1st Year Chemistry Chapterwise Mcqs.pdf

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CHEMISTRY BOOK 1 MCQS UNIT NO. (01) 1. For a particular organic compound, which of the following pairs can represent the empirical and the molecular formula respectively? A. CH and CH4 B. CH and C6H6 C. CH2 and C2H2 D. CH2 and C2H3 E. CH3 and C3H6 2. Empirical formula mass and molecular mass are related as: A. Empirical formula mass x 2 = molecular mass B. Empirical formula mass x n = molecular mass C. Molecular mass x n = Empirical formula mass D. Molecular mass x empirical formula mass = n E. Molecular mass x2 = empirical formula mass 3. 2grams of H2 molecules contain ______ molecules. A. 12.04 x 1023 B. 6.02 x 1023 C. 3.01 x 1023 D. 1.008 E. 2 4. Which of the following has same empirical and molecules formulas? A. CH4 B. H2O C. NaCl D. MgO E. All of the above 5. The number of atoms in 9.2 g of Na will be: A. 6.2 x 1023 atoms B. 2.408 x 1023 atoms C. 9.2 x1023 atoms D. 23 atoms E. 9.2 atoms 6. The significant figure for 1.41 x 3.546 is: A. 15.100 B. 5.00 C. 8.00 D. 6.50

E. 10.00 7. Calculate the volume of O2 at STP for the complete combustion two moles of carbon disulphide which produces CO2 and SO2. A. 130 dm³ B. 134.4 dm³ C. 89.6 dm³ D. 44.8 dm³ E. 22.4 dm³

8. What is the volume in cm3 of 3.01 x 1023 molecules of O2 gas at S.Т.Р.? A. 1000 cm3 B. 11000 cm3 C. 1120 cm3 D. 11200 cm3 9. Which of the following pair has similar empirical formula? A. C2H2 & C6H6 B. C4H8 & C2H4 С. С5H10 & C6H12 D. all have same empirical formula 10. 8 grams of O2 gas contains: A. 25mol B. 2.5mol C. 0.25mol D. 0.025mol E. 0.001mol 11. Characteristic of 100 is: A. zero B. one C. two D. three E. four 12. A limiting reactant is the one which: A. is taken in lesser quantity in grams as compared to reactants B. is taken in lesser quantity in volume as compared to other reactants C. gives the maximum amount of product which is required D. gives the minimum amount of product under consideration PAGE N0: 1

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A. B. C. D.

13. If 1.0 g of the sample of butane, a hydrocarbon fuel was burned in an excess of oxygen to yield 3.03 g of CO2 and 1.55 g of H2O, the molecular mass of the compound is 58, find the percentage of Carbon: A. 303 % B. 155% C. 58% D. 83% E. 17% 14. At standard temperature and pressure (STP), 0.5 moles of a gas occupy a volume of A. 22.4 dm³ B. 89.6 dm³ C. 11.2 dm³ D. 44.8 dm³ E. 51.4 dm³ 15. The mole of Ethanol and one mole of Ethane have an equal A. Mass B. Number of atoms C. Number of electrons D. Number of molecule 16. An oxide of titanium contains 60% Ti. What is its empirical formula for this oxide? A. TiO B. Ti2O3 C. TiO2 D. Ti2O6

17. The Empirical Formula of a liquid compound to be C2H40. What other information is needed to work out its molecular formula? A. The Percentage composition of the compound B. The Relative molecular mass of the compound C. The density of the compound D. The Volume occupied by 1 mole of the compound 18. If four moles of Sulphur Dioxide are oxidized to Sulphur Trioxide. How many moles of oxygen are required?

0.5 1.0 2.0 4.0

19. The relative molecular mass of Carbon Dioxide is 44. What is the mass of 24dm3 of Carbon Dioxide at RTP? A. 44 B. 22 C. 11 D. 12 20. When 0.24g of Magnesium is reacted with excess HCl, what volume of gas is liberated at RTP? A. 120 cm3 B. 240 cm3 C. 360 cm3 D. 3600 cm3 21. 10g of metal (relative atomic mass 40) are liberated by the passage of 0.5 moles of electrons through molten chloride. What is the formula of chloride? A. M2CL B. MCL C. MCL4 D. MCL2 22. The no. of atoms nitrogen represented in the formula NH4NO is, A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 23. The formula which indicates the relative numbers of different kinds of the atoms in a molecule is called: A. Structural formula B. Empirical formula C. C) Molecular formula D. None of the above

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24. Characteristic of number 1000 (in log) is:A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 0 25. Chemistry is the study of: A. Chemicals B. Acids C. Base D. Water E. None of the above 26. Period three elements have: A. Same atomic no B. Same atomic mass C. Principal quantum no. D. Azimuthal No 27. What happens when no of moles of gas are doubled at a fixed volume: A. Pressure doubles B. Pressure is reduced to 1/2 C. Pressure is reduced by 1/4 D. Pressure stays the same 28. 1gm of hydrogen contains how many number of molecules: A. 6.02 x 1023 molecules B. 3.01 x 1023 molecules C. 0 molecules D. 1.04 x 1023 molecules 29. Noble gases have electronic configuration of: A. ns2, np4 B. ns1, np6 C. ns2 , np6 D. ns , np 30. Which of the following is/are electropositive elements: A. Alkali Metals B. D) Alkaline Earth metals C. Halogens D. Both 'a' and 'b' 31. 80 gm Oxygen occupies the volume of

A. B. C. D.

55 dm3 20 dm3 58 5dm3 22 4dm3

32. 1 ounce pressure of gas at STP contains: A. 224000 cubic meter B. 22 4 cubic meter C. 22 4400 cubic meter D. 0.0224 cubic meter 33. The traid contain chlorine 35.5 and iodine give the atomic mass of bromine: A. 80 B. 81 C. 72 D. 90 34. Final zeros to the right of the decimal point are: A. Non-significant B. Necessarily not significant C. Significant D. b and c 35. Elements ware arranged in ascending order in the periodic table by: A. Mendeleev B. Dobereiner C. Newland D. Moosely 36. The percentage of nitrogen in ammonia is given by the expression: A. 14/17 x 100 B. 7/17 x 100 C. 4/17 x 100 D. 17/14 x 100 37. An oxide of nitrogen contains 30.4% of nitrogen, what is the mole ratio of: A. 5 B. 4 C. 2 D. 7 38. On the upper right corner of periodic table is: A. Non-metal B. Metals C. Metalloids PAGE N0: 3

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D.

Solids

46. What would be the volume of O2 required to produce 100 cm3 of SO2 at S.TP2 2H2S + 3O2→2H2O + 2SO2 A. 100 cm3 B. 150 cm3 C. 48 cm3 D. 24 cm3

39. Elements of a same group have: A. Same size B. Same reactivity C. Same chemical properties D. Same physical properties 40. No. of moles of CO2 which contain 8.0g of oxygen A. 0.25 B. 0.5 C. 1 D. 1.5 41. The second and third periods contain: A. 18 elements each B. 32 elements each C. 8 elements each D. 14 elements each 42. 23g of sodium is present in A. 1 atom of sodium B. 23 atoms of sodium C. 1 gram atom of sodium D. 1 mole of sodium E. c and d 43. How many atoms of oxygen present in 100 grams of CaCO3? A. 12.04 x 1023 atoms B. Avogadro's number atoms C. 18.06 x 1023 atoms D. 3.01x 1023 atoms 44. What mass of ammonia (NH3) occupies 44.8 dm3 at S.T.P? A. 17 grams B. 10 grams C. 34 grams D. 100 grams 45. What is the molecular and empirical formula of the Ethanoic acid? M. Formula Empirical Formula A. C2H4O C2H4O B. C2H4O2 CH2O C. C2H4O2 C2H4O2 D. C2H6O C2H6O

47. What is the volume of 22 grams CO2 at S.T.P? A. 24 x 103 cm3 B. 11 x 103 cm3 C. 6 x 103 cm3 D. 48 x 103 cm3 48. Mandleev’s periodic table was based on: A. Atomic number B. Atomic mass C. Atomic volume D. Electronic configuration 49. What volume of SO2 at s.t.p is given off on heating 9.7 gm of Zinc Sulphide? (Zn-65, S=32, O =16) 2ZnS +3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2 A. 1.2 dm3 B. 2.2 dm3 C. 3.6 dm3 D. 4.8 dm3 50. How many moles of oxygen O2 are needed for a complete combustion of two moles of butane C4H10? A. 2 B. 8 C. 10 D. 13 51. The number of atoms in 3 molecules in Na, CO.20H20. A. 36 B. 72 C. 108 D. 198 52. An element X forms compound having formula Na2X3, XO2 and OX3. What is X likely to be? A. Carbon B. Chlorine C. Nitrogen D. Sulphur

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53. Which one of the following is the molecular formula of hydrocarbon which contains 80% by mass of carbon. A. CH4 B. C2H4 C. C2H6 D. C3H6 54. Zinc reacts with O2 as: 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2 Zn O+ SO2 What volume of O2 at S.T.P is required to react with 194 g of Zns A. 3 dm3 B. 36 dm3 C. 3 x 24 dm3 D. 3 x 32 dm3 55. The elements of group IlA are called: A. Metals B. Non -metals C. Alkaline earth metals D. Transition metals

60. Molecular mass of Na2 S2 O3 is: A. 158 gms B. 140 gms C. 7 gms D. 200 gms 61. Which of the following compound contains the highest % of Nitrogen? A. Ammonia B. NH2 CO2 NH4 C. (NH11)2 CO3 D. N2H4 62. Which one of the following compound does not have the empirical formula CH2O? A. CH3COOH B. C2H5OH C. C6H12O6 D. HCHO 63. Which one of the following is molecular formula of a hydrocarbon which contains 85.7% carbon and 14.3% Hydrogen by mass? A. CH2 B. CH4 C. C2H2 D. C2H4

56. In case of transition metals the last electron are received in: A. d-orbitals B. s-orbitals C. P-orbitals D. f-orbitals

64. Which one of the following does not exist as a diatomic molecule? A. Chlorine B. Hydrogen C. Helium D. Oxygen E. Nitrogen

57. The number of atoms in 5 molecules of CUSO4. 5H2O A. 21 B. 105 C. 6.0 x1023 D. 42 58. The ratio of rates of diffusion of 2 gases A&B is 1:5. If the relative molecular mass of A is 16, find the relative molecular mass of B) A. 11 B. 24 C. 36 D. 7 59. How many significant figures are in 502.70? A. 6 B. 3

C. 5 D. 4

65. If 11 g of carbon dioxide of x molecules, how many molecules are there in 7 g of nitrogen gas? A. 1/2 X B. X C. 2x D. 4x E. 8x

66. If 50 g water is completely decomposed into hydrogen and oxygen, the total mass of gas obtained will be: PAGE N0: 5

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A. B. C. D. E.

