception about testing? a) Testing identifies errors, and there for appears to place the blame for those errors on the development organization b) Anyone can test and no particular set of skills are required c) Developers spend more time debugging than actually testing d) Tester can test the quality at the end of development project Ans : c 3) The cost of a production bug is ________ times. d) 100% Ans:d

a)30-40% b) 40-50% c) 70-80%

4) Testing will not improve bad coding techniques or poor coding structure (T/F) T 5) Who is not having interest in software testing? a) Customer b) Software user c) Software developers d) All the three e) None Ans :e 40

6) A requirement incorporated into product that was not specified is a defect (T/F) T 7) The number of defects produced in building software will depend on the maturity of the process (T/F) T 8) Over testing is a burden to organization (T/F) T 9) Testing itself is error-prone (T/F) T 10) Did we build the system right is ---------None Ans :a

a) Validation b) Verification c) a,b d)

11) --------is dynamic testing. a) Validation b) Verification c) a,b d) None Ans :a 12) ---- is a way of illustrating and documenting how a specific activity is to be performed a) Structural testing b) Work bench c) RTM d) Review Ans:b 13) Black box testing is more important when compared to white box testing (T/F) F 14) --- uses drivers a) Bottom up strategy b) Top down strategy c) Both a and b d) None Ans:a 15) Integration testing is a) White box b) Black box c) Incremental d) All the three Ans:d 16) Acceptance testing is a) White box b) Black box c) Incremental d) All the three Ans:b 17) Which of the following is not part of system testing? a) White box b) Black box d) Incremental d) Thread testing Ans:a 18) Which of the following is true for review? a) The product is reviewed, not the producer b) Defects and issues are identified not corrected c) All members of the reviewing team are responsible for the results of the review d) All the three Ans:d 19) Formal reviews are also known as a) Walk through b) Inspection c) Peer reviews d) Work bench Ans:b 20) --------- is doing right things 41

a) Efficiency b) Effectiveness c) a & b d) None Domain 2 Ans: b 1) Which of the following is not a part of SDLC? a) System design b) Maintenance c) Evaluation and acceptance d) Definition Ans:b 2) Detailed planning for the development is done in ---- phase of SDLC a) Initiation b) Definition c) System design d) None Ans : 3) Certification of contractor-produced products is included in Project Plan (T/F) T 4) ------ Prepares functional requirements documents to serve as the basis of procurement action a) System designer b) System architect c) Project manager d) Senior programmer Ans :C 5) Testing of systems under development is practical unless well-defined documentation exists (T/F) F 6) Which of the following is not a purpose of risk analysis? a) To identify external control b) To determine the nature and magnitude of associated threats c) To determine the resulting potential loss d) None Ans : a 7) Risk analysis findings should be reviewed and revisited as necessary during each phase of SDLC (T/F) T 8) Cost benefit analysis report in conjunction with --- provide the information for management to make decisions to initiate/continue the development procurement of software or other SDLC-related components a) Defect prevention reports b) Feasibility study c) Configuration management report d) None Ans :b 9) Which of the following is not a part of 11-step testing process? a) Assess development plan b) Acceptance test c) Evaluate test effectiveness d) None Ans:d 10) Structural analysis based tests are set to uncover errors that occur during --- of the program a) Requirement design b) Coding c) Requirement definition d) Implementation Ans:b 11) --- testing determines the standards are followed and documentation is complete 42

a) Compliance b) Operations b) Recovery d) Execution Ans:a 12) --- Testing ensures old and new systems can work together a) Control b) Parallel c) Inter systems d) Regression Ans: b 13) ----determines the extent to which a program can be expected to perform a) Correctness b) Reliability c) Maintainability d) Interoperability Ans:b 14) Quality can be achieved internally (T/F) F (Quality cannot be achieved without customer) 15) Testing that the JCL statements and other operating systems support features perform the predetermined tasks is an example of a) Compliance testing b) Security testing c) Operations testing d) Requirement testing ans: C 16) Project plan is prepared on a) Initiation phase b) Definition c) System design d) None Ans:b Domain 3 & 5 1) Listening is the most frequently used form of communication (T/F) T 2) Which of the following is not a reason for people not to listen? a) People are self-conscious about their communication abilities b) External stimuli like noise c) Lack of motivation d) None Ans :d 3) Which of the following is not a channel of communication incorporated into speech a) Information channel b) Verbal channel c) Graphic channel d) None Ans:d 4) Fact gathering is generally --- type of listening a) Discriminative b) Comprehensive c) Therapeutic d) Critical Ans:b 5) In ---- listening, the listener is performing an analysis of what the speaker said a) Discriminative b) Comprehensive c) Therapeutic d) Critical Ans:c 6) In --- listening, the listener automatically switches to the listener a) Discriminative b) Appreciative c) Therapeutic d) Critical Ans:b

43

7) Salespersons often lose sales because they believe talking is more important than listening (T/F) T 8) If you are conducting a meeting with people from different locations, it is always advisable to conduct the meeting in your own area (T/F) F 9) In discussions most of the time it is advisable to seek information/output from members outside the taskforce (T/F) F 10) Objections coming in discussions are normal and positive step of change (T/F) T 11) You are forming a COE for testing. The leader chosen for this is someone who does not have much idea on this, but a good leader. You will support this or not (Y/N) Y 12) -- is something which is capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system. a) Risk b) Control c) Threat d) Defect Ans:C 13) Risk associated with legacy systems are more compared to multi-tiered systems. (T/F) F 14) Which of the following is not a risk associated with the development and installation of a computer system a) Results of the system will be unreliable b) System will be difficult to operate c) Performance level will be unacceptable d) None ans:d 15) For an application, you are confirming with other applications for reasonableness of timing requirements. This is – kind of testing a) Inter systems b) Control c) Operations d) Compliance Ans:b 16) The cost of fixing a defect in an application is more than its impact loss. But it is recommended to fix the defect. (T/F) F 17) --- is something that tends to cause the reduction of risk a) Control b) Vulnerability c) Defect prevention d) Threat Ans:a 18) Early users of new technology frequently do not consume large amounts of resources/effort (T/F) F 19) In IT industry concentration of responsibilities is not a risk (T/F) F 20) Risks associated with testing are less (T/F) F

44