1.
Disaster recovery plan and insurance are: a. Control of First resort b. Unreliable controls c. Preventive controls d. Controls of last Resorts
The Most Appropriate answer is “D” as Ron Weber called these as controls of last resorts. 2.
The overriding principle behind most continuity plans is a. The Protection of profit b. The protection of Assets c. The protection of human life d. The protection of customers
The Most Appropriate answer is “C” The protection of human life 3.
A comprehensive statement of consistent actions to be taken before, during and after a disruptive plans that causes a significant loss is called a a. Business continuity plan b. Disaster Recovery Plan c. Disaster continuity plan d. Business Recovery Plan
The Most Appropriate answer is “B” Disaster Recovery Plan 4.
The potential source for a threat source to exercise ( accidently trigger or intentionally exploit) a specific vulnerability is called a/an: a. Threat b. Risk c. Exposure d. Hazard
The most appropriate answer is “A” Threat 5.
Any force or phenomenon that could degrade the availability, integrity or confidentiality of an Information Systems resources, system or network is called a a. Threat b. Risk c. Vulnerability d. Threat- Source
The most appropriate answer is “d” Threat Source. 6.
The correct order of steps for developing a BCP is : a. Initiate, Risk Assessment, Choose a recovery strategy, Testing and validation, develop and implement b. Initiate, Choose a recovery strategy, Risk Assessment, develop and implement, Testing and validation c. Initiate, Risk Assessment, Choose a recovery strategy, develop and implement, Testing and validation, d. Risk Assessment ,Initiate, Choose a recovery strategy, develop and implement, Testing and validation
The most appropriate answer is “c” Initiate, Risk Assessment, Choose a recovery strategy, develop and implement Testing and validation
7.
Enhanced Risk awareness and more emphasis on the importance of good risk measurement and management and properly ensured appropriate capital reserve requirement is a requirement a. Basel Committee’s principles for electronic banking b. Basel II capital Accord c. COBIT d. ISO/IEC 17799:2000
The most appropriate answer is “B” Basel II capital Accord 8.
A disruption of business operations that stops an organization from providing its critical services caused by the absence of critical resources is called a a. Disaster b. Vulnerability c. Catastrophe d. Calamity
The most appropriate answer is “B” Disaster 9.
Banks must demonstrate that they have an overall data architecture that integrates the various business functions from operations to finance to risk management if they are to achieve compliance with a. Basel Committee’s principles for electronic banking
b. Basel II capital Accord c. SAS d. ISO/IEC 17799:2000 The most appropriate answer is “B” Basel II capital Accord 10.
The generally accepted system sources principles is intended to provide authoritative point of reference and legal reference for its information security principles, practices and opinions. These principles were modified after: a. The generally Accepted Accounting Principles. b. Basel II capital Accord c. SAS d. ISO/IEC 17799:2000
The most appropriate answer is “A” The generally Accepted Accounting Principles.
11.
The order of steps in the process of Risk Assessment for the purpose of a BCP is : a. Assets identification and prioritization, Threat identification, exposure assessment, objective formulation b. objective formulation, Threat identification, exposure assessment, Assets identification and prioritization c. Assets identification and prioritization, exposure assessment, Threat identification, objective formulation d. Objective formulation, Assets identification and prioritization, Threat identification, exposure assessment.
The most appropriate answer is “A” Assets identification and prioritization, Threat identification, exposure assessment, objective formulation
12.
The maximum amount of time allowed for the recovery of the business function is called the a. Maximum Recovery time Period b. Critical Recovery Time Period c. Minimum recovery Time period d. Vital Recovery Time Period
The most appropriate answer is “B” Critical Recovery Time Period.
13.
Business function that cannot be done manually under any circumstances are classified as: a. Vital b. Essential c. Critical d. Non- critical
The most appropriate answer is “C” Critical 14.
Within any complex system, there are usually components or processes that if not replicated or otherwise backed up by redundant capabilities, represent points of failure for the entire system. These are called : a. Multiple points of failure b. Cascading point of failure c. Linear point of failure d. Single point of failure
The most appropriate answer is “D” Single point of failure 15.
Business function that cannot be done manually but only for a brief period of time are usually classified as : a. Vital b. Essential c. Critical d. Desirable
The most appropriate answer is “B” Essential
16.
The objectives of Risk assessment include: a. Sensitizing Business processes b. Prioritizing Business processes c. Criticizing business processes d. Evaluating business processes
The most appropriate answer is “B” Prioritizing Business processes
17.
Risk Assessment consists of : a. Data Collection
b. Data Analysis c. Data collection and data analysis d. Data Collation The most appropriate answer is “C” Data collection and data analysis 18.