18 g 30 g 36 g 50 g 75 g

72. The formula of a metallic oxide is MO. This oxide contains 60% by mass of the element M. The relative atomic mass of M is calculated to be: A. 8 B. 12 C. 24 D. 48 E. 84

67. 80 g of bromine gas have the same number of molecule as: A. 24 dm3 of carbon dioxide B. 2 g hydrogen C. 0.5 mole of nitrogen dioxide D. 28 g of nitrogen E. 0.2 mole of chlorine 68. 0.2 moles of gaseous hydrocarbon Z gives 8.8gm of carboa dioxide and 5.4 of water on complete combustion in oxygen. The empirical formula of Z is: A. CH B. C2H2 C. CH3 D. CH4 E. C2H6 69. Which of the following substances has the most number of atoms? A. 7g nitrogen B. 7g magnesium C. 7g oxygen D. 7g Sulphur dioxide E. 7g carbon dioxide

73. How many moles of oxygen O2 are needed for a complete combustion of two moles of butane CaH1o? A. 2 B. 8 C. 10 D. 13 E. 6 74. Zinc reacts with O2 as: 2Zn S + 3O2 → 2Zn O + SO2 What volume of O2 at S.T.P is required to react with 194 g of Zns? A. 3 dm3 B. 36 dm3 C. 3 x 24 dm3 D. 3 x 32 dm3 E. 2 x 24 dm3 75. An oxide of titanium contains 60% Ti. What is its empirical formula for this oxide? A. TiO B. Ti2O3 C. TiO2 D. Ti2O6 E. None

70. Which of the following has the highest percentage of hydrogen by mass? A. Water B. Methane C. Ammonia D. Ethanol E. Ammonium hydroxide 71. How many moles of hydrogen atoms are in 2.3 g of ethanol? A. 0.05 B. 0.3 C. 0.5 D. 1.15 E. 1.5

76. Forty-four grams of carbon dioxide at STP have: A. 6.02x1023 molecules B. 12.04x1023 molecules C. 2 gram molecular weight or 2 moles D. None of these 77. What would be the volume of O2 required to produce 100 cm3 of SO2 at S.T.P? 2H2S + 3O2 → 2H2O + 2SO2 The volume of gas at S.T.P is 24 cm3 A. 100 cm3 B. 150 cm3 C. 48 cm3

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D. 24 cm3 78. How many moles of oxygen O2 are needed for a complete combustion of two moles of butane C4H10? A. 21 B. 8 C. 10 D. 13 79. Given the equation: C3H8 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 3CO2 (g) + 4H2O (g) At STP, How many liters of O2 (g) are needed to completely burn 5.0 liters of C3H8 (g)? A. 5.0 B. 10 C. 10.5 D. 15 E. 25 80. Given the reaction: C3H8 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 3CO2 + 4H2O (g) At STP, how many liters of O2 (g) are needed to completely burn 5.0 liters of C3H8 (g): A. 5 B. 10 С. 10.5 D. 15 E. 25 81. Only two elements are present in: A. Period -1 B. Period-2 C. Period -3 D. Period-4 E. Period -5 82. By heating 25g of limestone (CaCO3) the weight of carbon dioxide produced is A. 14g B. 71g C. 11g D. 2g E. 10g 83. What is the volume of 22.4 gm CO2 at S.T.P? A. 24 x 103 cm3 B. 11 x 103 cm3 C. 6 x 103 cm3 D. 48 x 103 cm3

84. How much atoms are present in 60 gm of Cu SO4.5H2O (Cu=63.5, S=32, O=16, H=1)? A. 6 x 1023 atoms B. 0.05 x 1023 atoms C. 1.9 x 1023 atoms D. 30 x 1023 atoms 85. 2 grams of H2 molecule contain ________ molecules. A. 12.04 x 1023 B. 6.02 x 1023 C. 3.01 x 1023 D. 1.008 E. 2 86. The unit of viscosity is A. Joule B. N/m2 C. dynes/cm D. poises E. ergs 87. Non-stoichiometric compounds are formed by: A. only alkali metals B. only transition elements C. only noble gases D. none of the above 88. In the final answer of the expression: (𝟐𝟗−𝟐𝟎.𝟐)(𝟏.𝟕𝟗 𝐗 𝟏𝟎 𝟓 ) 𝟏.𝟑𝟕

the number of significant figures

is: A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 89. If we take 2.2 grams of CO2, 6.02 x 1021 atoms of nitrogen and 0.03gram atoms of Sulphur, then the molar ratio of C, N and O atoms will be: A. 1:2:5 B. 5:1:2 C. 2:5:3 D. 5:1:3

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90. The chemical analysis of a compound having molecular mass 188 gives, C = 12.8%, H = 2.1% and Br = 85.1%, its molecular formula is: A CH2Br B. C2H4Br2 C. C2H4Br D. CH2(Br)2 E. C2H2 (Br)3

91. Atomic number of C is 6 and H is 1. How many electrons are present in 1.6 grams of methane? A. 6.02 x 1023 B. 1.204 x 1023 C. 1.806 x 1023 D. 2.408×1023 E. 3.01 x 1023 92. When 20cm3 of a gaseous hydrocarbon were completely burnt in an excess of oxygen, 60cm3 of carbon dioxide and 40cm3 of water vapours were formed, all volumes being measured at same temperature and pressure. What is the formula of the hydrocarbon? А. С2H6 В. С3Н4 C. C3H6 D. С3Н8 E. C4H10 93. The molecular formula express: A. Relative number of Atoms and Electrons B. Actual number of Atoms C. Both relative and actual number of atoms D. None of the above 94. What volume in dm3 of KCI is obtained in the following equation? 2KClO3 ---> 2KCI + 3O2 A. 2 dm3 B. 74.5 dm3 C. 50 dm3 D. 40 dm3 E. 20 dm3

95. A sample of gas weighs 1.25 g, at 28°C occupying a volume of 2.50x102 ml and its pressure is 715 torr, what is the molar mass in grams? A. 131.1 B. 1.311 C. 1.212 D. 122.1 96. Which of the following is the chemical formula of a compound indicating the relative number of atoms in the simplest ratio? A. Empirical formula B. Empirical formula mass C. Molecular formula D. Molecular mass

UNIT NO. (02) 1. The rate of diffusion of a gas having molecular weight just double of N2 gas is 56 mL s-1. The rate of diffusion of N2 will be: A. 79.19 mL s-1 B. 56 mL s-1 C. 112.0 mL s-1 D. 90.0 mL s-1 E. 210 m s-1 2. The basic structure of crystalline substances is called: A. unit cell B. molecule C. lattice D. geode E. matrix 3. Relative rates of diffusions of two gases X and Y are found to be 3:2. If the density of Y is 27 the density of X is. A. 27 B. 54 C. 4 D. 12

4. Which pair of gases have same rate of diffusion at STP A. H2 and Ne PAGE N0: 8

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B. O2 and CO C. CO2 and C3H8 D. CO2 and SO2

D. Boyle's Law, Dalton's Law and Avogadro's Law E. All of the above 11. In the Boyle's Law, if the volume of a gas is plotted versus the reciprocal of the pressure, the curve obtained is: A. parabolic curve B. hyperbole curve C. straight line D. symbolic E. all of the above

5. Viscosity of liquids depends upon A. Temperature B. Size of molecule C. Shape of molecule E. All of the above 6. According to the Ideal Gas Law, what is the approximate volume that Will be occupied by 0.6 moles of an ideal gas at 30°C and 3 atm pressure (gas constant R = 0.0821 L -atm/molK)? A. Less than 1 L B. 5 L C. 10 L D. 15 L E. More than 20 L

12. "The rate at which a substance reacts is proportional to its active mass and the rate of a chemical reaction is proportional to the product of the active masses of reactants" is. A. Boyle's Law B. Law of Mass Action C. Charle's Law D. Avogadro's Law E. Dalton's Law

7. The rate of diffusion of a gas is A. Directly proportional to its density B. Directly proportional to its molecular weight C. Inversely proportional to square root of the molecular density D. Inversely proportional to square root of the formula E. Inversely proportional to its molecular weight.

