2015 Test-21 Question Paper.pdf

 

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015   INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 21 GENERAL STUDIES  

PAPER-I Time Allowed: 1.5 Hours

Maximum Marks: 170  

INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test I Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 85 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i)

There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii)

If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. http://insightsonindia.com

 

INSIGHTS  ON  INDIA  MOCK  TEST  SERIES  FOR  CIVIL  SERVICES  PRELIMINARY  EXAM  2015    

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1. The list of castes or tribes that are to be identified as SCs or STs are specified in a) a Presidential order with respect to each State and Union Territory (UT) b) the Fifth and Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India c) the resolutions passed by the respective state legislatures d) the order issued by the State Governor in the extra-ordinary Gazette of India

2. As it does with respect to the SCs, the National Commission for SCs is also required to discharge similar functions with regard to the 1. OBCs 2. STs 3. Anglo-Indian Community Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above

3. The Election Commission registers political parties for the purpose of elections and grants them recognition as national or state parties on the basis of their 1. Assets and liabilities 2. Geographical presence in more than four constituencies 3. Number of workers, volunteers and election candidates 4. Poll performance

a) b) c) d)

1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1 and 3 only 4 only

4. Consider the following statements. 1. There is only one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency for election to the Parliament and the state legislatures. 2. The state legislatures, apart from Parliament can also make provision with respect to all matters relating to elections to the state legislatures. Which of the above is/are true? a) b) c) d)

1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 None

5. Which of the following government officials are a part of the machinery of Election Commission of India that conducts and supervises elections in India? 1. Observers 2. Presiding officer 3. Returning Officer 4. Chief Electoral Officer Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1 and 3 only All of the above

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. http://insightsonindia.com      

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6. The Model Code of Conduct for guidance of candidates and political parties comes immediately into effect a) after the Election Commission of India announces the election schedule in a major press conference b) after the Election Commission of India issues a specific order enforcing the Model code of conduct c) automatically exactly one month before the election dates d) after the deadline for nominating candidates ends

7. Every candidate seeking election to the Parliament or a State Legislature has to furnish on his nomination paper the information on which of the following matters? 1. Educational qualifications 2. Criminal Record 3. Assets and Liabilities 4. Details of political funding Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only All of the above

8. Consider the following statements about Elections to Rajya Sabha. 1. A candidate has to be an elector in the state from where he wishes to be elected in Rajya Sabha. 2. Secret Ballot system is used in Rajya Sabha elections. 3. Both the Legislative assembly and the legislative council take part in the Rajya Sabha elections. http://insightsonindia.com      

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only None of the above

9. Which of the following correctly points the difference between Exit polls and Opinion Polls? 1. Exit polls are not banned, but opinion polls are banned in India. 2. Exit polls are taken after the elector votes and exits from a particular polling booth; opinion polls are taken before the election. 3. Exit polls are conducted by the Election Commission of India, whereas opinion polls are conducted by private media agencies. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only

10. Disqualification on ground of defection does not apply in cases of 1. Political Party mergers 2. Political party splits 3. A candidate quitting political party Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Page  3  

 

11. Consider a case where a MP has voted against his political party in the Parliament. Which among the following authorities will decide on his disqualification pertaining to antidefection law? a) Presiding Officer of that House of the Parliament b) President of India c) Election Commission of India d) Parliamentary Committee on Antidefection

12. Which of the following authorities have a bearing on the decision of Nuclear retaliation to a first strike on India? 1. Nuclear Command Authority 2. Indian Armed Forces 3. Parliament Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 only

c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 4 only

14. Article 366 contains the definitions of various terms used in different provisions of the constitution. Which of the following terms have NOT been defined in the Constitution? 1. Indian State 2. Ruler 3. Anglo-Indian Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. a) b) c) d)

1 only 2 only 3 only All have been defined.

