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1.

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

* Speed in km/hr = Mach Number × 1200 km/hr ** Excluding weapons *** Weaponry comprises Missiles, Ordinary Munitions and Laser-guided Munitions

How many types of aircraft have a maximum speed in excess of 1800 km/hr and can also engage at most ten targets? (1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 11

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(5) 12

2. If each missile weighs 200 kg, then what is the total weight of weaponry carried by the aircraft having the highest µ coefficient? (1) 1200 kg (2) 12000 kg (3) 5200 kg (4) 4800 kg (5) None of these

3. What is the maximum distance that can be covered in three hours by the aircraft with the maximum fire power at its disposal? (1) 3000 km (2) 3600 km

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) 10800 km (4) 9600 km (5) None of these

4. During a certain military exercise, it was decided to fly all the types of aircraft which met each of the following four criteria. (I) The bore diameter of the machine gun is greater than 40 mm. (II) Machine gun capacity is at least 1200 rounds/minute. (III) The number of missiles carried is at least 12. (IV) The number of targets engaged is at least 6. How many types of aircraft listed in the table given qualify to be part of this military exercise?

(1) Less than 7

(Correct Answer: 1)

(2) More than 6 but less than 9 (3) More than 8 but less than 11 (4) More than 10 but less than 13 (5) More than 12

5.

DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 9: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A person went to the market and bought a bag, a bat and a pen drive for a total amount of Rs.1019. He had money in notes of only three denominations - Rs.10, Rs.2 and Re.1 - and he had a total of 180 notes with him. He used all the money with him in purchasing these things. It is known that the bag is the least expensive, whereas the pen-drive is the most expensive. It is also known that, (1) in purchasing each item, he used at least two and at most 35 notes of each denomination. (2) the total number of Rs.2 notes used in purchasing the bat and the bag put together is 54. (3) the worth of the bat and the bag put together is Rs.635. (4) the number of Rs.10 notes used in purchasing the pen-drive is 35 and that of Re.1 notes used in purchasing the bat is 15. (5) the number of Rs.10 notes and the number of Rs.2 notes used in purchasing the bag are prime numbers, but the number of Rs.10 notes and the number of Rs.2 notes used in purchasing the bat are not prime numbers. What is the total number of Rs.2 notes that the person had? (1) 73 (2) 65

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) 57 (4) 71

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(5) Cannot be determined

6.

What is the number of Re.1 notes that he used in purchasing the bag?

(1) 2

(Correct Answer: 1)

(2) 15 (3) 12 (4) 7 (5) Cannot be determined

7.

What is the cost of the bag?

(1) Rs.290 (2) Rs.270 (3) Rs.280 (4) Rs.230 (5) Cannot be determined

8.

(Correct Answer: 5)

How many Rs.10 notes did the person use to purchase the bat?

(1) 35 (2) 28

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) 23 (4) 19 (5) Cannot be determined

9. If it is known that the number of Rs.2 notes used in purchasing the bag is 19, then what is the difference between the cost of the bat and the cost of the bag? (1) Rs.83 (2) Rs.74 (3) Rs.70 (4) Rs.95

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) Rs.85

10. DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 13: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Software and Hardware are the two divisions of a company. Software was established in 1996 and Hardware was established in 2002. For both these divisions, 20% of the employees who join in any year will leave the company after exactly two years, while the remaining 80% stay with company for at least ten years. It is known that 20 employees of Software left the company in 2002. The following figures show the number of employees of the Software and the Hardware divisions working in the company from 2000 to 2005.

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How many employees of Hardware left the company by the end of 2005? (1) 22 (2) 40

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) 62 (4) 18 (5) Cannot be determined

11.

How many employees joined Hardware in 2004?

(1) 60 (2) 70

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) 48 (4) 50 (5) Cannot be determined Solution

12.

How many employees joined Software in 2004?

(1) 76 (2) 80 (3) 90

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) 84 (5) Cannot be determined Solution

13.

How many employees of Software left the company in 2005?

(1) 16 (2) 26 (3) 36 (4) 28 (5) Cannot be determined

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(Correct Answer: 5)

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Solution

14. DIRECTIONS for questions 14 to 16: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. One of the functions of the RBI is to mobilize funds for the government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows the details of the funds mobilized during the period July 2007-July 2008. Note that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.

How many times was the issue of securities under-subscribed, i.e., on how many occasions did the total amount mobilized fall short of the amount notified?

(1) 1

(Correct Answer: 1)

(2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 0 Solution

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15.

Which of the following is true?

(1) Second round issues have a higher maturity than the first round for all dates. (2) The second round issues on any date have a lower maturity (than that of the issues in the first round) only when the notified amount in the first round exceeds that in the second round. (3) On at least one occasion, the second round issue having lower maturity received a higher number of competitive bids, when compared to the first round issue. (Correct Answer: 3) (4) On exactly three occasions, in the second round issue the number of competitive bids received was more and the number of non-competitive bids received was less, when compared to the respective values in the second round issue on 7th Oct-07. (5) None of the above Solution

16.

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

(1) The number of competitive bids received always exceed the number of the non-competitive bids received. (2) The number of competitive bids accepted does not always exceed the number of non-competitive bids accepted. (3) The value of competitive bids accepted on any particular date is never higher for higher maturity. (4) The value of non-competitive bids accepted in the first round is always greater than that in the second round. (Correct Answer: 4) (5) None of the above

17. DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Four levels - A, B, C and D, in no specific order, are awarded for excellence in software project management. Companies which earn a certain number of points, known as sigma points, are awarded these levels based on the points they earn. The difference between any two consecutive levels of excellence is 200 sigma points. Companies are reviewed at the end of each year and are awarded levels based on the sigma points they earn that year. The sigma points required for each of the levels A, B, C and D remains constant from one year to the next. A total of 324 companies were awarded the four levels in the year 2008. After the review of these companies in 2009, the jury, before announcing it kept some part of the information confidential, by encoding the information in the following character codes: 12AB72, 00BC96 00AC24, 36BD00 60AD24, 00CD00 The interpretation of the format of the character codes is as follows: For e.g., 12AB72 implies that 12 companies moved from level A to level B, while 72 companies moved from level B to level A. Similarly, 00CD00 implies no company moved from level C to level D or vice versa. If the change in the sigma points of each company is added and the result is the minimum possible, then find the difference in the sigma points between levels C and D. (1) 200 (2) 400 (3) 600

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) Either (1) or (2) (5) Either (1) or (3)

18. What is the minimum possible change in the total sigma points for the year 2009, when compared to the year 2008?

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(1) 76800 (Correct Answer: 2)

(2) 4800 (3) 2400 (4) 38400

(5) None of these

19. If level C and level A are given the least and the most number of sigma points respectively, which of the following could be the change in the total sigma points of all the companies put together for the year 2009, when compared to the year 2008? (1) 57600

(Correct Answer: 1)

(2) 55200 (3) 220800 (4) 44000 (5) None of these

20. If the total of the change in the sigma points of all the companies for 2009, when compared to 2008, add up to 96000, and the difference in the sigma points between levels C and D is 400, then find the difference in the sigma points between levels A and D? (1) 200

(Correct Answer: 1)

(2) 400 (3) 600 (4) Either (1) or (3) (5) Data inconsistent

21. DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 25: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Six teams took part in a football tournament in which each team plays every other team exactly once. Six points are awarded for a win, two points for a draw and zero points for a loss. At the end of all the matches, the teams are ranked from 1 to 6, on the basis of the points they scored, with the team scoring the highest points ranked 1, the next one second and so on. If two or more teams end up with the same number of points, the team with the highest goal difference (Goals for - Goals against) is placed higher, the next one scored and so on. The teams ranked 1 and 2 qualify for the finals. The following table gives the information after the first two rounds of the tournament.