13. Which phenomenon of physical chemistry occurs when you tissue paper on a wet surface? A. evaporation B. capillary action C. boiling D. condensation

8. Comparative rates of diffusion of He and SO2 will be ______. A. 8 B. 2 C. 4 D.16 E. 64

14. According to the ideal gas law, what is the approximate volume that will be occupied by 0.5 moles of an ideal gas at 30°C and 3 atm pressure (gas constant R=0.0821 L-atm/mol-K)? A. Less than 1 L B. 4.14 L C. 10.14 L D. 15.14 L E. more than 20 L

9. The unit of viscosity is ________. A. Joule B. N/m² C. dynes/cm D. poises E. ergs 10. Ideal Gas Equation is obtained by combining. A. Boyle's Law, Dalton's Law and Charle's Law B. Boyle's Law, Charle's Law and Avogadro's Law C. Dalton's Law, Charle's Law and Avogadro's Law

15. PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2, the number of moles of Cl2 produced will be _______? If one mole of PCl5 is heated = 250°C in a vessel having a capacity of 10 dm3. At 250°C Kc = 0.041. A. 0.041mole B. 0.465mole C. 4.65mole D. 4.1mole E. 45.5mole

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16. PV=K represents: A. Boyle's law B. Avogadro's law C. Charles's law D. Graham's law E. Dalton's law

A CO2 and N2O B. CO2 and CO C, NO2 and CO2 D. CO2 and N2O4

17. What volume does 400 cm³ sample of a gas at 700 torr occupy when the pressure is changed to 2 atm? A. 1.40000 cm³ B. 184 cm³ C. 0.0184 cm³ D. 140 cm³ E. 0.00184 cm³ 18. If the volume of a gas is plotted against the total pressure, the curve obtained would be: A. Straight line C. Parabolic curve C. Hyperbolic curve D. Exponential curve E. None of the above

23. Which substance has diffused melting point? A. Crystalline solids B. Amorphous solids C. Metallic solids D. Covalent solids E. Ionic solids 24. Hydrogen diffuses six times faster than gas A. The molar mass of gas A is: A. 16 B. 36 C. 6 D. 24 E. 72 25. What is the correct order of the boiling points of the following compounds? I. n-hexane II. 2-methylpentane III. 2, 2-dimethylbutane IV. n-heptane A. I > IV > II > III B. IV > III > II > I C. I > II > III > IV E. II > I > III > IV

19. 300mL of a gas at 27°C is cooled to 3°C at constant pressure. Its final volume is: A. 135 mL B. 540 mL C. 300 mL D. 350 mL E. 276 mL

26. Viscosity of Acetone 0°c is ______ and at 20°C its viscosity is ______. A. 0.332… 0.395 B. 0.395... 0.332 C. 1.78… 1.19 D. 22.3… 0.7 E. 121000... 1499

20. Surface tension of benzene at 20°C is: A. 72.583 B. 22.03 C. 28.88 D. 471.6 E. 23.7

21. 1 liter of a gas weighs 2 g at 300 K and 1 atm pressure. If the pressure is made 75 atm, at which of the following temperatures will 1 L of the same gas weigh 1 g? A. 450 K B. 800 K C. 600 K D. 900 K

27. "The total pressure of mixture of gases is the sum of partial pressures of the gases in the mixture" is the statement of: A. Boyle's law B. Graham's law of diffusion C. Avogadro's law D. Charles's law E. Dalton's law of partial pressure

22. Which of the following pairs of gases has same rate of diffusion? PAGE N0: 10

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28. The existence of an element in more than one form is known as: A. Isotropy B. Allotropy C. Enthalpy D. Geotropy E. Both isotropy and allotropy

33. If absolute temperature of a gas is doubled and the pressure is reduced to one half, the volume of the gas will A. Remain unchanged B. Increases four times C. Reduce to 1/4 D. Be doubled E. Decrease four times

29. A sample of argon occupies 50L at standard temperature. Assuming constant pressure, what volume will the gas occupy if the temperature is doubled? A. 25 L B. 50 L C. 10O L D. 200 L E. 2500 L 30. All of the following statements undefined the kinetic molecular theory of gasses EXCEPT: A. Gas molecules have no intermolecular forces B. Gas particles are in random motion C. The collision between gas particles are elastic D. Gas particles have no volume E. The average kinetic energy is proportional to the temperature of the gas

34. For two substance to be separated by paper chromatography it is necessary that: A. They are both liquids B. They are both soluble in the same solvent C. They have different densities D. They have different colors 35. Which one of the following is a pure compound? A. Dry air B. Ethanol C. Steel D. Tap water

31. Four containers of equal volume are filled as follows: I. 2.0g H2 at 0°C II. 1.0g H2 at 273°C III. 24g O2 at 0°C IV. 16g CH4 at 273°C Which container is at the greatest pressure? A. I only B. II only C. III only D. IV only E. I and II

36. Which statement provides the best information to confirm that two substances are allotropic forms of carbon? A. They have different crystalline structure B. They both reduce heated lead (II) Oxide to lead C. Equal masses of both substances require equal masses of carbon Dioxide and no other product when completely burnt in oxygen D. Equal masses of both substances give equal masses of carbon dioxide and no other product when completely burnt in oxygen

32. Which of the following factors has no effect on boiling point? A. pressure B. Intermolecular force C. Amount of liquid D. Impurities in the liquid E. None of the above

37. Which of the following element is the most abundant element in the universe? A. Oxygen B. Silicon C. Hydrogen D. Methane

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38. The process in which a solid is directly converted to a gaseous state is called: A. Boiling B. Evaporation C. Sublimation D. Freezing

45. Two substances having same crystal structure are said to be:A. Polymorphous B. Isomorphous C. Homomorphous D. Synmorphous

39. Which of the following techniques could be used to separate the colored dyes from the black ink? A. Chromatography B. Filtration C. Fractional distillation D. Precipitation

46. Gas constant "R" is independent of: A. Pressure of gas. B. Volume of gas. C. Nature of gas. D. Temperature

40. The crystalline form of allotropes is: A. Chemically same B. Chemically different C. Some tome same and sometime different D. Depend upon substance 41. The heat requires changing 1 mole of iodine (solid) to iodine (gas) is called: A. Heat of vaporization B. Heat of sublimation C. Heat of fusion D. Melting point 42. The formula for general gas equation is: A. P1V1 = P2V2 B. V1/T1=V2/T2 C. E=mc2 D. P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2 43. Ay unit of viscosity is:A. NSm-1 B. Nsm-2 C. NS-1m2 44. 1poise can be fined as:A. 1 gm/m B. 1 gm/cm C. 1gm/ mm

47. ZnSO4 and NiSO4, are _____ crystals. A. Cubic B. Trigonal C. Orthorhombic D. Hexagonal 48. The molecular mass of SO2, is 64 and molecular mass of He is 4 than Ho diffuses how many times greater than SO2. A. 2 times B. 4 times C. 16 times D. 12 times 49. For Boyle's law to be true, which of the following must be fixed? A. isothermal B. Isochoric C. Adiabatic D. Isobaric 50. Gases are good conductors at: A. High pressure B. Low temperature C. Low pressure D. None of the above 51. Capillary action is due to: A. Surface tension B. Cohesion C. Adhesion D. Viscosity 52. Which of the following has highest BP? A. Ethylalcohol

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B. Diethyl ether C. H2O D. Acetone 53. Which of the following is not a chemical change? A. Rusting of iron B. Refractive index C. Boiling of water D. Electrolysis of Cu++ 54. The correct sequence of high power vapour pressure is: A. Water > Ethanol> Acetone>Ether B. Ether> Acetone> Ethanol>Water C. Ether> Ethanol> Acetone> Water D. Water> Ethanol> Acetone> Ether 55. At constant temperature the volume of gas is 95 cm3 at a pressure of 9.961 x 104 N/m2. What would be its volume at 10.13 x 104 N/m2? A. 1cm3 B. 94cm3 C. 93cm3 D. 10cm3 56. The ratio of the rate of diffusion of two gases is 1:3, and then ratio of their molecular wt is: A. 13 B. 31 C. 1.9 D. 91 57. What will be the product of Specific Heat and molecular formula? A. Molar specific heat B. Molar mass C. Heat capacity D. Molar heat 58. Unit of Specific Rate Constant for zero order reaction is: A. S-1 B. Mol dm-3 s-2 C. Dm6 D. Mol2 dm-6 s-1

59. Product of Specific Heat and Molecular Formula is? A. Molar Specific Heat B. Molar Heat C. Heat capacity D. Specific Heat Capacity 60. Total pressure is equal to the sum of partial pressure of all the individual gases due to following reason: A. Collisions with the walls of the container B. Effective collision of all individual gases C. Collision with the bottom of the container D. None of the above 61. Compound having different forms this statement is related to: A. Allotropy B. Isomerism C. Polymorphism D. Isomorphism. 62. By standard temperature we mean: A. 0°C B. 293°C C. 35°C D. -0℃ 63. Which solid is called dry ice? A. CO2 B. H2+ CO C. H2 D. None 64. Hexagonal system has axes: A. a = b = c B. a ≠b = c C. a ≠ b ≠ c D. a = b ≠ c 65. Three dimensional array of points is called: A. Unit cell B. Crystal C. Crystal lattice D. a and b. 66. Standard pressure:

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A. B. C. D.

