Ana Bio Fc Ratio

BIO.SCI MAJORSHIP PRE-BOARD 1. Which of the following is a part of the process of chemiosmosis? A. Electrons move along the electron transport chain. B. Water molecules are split. C. Hydrogen ions pass through membranes. D. Light is absorbed by chlorophyll. Answer: C. Hydrogen ions pass through membranes. Chemiosmosis is the movement or diffusion of Hydrogen ions (protons) in Mitochondria specifically in the inner mitochondrial matrix via ATP Synthase (transport protein). A. Electron transport chain is the movement of electrons from one transport chain to another in a series of redox reactions. Energy released in these reactions is captured as a proton gradient, which is then used to make ATP in a process called chemiosmosis. B. Water molecules are split. In light-dependent reactions in the Photosynthesis, the energy of light is used to “split water”, stripping a pair of electrons from it and causing the two hydrogens to be lost, thus generating molecular oxygen. D. Light is absorbed by chlorophyll. When molecule (chlorophyll) absorbs light, the energy from the light excites an electron and it produces two energized electrons the electrons are replaced by two electrons stripped from a water molecule, forming oxygen gas (O2) and two hydrogen ions (H+). 2. During mitosis, a double-stranded chromosome is attached to a spindle fiber at the . A. Cell Plate B. Centromere C. Centrosome D. Centriole Answer: B. Centromere. It is the region of a chromosome to which the microtubules of the spindle fibers are attached, via the kinetochore, during Mitosis. A. Cell Plate. Formation of Cell Plate occurs in Plant cell through the division of cytoplasm (cytokinesis). C. Centrosome. An organelle that contains centrioles. D. Centrioles. Occurring in pairs and involved in the development of spindle fibers in cell division. 3. Which is the effect of drugs on cells? A. Produce toxic substance B. Discontinuous cell activity C. Cause damage to their structure D. Poison the cell liquid Answer: C. Cause damage to their structure. The effect of drugs on cells is the drug-induced changes in nuclear chromatin that are manifested by varying sensitivity of DNA in cell to denaturation by acid. Such changes were found to be associated with defective chromatin condensation, altered histone modifications or intercalation of the drugs into DNA.

4. The cell wall of plant cell is made of A. Lipids B. Cellulose C. Protein D. Cell Membrane

.

Answer: B. Cellulose. The plant cell wall is composed of cellulose. Cellulose is a structural carbohydrate and is considered a complex sugar because it is used in both protection and structures. The plant cell wall consists of three layers. Each layer has its own unique structure and function. A. Lipids. A macromolecule responsible for the storing of energy, signaling, and acting as structural components of cell membranes. C. Protein. A macromolecule uses to build and repair tissues. Protein is used to make enzyme, hormones and other body chemicals. It is also an important building block of bones, muscles, cartilage, skin and blood. D. Cell Membrane. A cell organelle that controls the movement of water and molecules in and out of the cell. 5. Which is the storage cell of plants? A. Microtubule B. Collenchyma C. Meristem D. Parenchyma Answer: D. Parenchyma. Parenchyma cells synthesize and store organic products in the plant. Most of the plant metabolism takes place in these cells. A. Microtubule. Microtubules are filamentous intracellular structures that are responsible for various kinds of movements in all eukaryotic cells. Microtubules are involved in nucleic and cell division, organization of intracellular structure, and intracellular transport, as well as ciliary and flagellar motility. B. Collenchyma. Collenchyma cells have a support function in plants. C. Meristem. Meristems are plant tissues in which the new cells are formed. 6. Which results from drinking saltwater? A. Poisoning of the cells. B. Dehydration of the cells. C. Increase in cell pressure D. Bursting of the cells. Answer: B. Dehydration of the cells. Salt dehydrates, so the more saltwater you drink, the more water your body loses. As you drink seawater, the water already present in your body is rerouted to help your body dilute the excess of salt. Dehydration causes an increase in thirst, but it also causes you to urinate more often, as your body is trying to get rid of the excess of salt. More urine and less water worsens the dehydration problem.

7. What kind of tissue lines our skin and what is its important function? A. Nerve tissue responsible for reflexes. B. Epithelial protection from ultraviolet radiation. C. Nerve tissue; receive stimuli on the skin. D. Epithelial; produce new cells when peeled off. Answer: B. Epithelial protection from ultraviolet radiation. Skin contains epithelial tissues located in the epidermal layer. In the epidermal layer, a pigment is released called melanin that absorbs UV energy and diverts it away from healthy cells. 8. At metaphase of the first meiotic division, the chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibers as . A. Double chromatids B. Non-homologous pairs C. single chromatid strands D. a tetrad of four chromatids Answer: A.Double chromatids. During metaphase of the first meiotic division, the pairs of chromosomes (bivalents) become arranged on the metaphase plate and are attached to the now fully formed meiotic spindle. B. Non-homologous pairs. Chromosomes of one set containing nonallelic genes. C. single chromatid strands. Contains unreplicated chromosome. D. a tetrad of four chromatids. Tetrad contains four chromatids. 9. Which type of cell would probably provide the best opportunity to study lysosomes? A. Leaf Cell of a plant. B. Nerve cell. C. Muscle cell D. Phagocytes white blood cells. Answer: D. Phagocytes white blood cells. Lysosomes are cell organelles that digest worn out organelles and phagocytes bacteria from outside the cell. Lysosomes are most numerous in disease-fighting cells such as White blood cells. 10. Which best describes meiosis as another form of cell division with accompanying nuclear changes? A. The nuclear changes follow one another indefinitely. B. Each new cell has double the amount from both parents. C. The nucleoli break uo unto teo parts and disappear. D. Each new cell has half the number of chromosomes. Answer: D. Each new cell has half the number of chromosomes. Meiosis is a type of cell division that results in four daughter cells each with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell, as in the production of gametes.

11. How are mitochondria and chloraplasts similar to bacteria? A. They are larger than normal cells. B. They are bounded by a single membrane. C. They lack ribosomes. D. They have a limited amount of genetic material. Answer: D. They have a limited amount of genetic material. Mitochondria and chloroplasts have striking similarities to bacteria cells. They have their own DNA, which is separate from the DNA found in the nucleus of the cell. Both organelles use their DNA to produce many proteins and enzymes required for their function. And both Mitochondria and Chloroplasts have limited amount of genetic material compared to the amount of DNA found in the Nucleus of the cell. 12. Which is the energy storage compound used to do all forms of work of the cell? A. Electron B. Adenine C. Nicotinamide D. Adenosine triphosphate Answer: D. Adenosine triphosphate. The ultimate result of catabolism is the production of energy storage compounds. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the primary energy storage molecule used to activate the reactions needed for growth and reproduction by all living organisms. 13. Chromosomes do not normally occur in pairs in A. Earthworm B. somatic cells C. Fertilized eggs D. gametes

.

Answer: D. gametes. Humans, along with other animals and plants, have linear chromosomes that are arranged in pairs within the nucleus of the cell. The only human cells that do not contain pairs of chromosomes are reproductive cells/gametes, which carry just one copy of each chromosome. 14. The Bipolar nature of the cell membrane is due to A. Presence of carriers B. presence of glycolipids C. Phospholipids bilayer D. Integral bilayer.

.

Answer: C. Phospholipids bilayer. The plasma membrane is composed mainly of phospholipids, which consist of fatty acids and alcohol. The phospholipids in the plasma membrane are arranged in two layers, called a phospholipid bilayer. Each phospholipid molecule has a head and two tails. The head “loves” water (hydrophilic) and the tails “hate” water (hydrophobic). The water-hating tails are on the interior of the membrane, whereas the water-loving heads point outwards, toward either the cytoplasm or the fluid that surrounds the cell.

15. When a red blood cell is placed in distilled water, it A. plasmolyses B. remains the same C. Shrinks D. Swells

.

Answer: D. Swells. Distilled water is an example of a hypotonic solution, meaning it has more solute in it than a red blood cell. In a hypotonic solution however, water would rush into the red blood cell, which would cause the red blood cell to swell and burst. 16. The “eyes” of potato are actually A. Intermodes B. nodes C. Leaf scars and buds D. Stem

.