In the third round, A played D, B played C and E played F. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches. (i) F won both fourth and fifth round matches. (ii) Both C and D won exactly one match each in the last two rounds, with 2 goals to 1 in each case. (iii) A lost both fourth and fifth round matches. Which of the following statements is true about the matches played in the first two rounds?

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(1) E beat B by 1 goal to 0. (2) A beat C by 2 goals to 1. (3) D beat C by 3 goals to 0.

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) F beat D by 1 goal to 0. (5) None of these Solution

22.

Which of the following statements is true about the matches played in the first two rounds?

(1) E beat C by 2 goals to 0. (2) D beat C by 2 goals to 0. (3) A beat B by 1 goal to 0. (4) A beat F by 1 goal to 0. (5) E beat D by 1 goal to 0.

(Correct Answer: 5)

Solution

23.

If F qualified as one of the two teams, then which was the other team that qualified?

(1) E

(Correct Answer: 1)

(2) D (3) C (4) A (5) Cannot be determined Solution

24.

If in the fourth round D played E, then who played D in the first two rounds?

(1) A and E (2) B and C (3) B and F

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) C and A (5) Cannot be determined Solution

25.

Who among the following, definitely did not play B in the first two rounds?

(1) D (2) E (3) F (4) A

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) Cannot be determined Solution

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DIRECTIONS for questions 26 to 37: Answer the questions independently of each other

26.

Three positive real numbers p, q and r satisfy the equations q - p = r - q and pqr = 6. Find the minimum possible value of q. (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) (4)

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) None of these

27.

In the figure below, chord BC is parallel to the diameter DE of the circle. If ÐBAC = 40o, find ÐEBC.

(1) 40o (2) 30o (3) 50o (4) 25o

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) 32.5

28.

o

Train A travels from Secunderabad to Surat and train B travels from Surat to Secunderabad. Trains A and B leave Secunderabad and Surat on Monday at 1:00 a.m. and 6:00 a.m. respectively. The trains travel on parallel tracks and cross each other at 20 minutes past 10:00 p.m. on the same day. If both the trains reach their destinations simultaneously at time T, then T must be

(1) 5:05 p.m. on Tuesday. (2) 5:10 p.m. on Tuesday. (3) 4:40 p.m. on Tuesday. (4) 5:00 p.m. on Tuesday.

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) 5:20 p.m. on Tuesday.

29.

Find the number of non-negative real roots of 2y - 1 =y.

(1) 3 (2) 2

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(Correct Answer: 2)

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(3) 1 (4) 0 (5) 4

30.

There are three containers - M, W and H - of equal capacities, containing milk, water and honey respectively. Each container is filled upto 75% of its capacity. Now, W is topped up to its brim (i.e., filled completely), with the contents of M. The contents of W are then thoroughly mixed. Then H is topped up to its brim with the contents of W. The contents of H are then thoroughly mixed. Finally, the contents of H are used to fill M again up to 75% of its capacity. Which among the following statements is true regarding m, w and h, which are the respective final concentrations of milk in M, water in W and honey in H?

(1) m > w > h (2) w > h > m (3) m = w = h (4) m > h > w (5) None of the above

(Correct Answer: 5)

Find the remainder when (17) (9!) + 18! is divided by (9!) 8704.

31.

(1) 1 (2) 10! (3) 8! (4) 17(10!) (5) 17(9!)

32.

(Correct Answer: 5)

Using an inlet pipe P it was planned to fill a tank by exactly noon one day. P was opened at a certain time that day, but after some time, a leak was spotted. It was immediately closed. In order to fill the tank by noon, another inlet pipe Q of the same flow rate as P was then opened. Had the leak not been spotted, the tank would have been 50% full by noon and completely full by 3:00 p.m. that day. Find the time when Q was opened.

(1) 9:45 a.m. (2) 11:00 a.m.

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) 10:30 a.m. (4) 10:00 a.m. (5) 10:15 a.m. Avinash attended a job interview, wherein he was asked to choose among three offers - I, II, and III.

33.

Offer I : A starting salary of Rs.16,000 per year, with an increase of Rs.800 every year. Offer II : A starting salary of Rs.8,000 per half year, with an increase of Rs.200 every half year. Offer III : A starting salary of Rs.4,000 per quarter year, with an increase of Rs.100 every quarter year. The most profitable choice for Avinash would be (1) I (2) II (3) III

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) Both I and II (5) All are equally profitable

34.

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Ankur plays a game, in which three rings of different sizes, small, medium and large, are given in that order, to throw on a teddy bear, from a distance. If in any throw, a ring surrounds the teddy bear, the

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game ends and Ankur will win the teddy bear. For Ankur, the probabilities of successfully throwing the small, medium and the large rings around the teddy bear are 1/4, 1/3 and 1/2 respectively. If it is known that Ankur finally won the teddy bear, then what is the probability that he failed in throwing the small ring around the teddy bear? (1) 1/4 (2) 1/2 (3) 2/3

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) 3/4 (5) 1/3

35.

There is a field of grass represented in the xy co-ordinate plane as x > 0, y > 0 and 3x + 4y ≤ 60. A cow is tied with a cord to a pole situated exactly at the point x = 0, y = 0. If the length of the cord is 12 units, find the area (in sq.units) of the field over which the cow cannot graze?

(1) 600 - 144π (2) 300 - 144π (3) 150 - 36π

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) 500 - 72π (5) 150 - 18π

36.

A1, A2, A3, ….. A∞ represents a sequence of numbers satisfying AN + 1 = AN + AN + 2. Find the sum of the first 3002 terms of this sequence, given that A1 = 65 and A2 = -13.

(1) 52

(Correct Answer: 1)

(2) 78 (3) 39 (4) 91 (5) -39

37.

The circumference of a circle is divided into 26 equal parts by marking 26 equidistant points on it. Now, using these points as vertices, triangles are drawn such that the circumcentre of each of those triangles lies on one of its sides. How many such triangles can be drawn?

(1) 156 (2) 676 (3) 182 (4) 650 (5) 312

38.

(Correct Answer: 5)

DIRECTIONS for questions 38 and 39: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

N is a natural number formed by writing the first 1002 whole numbers one after another. Find the remainder when N is divided by 9. (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 3

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) 6

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39.

The number N is written horizontally, from left to right, and then a vertical line is drawn, dividing it such that the number of digits on either side of the line is the same. Find the remainder when the number formed by the digits on the left of that line is divided by 125.

(1) 48 (2) 101

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) 18 (4) 28 (5) 70

40.

DIRECTIONS for questions 40 to 50: Answer the questions independently of each other

If 25 ≤ p ≤ 49, and q is defined as

, then which of the following is true of q?

