Infectious Diseases:

INFECTIOUS DISEASES: 1. Pneumocystis pneumoniae in AIDS: A) may have an extra pulmonary presentation B) is always associated with X-ray changes C) is caused by a bacterium D) elevated serum antibodies to P. carinii helpful diagnostically E) is best treated with intravenous pentamidine 2.Regarding tetanus: A) failure to culture Clostridium tetani from the wound would make the diagnosis doubtful B) infection confers lifelong immunity C) there is a characteristic EEG D) Clostridium-specific intravenous immunoglobulin is of no benefit once spasm has started E) cephalic tetanus causes severe dysphagia 3. Recurrent genital herpes infection: A) is significantly helped by topical acyclovir B) tends to diminish over time C) is due to herpes simplex virus 1 in the majority of cases D) is precipitated by menstruation E) is not transmitted once the lesions are painless 4. Cutaneous anthrax: A) causes a black eschar which overlies pus B) lesions are usually painful and tender C) lesions are associated with marked oedema D) has a mortality of 20% despite antibiotics E) is very likely to occur in people exposed to anthrax spores 5. Complications of measles include: A) common occurrence of severe corneal ulceration B) cancrum oris C) higher incidence of acute appendicitis D) post-measles encephalopathy one month later E) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis occurs years after an attack of measles 6. Chikenpox is associated with the following:- A) pnemonitis B) pancreatitis C) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D) erythema marginatum E) cerebellar encephalopathy 7. Cavitating pneumonia is characteristically caused by- A) histoplasmosis B) micropolysporum faenii C) legionella pneumonia D) mycoplasma pneumonia E) klebsiella spp. 8. Falciparum malaria: A) acute infection is not associated with splenomegaly B) is associated with periodic fever in a minority of cases C) has an incubation period of 8-15 days D) may present as a gastroenteritis E) may be treated with primaquine 9. Corynebacterium diphtheriae A) may cause skin infection B) is most unlikely to cause infection in an individual with a positive Schick test C) mitis strain is generally more virulent than the intermedius strain D) infection is often complicated by myocardial fibrosis after recovery from severe infection E) toxin is better absorbed through the nasal than the pharyngeal mucosa 10. In amoebic dysentry: A) symptoms may resemble those of duodenal ulcer B) periods of alternating diarrhoea and constipation suggest an underlying carcinoma C) the motions have a characteristic sweet smell D) hepatic amoebiasis is a rare complication E) metronidazole is the treatment of first choice 11. The following are early features of poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis: A) Oliguria B) low C3 complement levels C) Convulsions D) focal glomerular lesions E) dyspnoea 12. The following are features of Legionnaire's disease: A) it has a mortality of 15-20% in all cases B) it has an attack rate of approximately 5% C) it is caused by a gram negative bacillus D) fatal cases usually have renal failure E) patients who recover may have long term lung damage from the disease

13. Insect borne diseases include: A) trypanosomiasis B) lymphogranuloma venereum C) Dengue fever D) onchocerciasis E) schistosomiasis 14. In the CNS infected with the HIV: A) toxoplasma may give rise to focal neurological signs B) HIV may be isolated from brain tissue C) pyrazinamide is effective sole treatment D) Cyrptococcus neoformans most commonly cause cryptococcoma E) progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy is a direct result of HIV virus 15. The following typically cause multiple, painful genital ulcers: A) Circinate balanitis B) Herpes simplex C) Chancroid D) Primary syphilis E) Granuloma inguinale 16. The follwing are true of rabies virus infection: A) it can be carried by foxes for several weeks B) it can be harmless to small animals C) it is found only in the brain at autopsy D) fatal infections always make dogs mad E) it can have an incubation period longer than 6 months 17. Cryptosporidiosis in HIV +ve individuals A) presents with bloody diarrhoea B) can produce upto 10 litres of liquid faeces per day C) is the commonest cause of diarrhoea in these patients D) is effectively eradicated by spiramycin in the majority of cases E) can produce sclerosing cholangitis with inflammation and ulceration of intra and extra hepatic bile ducts 18. Giardia lamblia infection: A) may be asymptomatic B) is usually waterborne C) is eradicated by mebendazole D) causes steatorrhoea E) diagnosed by stool culture 19.The following are characteristic of tuberculoid leprosy: A) hypo-pigmented areas of skin B) skin smears yielding mycobacterium leprae C) thickened peripheral nerves D) symmetrical 'glove + stocking' anaesthesia E) a chronic ulcer on the sole of the foot 20. Some of the features of infectious mononucleosis are: A) Vesicular rash on the neck and body B) Haemorrhagic spots on the palate C) Increased levels of AST (aspartate aminotransferase) D) Arthritis E) Aseptic meningitis 21. The following statements are true of typhoid fever: A) the initial clinical presentation may be mistaken for a psychiatric disorder B) spastic paraparesis is a recognised complication C) neutrophil leucocytosis is usually a feature during the first week of illness D) can treated successfully with cefotaxime E) heart failure is a recognised complication 22.Regarding HIV: A)Destroyed by Aldehyde B)Destroyed by Chlorhexidine C) ELISA test detect antigen D) CD4 cell count low within 7 days E) Zidovudine is an effective drug 23.In kala Azar A) Sandfly is the vector and promastigote is the infected form. B)Culture is not possible in artificial laboratory media C) kedrowsky’s bacilli is used for CFT D) Oppourtunistic infections lead to fatality E) PKDL is not diagnosed serologically 24. HIV reservoir in the body: A) Peripheral Blood B)Kidny C) Spleen D)Tonsil 25.Rgarding infecive form of microbes: A) E. Histolytica……..Mature Cyst B) Female mosquito infected with ……Sporozoite C)Trichomonas:……..Cyst D)Giardia……………..Trophozoite E)Strongyloides………Filariaform larva.

E)Lymph node.