Answer: C. Leaf scars and buds. Potato grows underground. It's called a tuber, and it grows from the end of underground stems below the roots of the plant. Each tuber or potato has several buds. These are the small sprouts we call potato “eyes." 17. Which of these is a NOT vegetable fruit? A. Cucumber B. Ampalaya C. Squash D. Carrots Answer: D. Carrots. Cucumber, Ampalaya and Squash are examples of vegetable fruit while carrot is a vegetable root. 18. Which plant has underground stem modified for reproduction? A. Ginger B. Camote C. Tubers D. Strawberry Answer: A. Ginger. A rhizome is a modified stem that grows horizontally underground; it has nodes and internodes. Vertical shoots may arise from the buds on the rhizome of some plants, such as ginger and ferns. 19. Which plants formed the vast coal beds during the carboniferous period? A. Lycopods B. Conifers C. Angiosperms D. Gymnosperms

Answer: A.Lycopods. Carboniferous terrestrial environments were dominated by vascular land plants ranging from small, shrubby growths to trees exceeding heights of 100 feet (30 metres). The most important groups were the lycopods, sphenopsids, cordaites, seed ferns, and true ferns. 20. What kind of relationship is exhibited by an algae and a fungi in a lichen? A. Commensalism B. Parasitism C. Symbiosis D. Competition Answer: C. Symbiosis. A lichen is an organism that results from a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a photosynthetic organism. The other organism is usually a cyanobacterium or green alga. The fungus grows around the bacterial or algal cells. The fungus benefits from the constant supply of food produced by the algae. On the other hand, the fungus releases minerals that the algae consumes. 21. Chlorophyll appears green because the green portion of light is A. dispersed B. absorbed C. refracted D. reflected

.

Answer: D. reflected. In the absorption spectra, chlorophyll absorbs light in the red (long wavelength) and the blue (short wavelength) regions of the visible light spectrum. Green light is not absorbed but reflected, making the plant appear green. Chlorophyll is found in the chloroplasts of plants. 22. The end products `of the dark-reaction phase of photosynthesis are ADP and A. Carbon Dioxide B. sugar C. carbon D. starch Answer: B. Sugar. The dark reaction occurs outside of the thylakoids. In this reaction, the energy from ATP and NADPH are used to fix carbon dioxide (CO2). The products of this reaction are sugar molecules and other organic molecules necessary for cell function and metabolism. 23. What gas is needed by the seed during germination? A. Nitrogen B. Carbon Dioxide C. Hydrogen D. Oxygen

  

Answer: D. Oxygen. Oxygen is required by the germinating seed for metabolism. Oxygen is used in aerobic respiration, the main source of the seedling's energy until it grows leaves. Three factors are required for successful germination: Water - allows the seed to swell up and the embryo to start growing. Oxygen - so that energy can be released for germination. Warmth - germination improves as temperature rises (up to a maximum) All seeds need water, oxygen, and proper temperature in order to germinate. Some seeds require proper light also. Some germinate better in full light while others require darkness to germinate. When a seed is exposed to the proper conditions, water and oxygen are taken in through the seed coat. 24. Which is the universal energy source of the cell of air living things? A. Carbon B. ATP C. Glucose D. PGAL Answer: B. ATP. Autotrophs make their own food. Heterotrophs get food by eating other living things. Glucose and ATP are used for energy by nearly all living things. Glucose is used to store and transport energy, and ATP is used to power life processes inside cells. 25. When the staminate flower is found in one plant and the pistillate flower on another the plants is described as . A. complete B. monoecious C. robust D. dioecious Answer: D. dioecious. A dioecious plant is one where the male and female reproductive systems occur on separate plants. While both plants produce flowers, one plant has the male reproductive parts and the other plant has the female parts. This is unlike a monoecious plant, which has both male and female flowers.

26. Which pigment is dominant in red algae? A. Oxidator B. Hydrator C. Carbonation D. Phycoerythrin Answer: D. Phycoerythrin- Red pigment Fuconxanthin- Brown pigment Xanthophyll- Yellow Pigment Chlorophyll- Green pigment

27. Which process during photosynthesis involves the addition of hydrogen? A. Oxidator B. Hydrator C. Carbonation D. Reduction Answer: D. Reduction. Photosynthesis transfers electrons from water to energy-poor CO2 molecules, forming energy-rich sugar molecules. This electron transfer is an example of an oxidation-reduction process: the water is oxidized (loses electrons and hydrogen) and the CO2 is reduced (gains electrons and hydrogen). During oxidation a substance tends to lose its electrons whereas during reduction a substance tends to gain electrons. Photosynthesis is a process in which plants containing chlorophyll convert the carbon dioxide into sugars in the presence of sunlight by a set of redox reactions. 28. The dark reaction phase of photosynthesis consists of a series of chemical reactions which end up with the formation of a 3-carbon sugar called . A. ADP B. NADPH C. ATP D. PGAL Answer: D. PGAL. The Calvin cycle/dark reaction operates in the chloroplasts. Energy from ATP and from the reduced coenyzme NADPH is used to remove a phosphate group from 3PGA and reduce the resulting diphosphoglycerate (DPGA) to produce the 3carbon sugar glyceraladehyde-3-phosphate (PGAL) 29. Which structure regulates the opening and closing of the stomata? A. Accesory cells B. Epidermal cells C. Tracheary cells D. Guard Cells. Answer: D. Guard Cells. Guard cells are cells surrounding each stoma. They help to regulate the rate of transpiration by opening and closing the stomata. The opening and closing of the stomata is controlled by the guard cells. In light, guard cells take up water by osmosis and become turgid. Because their inner walls are rigid they are pulled apart, opening the pore. In darkness water is lost and the inner walls move together closing the pore. 30. Spraying some plants with a combination of auxin and gibberellins will . A. promote ripening of fruits B. promote fruit formation C. preventing senescence D. enlarges fruit growth

Answer: D. enlarges fruit growth. Gibberellins and auxins are a group of plant hormones that promote plant and fruit growth. In many plants, both auxin and gibberellins must be present for fruit to set. Spraying of gibberellin during fruit development is used to make the individual grapes grow larger and to make the internodes of the grape bunch elongate. 31. All flowering plants belong to class A. conifers B. angiospermae C. felicinae D. gymnospermae

.

Answer: B. angiospermae. Flowering plant. The flowering plants, also known as angiosperms, Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with 416 families, approximately 13,164 known genera and c. 295,383 known species. Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants. 32. Fruit growers often other propagate their plants by a sexual means because the resulting of spring will . A. be an improved variety than the parent B. show little variation from the parent C. bear larger fruit than the patient D. how no environmental variation Answer: A.be an improved variety than the parent. Seeds and spores can be used for reproduction (through e.g. sowing). Seeds are typically produced from sexual reproduction within a species, because genetic recombination has occurred. A plant grown from seeds may have different characteristics from its parents. When you sexually propagate a plant you are “shuffling the deck” of genes and the plants which grow if you grow out the seed will have combinations of traits of the parent plants and other ancestors. Hybrid plants are produced sexually propagating, and hybrids are popular for example among tomato growers because the fruits are somehow better or have more predictably stronger than the parents or from open-pollinated plants. 33. Which of the following nutrients is incorrectly paired with its function in a plant? A. Magnesium-constituent of chlorophyll B. Iron-component of chlorophyll C. Phosphorus-component of nucleic acid. D. Calcium-formation of cells walls Answer: B. Iron-component of chlorophyll. Chlorophyll has magnesium as its central metal ion, and the large organic molecule to which it bonds is known as a porphyrin. Magnesium is the only mineral element present in chlorophyll, though there are certain elements carbon nitrogen oxygen and hydrogen in composition of chlorophyll but are not mineral elements. Chlorophyll is the green pigment found in autotrophs.