(1) 18 ≤ q < 36 (2) 19 < q ≤ 37 (3) 20 ≤ q < 45 (4) 23 ≤ q < 29 (5) 19 ≤ q < 38

41.

(Correct Answer: 5)

A natural number is expressed in the number system to the base 2, base 3 and base 7. If the first and the last digits are 1 in each case, the number could be

(1) 43 (2) 126 (3) 85

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) 169 (5) More than one of the above

42.

The following data is available for the monsoon season of the Hyderabad racing club. The data is for a total of y days. (i) There were races on 11 days - morning or evening. (ii) Whenever there was a race in the morning, there was no race in the evening. (iii) There were 8 mornings without any race. (iv) There were 5 evenings without any race. What is the value of y?

(1) 10 (2) 12

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) 14 (4) 13 (5) Cannot be determined

43.

Find the minimum number of coins required to pay the amounts of 67 paise, Rs.1.03 and 83 paise to three persons A, B and C, respectively, using only coins of the denominations of 2 paise, 5 paise, 10 paise, 25 paise and 50 paise.

(1) 17 (2) 18

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(Correct Answer: 2)

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(3) 19 (4) 20 (5) 16

44.

The figure PQRSTUVW is a cube. If the lengths of PV, WU and TR are equal to the sides of a triangle, the radius of the circle inscribed in that triangle equals

(1) the edge of the cube. (2) (3)

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) (5) None of these

45.

Ajay and Balu started a business together by investing some money. At the end of the first year, out of a total profit of Rs.2000, Ajay received Rs.400 more than Balu. If Ajay had invested Rs.6000 more and Balu had invested Rs.6000 less, Ajay would have received 25% more than what he actually received. What would have been the profit share of Balu, if Ajay's investment and Balu's investment had been less by Rs.3000 and Rs.7000 respectively, and the profit had decreased by 20%?

(1) Rs.480

(Correct Answer: 1)

(2) Rs.288 (3) Rs.336 (4) Rs.360 (5) Rs.390

46.

There are 90 questions in a test. Each correct answer fetches 1 mark, each wrong answer attracts a penalty of 1/4 mark and each unanswered question attracts a penalty of 1/8 mark. If a candidate scored 23 marks in the test, what is the minimum possible number of questions wrongly answered by him?

(1) 4 (2) 7 (3) 12 (4) 5

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) 16

47.

Among all the four-digit natural numbers divisible by 24, how many have the number 24 in them?

(1) 24 (2) 26 (3) 28 (4) 25

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) None of these

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48.

Ram and Sita had a son named Bala. The sum of the present ages of Ram and Bala is 120 years. When Ram was as old as Sita is, Sita was twice as old as Bala. Find the present age of Bala (in years).

(1) 35 (2) 30 (3) 40

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) 20 (5) Cannot be determined

49.

If log23, log2 (3x - 15) and log2 (3x + 21) are in arithmetic progression, find x.

(1) 2 (2) 3

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) 4 (4) log36 (5) More than one of the above

50.

Evaluate :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5)

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51.

DIRECTIONS for questions 51 to 56:Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it.

Some of the ways in which parents want their children to be "the best they can be" involve what are traditionally called virtues. Parents may want their children to possess certain "prudential" virtues: to be temperate or moderate in emotions and appetites, self-controlled, judicious, resourceful, persevering, determined, far-sighted, affable, and reflective. They may want them to possess certain moral virtues as well: to have courage - especially moral courage - and to be fair, benevolent, kind, and forgiving. Early eugenicists thought that one of their central goals was the production of morally better and socially more efficient societies: They looked to genetics to improve the distribution of virtues in a society. Less desirable traits - like lack of self-control, inability to plan ahead and delay gratification, intemperance, and imprudence were believed more prevalent among lower classes and nonwhite races. More desirable traits self discipline, foresight, creativity, resourcefulness - were thought more prevalent among the ruling classes and race. The appeal of the Social Darwinists and of the eugenics movement more generally was to the idea of building superior societies - where virtues were more directly selected for. In its current reincarnation, eugenic thinking - bemoaning the low reproduction rates of the upper classes and the high rates of the lower, for example - concentrates on what might appear to be somewhat simpler traits, such as IQ, that are used to explain differential success of different groups. Still, the considerable interest in the sociobiological and ethics literature on the evolution of altruism indicates a continuing belief that moral virtues or character traits have genetic origins. Most virtues of interest whether prudential or moral virtues, are exceedingly complex traits. They are contextually highly sensitive and specific, they require considerable perception and discrimination for their exercise, and their exercise often requires balancing their appeal with other virtues. Many underlying capabilities or dispositions that might enhance virtues, such as sensitivity to the feelings of others, intelligence, ability to modulate emotional response - all capabilities that we might think have some significant genetics basis - can just as easily be put into the service of vice as well as virtue. Consider Cynthia, for example. Cynthia has great intuition about the feelings of others. She can read their emotions well, she knows how to feel their pain and anxiety. Indeed, people find her empathetic: They see that she resonates with their pain. At the same time, she does not lapse into pity, and she is not incapacitated by her emotions. She keeps a level head. She puts people at ease, and is able to say the right things to them. Without being condescending or pandering, which would put people off if they too were perceptive, she judiciously exhibits her responsiveness. Cynthia is blessed in other ways: She is extremely good at planning a detailed but flexible course of action. She is willing to make sacrifices, even painful ones, in the short term to improve her situation or that of others she is advising in the long run. She knows how others will respond to the steps she takes and how to anticipate their reactions. Like a good chess player, she thinks her way through several courses of action, but she does not seem calculating or cunning to others so much as careful and thoughtful. She does not seem calculating because she seems responsive to the wishes of others in her planning: She builds on their intentions and encourages their desires to do well for themselves. She incorporates their desires and goals into her own planning. Cynthia exhibits many of the dispositions and traits that would make her an excellent social worker. She might even win an award for excellence: Virtuous Social Worker of the Year. Alas, Cynthia is a very successful con artist, not a social worker: She sells phoney real estate to unsuspecting retirees. Or at least she was successful until she met an equally successful former con artist who ran a sting operation for the FBI. She clearly lacks the direct concern for the well-being of others that would make her many capabilities serve as components of a moral virtue. The moral of Cynthia's story is that we should be leery of any genetic (or environmental) intervention that enhances a trait or disposition that is merely a necessary condition for having a virtue that would result in morally better offspring. If we could genetically enhance the various capabilities that contribute to Cynthia's arsenal, it does not follow that she will be morally virtuous. These are component capabilities, the mechanical underpinnings as it were, not the virtue itself. Similarly, if her parents had read literature to

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her in order to make her grasp better the sensitivities of others, the capacity that results may not be moral empathy but the ability to manipulate. We do not intend to make moral virtue mysterious with these remarks, but neither do we want it viewed in a simplistic, reductionist way.

Which of the followings claims would a eugenist contest? (1) A person is virtuous because of the traits he possesses. (2) One is born with virtues. (3) Virtues can't be inculcated. (4) Altruism is not an inherent trait.

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) Morality is a virtue of the elite.

52.