760 torr 1atom of Hg 760 mmHg All of the above

D. Condensation

67. "A substance under different condition can from more than one type of crystal". This is called _______. A. Isomorphism B. Polymorphism C. Anisotropy D. Isotropy 68. "Equal volume of gases at the same temperature and pressure contains same number of molecule" This law can be represented as______. A. V ∝ T B. V ∝ 1 C. V ∝ n D. V ∝ m 69. The temperature 273 k corresponds to: A. 0°C B. 273°C C. 100°C D. None of the above 70. Volume of given mass of gas varies ______ with inverse of the temperature at constant pressure. A. Inversely B. Directly C. Three times D. None of the above 3

71. What volume does 400 cm of sample of gas at 700 torr occupy when the pressure in changed to 2 atm. (assume temperature is constant) A. 368 cm3 B. 184 cm3 C. 170 cm3 D. 870 cm3 72. Same solid when heated not melt but directly change into gashouse state A. Evaporation B. Crystallization C. Sublimation

73. The change of enthalpy when one gram mole of the substance is formed from its element at S.T.P is called ______. A. Heat of formation B. Standard heat of formation C. Heat of vaporization D. Bond energy 74. The average speed and average kinetic energy of gas molecules are directly proportional to the _____. A. °C (Centigrade temp) B. F (Fahrenheit) C. K (Kelvin temp) D. None of the above. 75. Volumes of given mass of a gas varies ______ with the increase of pressure at constant temperature. A. Inversely B. Directly C. Three times D. None of the above 76. Which one of the following substance is an element and also forms crystals composed of small molecules. A. Carbon dioxide B. Copper C. Graphite D. Iodine 77. Solids which have regular geometrical shape are called: A. Symmetric Solids B. Crystalline Solids C. Viterous solids D. Amorphous Solids 79. A solid substance which shows variable intensity of a property in different directions is called: A. Cleavage B. Asymmetric C. Anisotropy D. Polymorphism

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80. H2 reacts with O2 as, 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) -----> 2H2O (g) How much gas will remain if 2dm3 of hydrogen are reacted with 1 dm3 of O2 at s.t.p? A. O dm3 B. 1 dm3 C. 2 dm3 D. 3 dm3

still able to move freely. We say the substance has undergone. A. Diffusion B. Freezing C. Sublimation D. Condensation e) Evaporation 87. Which of the following substances P to T is a volatile liquid at room temperature? Substance Melting point °c Boiling point °c A. P -90 350 B. Q -7 48 C. R -10 300 D. S 20 250 E. T 300 1500

81. The spontaneous mixing of particles is called: A. Evaporation B. Diffusion C. Sublimation D. Boiling 82. In which of the following are the particles the most disordered? A. Water at 100°c B. Steam at 100°c C. Impure water at 102°c D. Water at 0°c

89. One characteristic feature of a solid is that: A. The particles move rapidly B. It has a lattice structure C. The particles are loosely packed D. It has no definite volume E. It has no definite shape

83. Which of these statements best supports the idea that matter is made up of particles? A. Liquids always fill the space available to them. B. Gases are compressible C. 1 cm3 of water produces nearly 1700 cm3 of steam. D. If a bottle of perfume is opened, the smell spreads quickly

90. "Gases react in the ratio of small whole number by volume under similar conditions of temperature and pressure". This statement belongs to: A. Dalton s law for combining volume B. Gay-Lussac’s law for combining volume C. Charlee’s law for combining volume D. Behr’s law for combining volume 91. According to Charlee’s law "For every degree rise or fall in temperature given mass of the gas increases or decreases by the amount of _______ times of the original volume keeping the pressure constant”. A. 273 times B. 1/273 times C. 240 times D. Can't be estimated

84. The particles of gas can be described as: A. Only moving outwards in direction B. Vibrating about fixed position C. Rising upwards D. Moving randomly in all directions. 85. Which of these processes involves a weakening of the attraction between particles? A. Condensation B. Freezing C. Crystallization D. Evaporation 86. A substance changes from the state in which its particles are widely spaced and able to move freely to the state in which the particles are in contact, but

92. A real gas is close to an ideal gas at conditions A. Low pressure and high temperature B. High pressure and low temperature C. At all temperature and low pressure D. Low temperature and low pressure

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93. "The rate of diffusion of two gases is inversely proportional to the square roots of their densities or molecular weight at the same pressure and temperature" is A. Graham's law B. Dalton's law C. Avogadro's law D. None of the above 94. Which of the following will raise the boiling point of a sample of water? A. Heat and Water B. Mix gasoline into the water C. Bring the water sample to a higher altitude D. Place the water sample on a magnetic stirrer E. Dissolve table sugar into the water 95. An ideal gas in a closed inflexible container has a pressure of 6 atmospheres and a temperature' or 27°c) What will be the new pressure of the gas if the temperature is decreased to -73°C? A. 2 atm B. 3 atm C. 4 atm D. 8 atm E. 9 atm 96. The ratio of the rate of diffusion of two gases is 1:3, then ratio of their molecular wt. is: A. 1:3 B. 3:1 C. 1:9 D. 9:1 97. Diver at the depth of 40 meters breathes air at a pressure _______: A. 4 times B. 101 times C. Less than 5 times D. 5 times 98. An ideal gas in a closed inflexible container has a pressure of 6 atmospheres and a temperature of 27°C. What will be the new pressure of the gas if the temperature is decreased to -73°C? A. 2 atm B. 3 atm

C. 4 atm D. 8 atm E. 9 atm 99. When a gas is collected over water, the pressure is corrected by A. Adding the vapour pressure of water B. Multiplying by the vapour Pressure of water C. Subtracting the vapour pressure of water at that temperature D. Subtracting the temperature of the water from the vapour pressure E. All of the above 100. The London forces are also called; A. Vander Waals B. Dipole-dipole C. Induced dipole D. None of the above 101. Sodium reacts with water more vigorously than lithium because it: A. Has higher atomic weight B. Is more electronegative C. Is more electropositive D. Is a metal E. Has high melting point 102. The rain drop acquires spherical shape and ink spreads over blotting paper due to: A. Surface tension B. Adhesive forces C. Viscosity D. Polarity E. Latent heat of vaporization 103. 950 torr corresponds to: A. 35 atm B. 1 atm C. 3 atm D. 125 atm E. 225 atm 104. When an element exists in more than one crystalline form, the phenomenon is termed as: A. Isomorphism B. Allotropy

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C. Isomerism D. Anisotropy E. Enthalpy

A. Surface tension B. Adhesive forces C. Viscosity D. Polarity E. Latent heat of vaporization.

105. During condensation of polymerization, two monomers may be joined by the removal of a molecule of: A. carbon dioxide B. hydrogen C. oxygen D. water E. none of the above

111. 950 torr corresponds to: A. 3.5 atm B. 1 atm C. 3 atm D. 1.25 atm E. 2.25 atm

106. Which gas is likely to deviate most from ideal gas behavior? A. HC B. Hе C. CH D. N2 E. O2

112. Which of the following statements is true of amorphous solids? A. They possess symmetry B. They are isotropic C. They are anisotropic D. They cleave along particular direction E. They have definite shape

107.. The crystals formed as a result of Vander Waal’s interactions are: A. molecular crystals B. covalent crystals C. metallic crystals D. ionic crystals E. none of the above

113. A child's balloon has a volume 3.80 dm3, when temperature is 35°C. If the balloon is put in refrigerator and cooled to 5°C, the approximate volume of the balloon is (assume pressure inside the balloon is equal to atmospheric pressure): A. 3.00 dm3 B. 3.43 dm3 C. 3.08 dm3 D. 3.25 dm3 E. 0.54 dm3

108. When an element exists in more than one crystalline form, the phenomenon is termed as: A. isomorphism B. allotropy C. isomerism D. anisotropy E. enthalpy 109. When an element exists in more than one crystalline form, the phenomenon is termed as: A. CuSO4.5H20 B. 2CaSO4.2H20 C. (CaSO4)2.H20 D. MgSO4.7H20 E. NaSO4.H20

114. Which one is pure compound? A. Dry Air B. Ethanol C. Steel D. Tap Water 115. Comparative rates of diffusion of He and SO2 will be ____. A. 8 B. 2 C. 4 D. 16 E. 64

110. The rain drop acquires spherical shape and ink spreads over blotting paper due to: PAGE N0: 17

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116. From a mixture of CO2 and H2 gases, CO2 can be separated by passing the mixture through: A. water at high temperature B. water under high pressure C. cold water D. acidified water 117. The stability of ionic crystal depends principally on: A. High electron affinity of anion forming species B. Lattice energy of crystal C. Low ionization energy of cation forming species D. Low heat of sublimation of cation forming solid

118. The unit cell with crystallographic dimensions a = b =/= c, a = b = y = 90° is: A. Cubic B. Tetragonal C. Monoclinic D. Hexagonal 119. A bottle of cold drink contains 200 ml liquid in which CO2 is 0.1 molar. Suppose CO2 behaves like an ideal gas, the volume of dissolved CO2 at S.T.P is: A. 0.224 liter B. 0.448 liter C. 22.4 liter D. 2.24 liter E. 25.5 liter 120. Surface tension in a liquid is caused by: A. a lack of horizontal intermolecular forces B. greater rate of evaporation at the surface than from the interior C. reduced rate of intermolecular collisions at the surface D. greater fluidity 121. A solid melts sharply just above 100°C. It does not conduct electricity even when molten. It has weak Vander Waal's forces. What is the structure of the solid most likely to be? A. An atomic crystal B. An ionic crystal C. A molecular crystal D. Metallic

122. For a given mass of gas, if the pressure is reduced to half and its temperature is doubled, then volume V will become: A. 4V B. 2V2 C. V/4 D. 8V 123. Silver oxide decomposes when heated to give silver and oxygen: If 0.5 moles of lunar caustic is heated up to 450°C, giving out nitrogen dioxide and oxygen leaving silver as metal, what is the mass of the residue? A. 108 grams B. 54 grams C. 216 grams D. 27 grams E. 92 grams 124. What assumptions are made in the kinetic theory about an ideal gas? I. There are no forces of attraction between molecules II. The molecules are in a state of continual, random motion III. The size of the molecule is negligible A. I Only B. II Only C. I & II Only D. II & III Only E. I, II, III 125. What is the temperature at which the volume of gas is said to be zero? A. 0°C B. 4°C C. -273.16°С D. -173.16°C 126. Which of the following liquid has the highest viscosity at 20°c? A. Water B. Ethyl alcohol C. Glycerin D. Acetone