34. What process is responsible for the upward movement of water in very tall trees? A. Transpiration B. Capillary action C. Turgor Pressure D. Air Pressure Answer: B. Capillary action. Capillary action is the movement of liquid along a surface of a solid caused by the attraction of molecules of the liquid to the molecules of the solid. Plants use capillary action to bring water up the roots and stems to the rest of the plant. 35. Which popular plant is described as carnivorous? A. Water hyacinth B. Capillary action C. Pitcher Plant D. Kataka-taka Answer: C. Pitcher Plant. Carnivorous plants are plants that derive some or most of their nutrients (but not energy) from trapping and consuming animals or protozoans, typically insects and other arthropods. Examples of carnivorous plants are Pitcher plant and Venus Flytrap. 36. The shape of the mango tree is different from that of the pine treeders to a type of branching which is described as . A. tubular B. columnar C. deliquescent D. excurrent Answer: C. deliquescent. Shapes of crowns are highly variable. The major types for trees are the excurrent branching habit resulting in cone shapes and decurrent (deliquescent) branching habit, resulting in round shapes such as the Mango tree.  Columnar- unbranched, crown of leaves at top -Palm trees  Excurrent- branched, max girth tapering towards apex. Narrow, coneshaped crown and clearly defined central trunk 37. What do you call the male gametophyte of an angiosperm? A. Ovule B. Embyo sac C. Anther D. Pollen grain Answer: D. Pollen grain. The male gametophyte, also called the pollen grain or microgametophyte, develops within the anther and consists of two sperm cells encased within a vegetative cell.

38. Which roots system is best adapted for anchorage? A. Secondary B. Tertiary C. Taproot D. Fibrous Answer: C. Taproot. Generally, plants with a taproot system are deep-rooted in comparison with those having fibrous type. The taproot system enables the plant to anchor better to the soil and obtain water from deeper sources. Taproot system provided efficient in anchorage; such that they are more resistant to toppling during storm. 39. Egg-mamals are called A. vivipamous B. primates C. oviparous D. marsupials

.

Answer: C. oviparous. Oviparous animals are those animals that produce their offspring by laying eggs. They reproduce by laying eggs, and their egg contains an embryo. Viviparous animals are those animals that produce their offspring by giving birth to young one, they do not lay an egg, and they reproduce by giving direct birth to a young one baby. So, the major difference between oviparous animals and viviparous animals is of producing an egg by oviparous and offspring by viviparous. 40. To what order do primitive mammals that lay eggs belong? A. Marsupials B. Craniata C. Monotremata D. Placental mammals Answer: C. Monotremata. Monotremes are the most primitive type of living mammal. They lay eggs and have a single opening (cloaca) for reproduction and elimination of wastes. 41. Large colonies of polyps belonging to class Anthozoa secrete hard skeletons of time which later form A. sea aneores B. obellas C. corals D. jellyfish Answer: C. corals. Corals are marine organisms of class Anthozoa (Kingdom Animalia, Phylum Cnidaria, Class Anthozoa) that typically live in large colonies of identical individuals. They are important reef builders in tropical seas, and are secretors of calcium carbonate (CaCO3) that forms their hard skeleton.

42. When body parts are paired on either side of the body; this type of symmetry is called . A. Dorso-ventral B. bilateral C. Radial D. dorsal Answer: B. bilateral. Bilateral symmetry involves the division of the animal through a sagittal plane, resulting in two mirror-image, right and left halves, such as those of a butterfly, crab, or human body. Animals with bilateral symmetry have a “head” and “tail” (anterior vs. posterior), front and back (dorsal vs. ventral), and right and left sides.  

Radial symmetry- Radial symmetry is the arrangement of body parts around a central axis, like rays on a sun or pieces in a pie. Radially symmetrical animals have top and bottom surfaces, but no left and right sides, or front and back. Asymmetry- no body plan symmetry.

43. What substance do leeches secrets which keeps the blood they feed on state? A. Haemologbin B. Ecdysine C. Anticoagulant D. fibrinogen Answer: C. Anticoagulant. Hirudin is a naturally occurring peptide in the salivary glands of bloodsucking leeches that has a blood anticoagulant property. 44. One who specializes in all kinds of fishes and their characteristics, developing expertise in . A. taxonomy B. histology C. entomology D. ichthyology Answer: D. ichthyology. also known as fish science, is the branch of zoology devoted to the study of fish. This includes bony fish (Osteichthyes), cartilaginous fish (Chondrichthyes), and jawless fish (Agnatha). 45. In protozoan, digestion occurs in the A. Stomach B. Contractile vacuole C. Ribosome D. Food vacuole

.

Answer: D. Food vacuole. The protozoa takes in food via endocytosis, enclosing it in vacuoles which fuse with lysosomes containing digestive enzymes which break down food so that the cell can use it. It is called the "food vacuole" where the digestion takes place. Food vacuole is the stomach of protozoa.

46. What is a distinguishing characteristic of HOMO SAPIENS over the lower mammals? A. Blood vessels B. Sensitive skin C. Large brain D. Endoskeleton Answer: C. Large brain. Many of the unique features of Homo sapiens are found in the skull. Brain size estimates suggest that the brain of Homo sapiens was larger than in other hominin species. The average cranial capacity of Homo sapiens is roughly 1300 cubic centimeters, making the brains of this species absolutely smaller than those of Homo neanderthalensis. However, due to its gracile (small and lightly built) postcranial skeleton, the brain of H. sapiens was larger relative to body size than that of H. neanderthalensis. 47. What kind of adaptation enables the walking stick to elude these enemies? A. Aggressive mimicry B. Aggressive adaption C. Protective mimicry D. Protective coloration Answer: C. Protective mimicry. It is of highly specialized character and the organisms mimic themselves in the form, as well as in color to protect the animals from enemies or predators. It is also responsible for camouflage of an animal by its close resemblance to its general background or to some dead or dull objects which is of no interest to its enemies.  Aggressive mimicry is a form of mimicry in which predators, parasites or parasitoids share similar signals, using a harmless model, allowing them to avoid being correctly identified by their prey or host. 48. Which stages of incomplete metamorphism are undergone by the grasshopper? A. Nymph, pupa, adult B. Egg, larva, pupa, adult C. Egg, nymph, adult D. Egg, pupa, adult Answer: C. Egg, nymph, adult. Incomplete metamorphosis is a type of metamorphosis in which an insect hatches from an egg and then goes through several nymphal stages. Each nymphal stage looks like a small version of the adult but getting slightly bigger with age. At the final nymphal stage the insect then moults into the adult form.  Complete metamorphosis- is one of two types of metamorphosis exhibited by insects. In complete metamorphosis an insect goes through four distinct stages: Egg. Larva. Pupa. Adult. 49. Which are the two hosts of ascaris? A. Cow and man B. Man and Dog C. Cow and pig D. Man and pig

Answer: D. Man and pig. Ascaris suum, also known as the large roundworm of pig, is a parasitic nematode that causes ascariasis in pigs. Ascaris "round-worms" is present in the small intestine of many animals, primarily humans. 50. Two organisms can be identified as belonging to the same species if they can A. Eat the same kind of food B. breed in a natural setting C. exoskeleton D. survive together in nature Answer: B. breed in a natural setting. According to the biological species concept, organisms belong to the same species if they can interbreed to produce viable, fertile offspring. In this definition, members of the same species must have the potential to interbreed. In order to be considered to be a single species in the biological species concept, a group of organisms must produce healthy, fertile offspring when they interbreed. In some case, organisms of different species can mate and produce healthy offspring, but the offspring are infertile, can’t reproduce. 51. Arthropods exhibit fast and coordinated movement because they possess A. an endoskeleton B. jointed appendages C. exoskeleton D. bilateral symmetry Answer: B. jointed appendages. Arthropods move by walking that involves the coordinated movement of uniramous jointed appendages. 52. The toxic substance secreted by bees and ants through their sting originate from their . A. silk glands B. intestines C. rectal gland D. Salivary glands Answer: B. Intestines. The stinger is barbed and located at the end the abdomen. It is tied to the digestive tract of the bee as is the venom sac that produces the venom. When a honey bee stings, its stinger, the venom sac and other parts of the honey bee's body are pulled out and left behind, killing the bee. 53. The relationship that exist between insects and flowering plants is called A. parasitism B. predation C. symbiosis D. commensalisms

Answer: C. symbiosis. When they land in a flower, the bees get some pollen on their hairy bodies, and when they land in the next flower, some of the pollen from the first one rubs off, pollinating the plant. This benefits the plants. In this mutualistic relationship, the bees get to eat, and the flowering plants get to reproduce. 54. Which is the following causes our nose to “run” when we cry? A. The lungs release water vapor B. Mucous glands are activated C. Tears enter the duct to the nasal cavity D. The sinuses release water Answer: C. Tears enter the duct to the nasal cavity. When you cry, tears come out of the tear glands under your eyelids and drain through the tear ducts that empty into your nose. Tears mix with mucus there and your nose runs. 55. What is the main function of the peripheral nervous system? A. Communicates with the endocrine glands B. Regulates our heartbeat and breathing C. Controls our emotions and intelligence D. Connects central nervous system to all organs Answer: D. Connects central nervous system to all organs. Peripheral nervous system: The portion of the nervous system that is outside the brain and spinal cord. The nerves in the PNS connect the central nervous system (CNS) to sensory organs, such as the eye and ear, and to other organs of the body, muscles, blood vessels, and glands. 56. When cause our bones to turn brittle and easily break? A. Turning into muscle tissue B. Increase in flexibility C. Turbidity decreased D. Removal of collagen Answer: D. Removal of collagen. Removal of collagen will cause our bones to turn brittle and easily break. On the other hand, removal of mineral in the bones will cause it to bend easily. 57. Which part of neuron conducts impulse from other cells toward the cell body? A. Axon B. Ganglia C. Synapse D. Dendrite Answer: D. Dendrite. Dendrites receive stimulus (action potentials) and carry impulses from the environment or from other neurons and carry them toward the cell body. Axon – a long fibre that carries impulses away from the cell body. Each neuron has only one axon.