From the passage, we can infer that eugenicists

(1) believed that genetics holds the key to improving the ethical standards in society. (2) were upset with the dwindling numbers of the upper classes. (3) had a parochial outlook. (4) promoted racism. (5) were all of the above.

53.

(Correct Answer: 5)

Eugenicists promoted the concept of

(1) an egalitarian society. (2) an exclusive society.

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) an inclusive society. (4) a prudential society. (5) a prudish society.

54.

In this passage, the author does all of the following EXCEPT

(1) underline the complexities involved in understanding the term 'virtue'. (2) discredit the idea of promoting a virtuous society.

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) reject the view that virtuous human beings can be created. (4) dismiss the idea that human beings are born virtuous. (5) invalidate the belief that the possession of virtues makes a person virtuous.

55.

In the Cynthia story, which of the following proved detrimental to society?

(1) Her nature (2) Circumstances (3) Her motives (4) Her behaviour (5) Her actions

56.

(Correct Answer: 5)

Which set of words describe Cynthia best?

(1) Strategist, extrovert, resourceful, artful

(Correct Answer: 1)

(2) Manipulative, sentimental, responsive, prudent

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(3) Scheming, balanced, altruistic, empathetic (4) Clever, outgoing, thoughtful, friendly (5) Swindler, practical, persevering, domineering

57.

DIRECTIONS for questions 57 to 62:Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it.

Insofar as the academic discourse of history-that is, "history" as a discourse produced at the institutional site of the university-is concerned, "Europe" remains the sovereign, theoretical subject of all histories, including the ones we call "Indian," "Chinese," "Kenyan," and so on. There is a peculiar way in which all these other histories tend to become variations on a master narrative that could be called "the history of Europe." In this sense, "Indian" history itself is in a position of subalternity; one can only articulate subaltern subject positions in the name of this history. While the rest of this article will elaborate on this proposition, let me enter a few qualifications. "Europe" and "India" are treated here as hyperreal terms in that they refer to certain figures of imagination whose geographical referents remain somewhat indeterminate. As figures of the imaginary they are, of course, subject to contestation, but for the moment I shall treat them as though they were given, reified categories, opposites paired in a structure of domination and subordination. I realize that in treating them thus I leave myself open to the charge of nativism, nationalism, or worse, the sin of sins, nostalgia. Liberal-minded scholars would immediately protest that any idea of a homogeneous, uncontested "Europe" dissolves under analysis. True, but just as the phenomenon of orientalism does not disappear simply because some of us have now attained a critical awareness of it, similarly a certain version of "Europe," reified and celebrated in the phenomenal world of everyday relationships of power as the scene of the birth of the modern, continues to dominate the discourse of history. Analysis does not make it go away. That Europe works as a silent referent in historical knowledge itself becomes obvious in a highly ordinary way. There are at least two everyday symptoms of the subalternity of non-Western, third-world histories. Third-world historians feel a need to refer to works in European history; historians of Europe do not feel any need to reciprocate. Whether it is an Edward Thompson, a Le Roy Ladurie, a George Duby, a Carlo Ginzberg, a Lawrence Stone, a Robert Darnton, or a Natalie Davis-to take but a few names at random from our contemporary world-the "greats" and the models of the historian's enterprise are always at least culturally "European." "They" produce their work in relative ignorance of non-Western histories, and this does not seem to affect the quality of their work. This is a gesture, however, that "we" cannot return. We cannot even afford an equality or symmetry of ignorance at this level without taking the risk of appearing "oldfashioned" or "outdated." The problem, I may add in parenthesis, is not particular to historians. An unselfconscious but nevertheless blatant example of this "inequality of ignorance" in literary studies, for example, is the following sentence on Salman Rushdie from a recent text on postmodernism: "Though Saleem Sinai [of Midnight's Children] narrates in English . . . his intertexts for both writing history and writing fiction are doubled: they are, on the one hand, from Indian legends, films, and literature and, on the other, from the West-The Tin Drum, Tristram Shandy, One Hundred Years of Solitude, and so on." It is interesting to note how this sentence teases out only those references that are from "the West." The author is under no obligation here to be able to name with any authority and specificity the "Indian" allusions that make Rushdie's intertexuality "doubled." This ignorance, shared and unstated, is part of the assumed compact that makes it "easy" to include Rushdie in English department offerings on postcolonialism. This problem of asymmetric ignorance is not simply a matter of "cultural cringe" (to let my Australian self speak) on our part or of cultural arrogance on the part of the European historian. These problems exist but can be relatively easily addressed. Nor do I mean to take anything away from the achievements of the historians I mentioned. Our footnotes bear rich testimony to the insights we have derived from their knowledge and creativity. The dominance of "Europe" as the subject of all histories is a part of a much more profound theoretical condition under which historical knowledge is produced in the third world. This condition ordinarily expresses itself in a paradoxical manner. It is this paradox that I shall describe as the second everyday symptom of our subalternity, and it refers to the very nature of social science pronouncements themselves. For generations now, philosophers and thinkers shaping the nature of social science have produced theories embracing the entirety of humanity. As we well know, these statements have been produced in relative, and sometimes absolute, ignorance of the majority of humankind-i.e., those living in non-Western cultures. This in itself is not paradoxical, for the more self-conscious of European philosophers have always sought theoretically to justify this stance. The everyday paradox of third-world social science is that we find these theories, in spite of their inherent ignorance of "us," eminently useful in understanding our societies. What allowed the modern European sages to develop such clairvoyance with regard to societies of which

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they were empirically ignorant? Why cannot we, once again, return the gaze? There is an answer to this question in the writings of philosophers who have read into European history an entelechy of universal reason, if we regard such philosophy as the self-consciousness of social science. Only "Europe," the argument would appear to be, is theoretically (i.e., at the level of the fundamental categories that shape historical thinking) knowable; all other histories are matters of empirical research that fleshes out a theoretical skeleton which is substantially "Europe."

What does the author say is the contention of the liberal-minded scholars? (1) That Europe is a homogenous entity (2) That Europe has a corporeal presence that the author cannot wish away (3) That Europe is not an entity that will successfully withstand the onslaught of reification

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) That there are huge differences between Europe and India that cannot be bridged (5) That Europe will continue to dominate the intellectual world

58.

"Analysis does not make it go away." What is it that does not go away with analysis?

(1) The dominant concept of Europe as a physical location of critical import

(Correct Answer: 1)

(2) The idea that Europe is the most powerful nation of the world (3) The notion that Europe has a physical location that cannot be wished away (4) The concept that Europe is a homogenous, uncontested entity (5) The larger-than-life image of Europe

59.

From your reading of the given passage, what is the most probable meaning of 'subalternity'?

(1) Destitution (2) Deference (3) Indigence (4) Inferiority

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) Counterfeit

60.

"This is a gesture, however, that "we" cannot return." Why can we not return the gesture?

(1) Because we are not well-read (2) Because all the important events have occurred in Europe (3) Because we do not have the wherewithal that Europeans have (4) Because European works are produced in relative ignorance of the non-western world (5) Because Europe is the unmentioned object that all references point to

61.

(Correct Answer: 5)

What, according to the author, enables the wise men of Europe to make accurate pronouncements on the non-West?