15. Consider the following associations of Individual islands and the Straits that separate them from Mainland. 1. Newfoundland separated by Strait of Belle isle 2. Tasmania by the Bass strait 3. Madagascar by the Mozambique channel Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

13. In the Table of Precedence, which of the following figures/authorities precede the Chief Election Commissioner? 1. Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration 2. Judges of Supreme Court 3. Attorney General of India 4. Leader of Opposition, Lok Sabha. Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only http://insightsonindia.com      

a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above

16. The reef-building corals will NOT flourish in conditions where 1. Cold currents frequently upwell 2. waters are very deep 3. there is absence of silt and water is salty Page  4  

 

Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above

17. The Continental shelves are of great geographical significance for which of the following reasons? 1. They are the richest fishing grounds in the world as they are rich in plankton growth. 2. They help increase the height of tides. 3. They are rich in hydrocarbon resources. Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above

18. A swimmer finds it easier to float in a more saline denser ocean than a less denser one. Which of the following factors would have contributed to making the ocean more saline making it easy to swim? 1. High rate of evaporation 2. Degree of water mixing by currents being less 3. Less precipitation over that ocean Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

19. The Norwegian coast, even at Latitude 60-70 degrees, is ice-free throughout the year because of the influence of 1. Warm North Atlantic current 2. Continentality 3. Westerly trade winds Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only

20. Which of the following factors decide the movement of ocean currents? 1. Planetary Winds 2. Rotation of earth 3. Salinity of Ocean 4. Temperature of Ocean water Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only All of the above

21. In the North Indian ocean, there is a complete reversal of the direction of ocean currents between Summer and Winter due to a) Western tropical cyclones b) Reversal in the direction of Jet streams c) Changes in the Monsoon winds d) Cooling down of Tibetan plateau

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above

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22. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Death rate due to diseases is normally high in tropical countries and low in deserts. Reason (R): Germs are not readily transmitted in regions of high temperature and low humidity. In the context of the statements above, which of these is true? a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A. b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A. c) A is correct, R is incorrect. d) A and R both are incorrect.

23. A barometer if subjected to the same pressure will show different readings when the following change 1. Altitude of the device 2. Gravitational force at different latitudes 3. Temperature Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above

24. Relative humidity of the air in a particular location governs which of the following factors? 1. Cloud formation 2. Precipitation 3. Circulation of Ocean currents Choose the correct answer using the codes below. http://insightsonindia.com      

a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above

25. The phenomenon of continentality happens because a) Ocean currents cannot reach inner seas surrounded by land b) land surfaces are heated and cooled faster than the ocean water around it c) there is a larger landmass in the Northern hemisphere than Southern hemisphere d) the effect of ocean waves and tides is less pronounced in inner continental regions

26. Consider the following. 1. Cold air underlies warmer air at higher altitudes. 2. Passage of a cold front 3. Invasion of sea air by a cooler onshore breeze Which of the above will be seen when temperature inversion occurs? a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above

27. Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): During a temperature inversion, air pollution released into the atmosphere's lowest layer is trapped there and can be removed only by strong horizontal winds.

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Reason (R): Inversion of air temperature restricts vertical mobility of wind. In the context of the statements above, which of these is true? a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A. b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A. c) A is correct, R is incorrect. d) A and R both are incorrect.

28. Consider the following sequence of events. 1. Convergence of cold and warm air 2. Warm air rises above the cold air 3. Cold air pushes warm air For a cyclonic or frontal rain, the above activities should happen in which sequence? a) b) c) d)

123 213 132 321

29. Arrange the following planetary winds in order of their occurrence from North to South Pole. 1. South-Westerlies 2. North-East Trade winds 3. North-Westerlies 4. South-east trade winds Choose the correct order from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1243 1234 3241 None of the orders above is correct.