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127. 22.4 dm3 of volume of each H2 and O2 are sparked to produce water vapours (consider as ideal gas) on completion of reaction what is decrease in the volume of vessel? A. 44 dm3 B. 22.4 dm3 C. 33.6 dm3 D. 11.2 dm3 128. Which pair has species with different shapes? A. BeCI2 and CO2 B. NH3 and BF3 C. SCI2 and H2O D. CH4 and NH4+

129. 1dm3 of methyl alcohol is heated over Cu at 300°C; we get: Cu CH3OH НСНО+H2 300°C The volume in dm3 of hydrogen gas obtained is: A. 0.5 dm3 B. 1 dm3 C. 1.5 dm3 D. 2 dm3 E. 2.5 dm3 130. A sample of ideal gas has a volume of 128 mi at -27 °C to what temperature must the gas be heated at constant pressure if final volume is to be 214 ml? A. 120°c B. 130°C C. 138°C D. 140°C E. 150°C

UNIT NO. (03) 1. The radius of second Bohr orbit is A. 0.529 Å B. 0.529/4 Å C. 0.529 x 22 Å D. 0.529 x 2 Å

2. Which of the following series in H atom give spect Å? A. Lyman B. Paschen C. Balmer D. Bracket E. None of the above 3. A reactant in a chemical reaction is nonconductor to electricity, colorless and nonresponsive towards plane-polarized light but can absorb ultra-violet rays. Then the best technique for the determination of initial rate of such a reaction is: A. Polarimetry B. Refractometry C. Spectroscopy D. Color 4. Rutherford's model of atom is considered weak because. A. a positively charged nucleus cannot remain separated from negative charged electrons B. an accelerated electron would continuously lose energy in the form of radiation. C. nuclear mass is not sufficiently heavy to keep the light electron In Its orbit. D. the center of the gravity of the system would be, within the volume of the nucleus 5. 1f n = 4, and I = 3, it represents. A. s orbits B. p orbits C. d orbits D. f orbits 6. Two isotopes of the same element will always differ in A. mass number but never in atomic number B. atomic number but never in mass number C. charge outside but never inside their nuclei D. nuclear charge but never in overall charge E. the number of electrons outside their nuclei but never in the number of neutrons inside their nuclei 7. The alkali metals possess one electron in their outermost:

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A. s-orbital B. p-orbital C. d-orbital D. f-orbital E. none of the above

C. Cl D. I E. S

8. The maximum possible number of electrons a shell 'n' can accommodate is given by. A. n B. n² C. 2n² D. n³ E. 3n²

14. "In an atom no two electrons can have the same set of four quantum numbers." This statement is commonly known as: A. Heisenberg's Principle B. Pauli's Exclusion principle C. Aufbau Principle D. Hund's Rule E. (n+l) Rule

9. Which light color has longest wave length? A. Violet B. blue C. red D. green E. yellow

15. In going from 1s² 2p² 2p6 3s² 3p6 4s¹ to 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p5 4s² an electron would: A. Absorb energy B. Emit energy C. Relax to the ground state D. Bind to another atom E. Undergo no change in energy

10. The shape of the orbital indicated by the symbol ''𝓵" called: A. Principle Quantum number B. Magnetic Quantum number C. Azimuthal Quantum number D. Spin Quantum number E. none of the above

16. Bohr model of atom is contradicted by: A. Planck's quantum theory B. Pauli's exclusion principle C. Heisenberg uncertainty principle D. All of the above

11. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding rays? A. The rays carry negative charge B. The rays produce mechanical effect C. The charge/mass ratio is dependent of the gas taken the discharge tube D. All of the above

17. Rutherford's model of atom failed because: A. The atom did not have a nucleus and electrons B. It did not account for the attraction between protons and neutrons C. It did not account for the stability of the atom D. There is actually no space between the nucleus and the electrons

12. Complete the following equation: 9 4 1 4Be + 2He ⟶ ? + on A. 6C¹² B. 6C¹⁴ C. 7N¹⁴ D. 8O16 E. 11Na23

18. Which of the following principle rules is not so important in assigning the electronic configuration of atom? A. Hund's rule B. Heisenberg principle C. Pauli's exclusion principle D. Aufbau principle E. (n+ l) rule

13. 1s², 2s², 2p6, 3s², 3p5 is an electronic Configuration of. A. Na B. K

19. When B-particles are sent through a thin metal foil, most of them go straight through the foil as: A. β-particles are much heavier than electrons PAGE N0: 20

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B. ß-particles are positively charged C. Most part of the atom is empty space D. β-particles move with high velocity 20. Electronic Configuration of M2+ ion is 2, 8, 14 and its atomic weight is 56 amu. The number of neutrons in its nucleus is: A. 30 B. 32 С. 42 D. 52 21. The quantum numbers +1/2 and -1/2 for the electron spin represent: A. Rotation of the electron in clockwise and anticlockwise direction respectively B. Rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise direction respectively C. Magnetic movement of the electron pointing up and down respectively D. Two quantum mechanical spin states which have no classical analogue 22. A reactant in a chemical reaction is nonconductor to electricity colorless and nonresponsive towards plane-polarized light but can absorb ultra-violet rays. Then the best technique for the determination of initial rate of such a reaction: A. Polarimetry B. Refractometry C. Spectroscopy D. Cotourtmetry E. None of the above 23. Which of the following will have the largest ionic radius? A. CS+ B. Li+ C. Na+ D. Mg2+ 24. Which of the following principles limits the maximum number of electrons in an orbital? A. Aufbau principle B. Pauli exclusion principle C. Hund's rule D. Heisenberg uncertainty principle E. None of the above

25. All of the following are true regarding Cathode Rays EXCEPT: A. These rays carry a negative charge. B. These rays can also be easily deflected by an electrostatic field C. These rays emerge normally from Cathode and can be focused by using a concave Cathode D. These rays consist of particles now called Protons carrying a fixed unit of charge and a fixed mass. E. The Cathode rays are easily deflected by a magnetic field 26. The maximum number of electrons in a shell with the principal quantum number equal to 4 is: A. 2 B. 10 C. 16 D. 32 E. 14 27. Elements in a given Period have the same: A. Atomic weight B. Maximum azimuthal quantum number C. Maximum principle quantum number D. Valence electron structure E. Atomic number 28. The violet region of visible spectra has the shortest wavelength of about A. 7000 Å B. 1000 Å C. 4000 Å D. 2000 Å E. 8000 Å 29. The stable electronic configuration of Cu-29 is A. [Ar] 4s1 3d10 B. [Ar] 4s2 3d9 C. [Ar] 4s0 3d10 D. [Ar] 4s2 d8 E. [Ar] 4s1 3d0 30. Ruther ford discovered that the nucleus of an atom has ______ charge. A. No

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B. Negative C. Positive D. Very less 31. The wavelength of radiation emits in Ballmer series is: A. b/w 4000 A° to 8000 A° B. 10,000
electrons through molten chloride. What is the formula of chloride? A. M2CL B. MCL C. MCL4 D. MCL2 37. Alpha rays are: A. Single negatively charged particles B. Single positively charged particles C. Double negatively charged particles D. Double positively charged particles 38. Which is the lightest among following; A. An atom of hydrogen B. An electron C. A neutron D. A proton

Anode SO2 O2 H2 H2

33. Whose e/m ratio resembles with that of electrons? A. Alpha Rays B. Beta Rays C. Gamma Rays D. X rays

39. Faraday's experiment leads to the discovery of A. Electron. B. Positron C. Nucleus. D. Proton

34. What particles are present in solid lead (II) Bromide and in molten lead (III) Bromide? Solid Lead Bromide Molten Lead Bromide A. Molecules Atom B. Molecules lons C. lons Atoms D. Ions lons

40. Which one is not correct:A. Alpha particles are negatively charged) B. Alpha particles are helium nuclei. C. Alpha particles are positively charged) D. Alpha particles move towards anode

35. The ions X+ contain 23 particles in the nucleus and 10 electrons outside the nucleus. What does the nucleus of the ion X+ contain? Protons. Neutrons A. 9 14 B. 10 13 C. 11 12 D. 12 11

41. Which one shows alpha- decay:A. 2XA→2-2X A+4 + 2He4 B. 2XA --> 2-2 X A-4 + 2He4 C. 2XA --> 2+2 X A-4 + 2He4 D. 2XA --> 2+2 X A-4 + 2He4 42. Who observed radioactivity first? A. Henery Backwerll B. Rutherford C. Newton D. Bohr

36. 10g of metal (relative atomic mass 40) are liberated by the passage of 0.5 moles of PAGE N0: 22

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43. An electron can use Excitation Energy in the form of all of the following except: A. Photochemistry B. Florence C. Heat D. Radiation 44. Cathode does not depend upon: A. Neither on gas nor the material of the cathode B. Neither on H2SO4 nor on the liquid used C. All of the above D. None of the above 45. Rutherford discovered that the nucleus of an atom has charge A. No B. Negative C. Positive D. Very less 46. Rutherford's atomic model failed b/c: A. It did not account for the stability of atom. B. It did not account for the attraction b/w protons and neutrons. C. The atom did not have neutrons D. None of these 47. Cathode rays travel in discharge tube from: A. Anode to cathode B. Cathode to anode C. Glass tube to vacuum pump D. Cathode through air