(1) Their great wisdom that knows no boundaries (2) The fact that all the frameworks of knowledge are European, into which other histories may be fed like data (Correct Answer: 2) (3) The fact that the entire world can be understood through common humanitarian principles (4) The fact that areas other than Europe are not able to produce histories for themselves that lend themselves to borrowing by European scholars (5) Their experience in writing histories of various countries

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62.

As inferred from the passage, which of the following is NOT the author's opinion?

(1) Historians from third world countries cannot afford to ignore established European historians. (2) The Westerner's ignorance of non-westerners pervades other areas like literature also. (3) Indian writers, whose works are accorded a place in the western university curriculum, show the same disregard for non-Western writers. (4) European historians do not merit the high regard accorded to them.

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) Philosophers and thinkers of the West have propounded on humanity ignoring the vast majority of non-west humans.

63.

DIRECTIONS for questions 63 to 65: There are two blanks in each of the following sentences. From the pairs of words given below, choose the pair that fills the blanks most appropriately

If Darwin could rise from the grave he would be deeply ________ that despite the overwhelming weight of scientific evidence that has accumulated in favour of evolution, opposition from those believing in a fundamentalist biblical view of creation has not ________. (1) dejected . . . waned (2) upset . . . moderated (3) depressed . . . escalated (4) disheartened . . . intensified (5) saddened . . . abated

64.

(Correct Answer: 5)

Earnest Hemingway had a voracious literary appetite which made him a/an ________ hoarder who never ________ anything but magazine wrappers and three-year-old newspapers.

(1) dedicated . . . abandoned (2) inveterate . . . discarded

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) confirmed . . . discharged (4) compulsive . . . threw (5) oppressive . . . jettisoned

65.

In the modern world we often see that the ________ state of mind is determined not only in the ignorant who believe in rumours but also in those who are ________ of scientific education, those who haven't bothered to investigate, at even a lay level, the complicated and ever expanding worlds that science conquers.

(1) credulous . . . absolved (2) nascent . . . blamed (3) paranoic . . . oblivious

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) delusive . . . denied (5) perplexed . . . vindicated

66.

DIRECTIONS for questions 66 to 68: Each question has a pair of CAPITALISED words followed by five pairs of words. Choose the pair of words that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair.

BUTTRESS : ARCH

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(1) Banister : Staircase (2) Lintel : Window (3) Gazebo : Garden (4) Pylon : Electric wires

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) Belfry : Church

DRIZZLE : DELUGE

67.

(1) Squall : Tornado (2) Avalanche : Blizzard (3) Zephyr : Cyclone

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) Sleet : Frost (5) Gale : Hurricane

68.

PROPERTY : TRESPASS

(1) Lecture : Listen (2) Merchandise : Shoplift

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) Performance : Stage (4) Traveller : Roam (5) Suspect : Arrest

69.

(1) Dr Andrew Wakefield is now facing a General Medical Council Investigation for knowingly falsifying scientific data and tracing a connection between the MMR vaccine, which is given to children to prevent them from getting measles, mumps and rubella, and autism. (2) Any one who says that multinational drug companies have plans to murder us all for profit will find a blind and not inconsiderable following in our world. (3) The chief medical officer of Britain, with the best medical advice at his disposal, examined the allegations of the link and found the drug to be completely safe. (4) Obviously Dr. Wakefield was trying to find a link between MMR vaccine and the disease as he was an employee of JABS, an anti-vaccination project which assists people to sue drug companies if they can prove links between a drug company's product and a harmful side effect.

(1) FIFJ (2) JJFI (3) FFFI (4) FJFI

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) JIFJ

70.

DIRECTIONS for questions 69 to 71: Each question has a set of four sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following.

- Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an 'F'). - Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with an 'I'). - Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a 'J'). Select the answer option that best describes the set of four statements. (1) Judges work only for 180 days in the Supreme Court and 210 days in the High Courts. (2) The pendency of cases is mounting and, needless to say, the dilatory tactics and leisurely disposal of cases aggregate the arrears. (3) Some judges are ready to grant easy adjournments where another hour or two would have been sufficient to decide the case. (4) How does one expect the executive, which is directed to dispose of representations within a

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prescribed timeframe, to do so, when judges themselves do not work within the time? (1) FJIJ (2) FIJI

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) FFJJ (4) FJJJ (5) FIIJ

71.

(1) With the gradual and continuing fall in air traffic, domestic airlines in the country seem to have hit a rough patch. (2) As an instance of cartelisation, the domestic airlines have together gone in for a fare hike. (3) It is unfortunate that the private airlines have chosen to push up the fares even as the price of Aviation Turbine Fuel dropped sharply over the past few months. (4) The data provided by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation shows that domestic traffic in January this year was down by 14.65 per cent compared to what it was in the same month last year.

(1) IIIJ (2) IJJF (3) IJIF (4) JIJF (5) IIJF

72.

(Correct Answer: 5)

DIRECTIONS for questions 72 to 75: Each question presents a pair of segmented circles. The alphabets in each circle, when read clockwise, present a word, from which two alphabets have been removed. When complete, the pair of words are synonymous and one of the choices that follow each pair is the third synonym. Mark the correct choice in each case.

(1) devious (2) gullible (3) therapeutic

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) fortunate (5) catastrophic

73.

(1) imperil

(Correct Answer: 1)

(2) disperse (3) expel (4) transcend (5) stimulate

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74.

(1) expertise (2) finesse (3) humiliation (4) grace

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) scarcity

75.

(1) contentious (2) vivacious

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) precise (4) exhaustive (5) luscious

76.

DIRECTIONS for questions 76 to 82: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it.PASSAGE - I

Humans have a natural capacity for language, it takes an enormous amount of effort to train a chimp to produce the most basic of sentences. Chimps in the wild do not talk to each other. Chimps in captivity do not talk to each other - even those with language. And even with humans, chimps use language only as the last resort, when they cannot obtain a reward in any other way. What is important about language is its ability to generate meaning. This is because humans not only have a natural facility for language but also a social need for it. Language has evolved because we live in complex societies that require us to communicate with each other. It is our social lives that give words their meaning and language its content. Since chimps do not have the kind of social networks in which humans live, meaning in the human sense is irrelevant to them. As the psychologist Steven Pinker puts it, what impresses one most about chimpanzee signing is that fundamentally, deep down, chimps just don't "get it". They know that the trainers like them to sign and that signing often gets them what they want, but they never seem to feel in their bones what language is and how to use it. Kanzi the conversationalist is as much a work of fiction as was Emily the seductress. There is no evidence that animals, even apes, possess language, can form concepts or can think abstractly. There is no evidence, in short, that they are symbolic creatures. And without symbols - without language an animal may be able to react to the world, but it cannot in any significant sense, think about it, nor have beliefs about it. Animals can, and clearly do, represent the world in their heads, and act upon such representations. But what an animal cannot do, because it lacks the capacity for symbolic thought, is to distinguish between itself, its thought and the world. For an animal, therefore there can be no distinction between itself and its picture of the world, in other words an animal cannot be self-aware. And without an awareness of self, it cannot separate the world as it is from the world as it seems. For animals, their picture of the world is the world. There is no Jeff Daniels in the animal world. Humans, on the other hand, because we possess language, do not simply have experiences, desires and needs, and react to them. We are also aware that we have them, that there is an 'I' which is the subject of these experiences, and which is a possessor of beliefs, desires and needs. In other words, humans are aware of themselves as agents, and of the world towards which their agency is directed. Because we can