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30. Consider the following statements. 1. Winds in the Northern hemisphere are always deflected to their right. 2. Anticyclones are more frequent in summer. 3. Cyclones do not occur in temperate zones. Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above

31. Consider the following statements about the Rubber plantation. 1. It was first discovered in the Amazon Basin. 2. Brazil exports practically no natural rubber. 3. Rubber has been transplanted in several temperate regions too. 4. Thailand and Indonesia are leading producers of rubber. Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

2 and 3 only 1 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only All of the above

32. The Aranyakas or the treatises of the forest 1. present secret explanations of the rituals mentioned in Vedas 2. have their origin in the philosophical discussions of the Brahmanas 3. explain the meaning of Upanishads

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Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above

33. As put in the Hindu Mahakavya (great epics), Ramayana and Mahabharata, which of the following are a part of Purushartha (meaning of human life)? 1. Liberation (Moksha) 2. Fulfilment of all desires (Kama) 3. Worldly achievement (Artha) 4. Righteousness (Dharma) Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

2 and 3 only 1 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only All of the above

34. The Puranas were written to illustrate and expound the truth of the Vedas. Out of these Mahapuranas became more popular. Which of the following subjects are dealt by Mahapuranas? 1. Sarga, the original creation of the universe 2. Pratisarga, the periodical process of destruction and re-creation 3. Manvantara, the different eras or cosmic cycles 4. Surya Vamsha and Chandra Vamsa, the histories of the solar and lunar dynasties of Gods and sages 5. Vamshanucharita, the genealogies of kings Choose the correct answer using the codes below. http://insightsonindia.com      

a) b) c) d)

2, 3 and 5 only 1, 4 and 5 only 1, 2 and 4 only All of the above

35. All the Buddhist canonical literature is in Pali which includes Tipitaka (threefold basket). Choose the right matches among them with the subject they deal with. 1. Vinaya Pitaka - Collection of the speeches and dialogues of the Buddha 2. Sutta Pitaka - Contains the monastic rules of the Order of Buddhist monks 3. Abhidhamma Pitaka - Elucidates the various topics dealing with ethics, psychology or theory of knowledge Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only

36. Consider the following statements about early Dravidian Literature. 1. In Manimekalai (Tamil) there is an elaborate exposition of the doctrines of Buddhism. 2. Vaishnava bhakti literature was a part of it. 3. There was no place for subjective love poems or poetry in early Dravidian literature. Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only Page  8  

 

c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above

37. Which of the following were advocated or being talked about by Nanak in early Punjabi literature? 1. Truth is supreme, but above truth is truthful living. 2. Unchanging reality 3. Cosmic law 4. Meditation Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 1 and 4 only 2 and 3 only All of the above

38. The most powerful trend of medieval Indian literature between 1000 and 1800 A.D. is devotional (bhakti) poetry. The dominating note of bhakti is a) ecstasy and total identity with God b) bliss in becoming the servant of God c) detachment of worldly identities and service of God d) detachment of worldly identities and service of mankind

39. Which of the following were NOT advocated by the Bhakti movemement? 1. There is God in every human being. 2. Annihilation of the age-old caste system 3. Conceptual erudition Choose the correct answer using the codes below. http://insightsonindia.com      

a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only

40. Consider the following about Sufism. 1. It was concerned with the mystical dimensions of Islam. 2. It is a science whose objective is the reparation of the heart and turning it away from all else but God. 3. It also advocated the practice of Dikhr – reading religious scriptures filled with the understanding of God’s grace. Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above

41. The practice of ‘Muraqaba’ in Sufism can be likened to the practices of what in other religions and faiths? a) Prayer to God b) Meditation c) Dancing and whirling in the expression of God d) Religious pilgrimage to attain liberation

42. Recently the ‘Social progress index’ has been in news that measure the all round social development of a country. It does NOT include 1. Access to advance education. 2. Tolerance and inclusion 3. Women participation 4. Personal safety Page  9  

 

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. a) b) c) d)

2 only 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only

43. Ministry of Textile has taken a decision to promote the use of geo-textiles in North-eastern belts of India. Consider the following statements about Geotechnical textile products. 1. Geo-textiles are used most commonly in the transportation market for construction of roadways. 2. Using these products consumes more space in landfill projects. 3. India is the second largest producer of this. 4. It is useful in desert area road connectivity. Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1 only 3 only