C. Zn D. Na 50. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1 which rule is violated in this electronic configuration A. Hund s rule B. (n + 1) rule C. Pauli exclusion principle D. Aufbau principle 51. Element P has an electronic configuration of 2, 8, 6 element R has an electronic configuration of 2,8,8,1. What is likely to form if P and R combine? A. A compound RP B. A compound R6P6 C. A compound RP2 D. A compound R2P 52. The amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom is called? A. lonization potential B. lonization ability C. Electron affinity D. Electron affinity 53. The lowest I.P is found in: A. Inert gas B. Alkali metals C. Halogens D. Transition metals

48. What rays are emitted from cathode and move in straight line towards anode. A. Cathode rays B. Anode rays C. X-rays D. Sun rays

54. In which one of the following sets do all three particles have same total number of electrons? A. Cl- Br- IB. F- Ne Na+ C. H- H H+ D. Li- Na+ H

49. Give the name of the element whose electronic configuration is given below, 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 3s2 3p1 A. Al B. CO

55. Which particle cannot be accelerated in a magnetic field? A. Alpha particle B. Beta particle PAGE N0: 23

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C. Neutron D. Proton

61. The ionization energy ______ in a group from top to bottom with the increase in atomic size) A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains same D. Increases then decreases E. None of the above

56. In the reaction 4Be9 + X → 6C12 + 0n1, the X represents: A. An Alpha particle B. A Beta particle C. An electron D. A Proton 57. Elements have almost zero electron affinity if they have: A. Inert gas configuration B. Full filled configuration C. Half tilled configuration D. All of the above 58. What is the number of protons and neutrons in an atom with mass number 89 and atomic number 39? A. 50 protons and 50 neutrons B. 50 protons and 39 neutrons C. 39 protons and 89 neutrons D. 39 protons and 50 neutrons E. 39 protons and 39 neutrons 59. Which of the following is closest in mass to a proton? A. Alpha particle B. Positron C. Neutron D. Electron E. Hydrogen molecule 60. The value of which of the following parameters can be used to determine the percent of ionic character in a covalent bond: A. Metallic Character B. Ionization Potential C. Electronegativity D. Electron affinity

62. Elements have almost zero electron affinity if they have: A. Inert gas configuration B. Full filled configuration C. Half-filled configuration D. All of the above E. None of the above 63. The radius of 4th orbit of an atom, if Bohr's radius is 0.529° A, will be A. 5.2 A B. 8.4°A C. 6.4°A D. 35°A E. None 64. What is the number of protons and neutrons in an atom with mass number 89 and atomic number 39? A. 60 protons and 50 neutrons B. 50 protons and 39 neutrons C. 39 protons and 89 neutrons D. 39 protons and 50 neutrons 65. Which of the following molecules has the strongest carbon-to-carbon bond? A. C2H2 B. C2H4 C. C2H6 D. C2H8 66. A radioactive material is undergoing nuclear decay. After 40 minutes, 25% of the sample remains. What is the half-life of the sample? A. 27 minutes

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B. C. D.

20 minutes 40 minutes 80 minutes

B. C. D. E.

67. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, which rule is violated in this electronic configuration. A. Hund's rule B. (n + I) rule C. Pauli exclusion principle D. None of the above 68. The maximum number of electrons that an orbital can accommodate are: A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4

Aufbau Principle Pauli's Exclusion principle Hund's Rule (n+1) Rule

72. The electronic configuration of iron is: A. 1S2, 2S2 2P6, 3S2, 3P6, 3d5, 4S2 B. 1S2, 2S2, 2P6, 3S2, 3P6, 3d5, 4S1 C. 1S2, 2S2, 2P6, 3S2, 3P6, 3d6, 4S2 D. 1S2, 2S2, 2P6 3S2, 3P6, 3d3, 4S2 E. 1S2, 2S2, 2P6 3S2, 3P6, 3d2, 4S2 73. Which rule is violated in this 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3p6, 3p6, 4s2 A. Aufbaus's Principle B. Hund's Rule C. n+L rule D. Pauli's Exclusion Principle.

69. The maximum number of electrons that an orbital can accommodate isolate A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4

74. What is the P.E of an electron of mass "m" moving with a velocity “v” in radius of "r”?

70. Which of the following statements is correct? A. Faradays experiment indicates the existence of electrons B. Crooke's tube experiment shows the presence of electrons and protons in the atoms. C. Radioactivity confirms the presence of electrons and protons D. Chadwick experiment shows the presence of neutrons E. All of the above

75. ________ is called the le Broglie Relation.

71. "In an atom no two electrons can have the same set of four Quantum numbers" is stated by: A. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle

A. B. C. D.

−mv 𝑟 −ze 2𝑟 mv 𝑟2 mZe2 𝑟



A.

λ=

B.

h = λmv

C.

m = 𝜆𝑣

D.

all of these

𝑚𝑣 ℎ

76. Which of the following shows alpha-decay? A A+4 + He4 A. zX → z-2X 2 A A-4 B. + 2He4 + 2He4 zX → zX A A+4 + He4 C. zX → z-2X 2 A A4 4 D. zX → z+2X + 2He 77. The maximum possible number of electrons a shell 'n' can accommodate is given by A. n B. n2 C. 2n2

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D. n3 E. 3n2

83. Which of the following best describes the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen? A. a discrete series of lines of equal intensity and equally spaced with respect to wavelength B. a series of only four lines C. a continuous emission of radiation of all frequencies D. several discrete series of lines with both intensity and spacing between lines decreasing as the wavenumber increases with each series

78. The series limit for the Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum occurs at 3664 A. Calculate Ionization energy of hydrogen atom. A. 21.7x 10-19 J B. 6.626x10-34 J c. 5.425x10-19 J D. 3664 x10-10 J E. 3x108J 79. The radii of the second orbit of the hydrogen atom calculated from Bohr's model is: A. 0.529 Å B. 4.8 Å С. 2.41 Å D. 3.4 Å E. 1 Å 80. The amount of energy released by absorbing an electron in the valence shell is: A. Ionization energy B. Electron Affinity C. Electronegativity D. Atomic Radius E. Atomization Energy 81. Among the following electrons, which has highest energy? A. n= 3, l = 2, m = 0, s = + 1/2 B. n= 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = - 1/2 C. n= 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = - 1/2 D. n= 3, l = 2, m = 0, s = - ½ 82. Nitrogen and phosphorus have 3 of their valence electrons unpaired because of: A. Aufbau principle B. Heisenberg's principle C. Hund's rule D. Planck's statement E. None of the above

84. The series limit for the Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum occurs at 3664 Å. Calculate Ionization energy of hydrogen atom. A. 21.7x10-19 J B. 6.626x10-34 J C. 5.425x10-19 J D. 3664x10-10 J E. 3x108 J 85. How many electrons can have the values n =2, I=1 and s = + 1/2 in the configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p3? A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 E. 9 86. If uncertainty in the position of an electron is zero, the uncertainty in its momentum is: A. 1 B. zero C. 2πr D. 2h/4π E. infinite 87. Pierrie Curie and Marie Curie isolated which radioactive element? A. Lithium B. Radium C. Boron D. Uranium 88. Which of the following is the correct order of electronegativity (from highest to lowest)? A. F, O, N, C B. N, F, O, C

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C. C, F, N, O D. C, F, O, N

B. Azimuthal quantum number C. Spin quantum number D. Magnetic quantum number

89. J.J Thomson determined the: A. charge of an electron B. mass of an electron C. e/m value of an electron D. charge of a proton E. mass of a proton

95. An element has configuration 2, 8, 1. It belongs to, ________. A. IA group and 3rd period B. IIIA group and 1st period C. IA group and 8th period D. VIIA group and 3rd period

90. The number of electrons present in n=2, I=1 and m = -1, 0, +1 are: A. 2 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10 E. 18

96. Electrical conductivity depends upon ____. A. Temperature B. Degree of dilution C. Nature of electrolyte D. Speed of ions 97. Which of the following shows maximum penetration? A. Electrons B. Protons C. Alpha particles D. Neutrons

91. If the difference between electronegativity values between two atoms is less than 1.7, the bond is necessarily: A. ionic B. covalent C. electrovalent D. polar E. non-polar

98. Cathode rays: A. are heavy in the case of bigger atoms B. is light in the case of smaller atoms C. is more intense in the case of radioactive atoms D. depend on the nature of the gas E. is independent of the nature of the gas

92. The radius of third Bohr orbit is: A. 0.529 Å B. 0.529/4 Å С. 0.529 x2 Å D. 0.529 x 32 Å 93. The ground state of an atom corresponds to a state of: A. Maximum energy B. Minimum energy C. Negative energy D. Positive energy 94. Shape of the orbital occupied by an electron is defined by A. Principal quantum number

99. Pauli Exclusion Principle states that no two electrons can have the entire four quantum numbers same. According to this principle which of the following pairs of atoms shows difference in their Principle Quantum Number? A. H & He B. Li & Be C. Na & K D. Na & Mg E. K & Ca

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100. For a 51% ionic molecule, the difference in EN is: A. 1.5 B. 1.7 С. 1.9 D. 2.1 101. Balmer series is important as: A. it is the first series B. it gives sharp lines C. it lies in visible region D. it was first discovered E. it has minimum energy

103. The principle quantum number is related to the: A. Orbital angular momentum B. Size of the orbital C. Orientation of the orbital D. Spin of orbital

1. Which of the following is a false statement concerning an ionic compound? A. Greater the lattice energy, the greater is the solubility. B. Higher the dielectric constant of the solvent, the greater is the solubility. C. Higher the dipole moment of the solvent, the greater is the solubility. D. Increase of temperature generally increases solubility. E. Have greater boiling and melting point.