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distinguish between ourselves, our thoughts and the world, we can debate, discuss and negotiate among ourselves about the world and our relationship to it. We can, if we wish deliberately make our picture of the world discordant with reality - as in a fantasy. Or we can attempt to make the two as harmonious as possible, with a scientific model. Because we can distinguish between how the world is and how we would like it to be, or how it ought to be, so we can talk about morals and norms. But if language is a necessary condition of being able to think about the world, it is not a sufficient condition. To understand this, we need to return to a problem: the problem with the Cartesian view of the world. Descartes believed that he would doubt everything apart from his own existence for if he did not exist he could not doubt his existence. For Descartes, therefore, the only certainties were the thoughts in his head. The mind, in the Cartesian world, is the private possession of the individual. No one else has access to my mind just as I can never have access to yours. The mind is essentially 'inner' revealed to itself and connected only fortuitously with the outside world. But the Cartesian approach raises a central problem: how do I know who 'I' am and what I mean by 'self' or what a 'thought' is? How do I know the meaning of pain, as opposed to its sensation? Feelings are internal, known only to me, but meanings are external. One answer is that we cannot understand any one else's inner world. We can simply infer that, for instance, another human being is in pain because he is acting as I would if I were in pain, or he is in a situation in which I would feel pain. The philosopher Ludwig Wittgenstein showed that if the only things of which I was certain were the contents of my own mind, then I would not be able to communicate those contents to anyone else. For language is a public activity, words get their sense by being attached to publicly accessible conditions that warrant their application. Language provides the means to bridge the gap between our private worlds, because language is itself a social activity. A language that only one person understands is not a language but a private code. Language necessarily has to be social. Paradoxically, then our inner feelings are not located entirely inside our heads. They are also the products of our existence as social beings. According to Descartes, knowledge of one's own mind is the starting point for knowledge of other minds. But Wittgenstein reminded us that without knowledge of other minds it is impossible to have knowledge of our own. Far from inferring other humans experiences from our own, we can only truly know what goes on inside our own heads by relating to other humans. It is only because we live not as individuals, but within a social community and, moreover within a community bound together by language, that we can make sense of our own inner thoughts and feelings. No animal possesses either language or a social network like ours. Therefore, it is simply not valid to assume that they have inner experiences as we do. Here then is a crucial distinction between humans and animals. Animals are Cartesian beings, trapped inside their heads. A bat, a cat or a chimpanzee has no possibility of knowing what is in the mind of another bat, cat or chimpanzee, and hence of knowing what is in their own mind. From a scientific point of view animals are zombies. By zombies I don't mean the living dead that populate horror films but a being who seems perfectly natural, normal and alert but is in reality not conscious at all, but is rather some sort of automaton.

The focus of the passage is on (1) the role of language in making humans what they are. (2) showing the innate superiority of man over all other creatures of the world.

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) exploring what makes language an effective tool in the case of humans. (4) showing why any comparison between man and apes is immaterial. (5) analyzing the mind and behaviour of man and animal.

77.

Since we (humans) have language

(1) we act upon our representations of the world. (2) we can react to our experiences, desires and needs through language. (3) we have relationships with one another and with the world we live in. (4) we can imagine a world different from what it is in reality. (5) we can form concepts and think about them in abstraction.

78.

(Correct Answer: 5)

When Steven Pinker says that '… chimps just don't 'get it',' he means that

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(1) they don't understand the communicative purpose that underlines language.

(Correct Answer: 1)

(2) chimps cannot learn a language however much we may try to teach them. (3) the simplicity of animal society precludes the need for something as complex as language. (4) animals lack the ability to manipulate others through the use of language. (5) even when chimps have been taught to speak or write, they don't want to do so.

79.

The problem with the Cartesian approach, in the context of language, is that

(1) there is no 'one to one' match between feelings and the expression of it. (2) one would interpret the feelings of another through his own ability to feel it. (3) it regards the mind as totally private and therefore makes it incapable of communication.

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) there is no correlation between feelings and thoughts. (5) each of us would become a zombie.

80.

Which of the following would Wittgenstein NOT agree with?

(1) We know our own thoughts and feelings only through knowing the thoughts and feelings of others. (2) Language and social life are essential for us to understand ourselves. (3) Animals lack language and social living, hence cannot have the kind of thoughts that we have. (4) We can understand the feelings of others by interpreting them in terms of our own.

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) Our inner feelings are also the result of our social relationships.

81.

Which of the following is true regarding language, as seen from the passage?

(1) It is language that enables us to react to our experiences, needs and desires. (2) Chimps can be taught to use language as seen from the one that can sign its name. (3) Language is not only a means but an end in itself. (4) Language is what distinguishes man from animals and makes him what he is.

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) Language alone is enough to enable man to think.

82.

"There is no Jeff Daniels in the animal world" - We can infer from the line that

(1) Jeff Daniels is an example of the perfect human being so far as the use of language is concerned. (2) unlike Jeff Daniels, animals are not confused by the apparent and real.

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) Jeff Daniels is a human being who confuses between appearance and reality the way animals do. (4) unlike Jeff Daniels animals are aware of being a part of and being apart from nature. (5) Jeff Daniels, like animals, was incapable of symbolic representations.

83.

DIRECTIONS for questions 83 to 89:Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it.

In the final days of the election many Republicans seem to have given up the fight for power. But don't be fooled: that doesn't mean they are relaxing. If you want to see real Republican elbow grease, check out the energy going into chucking great chunks of the $700bn bail-out out the door. At a recent Senate banking committee hearing, the Republican Bob Corker was fixated on this task, and with a clear deadline in mind: inauguration. "How much of it do you think may be actually spent by January 20 or so?" Corker asked Neel Kashkari, the 35-year-old former banker in charge of the bail-out. When European colonialists realised that they had no choice but to hand over power to the indigenous citizens, they would often turn their attention to stripping the local treasury of its gold and grabbing valuable livestock. If they were really nasty, like the Portuguese in Mozambique in the mid-1970s, they poured concrete down the elevator shafts. Nothing so barbaric for the Bush gang. Rather than open plunder, it prefers bureaucratic instruments, such as