58. The tendency to react automatically to an external stimulus is called a/an A. Habit B. Instinct C. Impulse D. Reflex Answer: D. Reflex. A reflex, or reflex action, is an involuntary and nearly instantaneous movement in response to a stimulus. A reflex is made possible by neural pathways called reflex arcs which can act on an impulse before that impulse reaches the brain. 59. Which hormone promotes the development of secondary female sexual characteristics such as broad pelvis and enlarged breasts? A. Testosterone B. Estrogen C. Secretion D. Relaxin Answer: B. Estrogen. Estrogen, is the primary female sex hormone. It is responsible for the development and regulation of the female reproductive system and secondary sex characteristics.  Testosterone. The hormone responsible for the secondary sexual characteristics that develop in the male during adolescence, stimulates spermatogenesis, or the process of sperm production in the testes. 60. Which part of the ear is dangerously affected when sound is of a hundred decibels? A. Stirrup B. Eustachian tube C. Semi-circular canal D. Tympanic membrane Answer: D. Tympanic membrane. A sudden very loud noise can cause an eardrum/tympanic membrane to tear or rupture. Noise-Induced Hearing Loss can also be caused by extremely loud bursts of sound, such as gunshots or explosions, which can rupture the eardrum or damage the bones in the middle ear. 61. What disorder is caused by a high concentration of calcium in the blood? A. Thyroid Glands B. Pancreas C. Parathyroid glands D. Liver Answer: C. Parathyroid glands. The parathyroid glands are four tiny glands, located in the neck, that control the body's calcium levels. The parathyroids produce a hormone called parathyroid hormone (PTH). When the calcium in our blood goes too low, the parathyroid glands make more PTH. Increased PTH causes the body to put more calcium into the blood. Increased PTH causes the bones to release their calcium into the blood.

62. People who live in high altitude have blood that is described to have. A. high number of white blood cells B. low number of red blood cells C. same number of red blood cells D. high number of red blood cells Answer: D. high number of red blood cells. The air is "thinner" at high altitudes meaning there are fewer oxygen molecules per volume of air. To compensate for the decrease in oxygen, one of the body's hormones, erythropoietin (EPO), triggers the production of more red blood cells to aid in oxygen delivery to the muscles. 63. Creatively is a desirable trait that should be developed among our students. Describe a creative person? A. Creates beautiful set-ups. B. Imitates scientists a work. C. Originates own procedures. D. Announces same solutions. Answer: C. Originates own procedures. According to personality trait theories, people who are considered artistic tend to be attracted to activities that involve creativity, originality, and independence. 64. If the flow of blood in a vessel is toward the heart then the vessel is identified as a . A. Ventricle B. artery C. vein D. atrium Answer: C. vein. There are three major types of blood vessels: the arteries, which carry the blood away from the heart; the capillaries, which enable the actual exchange of water and chemicals between the blood and the tissues; and the veins, which carry blood from the capillaries back toward the heart. 65. The funnel-shaped opening through which the egg cell is released in the? A. umbilical cord B. uterus C. fallopian tube D. tubules Answer: C. fallopian tube. The uterine tubes, also known as oviducts or fallopian tubes, are the female structures that transport the ovum from the ovary to the uterus each month. In the presence of sperm and fertilization, the uterine tubes transport the fertilized egg to the uterus for implantation. Two portions of the fallopian tube: The longest portion of the tube is called the ampulla and the funnel-shaped distal end is the infundibulum.

66. Which one is insufficient in cretinism? A. insulin B. Adrenalin C. Parathromone D. Thyroxin Answer: D. Thyroxin. Cretinism, is a condition of severely stunted physical and mental growth owing to untreated congenital deficiency of thyroid/thyroxin hormone. Cretinism is a disease of the thyroid gland; this is an endocrine gland located in the anterior neck. The main hormones secreted by the thyroid gland are mostly thyroxine. 67. When you fail to eat the usual kind and amount of food you take everyday, what could serve as the fuel source of cells in your body? A. Fats in adipose tissue. B. Cholesterol in blood vessels. C. Albumin in the blood D. Glycogen in the liver. Answer: D. Glycogen in the liver. Glycogen is a multibranched polysaccharide of glucose that serves as a form of energy storage in humans, animals, fungi, and bacteria. The polysaccharide structure represents the main storage form of glucose in the body. In humans, glycogen is made and stored primarily in the cells of the liver and skeletal muscle. 68. What instrument has a flexible gastroscope that is used to examine the esophagus and stomach? A. Ultrasound B. Laser C. Endoscope D. Scanner Answer: C. Endoscope. Endoscopy is a nonsurgical procedure used to examine a person's digestive tract. Using an endoscope, a flexible tube with a light and camera attached to it, your doctor can view pictures of your digestive tract on a color TV monitor. 69. Where does exchange of materials between the blood and body tissues take place? A. Platelets B. Veins C. Arteries D. Capillaries Answer: D. Capillaries. Exchange of materials such as Gases, Nutrients, and Waste Between Blood and Tissue Occurs in the Capillaries. Capillaries are tiny vessels that branch out from arterioles to form networks around body cells. In the lungs, capillaries absorb oxygen from inhaled air into the bloodstream and release carbon dioxide for exhalation.

70. What explains why our lips are “redder” than our palm? A. Many blood vessels are located around the lips. B. Lip epidermis is thinner. C. Lips are heavily keratinized. D. There is increased blood flow in the lips. Answer: B. Lip epidermis is thinner. With fewer layer of epidermis and light skin color in the lip skin contains no melanocyte (pigment cells, which give skin its color). Because of this, the blood vessels appear through the skin of the lips, which leads to their notable red coloring. 71. Which part of the breathing occurs when the diaphragm muscles are pulled downwards, thus increasing the chest cavity? A. Expiration B. Release of energy C. Release of gasses D. Inspiration Answer: Inhalation. When you breathe in, or inhale, your diaphragm contracts (tightens) and moves downward. This increases the space in your chest cavity, into which your lungs expand. The intercostal muscles between your ribs also help enlarge the chest cavity. They contract to pull your rib cage both upward and outward when you inhale. 72. In experiment, which is the condition being introduced and whose effect is being observed? A. Hypothesis formulated B. Constant variable C. Manipulated variable D. Tentative variable Answer: C. Manipulated variable 73. Which part of the brain controls our rate of breathing? A. Chymotrypsin B. Amplase C. Trypsin D. Lipase 74. Which part of the brain controls our rate of breathing? A. Cerebellum B. Cerebrum C. Spinal Cord D. Medulla Answer: D. Medulla. The primary role of the medulla is regulating our involuntary life sustaining functions such as breathing, swallowing and heart rate. As part of the brain stem, it also helps transfer neural messages to and from the brain and spinal cord.