During exposure assessment the effects of disruption may be tracked: a. Over Time b. Across related resources and dependant system c. On the basis o historical costs d. Over time and across related resources and dependant system
The most appropriate answer is “D” Over time and across related resources and dependant system 19.
Elimination of all risks is usually a. Impractical or impossible b. Easy to achieve c. Vital to the survival of the company. d. Recommended by law
The most appropriate answer is “A” Impractical or impossible 20.
Single points of failures are a. Recommended b. To be eliminated c. Desirable d. To be encouraged
The most appropriate answer is “b” To be eliminated. 21.
Data or documentation that must be retained for legal reasons, for use in key business processes, or for restoration of minimum acceptable work levels in the event of a disaster is classified as: a. Desirable b. Vital c. Essential d. Critical
The most appropriate answer is “d” critical 22. Data that may be reconstructed fairly readily but at some cost is classified as:
a. b. c. d.
Critical Essential Sensitive Vital
The most appropriate answer is “C” Sensitive. 23.
Which of the following has the least backup capacity? a. Removable Cartridges b. Floppy Diskettes c. Compact disk d. Tape drives
The Most appropriate answer is “B” Floppy Diskettes 24.
When backups of data and system files are taken together, they are often called a. System Backup b. Data backup c. Incremental back up d. Differential Back up
The most appropriate answer is “a” system backup 25.
Back up media should be stored: a. On site in a secure, environmentally controlled location. b. Off-Site in a insecure, environmentally controlled location c. On site in a Insecure, environmentally, controlled location d. Off Site in a secure, environmentally controlled location
The Most appropriate answer is “D” Off Site in a secure, environmentally controlled location 26.
Identify the correct statement: a. Both Differential and incremental backups take the same amount of time b. Incremental Backups take longer to complete than differential backups c. Differential backups take longer to complete than incremental backups d. Incremental backups take longer when using the tape drives
The most appropriate answer is “c” Differential backups take longer to complete than incremental backups
27.
Which of the following is not a type of System Backup? a. Incremental b. Sequential c. Differential d. Full;
The most appropriate answer is “B” Sequential
28.
Which of the following technical methods for backup does not require restoration? a. Electronic Vaulting b. Networked disk c. Tape drives d. Remote Mirroring
The Most appropriate answer is “D” Remote mirroring 29.
A common backup method foe portable computers is a. Electric Vaulting b. Tape drives c. Remote Mirroring d. Synchronization
The Most appropriate answer is “D” Synchronization 30.
Which of the following types of system backup would require the maximum storage a. Incremental b. Sequential c. Full d. Differential
The Most appropriate answer is “Full” 31.
Which of the following is the MOST reliable strategy for centralized systems? a. Cold Site b. Reciprocal Agreement c. Hot Site d. Mirror Site/Active Recovery Site
The most appropriate answer is “D” Mirror Site/Active Recovery Site. 32.
Which of the following is the least reliable strategy for centralized systems? a. Mobile Site b. Hot Site c. Reciprocal Arrangement d. Mirror Site/Active storage site
The most appropriate answer is “Reciprocal Arrangement”. 33.
The process of combining multiple physical storage devices into a Logical, virtual storage devices that can be centrally managed and is presented to the network applications, operating systems, and users as a single storage pool is called: a. RAID b. Storage Virtualization c. WAN d. SAN
The most appropriate answer is “B” Storage Virtualization. 34.
A file oriented environment that offers a common storage area for multiple servers and which allows any application residing on or any client using virtually any operating system to send data to or receive data is called a. Networked attached storage ( NAS) b. Remote Access Storage ( RAS) c. Redundant array of Inexpensive Disk ( RAID) d. Storage area network
The Most appropriate answer is “A” Networked Attached Storage, 35.
A high speed, high performance network that enables different servers with different operating systems to communicate with one storage devices is called: a. Networked attached storage b. Remote access Storage c. Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks d. Storage area network
The Most Appropriate answer is “Storage area network” 36.
Which of the following is NOT data redundancy techniques used by RAID technology?
a. Mirroring b. Parity c. Blocking d. Striping The most appropriate answer is “C” Blocking. 37.
Which of the following RAID levels is NOT recommended as a data recovery solution? a. RAID-1 b. RAID-0 c. RAID-10 d. RAID-100
The most appropriate answer is “A” RAID-1 38.
The technique that allows traffic to be distributed dynamically across groups of servers running a common applications so that no one server is overwhelmed is called: a. Server Load Balancing b. Alternative Routing c. Diverse Routing d. Storage Area Network
The Most appropriate answer is “A” Server Load Balancing
39.