44. Which of following is NOT concerned with the recommendations of the latest reports of the 20th Law Commission? 1. Make it compulsory for parties to declares all donations below a certain limit 2. In Favor of compulsory voting. 3. Ban independent candidates from contesting election. 4. The disqualification decision for candidates concerning antidefection law should be made by President and governor respectively. http://insightsonindia.com      

Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1, 2 and 4 only 2 only 4 only 3 only

45. Which of the following are the features of the recently launched ‘Dhanush’ Missile? 1. It is an air to air missile. 2. It is a liquid propelled missile. 3. It is capable to target both land based and sea based target. 4. It cannot be used for intercontinental missile attacks. Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1, 2 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only All of the above

46. Consider the following statements about the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA). 1. It is an intergovernmental organization. 2. It has three governing bodies (assembly, council, executives). 3. India is a permanent member of it. 4. It is an organ of United Nations. Which of the above is NOT correct about IRENA? a) b) c) d)

1 and 4 only 3 only 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only

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47. Consider the following statements about bio-diversity. 1. Buddha peacock butterfly is endemic to East Asia. 2. Malayan Green Banded peacock butterfly also discovered in west Bengal. 3. Sarus crane is the official bird of Uttarakhand.

organization for any of the purpose which it has to conduct. 4. Its objective is to generate employment in rural India. Which of the above is NOT true about the KVIC? a) b) c) d)

2 and 3 only 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 only

Choose the correct answer using codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 only

48. Consider the following statements about Green peace. 1. It is a non-profit organization. 2. Government of India has suspended the registration of Green peace India. 3. It is regulated under FCRA 2010. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above

49. Consider the following statements about the Khadi and village industry cCmmission. 1. It is an executive body. 2. It comes under the ministry of micro, small and medium enterprise. 3. The KVIC is authorized to establish and maintain separate

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50. Rail budget 2015 announced “Kayakulp” council. Consider the following about it. 1. Its objective is to transform only customer service in Indian railways. 2. Government officials will head this body. 3. It will have representatives from rail trade unions as well. Which of the above is correct? a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only

51. Supreme court has recently given a ruling over the growing cases of acid attacks on women. Consider the following with reference to it. 1. State will be responsible to provide compensation to the victim. 2. Victim will be provided free reconstruction surgery. 3. Criminal action can be taken on the hospitals that discriminate with such victims.

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4. State will provide special privileges for the livelihood of the victim. Which of the above is NOT correct? a) b) c) d)

1 and 3 only 3 only 4 only 2 and 4 only

52. Consider the following statements about two species – Chestnut breasted partridge and Telangana crab spider. 1. Chestnut breasted partridge is endemic to western Himalayas. 2. Chestnut breasted partridge is ‘Endangered’ according to IUCN. 3. Telangana crab spider do not construct webs. 4. Telangana crab spider work as bio-control agents against insects. Which of the above is NOT correct? a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 4 only 3 and 4 only

53. Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Radar cannot be used to track thing in water bodies. Reason (R): Radar uses high electromagnetic frequency which is absorbed by water and thus cannot travel more. In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?

c) A is correct, R is incorrect. d) A and R both are incorrect.

54. Consider the following with reference to the principle of Net neutrality that has been in news for long. As per the principle 1. Free internet cannot be given. 2. All traffic on internet should be treated equally. 3. For the same service, users can not be charged differently. Which of the above is correct? a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above

55. Consider the following statements about Project 75, a bilateral joint project. 1. It is to develop submarine with joint India and Germany collaboration. 2. No production has been undertaken till date under the project. 3. Vehicles designed under the project will not be used for intelligence gathering and stealth capabilities. Which of the above is true about Project 75? a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only None of the above

a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A. b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A. http://insightsonindia.com      

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56. Which of the following nations provide nuclear fuel to India for the purposes of generating nuclear energy? 1. Russia 2. Kazakhstan 3. Canada 4. Australia 5. USA Choose the correct answer using the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 5 only 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2 and 3 only