75. Through what part does the embryo obtain its nourishment from the mother? A. The oviduct B. The umbilical cord C. The food tubules D. The fallopian tube Answer: B. The umbilical cord. Through the mother's blood stream. The umbilicus is where the umbilical cord attaches to the embryo. The mother’s body is the source of embryo’s nourishment. Whatever nutrients, minerals and etc. that reach placenta through mother's blood, will be transported to foetus via umbilical cord. 76. What organ is controlled by the automatic nervous system? A. Brain B. Bones C. Heart D. Skeletal Muscles Answer: C. Heart. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) regulates the functions of our internal organs (the viscera) such as the heart, stomach and intestines. The ANS is part of the peripheral nervous system and it also controls some of the muscles within the body. 77. What is the main function of the large intestines? A. Excrete bile pigments from ducts B. Excrete salts and digested food C. Digest food into liquid form D. Complete the digestion of proteins Answer: B. Excrete salts and digested food. Large intestine is the final part of your digestive tract. Undigested food enters your large intestine from your small intestine. It then reabsorbs water that is used in digestion and eliminates undigested food and fiber. This causes food waste products to harden and form feces, which are then excreted. 78. What do you call food in a semi-liquid form, partially digested and mixed with hydrochloric acid? A. Gastric secretion B. Gastric fluid C. Mucosa D. Chyme Answer: D. Chyme. Chyme results from the mechanical and chemical breakdown of a bolus and consists of partially digested food, water, hydrochloric acid, and various digestive enzymes. Chyme slowly passes through the pyloric sphincter and into the duodenum, where the extraction of nutrients begins. Depending on the quantity and contents of the meal, the stomach will digest the food into chyme in anywhere between 40 minutes to a few hours.

79. Which would you advise to children to prevent osteoporosis? A. Consistent bone density test B. Adequate calcium and Vitamin D C. More intake of all vitamins D. Less bone exercise and fatigue. Answer: B. Adequate calcium and Vitamin D. Eat a Diet High in Calcium. Not getting enough calcium and Vitamin D during a person's lifetime significantly increases the risk of developing osteoporosis. A low-calcium diet is associated with low bone mass, rapid bone loss, and broken bones 80. Which is considered the master gland due to its influence on the activity of all the other glands? A. Thyroid B. Adrenal C. Pituitary D. Parathyroid Answer: C. Pituitary. The pituitary gland is often dubbed the “master gland” because its hormones control other parts of the endocrine system, namely the thyroid gland, adrenal glands, ovaries, and testes. 81. What enzyme is secreted by the pancreas which splits starch into sugar? A. Pepsin B. Erepsin C. Lipase D. Amylase Answer: D. Amylase. Pancreatic Amylase. In addition to pancreatic protease and lipase, the pancreas produces pancreatic amylase, an enzyme that digests the carbohydrates in your food. Starch, the form of carbohydrate in foods such as bread, pasta and potatoes, is a polysaccharide made up of many units of glucose. 82. What do we get from carbohydrates and fat? A. Cell Builders B. Tissue builders C. Heat and energy D. Growth regulators Answer: C. Heat and energy. Carbohydrates are the sugars, starches and fibers found in fruits, grains, vegetables and milk products. Carbohydrates are your body's main source of energy: They help fuel your brain, kidneys, heart, muscles and central nervous system. On the other hand, triglycerides, cholesterol and other essential fatty acids—the scientific term for fats the body can't make on its own—store energy, insulate us and protect our vital organs. They act as messengers, helping proteins do their jobs.

83. What secretaries which enables the sugar to be stored in the liver? A. Adrenal medulla B. Thyroid C. Adrenal cortex D. Islet of Langerhans Answer: D. Islet of Langerhans. Islet of Langerhans are small groups of endocrine cells in the pancreas that secrete the hormones insulin and glucagon. The liver both stores and manufactures glucose depending upon the body's need. The need to store or release glucose is primarily signaled by the hormones insulin and glucagon. During a meal, your liver will store sugar, or glucose, as glycogen for a later time when your body needs it 84. What BEST describes respiration? A. Taking in carbon dioxide and releasing oxygen. B. Breathing in a mixture of different gases. C. Breathing in and breathing out. D. Taking in oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide. Answer: D. Taking in oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide. Respiration is the biochemical process in which the cells of an organism obtain energy by combining oxygen and glucose, resulting in the release of carbon dioxide, water, and ATP (the currency of energy in cells). 85. What BEST describes respiration? A. Taking in carbon dioxide and releasing oxygen. B. Breathing in a mixture of different gases. C. Breathing in and breathing out. D. Taking in oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide. Answer: D. Taking in oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide. Respiration is the biochemical process in which the cells of an organism obtain energy by combining oxygen and glucose, resulting in the release of carbon dioxide, water, and ATP (the currency of energy in cells). 86. Which type of muscle tissue found in the walls of our stomach is responsible for the process of peristalsis? A. Voluntary B. Striated C. Cardiac D. Smooth Answer: D. Smooth. Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs like your intestines and stomach. They work automatically without you being aware of them. Smooth muscles are involved in many 'housekeeping' functions of the body. The muscular walls of your intestines contract to push food through your body.

87. Which of the hormone that triggers ovulation? A. Testosterone B. Prolactin C. Follicle-stimulating D. Luteinizing Answer: D. Luteinizing. Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone stimulates (causes) the pituitary gland to produce follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), the hormone responsible for starting follicle (egg) development and causing the level of estrogen (the primary female hormone) to rise. At ovulation, increased estrogen levels trigger a sharp rise in Luteinizing Hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland, causing release of the egg from the follicle. . 88. What do you call a prediction that is made based on two observations? A. Inference B. Interpolation C. Extrapolation D. Hypothesis Answer: D. Hypothesis. Hypothesis in science: A tentative, testable, and falsifiable explanation for an observed phenomenon in nature. 89. How does the liver assist the digestive system? A. Stores starch. B. It secretes bile. C. Acts on protein food. D. Mixes with the pancreatic juice. Answer: B. It secretes bile. Fat is one of the things the body gets from food. Bile, a digestive juice produced by the liver, helps the body absorb fat into the bloodstream. 90. What structures in the tongue make it distinguished food quality? A. Tasters B. Taste Buds C. Antigens D. Erythrocytes Answer: B. Taste Buds. Taste buds contain the taste receptor cells, which are also known as gustatory cells. The taste receptors are located around the small structures known as papillae found on the upper surface of the tongue, soft palate, upper esophagus, the cheek and epiglottis. Papillae and most of them contain taste buds. Taste buds have very sensitive microscopic hairs called microvilli. Those tiny hairs send messages to the brain about how something tastes, so you know if it's sweet, sour, bitter, or salty.

91. Which protein found in the plasma is responsible for blood clothing? A. Albumin B. Globulin C. Serum D. Fibrinogen Answer: D. Fibrinogen. Fibrinogen comprises 7% of blood proteins; conversion of fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin is essential for blood clotting. The remainder of the plasma proteins (1%) are regulatory proteins, such as enzymes, proenzymes, and hormones. 92. White blood cells are the “soldiers” of the body. They fight the disease-causing organisms. They are . A. antibodies B. phagocytes C. antigens D. erythrocytes Answer: B. phagocytes. Phagocytes are the soldiers of the immune system, and provide innate immunity. They are responsible for swallowing, killing and digesting invading microbes. The process of swallowing microbes is known as phagocytosis. 93. What blood test is used to provide information about agglutination reactions between donor and recipient blood? A. Blood count B. Clothing test C. Blood chemistry D. Type and cross-match Answer: D. Type and cross-match. This test checks for unexpected antibodies in your blood. If unexpected antibodies are found, this can delay the selection of compatible donor blood. Cross-matching is a way for your healthcare provider to test your blood against a donor's blood to make sure they are fully compatible. 94. Which produce the hormone MOST closely associated with ten control of calcium metabolism? A. Pancreas B. Ovaries C. Adrenal glands D. Parathyroid glands Answer: D. Parathyroid glands. When the blood calcium level is too low, Parathyroid is released to bring the calcium level back up to normal. When the calcium level is normal or gets a little too high, normal parathyroid gland will stop releasing Parathyroid. Proper calcium balance is crucial to the normal functioning of the heart, nervous system, kidneys, and bones.