Among strategies for telecommunications systems, the strategy that involves the use of different networks, circuits or end points when the primary telecommunication facility is unavailable is called: a. Distributed routing b. Associative routing c. Diverse Routing d. Alternative Routing
The most appropriate answer is “D” Alternative routing
40.
Which of the following techniques used by RAID technology increases performances? a. Mirroring b. Parity c. Striping d. Hashing
The most appropriate answer is “Striping” 41.
a list of persons or organizations to be notified in the event of a disaster and often included in a business continuity plan is called a : a. Crisis communication Directory. b. Crisis Communication Plan. c. Call directory d. Notification Directory
The Most Appropriate answer is “D” notification directory. 42.
The plans that addresses the restoration of business processes after an emergency, but which lacks procedures to ensure continuity of critical processes throughout an emergency or disruption is called a : a. Business Continuity Plan. b. Crisis communication Plan c. Business redemption plan d. Continuity of operation plan
The most appropriate answer is “Business redemption plan” 43.
Procedures that are designed to enable security personnel to identify, mitigate and recover from malicious computer incidents, such as unauthorized access to a system or data, denial of services or unauthorized changes to a system hardware software or data are contained in a : a. Continuity of operations Plan b. Cyber Incident Response Plan c. Crisis Communication Plan d. Business Redemption plan
The most appropriate answer is “A” Continuity of operations Plan
44.
An IT focused plan designed to restore operability of the target system, application or computer facility at an alternate site after an emergency is called a: a. Disaster Recovery Plan b. Business Redemption Plan c. Continuity of operation Plan d. Cyber incident response plan.
The most appropriate answer is “A” Disaster Recovery Plan
45.
The response procedures for occupants of a facility in the event of a situation posing a potential threat to the health and safety of personnel, the environment, or property is contained in a /an a. Occupant Emergency Plan b. Business Redemption Plan c. Continuity of operation Plan d. Cyber incident response plan.
The most appropriate answer is “A” Occupant Emergency Plan
46.
With respect to BCP testing, which of the following type of test will involve considerable expenditure of time, efforts and resources? a. Checklist b. Structured walk through c. Full interruption d. Simulation
The most appropriate answer is “C” Full interruption
47.
With respect to BCP testing, In which type of test is processing done at both the primary and alternate location? a. Full Interruption b. Structured walk through c. Parallel d. Simulation
The most appropriate answer is “B” Structured walk through 48.
With Respect to BCP which is the most rigorous way to test a business continuity plan? a. Full Interruption b. Structured walk through c. Parallel d. Simulation
The most appropriate answer is “A” Full interruption
49.
Insurance cover that reimburses a company for expenses incurred to avoid or minimize the suspension of business is called: a. Business Interruption Insurance b. Equipment and facility insurance c. Data reconstruction d. Extra Expense Insurance
The most appropriate answer is “A” Business Interruption Insurance
50.
Insurance that protects the company in the case of a claim against the company for negligence, errors, omissions or wrongful acts in the performance of the company’s duties is called: a. Business Interruption Insurance b. Equipment and facility insurance c. Professional Liability Insurance d. Extra Expense Insurance
The most appropriate answer is “C” Professional Liability Insurance 51.
Auditor should ensure that the BCP’s priorities: a. Support objectives of the Organisation b. Meet regulatory requirement c. Conform to contractual requirement d. All of the above
The most appropriate answer is “D” All of the above
52.
Auditor should verify that the recovery strategies adopted by the company are: a. In line with the audit objectives b. In line with the cost c. In line with the priorities d. In line with that of major competitors
The most appropriate answer is “C” In line with the priorities
53.
With Respect to BCP, the auditor should test check contact information ( of Vendors, Employees) to ensure: a. They will honour their contractual agreement b. That they are current c. They are physically close by. d. They are registered with tax authorities
The most appropriate answer is “B” That they are current
54.
The auditor should evaluate the security of an offsite facility to ensure that it has logical, physical and environmental controls. Ideally this control should be a. On par with that provided at the primary facility b. Less than that provided at the primary facility c. More than that provided at the primary facility d. Different from that provided at the provided at the primary facility.
The most appropriate answer is “A” On par with that provided at the primary facility. 55.
The IS Auditor should ensure that insurance coverage is adequate and reflects the actual cost of recovery. It is important that the Organisation not only covers the loss of property but also: a. Covers the health of the employees b. Covers the cost of data reconstruction c. Covers employee fidelity d. Covers the loss of revenue stream arising from that property.
The most appropriate answer is “D” Covers the loss of revenue stream arising from that property”