57. Consider the following statements with regard to the terms of reference of the task force on Inter-linking of rivers set up by the Government of India. 1. It will not take up Himalayan rivers in the inter-linking project. 2. Only intra-state rivers can be interlinked as per the government orders. 3. Inter-linking work will be taken under PPP mode of investment. Which of the above is correct? a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only None of the above

58. Which of the following genres were NOT parts of the trend of the medieval literature? 1. Bhakti 2. Love ballads 3. Heroic poetry 4. Mystical poetry

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Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1, 2 and 4 only 2 and 3 only All of the above were parts. None of the above were parts.

59. The birth of writing and publishing of ‘novels’ in Indian literature is associated with the a) social reform-oriented movement of the 19th century b) writings of Amir Khusro and other Medieval writers and poets c) incoming of Christian missionaries in India d) early decades of postindependence when freedom of speech was granted

60. Novels were found to be the most appropriate medium to eulogize the intellectual and physical richness of the past, and reminded Indians about their obligations and rights. In this context, novels were written by 1. Bankim Chandra Chattarjee 2. Hari Narayan Apte 3. Rabindranath Tagore Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above

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61. Slowdown in the Indian economy is associated and aggravated by slowdown in which of these other economies? 1. China 2. Japan 3. Europe 4. Russia Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only

62. Which of the following economic indicators have not grown since the onset of the recent economic slowdown in India? 1. Gross capital formation as a percentage of GDP 2. Savings rate as a percentage of GDP 3. Per capita Net National Income Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above

63. Consider the following about money and credit flow in India. 1. With the recent actions of RBI, broad money has reduced over the last years as a percentage of GDP. 2. Scheduled commercial bank credit has been reducing as a percentage of GDP since the economic slowdown in the recent years. http://insightsonindia.com      

Which of the above is/are true? a) b) c) d)

1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 None

64. Which of the following changes have been made in the calculation of headline growth in India? 1. Headline growth rate will now be measured by GDP at constant market prices instead of GDP at factor cost at constant prices. 2. Sector-wise estimates of gross value added (GVA) will now be given at basic prices instead of factor cost. 3. GDP growth data will be released on a monthly basis for the information of investors. Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above

65. The gap between domestic savings and domestic investment in economics is definitionally equal to the a) Current account balance b) Capital account balance c) Domestic deficit d) Reserves of all the scheduled commercial banks in India

66. Which of the following can be included in Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)? 1. Dwellings Page  14  

 

2. Cultivated biological resources 3. Intellectual property products 4. Machinery Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only All of the above

67. The decline in inflation during the last financial year turned out to be much faster than was anticipated in the initial months of the year by the government. Which of these factors may have contributed to the same? 1. Persistent decline in crude oil prices 2. Tight monetary policy 3. Relative stability of rupee compared to other major currencies 4. Base effect Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only All of the above

68. Arrange the following in decreasing order of their total value in Indian exports. 1. Manufacturing goods 2. Crude and petroleum products (including coal) 3. Agriculture and allied products

a) b) c) d)

123 312 321 132

69. Consider the following statements about the performance of the external sector of India in the last one decade. 1. Net capital flows have never been higher than the Current Account Deficit (CAD). 2. India’s foreign exchange reserves have not increased (rather decreased). 3. Among the major economies with a CAD, India is the second largest foreign exchange reserve holder after Brazil. Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1 only

70. With a zero Current account Deficit, which of the following can lead to an increase in the Foreign exchange reserves of India? 1. Higher export of invisibles 2. Higher portfolio investment 3. Higher External Commercial Borrowing Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above

Choose the correct order from the codes below. http://insightsonindia.com      

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71. Consider the following statements with regard to External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs). 1. Only private sector can use ECBs to raise resources from abroad. 2. ECBs cannot be used for investment in stock market or speculation in real estate. 3. An infrastructure project can be fully funded by an ECB. 4. A borrower cannot refinance its existing rupee loan through ECB. Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only