95. What is the function of the lymph? A. Contain fibrinogen B. Protects the body from inflection C. Transports oxygen D. Enables the blood to clot Answer B. Protects the body from inflection. The lymphatic system is a network of tissues and organs that help rid the body of toxins, waste and other unwanted materials. The primary function of the lymphatic system is to transport lymph, a fluid containing infection-fighting white blood cells, throughout the body. 96. Which part of the brain responsible for intelligence, memory and learned behavior? A. Cerebellum B. Cerebrum C. Medulla D. Thalamus Answer: B. Cerebrum. The cerebrum or cortex is the largest part of the human brain, associated with higher brain function such as thought and action. The cerebral cortex is divided into four sections, called "lobes": the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital lobe, and temporal lobe. 97. What is the major problem involved in organ transplants? A. Race of recipient B. Phagocytes C. Sex of donor D. Antigen-antibody reaction Answer: D. Antigen-antibody reaction. The immune system usually protects the body from substances that may be harmful, such as germs, poisons, and sometimes, cancer cells. These harmful substances have proteins called antigens coating their surfaces. As soon as these antigens enter the body, the immune system recognizes that those are not from that person's body and that they are "foreign," and attacks them. When a person receives an organ from someone else during transplant surgery, that person's immune system may recognize that it is foreign. This is because the person's immune system detects that the antigens on the cells of the organ are different or not "matched." Mismatched organs, or organs that are not matched closely enough, can trigger a blood transfusion reaction or transplant rejection. To help prevent this reaction, doctors type, or match both the organ donor and the person who is receiving the organ. The more similar the antigens are between the donor and recipient, the less likely that the organ will be rejected. 98. What special equipment is placed inside the heart generate electrical impulse? A. Endoscope B. Pacemaker C. Cardiac regulator D. Heart pump

Answer: B. Pacemaker. A small battery-operated device that helps the heart beat in a regular rhythm. It produces the electrical impulses that stimulate your heart to beat. The impulses flow through these leads to your heart and are timed to flow at regular intervals just as impulses from your heart's natural pacemaker would. 99. The modern horse has fewer toes than its ancestors. Such change is governed by . A. Reduction-division B. Natural Selection C. chromosomal deletions D. use and disuse Answer: D. use and disuse. Horses, humans, and all other mammals share a common ancestor-with five toes. Over millions of years, many horse species lost most of their side toes. The middle toe evolved into a single large hoof, while the other toes became smaller and ultimately functionless. 100. Which theory on how life began do chemists and geologists agree on today? A. Special Creation B. Spontaneous generation C. Cosmozoic D. Naturalistic Answer: B. Spontaneous generation. Spontaneous generation, the hypothetical process by which living organisms develop from nonliving matter; also, the archaic theory that utilized this process to explain the origin of life. According to that theory, pieces of cheese and bread wrapped in rags and left in a dark corner, for example, were thus thought to produce mice, because after several weeks there were mice in the rags. Many believed in spontaneous generation because it explained such occurrences as the appearance of maggots on decaying meat. Life, particularly simple forms, spontaneously and readily arises from nonliving matter in short periods of time, today as in the past. Life arose on the early Earth by a series of progressive chemical reactions. Such reactions may have been likely or may have required one or more highly improbable chemical events. 101. At the competition of mitosis, the reminder of the cell divides and a new cell divides and a new cell wall is formed. This process is called . A. Meiosis B. Cytokinesis C. Recombination D. Cross-over Answer: B. Cytokinesis. Plant cells have walls, so cytokinesis cannot proceed with a cleavage furrow. Instead, during telophase a cell plate forms across the cell in the location of the old metaphase plate. A new cell wall forms between the two membranes of the cell plate.

102. The age of mammals was traced to about A. 5-6 billion years B. 65 million years C. 230 million years D. 600 million years

.

Answer: B. 65 million years. The period between the extinction of the dinosaurs and the present day is called the Age of Mammals or Cenozoic. The Cenozoic spans only about 65 million years, from the end of the Cretaceous Period and the extinction of non-avian dinosaurs to the present. The Cenozoic is called the Age of Mammals, because the largest land animals have been mammals during that time. 103. If trait is controlled by gene that is located in the x chromosome, it is classified as A. Genotype B. gene-linked C. sex-linked D. phenotype Answer: C. sex-linked. Sex linked genes are genes that are in the sex chromosomes and that are therefore inherited differently between males and females. In mammals, where the female has two X chromosomes (XX) and the male has one X and one Y chromosome (XY), recessive genes on the X chromosome are more often expressed in males because their only X chromosome has this gene, while females may carry a defective recessive gene on one X chromosome that is compensated by a healthy dominant gene on the other X chromosome. Common examples of sex linked genes are those that code for colorblindness or those that code for hemophilia (inability to make blood clots) in humans. 104. Which theory states that life originated from non-living materials? A. Naturalistic B. Cosmozoic C. Spontaneous generation D. Special creation Answer: C. Spontaneous generation. The supposed production of living organisms from nonliving matter, as inferred from the apparent appearance of life in some supposedly sterile environments. 105. The age of fossils can be determined by A. the age of sediments were found B. carbon-14 dating method C. when the organisms came about D. the nature of radiations emitted

.

Answer: B. carbon-14 dating method. Radiocarbon dating (also referred to as carbon dating or carbon-14 dating) is a method for determining the age of an object containing organic material by using the properties of radiocarbon, a radioactive isotope of carbon. Because carbon-14 decays at this constant rate, an estimate of the date at which an organism died can be made by measuring the amount of its residual radiocarbon. 106. Which parental pair could produce a colorblind female? A. Heterozygous normal vision mother and normal father. B. Heterozygous normal vision mother and colorblind father. C. Normal vision mother and colorblind father. D. Homozygous normal vision mother and normal father. Answer: B. Heterozygous normal vision mother and colorblind father. A heterozygous normalvision mother (XH,Xh), and a father with colorblindness (Xh,Y). X of the father's DNA is causing color blindness. Only one of the two X from the mother's DNA is causing color blindness. One cause of colorblindness is genetic. Usually, who suffered from hereditary color vision defect have red-green color vision defect. Color vision defect is inheritance and lie at sex linked which is x-linked recessive. Because of that male (Xh,Y) having color vision defect than females (XH,Xh). Females only as carrier if both their parents have not color vision defect. 107. An organism that has an extra copy of a chromosome in all its cells is a result of . A. gene mutation B. chromosomal mutation C. somatic mutation D. polyploidy Answer: D. polyploidy. Polyploidy refers to a numerical change in a whole set of chromosomes and it is one of the type mutations. Polyploidy describes the case of a cell or an individual possessing entire extra sets of chromosomes. 108. Which of the following is a cloned organism? A. Rat with rabbit hemoglobin genes. B. Human gene with a blood clothing gene. C. Bacterium that has received genes by conjugation. D. Fem grown in cell culture from a single root cell. Answer: D. Fem grown in cell culture from a single root cell. Cloning, the process of generating a genetically identical copy of a cell or an organism. Cloning happens all the time in nature—for example, when a cell replicates itself asexually without any genetic alteration or recombination. In cloning, a cell is taken from the organism that is being cloned. The DNA from this donor cell is then transferred to an egg cell whose DNA has been removed. The egg cell is “activated” and begins dividing as if it was fertilized.

109. Which is the plasmid that increases resistance to antibiotics? A. Col-plasmid B. F-plasmid C. Cell-plasmid D. R-plasmid Answer: D. R-plasmid. The genes on R plasmids confer resistance to antibiotics or other bacterial growth inhibitors. A bacterium with an R plasmid for penicillin resistance is able to survive treatment by that antibiotic. A. Col-plasmid. Col plasmids, which contain genes that code for bacteriocins, proteins that can kill other bacteria. B. F-plasmid. The F plasmid is an example of a large plasmid, which contains genes that allow the plasmids DNA to be transferred between cells.This joining via a pilus in order to transfer DNA between bacteria is known as conjugation. Therefore the F plasmid is known as a conjugative plasmid. 110. Two cells which have a chromosome number different from that of their single parent cell are normally produced during the process of . A. mitosis B. meiosis C. protein synthesis D. cell membranes Answer: B. Meiosis. After mitosis two identical cells are created with the same original number of chromosomes, 46. Haploid cells that are generated through meiosis, such as egg and sperm, only have 23 chromosomes. 111. The major job of genes is to control A. meiosis B. mitosis C. protein synthesis D. cell membranes

.

Answer: C. protein synthesis. Each gene occupies a specific position on a chromosome. Because genes provide instructions for making proteins, and proteins determine the structure and function of each cell in the body, it follows that genes are responsible for all the characteristics you inherit. 112. In mammalian cloning, the organism resulting from the technology is similar to the . A. Owner of the embryonic cell. B. Surrogate embryonic cell. C. owner of the somatic cell D. surrogate mother cell Answer: A. Owner of the embryonic cell.