3. Which one has the highest degree of polarity in its molecule? A. H-Br B. H-I C. H-Cl D. H-F 4. The bond energy for H2 molecule is: A. 98 K cal mol-1 B. 110 K cal mol-1 C. 104 K cal mol-1 D. 36 K cal mal-1

102. Which of the following compounds is expected to be colored? A. Ag2SO4 B. CuCl C. MgF2 D. CuF2

UNIT NO. (04)

2. In a compound X, all the bond angles are exactly 109°28', X is: A. Chloroform B. Iodoform C. Chloromethane D. Carbon tetrachloride.

5. How many single bonds are in a molecule of carbon dioxide (CO2)? A. none B. one C. two D. Three E. Four 6. All of the following have covalent bonds EXCEPT: A. HCl B. CCl4 C. H2O D. NaCl E. CO2 7. sp3 hybridization in CH4 gives it ______ geometry. A. Linear B. Co planner C. Tetra hedral D. Trigonal pyramid E. Octahedral 8. The C-C bond distance is _______. A. 1.10 Å B. 1.20 Å C. 1.30 Å D. 1.54 Å

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E. 1.34 Å 9. Covalent compounds A. Crystals are made up of ions B. are non-electrolytes C. are soluble in water E. are electrolytes 10. Which of the following is a planar Trigonal molecule? A. HCl B. BeCl2 C. BF3 D. CO2 E. CS2 11. The bond angle in NH3 is: A. 109°28" B. 107° C. 104.5° D. 90° 12. Which of the following halogens does not exhibit positive oxidation state in its compounds? A. I B. Br C. CI D. F 13. The geometry of BF3 molecule is: A. tetrahedral B. Linear C. Octahedral D. planar trigonal E. square planar 14. The bond angle of Linear, Trigonal and Tetrahedral shapes respectively are: A. 180°, 120°, 109° B. 180°, 109°, 129° C. 130°, 180°, 129° D. 129°, 180°, 160° E. 107°, 175°, 130° 15. Hardness of diamond is attributed to the: A. Strength of ionic bond B. close packing of atoms and large number of covalent bonds

C. No free valence electron on carbon atom D. None of the above 16. H-bonding is exhibited by: A. All the molecules containing H-atom B. Molecules in which two H-atoms are present C. Molecules in which H atom is covalently bonded to F, O or N D. Molecules in which H is bonded to atoms with electronegativity more than 2.1 17. Ionic covalent and co-ordinate covalent bonds are simultaneously present in the molecular geometry of A. Ammonia B. Ammonium hydroxide C. Hydrochloric acid D. Water E. Methane 18. A compound was found to contain nitrogen and oxygen in the ratio 28 g: 80 g. The formula of the compound is: A. NO B. N2O3 C. N2O4 D. N2O5 19. Which one of the following has the highest electronegativity? A. Cl B. Fr C. F D. K E. Rb 20. Ionic radius of CI is A. 151 Å B. 0.99 Å C. 1.71 Å D. 1.57Å E. 1.81 Å 21. Covalent compounds are: A. Non-electrostatic B. Generally insoluble n water C. Soluble in organic solvent D. Both A and B E. All of the above PAGE N0: 29

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B. Two unpaired electrons C. Three unpaired electrons D. One paired electron E. None of the above

22. According to _________ theory lies, a covalent bond is formed by the fusion of the atomic orbitals. A. Valence Bond Theory (VBT) B. Molecular Orbital Theory. (MOT) С. VESPER Theory D. Both A and B E. All of the above

29. What is the number of paired shared electrons in methane molecule? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

23. All of the following are non-polar covalent bonds except: A. Cl2 B. O2 C. N2 D. HF E. H2 24. Greater the tendency of an atom to give out electrons, more in the: A. Electronegativity B. Metallic character C. Melting point D Boiling point E. Ionization potential 25. Example of Trigonal system is: A. BaSO4 B. AgNO3 C. ZnSO4 D. SiO2 E. SnO2 26. Bond energy of a molecule depends upon A. Bond distance and bond polarity B. Ionization energy C. Internal energy D. Lattice energy E. Kinetic energy 27. Which orbital has lowest energy? A. 3d B. 4s C. 3p D. 4f E. 5f

30. "In an atom no two electrons can have same set of quantum numbers", this statement was given by: A. Uncertainty principle B. Pauli's exclusion principle C. Hund's rule D. Aufbau's principle 31. The bond formed by the electrostatic attraction between negative end of one molecule and positive end of other is called: A. Covalent bond B. Hydrogen bond C. Ionic bond D. Co-Ordinate covalent bond 32. The bond angle in a molecule having Sp3 hybridization with no lone pair is: A. 120 Angle B. 180 Angle C. 109 Angle D. 90 Angle 33. The electronic configurations of the noble gases are: A. ns2, np5 B. ns2, np6 C. ns2, np4, nd8 D. ns2, np6, nd10

28. Molecular orbital picture of O2 indicates A. One unpaired electron PAGE N0: 30

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34. Excited state of C atom can be represented as:A. 1s" 2s" 2 px' 2 py' 2px° B. 1s1 2s' 2 px' 2 py' 2pz' C. 1 s" 2s' 2 px' 2py' 2pz'

C. N+L rule D. Aufbau principle

35. "The electrons are filled to the orbitals of lowest energy in sequence, two to each orbital", this is statement of: A. Pauli's exclusion principle B. Aufbau Principle C. (n+l) Rule. D. Hund's Rule. 36. Which has shortest C-C bond length:A. C2H2 B. C2H4 C. CCL4 D. C2H5 OH 37 Electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1, is of A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Neon D. Calcium 38. In M-shell maximum number of electrons: A. 16 B. 13 C. 12 D. 14

41. The tabular arrangement of ______ principle is called long term of the periodic table. A. (n+l) rule B. Pauli's Exclusion principle C. Aufbau principle D. Hund's rule 42. Which is not an allotrope of carbon? A. Diamond B. Coke C. Methane D. Graphite 43. Which one of the following bond has the most polar character? A. C-O B. C-F C. C-Br D. C-S 44. Which rule is violated in this 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3p6, 4s2? A. Aufbaus's Principle B. Hund's Rule C. n+I rule D. Pauli's Exclusion Principle 45. Atoms of Sulphur and 6 oxygen atoms are held in a thionate molecule by? A. Ionic Bond B. Covalent Bond C. Dative Bond D. Polar Bond

39. In which compound co-ordinate covalent bond is present: A. CH3OH B. POCl3 C. H2O D. CHCl3 40. Maximum number of electrons try to occupy orbitals singly only when all the orbitals are singly occupied only then pairing of electrons commences is: A. Hund's rule B. Pauli’s exclusion principle

46. How many lone pairs are present in H20? A. 2 B. 4 C. 1 D. 3

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47. The s-s bond is weaker than s-p or p-p because: A. Radius of s orbits is short B. Radial distribution of charge in s orbital C. Distribution of charge at the Axis D. Distribution of charge at Nodal Planes 48. NH3 dissolved in water will act as: A. Proton acceptor B. Proton donor C. Electron donor D. Both proton acceptor and electron donor 49. Zn has only one oxidation state because? A. Completely filled 4d-orbital B. Half filed 4s orbital C. Completely filled 3d orbital D. Half-filled 3s orbital 50. Bond - energy is needed to know: A. Nature of compound B. Nature of ionic compound C. Nature of Reaction D. Nature of Bonding 51. Azimuthal quantum number shows: A. Orientation if in space B. Size of the orbital C. Shape of orbital D. None of the above 52. The electronic configuration of noble gases is: A. ns2, np58 B. ns2, np8 C. ns2, np6,nd8 D. None of the above 53. The subshell which has only one orbital is identified by the letter: A. s B. d C. p

D. f 54. Elements which have completely filled outermost shell and do not combine other elements are called A. Metal elements B. Reactive elements C. Unstable elements D. Rare earth elements 55. Dipole moment of CO2 is _____ A. Zero B. 1.9 debye C. 1.4 debye D. 0.5 debye 56. Which statement indicates that diamond and graphite are allotropic from of carbon? A. Both have same molecular structure B. Graphite conducts electricity whereas diamond does not C C. Under suitable conditions graphite can be converted into diamond) D. Complete combustion of equal mass of each produces equal mass of CO2 only 57. To prepare the m--Nitro Benzoic acid from Toluene FIRST 2ND A. Hydrogenation Nitration B. Acylation. Alkylation C. Nitration. Oxidation D. Oxidation. Nitration 58. When one s and thee p orbital combine together, this is called hybridization. A. sp2 B. sp3 C. sp D. s-s 59. Which one of the following atoms A, B, C or D would readily form an ion with a charge + 2? PAGE N0: 32

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Atomic mass. A. 12 B. 16 C. 24 D. 31

Atomic No 6 8 12 15

B. C2H4 C. C2H6 D. C2H8 E. C2H10

60. Which one of the following atoms A, B, C, D or E would readily form an ion with a charge of +2? Mass No. Atomic Neo A. 12 6 B. 15 8 C. 24 12 D. 31 15 61. Which one of the following ions is not monovalent? A. Ammonium B. Sulphite C. Nitrate D. Chloride E. Sodium

66. Which one of the following bond has the most polar character? A. C-O B. C-F C. C-Br D. C-S 67. The structure of BeCl2 can best be described as: A. Linear B. Bent C. Trigonal D. Tetrahedral E. Square

62. The formula of a metallic oxide is MO. This oxide contains 60% by mass of the element M. The relative atomic mass of M is calculated to be: A. 8 B. 12 C. 24 D. 48 E. 84

68. H2C =CH2 the molecule contains: A. 4 sigma -2 pi Bonds B. 2 sigma -4 pi Bonds C. 5 sigma 1 pi Bonds D. 6 sigma Bonds E. 6 pi bonds

63. A change which involves breaking of making of now bonds is called) A. Chemical change B. Permanent change C. Ordinary change D. Physical change 64. Which of the following molecules has the strongest carbon-to-carbon bond? A. C2H2

65. One liter of solution contains 30g acetic acid, the active mass of acetic acid is ________. A. 0.5 mol/L B. 1.5 mol/L C. 10 mol/L D. 2 mol/L

69. The structure of BeCl2 can best be described as: A. Linear B. Bent C. Trigonal D. Tetrahedral 70. Catenation is a process in which carbon shows the properties of:

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A. B. C. D. E.