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"distressed asset" auctions and the "equity purchase program". But make no mistake: the goal is the same as it was for the defeated Portuguese - a final, frantic looting of the public wealth before they hand over the keys to the safe. How else can one make sense of the bizarre decisions that have governed the allocation of the bail-out money? When the Bush administration announced it would be injecting $250bn into U.S. banks in exchange for equity, the plan was widely referred to as "partial nationalisation" - a radical measure required to get banks lending again. Henry Paulson, the treasury secretary, had seen the light, we were told, and was following the lead of Gordon Brown. In fact, there has been no nationalisation, partial or otherwise. American taxpayers have gained no meaningful control over the banks, which is why the banks are free to spend the new money as they wish. At Morgan Stanley, it looks as if much of the windfall will cover this year's bonuses. Citigroup has been hinting it will use its $25bn buying other banks, while John Thain, the chief executive of Merrill Lynch, told analysts: "At least for the next quarter, it's just going to be a cushion." The U.S. government, meanwhile, is reduced to pleading with the banks that they at least spend a portion of the taxpayer windfall for loans - officially, the reason for the entire programme. What, then, is the real purpose of the bail-out? My fear is this rush of dealmaking is something much more ambitious than a one-off gift to big business: that the Bush version of "partial nationalisation" is rigged to turn the U.S. treasury into a bottomless cash machine for the banks for years to come. Remember, the main concern among the big market players, particularly banks, is not the lack of credit but their battered share prices. Investors have lost confidence in the honesty of the big financial players, and with good reason. This is where the treasury's equity pays off big time. By purchasing stakes in these financial institutions, the treasury is sending a signal to the market that they are a safe bet. Why safe? Not because their level of risk has been accurately assessed at last. Not because they have renounced the kind of exotic instruments and outrageous leverage rates that created the crisis. But because the market will now be banking on the fact that the U.S. government won't let these particular companies fail. If they get themselves into trouble, investors will now assume that the government will keep finding more cash to bail them out, since allowing them to go down would mean losing the initial equity investments, many of them in the billions. (Just look at the insurance giant AIG, which has already gone back to taxpayers for a top-up, and seems likely to ask for a third.) This tethering of the public interest to private companies is the real purpose of the bail-out plan: Paulson is handing all the companies admitted to the programme - a number potentially in the thousands - an implicit treasury department guarantee. To skittish investors looking for safe places to park their money, these equity deals will be even more comforting than a triple-A from Moody's rating agency. Insurance like that is priceless. But for the banks, the best part is that the government is paying them to accept its seal of approval. For taxpayers, on the other hand, this entire plan is extremely risky, and may well cost significantly more than Paulson's original idea of buying up $700bn in toxic debts. Now taxpayers aren't just on the hook for the debts but, arguably, for the fate of every corporation that sells them equity. To further boost market confidence, the federal government has also unveiled unlimited public guarantees for many bank deposit accounts. Oh, and as if this were not enough, the treasury has been encouraging the banks to merge, ensuring that the only institutions left will be "too big to fail", thereby guaranteed a bail-out. In three ways, the market is being told loud and clear that Washington will not allow the financial institutions to bear the consequences of their behaviour. This may be Bush's most creative innovation: no risk capitalism. It is risky, of course, to interrupt the bail-out process. Nothing could be riskier, however, than allowing the Bush gang their parting gift to big business - the gift that will keep on taking.

The Bush government's parting gift to big business, as suggested by the passage, is (1) help in putting back on feet big business whose fall might jeopardize the economy. (2) a last desperate attempt to save the economy by ensuring that banks continue to give loans. (3) an attempt to revive the economy by helping business in the red. (4) Robinhood upside down - robbing the poor to pay the rich.

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) to provide a buffer to society as it faces the impending slowdown.

84.

The 'no risk capitalism' mentioned by the author refers to

(1) a capitalism that would always be safe for people and society. (2) a capitalism where profits are privatised while risk is socialised.

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) a capitalism where the government stands guarantee for banks. (4) a capitalism where the government protects the shareholders when they are affected by the failures of a company.

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(5) a system that does not pose any risk for the people.

85.

The real purpose of the financial rescue plan, according to the author, is

(1) a government guarantee to assure investors looking for safe places to invest their money. (2) a government plan to attract surplus funds from the public to business ventures. (3) to deal out largesse to cronies who have been useful to the ruling party. (4) to ensure that banks continue to make loans available to the common man. (5) to safeguard private interests through public funds even in the future.

86.

(Correct Answer: 5)

The author quotes the examples of the colonialists to show that

(1) the focus of the Republicans is now on plundering as much as possible.

(Correct Answer: 1)

(2) the Republicans are reconciled to surrendering power even as the colonialists became reconciled. (3) the ruling party seeks to weaken public institutions before the opposition takes charge. (4) those in power are so brazen that they don't hesitate to carry on shady deals openly. (5) the Republicans are sophisticated unlike the barbaric colonialists in the past.

87.

Partial nationalisation

(1) is what the Bush government seeks to achieve through the bail out plan. (2) is the radical measure undertaken to save the bank and the economy. (3) is the purported objective of injecting billions into U.S. banks.

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) appeared to be the solution to the problem, for the treasury secretary. (5) was what the banks had to settle for in order to get the much-needed funds.

88.

With which of the following would the author NOT agree?

(1) The common man has every reason to be wary of banks. (2) The government action indirectly encourages profligate behaviour in financial institutions. (3) Banks have been put in the unenviable position of being controlled by the government or bureaucracy. (Correct Answer: 3) (4) Distressed assets and equity purchase programs are euphemisms for misappropriation of funds. (5) The government's action has been lacking in transparency.

89.

The word 'that' in 'insurance like that is priceless' refers to

(1) insurance that has a triple A rating from Moody's. (2) insurance that is in the public-private domain. (3) banks whose equity is owned by the government. (4) private companies that are backed by the treasury department.

(Correct Answer: 4)

(5) companies whose shares are sold to the public.

90.

DIRECTIONS for questions 90 to 93: In each question, there are five sentences / paragraphs. The sentence/paragraph labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph / passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option.

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(A) As an important joint session of Pakistan's Parliament continues, discussions on the challenge posed by Al Qaeda and Taliban to the state, the fog of confusion surrounding the issues of military extremism and terrorism has stubbornly refused to lift. (B) But going by opinions voiced by some parliamentarians about the confidential session, the divisions between the political parties are intact or may have even deepened. (C) The extraordinary joint session of the National Assembly and Senate, only the third in Pakistan's history to discuss a sensitive issue of national importance, was summoned recently and was aimed at forging a national consensus on dealing with the terror threat to the country. The session was thought necessary as Pakistan's policy has been extremely divided over what this threat is and where it is coming from. (D) The conflation of the issues facing Pakistan with the opposition to the U.S.-led war on terror continues. (E) Questions such as what is the threat to Pakistan and where is it coming from are still deemed unresolved. (1) CEDB (2) CEBD (3) CBED

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) CBDE (5) CDBE

91.

(A) Four square meters of rainforest are destroyed for every gram of cocaine snorted in the U.K., a conference of senior police officers was told recently. (B) Mr. Santos said 300,000 hectares of rainforest were destroyed each year in Columbia to clear land for cocaine plant cultivation, predominantly controlled by illegal groups, including the Revolutionary Armed Forces of Columbia, known as FARC. (C) He said that while the green agenda would not persuade addicts to give up, the middle class social user who drove a hybrid car and was concerned about the environment might not take the drug if he knew of the impact. (D) Francisco Santos Calderon, the Vice President of Columbia, appealed to British users of the drug to consider the impact on the environment. (E) Mr. Santos outlined to the Association of Chief Police Officers how lives were lost in the illegal cocaine trade in Colombia. He said landmines that were used to protect crops and processing labs killed almost 900 civilians in one year.

(1) DECB (2) DCBE

(Correct Answer: 2)

(3) DBCE (4) EDBC (5) EDCB

92.