113. Cells are allowed to fuse by A. RNA polymerase B. helicases C. polyethylene glycol D. DNA ligase

.

Answer: C. polyethylene glycol. Polyethylene glycol cell fusion is the simplest, but most toxic, way to fuse cells. In this type of cell fusion polyethylene glycol, PEG, acts as a dehydrating agent and fuses not only plasma membranes but also intracellular membranes. RNA Polymerase, Helicases and DNA ligases are all needed for DNA Replication not in cell fusion. 114. Why is incineration not favored as a method of waste disposal? A. Needs more than power to exert B. Releases corrosive and noxious gasses C. Requires large energy expenditure. D. Expensive for a country like ours. Answer: B. Releases corrosive and noxious gasses. Incineration is a waste treatment process that involves the combustion of organic substances contained in waste materials. Burning waste pollutes people and the environment. Mercury, dioxins, lead, and other pollutants come from burning waste. In terms of climate impacts, incinerators emit more carbon dioxide (CO2) per unit of electricity than coal-fired power plants. 115. A food web is a network of interacting A. producers B. food chains C. consumers D. habitats Answer: B. food chains. A food web is a natural interconnection of food chains and a graphical representation of what-eats-what in an ecological community. 116. Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas? A. CO2 B. N2O C. HS D. CH4 Answer: C. HS. Bisulfide (systematically named sulfanide and hydrogen sulfide) (1−) is an inorganic anion with the chemical formula HS− (also written as SH−). It contributes no color to bisulfide salts, and its salts may have a distinctive putrid smell. A greenhouse gas (GHG) is any gas in the atmosphere which absorbs and re-emits heat, and thereby keeps the planet's atmosphere warmer than it otherwise would be. The main GHGs in the Earth's atmosphere are water vapour, carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O) and ozone. 117. What is the current size of the human population?

A. 4 billion B. 3 billion C. 6 billion D. 5 billion Answer: C. 6 billion. Population size is the actual number of individuals in a population. The current world population of 7.6 billion is expected to reach 8.6 billion in 2030, 9.8 billion in 2050 and 11.2 billion in 2100, according to a new United Nations report. 118. What is the natural phenomena on wherein there is a continuous movement of water from the source to the atmosphere and back? A. Hydrogen cycle B. Carbon cycle C. Mineral cycle D. Hydrologic cycle Answer: D. Hydrologic cycle. The sequence of conditions through which water passes from vapor in the atmosphere through precipitation upon land or water surfaces and ultimately back into the atmosphere as a result of evaporation and transpiration 119. Which is a part of the formation of fossils fuels force? A. Hydrologic cycle B. Carbon Cycle C. Phosphorus cycle D. Nitrogen Cycle Answer: B. Carbon Cycle. Plants that die and are buried may turn into fossil fuels made of carbon like coal and oil over millions of years. When humans burn fossil fuels, most of the carbon quickly enters the atmosphere as carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas and traps heat in the atmosphere. Organisms return carbon dioxide to the atmosphere by respiration. It is not just animals that respire. Plants, algae and microorganisms do too. Carbon dioxide is also released into the atmosphere when fossil fuels such as coal and oil, and wood, are burned. Carbon is constantly recycled in the atmosphere. 120. When does a temperature inversion occur? A. Warm air rises above cool air. B. Winds fail to blow faster. C. Warm air is trapped under cool air D. Cool air is trapped under warm air. Answer: C. Warm air is trapped under cool air. Temperature inversion, condition in which the temperature of the atmosphere increases with altitude in contrast to the normal decrease with altitude. When temperature inversion occurs, cold air underlies warmer air at higher altitudes. 121. Which is the correct food chain?

A. Ants → Rice Plant → Cat B. Corn plant → mice → Cat C. Mice → cat→ Corn plant D. Rice Plant → Ants → Corn plant Answer: B. Corn plant → mice → Cat. Corn is the producer eaten by the Mice as the primary consumer that feeds on the Cat as secondary consumer. 122. Why is it difficult to dispose off high-level nuclear wastes? A. They have long half-lives B. They are large and bulky C. They emit radiation D. They have short half-lives Answer: C. They emit radiation. Low-level radioactive waste, such as contaminated gloves, can be disposed of in landfill sites. Higher level waste, which may be dangerously radioactive, is more difficult to dispose of. It can be reprocessed to extract nuclear fuel or encased in glass and left deep underground. Radioactive decay is the process by which an unstable atomic nucleus loses energy by emitting radiation.

123. What is the benefit obtained from greenhouse effect? A. Speeds the growth of plants B. Serves as a thermal blanket C. Allows release of heat energy D. Serves as a source of light energy Answer: C. Allows release of heat energy. Gases in the atmosphere such as carbon dioxide do what the roof of a greenhouse does. During the day, the Sun shines through the atmosphere. Earth's surface warms up in the sunlight. At night, Earth's surface cools, releasing the heat back into the air. 124. What is the process of removing salt from seawater? A. Detoxification B. Water Treatment C. Purification D. Desalination Answer: D. Desalination. Removal of salt (sodium chloride) and other minerals from the sea water to make it suitable for human consumption and/or industrial use. The most common desalination methods employ reverse-osmosis in which salt water is forced through a membrane that allows water molecules to pass but blocks the molecules of salt and other minerals.

125. Pollution has become a major problem largely because of the

A. use of renewable sources B. dependence on fossils fuels C. abundance of natural resources D. decrease in energy resources Answer: B. dependence on fossils fuels. Dirty sources of energy. Fossil fuels—coal, natural gas, and oil—produce most of our electricity but come with significant and harmful consequences. They produce the vast majority of global warming emissions. They release toxic chemicals that pollute our air and water. 126. Which statement BEST describes the climax stage of an ecological succession? A. Will change from season to season B. Populated only by plants C. Persists until there are drastic changes D. Represents until there are drastic changes Answer: C. Persists until there are drastic changes. An ecological community in which populations of plants or animals remain stable and exist in balance with each other and their environment. A climax community is the final stage of succession, remaining relatively unchanged until destroyed by an event such as fire or human interference. 127. The burning of coat could be made less polluting by using a A. offshore drilling B. motor vehicle device C. scrubber system D. recycling

.

Answer: C. scrubber system. Scrubber systems (e.g. chemical scrubbers, gasscrubbers) are a diverse group of air pollution control devices that can be used to remove some particulates and/or gases from industrial exhaust streams. 128. Yeasts convert sugar into alcohol through the process of A. biomass B. fermentation C. electrolysis D. combustion

.

Answer: B. fermentation. Alcoholic fermentation by yeast cells. In brewing, alcoholic fermentation is the conversion of sugar into carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and ethyl alcohol. This process is carried out by yeast cells using a range of enzymes. 129. What BEST characteristics the latitude where most deserts are found? A. Dry air is rising. B. Dry air is descending. C. Air masses are stationary. D. Moist air is descending. Answer:

A. Dry air is rising. Higher in the atmosphere, the now cold, dry air rises and moves away from the equator. At about 30 degree latitudes in both hemispheres (north and south), the air descends. As it warms, the air expands, condensation and precipitation are infrequent. (Deserts do not occur near the Equator, tropics occur there) 130. What kind of relationship exists when one organism kills and eats another organism? A. Commensalism B. Parasitism C. Scavenging D. Predation Answer: D. Predation. Predation is a biological interaction where a predator (a hunting animal) kills and eats its prey (the organism that is attacked). In ecology, predators are heterotrophic, getting all their energy from other organisms. This places them at high trophic levels in food webs. 131. Which biome is concerned to be the most stable? A. Grassland B. Taiga C. Tundra D. Tropical rainforest Answer: D. Tropical rainforest. Biodiversity helps maintain ecosystem stability, which is the ability of an ecosystem to maintain a steady state, even after a stress or disturbance has occurred. Looking at the terrestrial biomes, tropical rainforests have the greatest biodiversity. 132. Ozone depletion is due to the release of CFC’s from A. industrial combustion B. deforestation C. Styrofoam’s and Freon’s D. animal respiration Answer: A. industrial combustion. CFCs rise into the stratosphere where they are eventually broken down by ultraviolet (UV) rays from the Sun. This causes them to release free chlorine. The chlorine reacts with oxygen which leads to the chemical process of destroying ozone molecules. 133. Which pair of terms will most likely apply to the same organism? A. Autotroph, parasite B. Heterotroph, autotroph C. Heterotroph, herbivore D. Producer, predator