72. India’s external debt stock can increase because of an increase in 1. Foreign Direct Investment 2. ECBs 3. Non-resident Indian Deposits Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above

73. Out of the four sources of taxation listed below, which two have contributed more to the total tax revenue over last half decade? 1. Income Tax 2. Custom Duty 3. Service Tax 4. Corporation tax http://insightsonindia.com      

Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 2 and 4 1 and 3 1 and 4

74. Consider the following sector-wise comparisons with regard to the Central Plan outlay in the last two annual budgets. Plan outlay for 1. Energy is higher than that for Industry and minerals. 2. Industry and minerals is lower than that for transport. 3. Social services is higher than that for energy. Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above

75. The introduction of the GST would be a significant step in the field of indirect tax reforms in India. Consider the following statements about it. 1. GST would be a destination-based tax as against the present concept of originbased tax. 2. It would also be levied on interstate supplies. 3. Taxpayers with a turnover below a certain threshold would be exempt from GST. 4. GST will be levied only by the Centre, and from there it will be appropriated to the states. Choose the correct answer from the codes below. Page  16  

 

a) b) c) d)

1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 4 only

76. The legendary struggle which also became famous by the name of the ‘August Revolution’ in India was a) Quit India movement b) Civil Disobedience Movement c) Non-cooperation movement d) Swadeshi Movement

77. Which of the following events/incidents were precursors to the Quit India movement? 1. Failure of the Cripps’ Mission 2. British evacuation (leaving their non-white subjects) from Malaya and Burma because of Japanese invasion of Burma 3. British raising import duty on various Indian manufactured items Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above

78. The Quit India movement 1. was not ratified by Indian National Congress 2. was spearheaded by Gandhi 3. started from Bombay. 4. was aimed at getting dominion status for India Choose the correct answer from the codes below.

b) 2 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 3 only

79. Which of the following official appeals were made by the leadership of the Quit India movement before launching the struggle? 1. Government servants to resign from their posts 2. Soldiers to leave their companies 3. Princely states to declare that they have withdrawn from the suzerainty of the British 4. Peasants to refuse paying the land revenue Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only All of the above 1, 3 and 4 only 4 only

80.A significant feature of the Quit India Movement was the emergence of what came to be known as parallel governments in some parts of the country. These were 1. Ballia in East U P 2. Tamluk in the Midnapur district of Bengal 3. Satara in Maharashtra Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above

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81. Consider the following statements about the pre-Independence Indian National Army (INA). 1. It was formed after the failure of Quit India movement. 2. The idea of the INA was first conceived in Malaya by Mohan Singh. 3. The INA was raised by the Japanese Army and supported by them till our Independence. Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only

82. The failure of the ‘Imphal campaign’ quashed any hopes of the INA liberating the nation. The ‘Imphal campaign’ was a) Japanese armies’ attempt to destroy the Allied forces at Imphal and invade India b) INA’s secret operation to invade India with the help of Burmese army c) British armies’attempt to destroy the Axis forces at Imphal and invade Imphal d) None of the above

83. Consider the following statements about the Tebhaga movement. 1. It was initiated by the Kisan Sabha in Bengal. 2. The demand of the movement was to reduce the share given to landlords.

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3. It was a non-violent movement based on Satyagraha and negotiation. Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above

84. The Warlis movement organized in Western India was against 1. Forest contractors 2. Money lenders 3. British Bureaucracy 4. Rich farmers 5. Landlords Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

2, 4 and 5 only 1 and 2 only 3, 4 and 5 only All of the above

85. The British were using political control to subordinate the Indian economy and society to the needs of the British economy and society. Among them ‘Drain of wealth’ was caused by 1. Plunder and taxation 2. Employment of Englishmen in India (Home charges) 3. Investing British capital in India 4. Free and unequal trade with India Choose the correct answer from the codes below. a) b) c) d)

1 and 2 only All of the above 1, 3 and 4 only 4 only Page  18  

 

 

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