(A) The recent U.N. Habitat report on the world's cities finds addressing inequality and achieving sustainability as the two major challenges facing them. (B) Access to urban services and housing, and participation in the "formal sector of the economy" have not been the same for everyone in a city. (C) The Indian cities are showing an increasing trend in inequality and this is attested by the rising values of the Gini coefficient, a tool used to evaluate inequalities. To their credit cities have served as engines of growth and functioned as sites for wealth production. Their contribution to the national GDP, according to a World Bank estimate, is more than 60 per cent. (D) The Spread of slums, lack of sanitation, and rising deficit in housing stock for the poor are both the constituents and manifestations of these inequalities, and the situation is likely to worsen as cities register higher economic growth. (E) While acknowledging this kind of urbanization as the best opportunity to "stave off entrenched poverty", the report points out that cities are turning into contested terrains where spatial inequalities are pronounced.

(1) CEBD

(Correct Answer: 1)

(2) BCED (3) CBED (4) CDBE (5) BDEC

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(A) The U.S. financial crisis has had its reverberations on both the developed and the developing world. (B) Effectively speaking, the Indian banks and financial institutions have not experienced the kinds of losses and write downs that even venerable banks and financial institutions in the western world have faced. (C) The relative freedom from the contagion spreading from the global tsunami to the Indian financial system owes much to the wise and judicious policies of our central bank and the government of India. (D) By and large, India has been spared the panic that followed the collapse of banking institutions, such as Fortis in Europe, and Merrill Lynch and Lehman Brothers and Washington Mutual in the U.S. (E) It is not possible to insulate Indian economy completely from what is happening in the financial systems of the world.

(1) BCDE (2) BCED (3) EDBC (4) DBCE (5) EBDC

94.

(Correct Answer: 5)

DIRECTIONS for questions 94 to 97: The following question has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

Elliot, a photographer, surveyor and developer, had been looking for an unusual site to work on for some time. When he viewed a plot in Highgate, complete with a 70s building in blue aluminium, Elliot was certain he had found what he was looking for. His surveyor advised against buying such a steep bit of land; his mother thought he was crazy. __________

(1) But the first time she visited the site, she understood him completely.

(Correct Answer: 1)

(2) But Elliot was fascinated with the history of the place. (3) It was just 45 mts from the historic Highgate cemetery in North London. (4) But he felt he belonged to the place. (5) To him it was a peaceful place away from the noise of the city.

95.

Kiton - which employs 330 tailors who create its garments by hand - produces only a few thousand pieces a year. It takes 25 hours to make a jacket. Fans of Kiton clothes, and it is a devoted cult, say the garments are soft, light and exquisitely made. __________

(1) Small and fine details of sartorial workmanship mark this brand. (2) They are absolutely wrinkle-free and can be crushed into the crevice of an airline seat. (3) They are said to fit like a second skin.

(Correct Answer: 3)

(4) Once you start wearing it you won't feel like switching over to anything else. (5) Customers searching for value end up buying Kiton clothes.

96.

The Indian toy industry has never been in a state of good health, but the past two decades have been particularly bad. What little drive there was to invent and innovate got washed away by the flood of Chinese toys. They came in millions. They were colourful and diverse, loud and crude, but their greatest attraction was their low price. __________

(1) Even in the International Trade Fair, the presence of Chinese toys has grown to overwhelming proportions. (2) The public will soon realise, however, that they are not built to last. (3) But some still feel that the wooden toys of Saharanpur and the musical string toys of Delhi are immeasurably superior to the cacophonic, garish electronic toys imported from China. (4) The heavy import of Chinese toys had always been hurting the Indian toy manufacturing trade.

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(5) But now the Indian government has decided to encourage indigenous production of toys and has imposed a ban on the import of Chinese toys. (Correct Answer: 5)

97.

To accept anything as true means to incur the risk of error. If I limit myself to knowledge that I consider true beyond doubt, I minimize the risk of error, but at the same time I maximise the risk of missing out on what may be the subtlest, most important and most rewarding things in life. Saint Thomas Aquinas taught that the slenderest knowledge that may be obtained of the highest things is more desirable than the most certain knowledge obtained of lesser things. "Slender" knowledge is here put in opposition to 'certain' knowledge, and indicates uncertainty. May be it is necessarily so that the higher things cannot be known with the same degree of certainty as the lesser things. __________

(1) But the gaining of even the slenderest knowledge about the higher things should not be given up. (2) In such a case it would be a very great loss indeed if knowledge were limited to things beyond the possibility of doubt. (Correct Answer: 2) (3) After all, matters that are beyond doubt are in a sense dead, they constitute no challenge to the living. (4) Even then it is irrational to doubt the existence of higher things, which have no physical proof of existence. (5) And this uncertainty is mainly because of our inability to prove the existence of the higher things.

98.

DIRECTIONS for questions 98 to 100: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, five different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative and mark its number as your answer.

At the outset of the French Revolution its advocates boasted that it furnished a security forever, not to France only, but to all countries in the world against military despotism; as the forces of standing armies were in vain and delusive; as no artificial power could resist public opinion and that it was upon the foundation of public opinion alone that any government could stand. (1) not to France only, but to all countries in the world against military despotism; as the forces of standing armies were in vain and delusive, as no artificial power could resist (2) not only to France, but also to all other countries of the world against military despotism; as the forces of the standing armies was in vain and delusive; as no artificial power could resist (3) not only to France, but also to all countries of the world, against military despotism; that the forces of the standing armies were vain and delusive; that no artificial power could resist. (Correct Answer: 3) (4) not only to France, but to all countries of the world also against military despotism; that the forces of the standing armies were in vain and delusive and that no artificial power resists (5) not to France only, but also to all countries of the world, against military despotism as the forces of the standing armies were vain and delusive and no artificial power ever resisted

99.

Economists warn that the benefits of working abroad may prove short-lived, especially when the global economic downturn will force workers to return home to an economy that no longer will absorb them.

(1) especially when the global economic downturn will force workers to return home to an economy that no longer will absorb them (2) particularly if the global economic downturn will be forcing the workers returning home to an economy that would no longer absorb them (3) mainly when the global economic turndown may force workers to return back home to economies that might no longer absorb them (4) chiefly if the global economic turndown forces the workers to return home to economies which might not absorb them (5) especially if the global economic turndown forces workers to return home to an economy that can no longer absorb them (Correct Answer: 5)

100.

Even as evolutionary biologists are using modern tools to fill up the gaps and redraw Charles Darwin's tree of life, most American students are learning a little or nothing about evolution unlike the Europeans because about 40 per cent of the American adults only accept the basic idea of evolution and the rest still believe in creationism.

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(1) most American students are learning a little or nothing about evolution unlike the Europeans because about 40 percent of the American adults only (2) many American students are learning little or nothing about evolution because, unlike the Europeans, only about 40 percent of the American adults (Correct Answer: 2) (3) most of the American students still learn little or nothing because unlike the Europeans about 40 percent of the American adults only (4) many of the American students are still learning just a little or nothing on evolution unlike the Europeans because only about 40 percent of the American adults (5) many American students are still learning little or nothing about evolution because, only unlike the Europeans, 40 percent of the American adults

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