Answer:

C. Heterotroph, herbivore. A heterotroph is an animal that can't make its own food supply, so they have to eat other things, like plants or other animals, to survive. Herbivore is a heterotroph that feeds on plants. 134. The maximum rate at which a certain species reproduces is its A. limiting factors B. carrying capacity C. growth rate D. biotic potential Answer: B. carrying capacity. The carrying capacity of an ecosystem is the size of the population that can be supported indefinitely upon the available resources and services of that ecosystem. So, it is the maximum rate at which certain species reproduce. A. Limiting factors. The presence or absence of a factor limits the growth of the ecosystems elements. Examples of limiting factors include competition, parasitism, predation, disease, abnormal weather patterns, natural calamities, seasonal cycles and human activities. C. Growth rate. The rate, or speed, at which the number of organisms in a population increases. D. Biotic potential. The ability of a population of living species to increase under ideal environmental conditions – sufficient food supply, no predators, and a lack of disease. An organism's rate of reproduction and the size of each litter are the primary determining factors for biotic potential. 135. A species’ role in a particular ecosystem? A. community B. habitat C. niche D. population Answer: C. niche. An ecological niche is the role and position a species has in its environment; how it meets its needs for food and shelter, how it survives, and how it reproduces. A species' niche includes all of its interactions with the biotic and abiotic factors of its environment. 136. Which of these is a natural ecosystem? A. Aquarium B. Forest C. Pond D. Pot and plants Answer: B. Forest. A forest ecosystem is a natural woodland unit consisting of all plants, animals and micro-organisms (Biotic components) in that area functioning together with all of the non-living physical (abiotic) factors of the environment.

137. What do you call the phase when population size is doubling at a very fast rate? A. Death B. Stationary C. Lag D. Log Answer: D.Log. Lag phase: very little to no bacterial growth. Log phase: the number of bacterial cells doubles at a constant, exponential rate. Stationary phase: the number of viable bacteria cells remains the same. During the stationary phase, the rate of bacterial cell growth is equal to the rate of bacterial cell death. 138. Which one is a liquid fossil fuel? A. Petrochemical B. Methane C. Petroleum D. Alcohol Answer: C. Petroleum. Oil is mostly known as crude oil or condensate, but includes all liquid hydrocarbon fossil fuels. Petroleum and liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) are the most common types of fuel obtained from oil extraction and refining. Petroleum is a liquid fuel made of hydrocarbons and other liquid organic compounds. 139. Why do foams produced from detergents remain in the water for a long time because? A. they are deficient in oxygen B. they are biodegradable C. they are rich in phosphorus D. they are non-biodegradable Answer: C. they are rich in phosphorus. Detergents with high amount of Phosphorus can cause foaming. Phosphorus is an important nutrient, but it is not abundant in nature. Large amounts of phosphorus introduced into rivers and lakes can cause algae populations to grow quickly. 140. Which of the following has the lowest heating value? A. Petroleum B. Wood C. Coal D. Perennial Answer: B. Wood. The heating value of wood is only 16 MJ/kg. A. Petroleum. The heating value of Petroleum is 45 MJ/kg. C. Coal. The heating value of hard black coal is 25.5 M/kg while for Lignite (brown coal), the heating value is 17.4 MJ/kg. 141. Which of the following is referred to as the final community that lasts for a very long time?

A. Niche B. Initial C. Climax D. Perennial Answer: C. Climax. The climax community in ecological succession represents a stable end product of the successional sequence. The final or stable community in a sere is the climax community or climatic vegetation. It is self-perpetuating and in equilibrium with the physical habitat. The climax community, is a historic term for a biological community of plants, animals, and fungi which, through the process of ecological succession in the development of vegetation in an area over time, have reached a steady state. 142. Which BEST describes the climax stage of an ecological succession? A. It changes rapidly from season to season. B. Represent initial phases of evolution. C. It persists until drastic changes occur. D. Populated only by plants. Answer: C. Persists until there are drastic changes. An ecological community in which populations of plants or animals remain stable and exist in balance with each other and their environment. A climax community is the final stage of succession, remaining relatively unchanged until destroyed by an event such as fire or human interference. 143. What type of growth curve is produced from a very abrupt increase in population size? A. Quadratic B. Linear C. Exponential D. Logistic Answer: C. Exponential. Two modes of population growth. The Exponential curve (also known as a J-curve) occurs when there is no limit to population size. The Logistic curve (also known as an S-curve) shows the effect of a limiting factor (in this case the carrying capacity of the environment). In population growth curve, a positive acceleration phase; then increases rapidly approaching an exponential growth rate as in the J-shaped curve. 144. The transporting of broken rock particles from one place to another is a natural process called . A. Depletion B. Conservation C. weathering D. erosion

Answer:

D. erosion. Erosion is removal of surface material from Earth’s crust, primarily soil and rock debris, and the transportation of the eroded materials by natural agencies (such as water or wind) from the point of removal. C. Weathering. Weathering is the process where rock is dissolved, worn away or broken down into smaller and smaller pieces. 145. Among the following, which could be considered a population? A. 8 coconut trees ling the fence B. 10 rats in a 1 hectare rice field C. 100 rats in a 1 hectare rice field D. 40 students eating in the canteen Answer: C. 100 rats in a 1 hectare rice field. A population is defined as a group of individuals of the same species living and interbreeding within a given area. Members of a population often rely on the same resources, are subject to similar environmental constraints, and depend on the availability of other members to persist over time. Scientists study a population by examining how individuals in that population interact with each other and how the population as a whole interacts with its environment. 146. An autotrophic nutritional relationship among organisms in an ecosystem is shown in the conversion of . A. protein into amino acids B. radiant energy to chemical energy C. free nitrogen into nitrites D. rocks into soil Answer: B. radiant energy to chemical energy. Most autotrophs use a process called photosynthesis to make their food. In photosynthesis, autotrophs use energy from the sun (radiant energy) to convert water from the soil and carbon dioxide from the air into a nutrient called glucose (chemical energy). 147. What is the most common waste disposal method in Metro Manila? A. Composing B. Open dump C. Incineration D. Sanitary landfill Answer: B. Open dump. Open dumping is the most common disposal method for solid wastes in the Metropolis. The closure of two "landfills" (in San Mateo and Carmona) 2 and the partial closure of the Payatas dump site have resulted in the current garbage crisis in the Metropolis, with serious threats to public health and no clear solution in sight.

148. In food web, where is the greatest concentration of chemical bond energy? A. Decomposers B. Primary consumers C. Producers D. Secondary consumers Answer: C. Producers. Food chains are channels for the one-way flow of solar energy captured by photosynthesis through the living components of ecosystems. Food chains are also pathways for the recycling of nutrients from producers, through herbivores, carnivores, omnivores, and decomposers, finally returning to the producers. Autotrophs are always found at the first trophic level and the entire food web depends on the energy harvested by them. Each step in a food web or food chain involves a transfer of matter and energy (in the form of chemical bonds stored in food) from organism to organism. Energy flow through a food web depends greatly on the nature of the producers at the first trophic level. 149. In which of region of the atmosphere is the concentration of chemical bond energy? A. Decomposers B. Primary consumers C. Producers D. Secondary consumers Answer: C. Producers. Food chains are channels for the one-way flow of solar energy captured by photosynthesis through the living components of ecosystems. Food chains are also pathways for the recycling of nutrients from producers, through herbivores, carnivores, omnivores, and decomposers, finally returning to the producers. Autotrophs are always found at the first trophic level and the entire food web depends on the energy harvested by them. Each step in a food web or food chain involves a transfer of matter and energy (in the form of chemical bonds stored in food) from organism to organism. Energy flow through a food web depends greatly on the nature of the producers at the first trophic level.

150. Of all biomes, which is the most fragile? A. Tundra B. Estuary C. Deciduous forest D. Taiga Answer: A. Tundra. The effects of global warming on the Alpine Tundra are not well known, but because it is the most fragile biome on earth, the effects are bound to be disastrous. The fragile plants are at great risk to human incursion; a piece of litter can kill a plant in just a few weeks, if not picked up.