Making single bond Hybridization Making long chains or rings of carbon atoms Isomerism Breaking of bonds

E.

76. Bond energy: l. Is energy required to break a bond between two atoms in a diatomic molecule. II. Is taken as the energy released in forming a bond form free atoms Ill. Is the measure of the strength of bond. A. I only B. I and II only C. I and IIl only D. III only E. I, ll and lll

71. Sigma bond is formed by: A. Transferring the electrons B. head on overlapping of atomic orbital C. Mutual but unequal sharing of electrons D. Parallel overlapping of atomic orbital E. All of the above. 72. Linear combination of atomic orbitals (LCAO) results in the formation of: A. Sigma bond B. Pi bond C. Bonding molecular orbitals only D. Bonding and binding molecular orbitals E. All of the above 73. Linear combination of atomic (LCAO) results in the formation of: A. Sigma bond B. Pi Bond C. bonding molecular orbital's only D. bonding and anti-bonding molecular orbitals E. all of the above 74. Sigma bond is formed by: A. transferring the electrons B. head on overlapping of atomic orbitals C. mutual but unequal sharing of electrons D. parallel overlapping of atomic orbitals E. all of the above 75. Which of the following molecule have zero Dipole moments? A. CCl4 B. CO2 C. Cl2 D. C6H6

All of the above

77. How many lone pairs are present in H2O? A. 2 B. 4 C. 1 D. 3 78. Dipole moment of CO2 is A. Zero B. 1.4 debye C. 1.9 debye D. 0.5 debye 79. The C-C bond distance is ______. A. 1.10 Å B. 1.20 Å C. 1.30 Å D. 1.54 Å E. 1.34 Å 80. SP3 hybridization in CH4 gives it _______ geometry. A. Linear B. Co planner C. Tetra hedral D. Trigonal pyramid E. Octahedral 81. In a double-bonded carbon atom (C=C):

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A. hybridization occurs between the s-orbital and one p- orbital B. hybridization occurs between the s-orbital and two p- orbitals C. hybridization occurs between the s-orbital and three p-orbitals D. no hybridization occurs between the s-and porbitals E. hybridization occurs between two s-orbitals and one p- orbital 82. Which is not characteristic of pi bond? A. Pi bond is formed when sigma bond already exists B. Pi bond results from lateral overlap of atomic orbitals C. Pi bonds are formed from hybrid orbitals D. Pi bonds may be formed by the overlap of p orbitals E. All of the above 83. The table shown below gives the bond dissociation energies of single covalent bonds of carbon atom with elements A, B and C BOND E dissociation (Kj.mole-1) C-A С-В

240 328

C-C

276

C-D

485

Which of the following is the smallest atom? A. A В. В С. С D. D 84. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of N is N2, NO3 and NH4 are, respectively: A. sp, sp2, sp3 B. sp, sp3, sp2 C. SO2, sp, sp3 D. sp2, sp3, sp

A. BF3> NF3> NH 3 B. NF3> BF 3> NH 3 C. NH 3> NF 3> BF3] D. NH3> BF3> NF3 E. NH3 = BF3 = NF3 86. H2O has a higher boiling point than HF because: A. H2O is more polar than HF B. H2O can form more hydrogen bonds C. H2O has a higher molecular weight D. H2O has more atoms E. H2O does not have a higher boiling point that HF 87. Bond energy between nitrogen atoms in N2 molecule is: A. 242 KJ mol-1 B. 820 KJ mol-1 C. 498 KJ mol-1 D. 347 KJ mol-1 E. 946 KJ mol-1 88. The order of force of repulsion between lone pairs and bond pairs is: A. Lone pair-Bond pair repulsion > Lone pairLone pair repulsion> Bond pair-Bond pair repulsion B. Bond pair- Bond pair repulsion > Lone pairLone pair repulsion >Lone pair-Bond pair repulsion C. Lone pair-Lone pair repulsion > Bond pairBond pair repulsion > Lone pair-Bond pair repulsion D. Lone pair-Lone pair repulsion> Lone pairBond pair repulsion> Bond pair-Bond pair repulsion 89. The geometry of H2S and its dipole moment are: A. angular and non-zero B. angular and zero C. linear and zero D. linear and non-zero

85. The dipole moments of the given molecules (BF3, NF3, and NH3) are such that:

90. In HF the covalent bond is due to

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A. s-s overlapping B. p-pz overlapping C. S-Px overlapping D. Pz -Pz overlapping

A. B. C. D. E.

91. Four words are shown below: Similar polar solvents electrostatic solvation lattice energy Ionic compounds are soluble in water and ___P__because of the strong _Q_ attractions between the ions and polar molecules solvent. The surrounding of the ions by the solvent molecules ___R__ releases the energy which is known as the energy of solvation. This energy usually overcomes the high __S__ of the ionic compound.

Lattice energy A. B. c. D. E.

S P S R P

similar polar solvents Q Q P S Q

3. In a reaction with higher energy barrier the reactant molecules require. A. higher energy of activation to pass the energy barrier B. lower energy of activation to pass the energy barrier C. higher kinetic energy D. lower kinetic energy

4. 1 calorie= ________ Joules. A. 200 Joules B. 2000 Joules C. 4.184 Joules D. 4180 Joules E. 3630 Joules

electrostatic

solvation

R S Q P R

P R R Q S

UNIT NO. (05) 1. Which of the following statement is wrong? A. An endothermic reaction must absorb energy before it occurs. B. During exothermic reaction heat is evolved C. After an endothermic reaction, there is no change in the temperature of the reaction mixture D. None of the above 2. In the reaction: H2 (g) + I2 (g) → 2HI (g) Δ H= + 12.40 Kj/mole represents:

Heat of formation Heat of neutralization Heat of oxidation Heat of sublimation Heat of reduction

5. The amount of heat provided to a system at constant pressure (qp) is equal to _______. A. Change in internal energy (∆E) B. Change in enthalpy (∆H) C. Change in free energy (∆G) D. Change in temperature only (∆T) E. Change in pressure only (∆P) 6. For a chemical reaction: A⟶B The threshold energy of reaction is 50 K.J/mole. The average internal energy of A is 25 K.J/mole. The activation energy of A is: A. 25 K.J/mole B. 50 K.J/mole C. 100 K.J/mole D. 125 K.J/mole E. O K.J/mole 7. Change in the property of a system (in thermodynamics) is equal to. A. Value of a property in the final states - value of the same property in the initial state. B. Value of a property in the initial state - value of the same property in the final state. C. Value of a property in the initial state + Value of a property in the final states.

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D. Value of a property in the final state x value of the same property in the initial state. E. Does not depend upon the initial and final value of the property 8. Which of the following intensive property is obtained from extensive properties? A. melting point B. density C. vapor pressure D. boiling point 9. The pressure of heat (qp) at contact volume is equal to: A. change in internal energy (∆E) B. change in enthalpy (∆H) C. Heat gas constant (R) D. P∆V E. Pressure (P) 10. For a chemical reaction A ⟶ B, the threshold energy of reaction is 51 K.J/mole. The average internal energy of A is 27 K.J/mole. Calculate activation energy of A? A. 19 K.J/mole B. 24 K.J/mole C. 30 K.J/mole D. 34 K.J/mole E. 37 K.J/mole 11. Absolute Zero is equal to: A. -237.16°C B. -273.16K C. -273.16°C D. -272° C E. 0°c 12. The heat evolved or absorbed during a chemical reaction depends upon the: A. The amount of chemical substance involved B. The temperature C. The physical states of the substance involved constant volume D. Whether the reaction occurs at constant pressure or E. All of the above 13. The Latent Heat of fusion is defined as:

A. The Heat energy required to change 1mg of a solid into liquid at its melting point B. The Heat energy required to change 1Kg of a solid into liquid at its melting point C. The Heat energy required to change 18g of a solid into liquid at its melting point D. The Heat energy required to change 1g of a solid into liquid at its melting point E. None of the above 14. The property of being able to add enthalpies is based on the: A. Law of Conservation of Heat B. First Law of Thermodynamics C. Law of Constants D. Law of E = mc² E. Hess's Law 15. If ∆H of a reaction is -100 K Cal/mole, it indicates the reaction is: A. Endothermic B. Unstable C. In need of a catalyst. D. Exothermic E. None of the above 16. In case of slow reaction, if the temperature is increased by 10 K, then point out the false statement: A. Average K.E decreases E. Velocity of molecule increases C. Number of collisions is doubled D. Threshold energy becomes double 17. According to Hess's Law, the thermal effects of a reaction depends on: A. Initial concentration of reactant B. Initial and final states of the system C. Final concentration of the reaction D. Particular manner in which reaction takes place E. None of the above

18. Which of the following values of heat of formation indicates that the product is least stable? A. -94 k cal C. -231 k cal C. +21.4 k cal D. +64.8 k cal

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19. The enthalpy of certain reaction at 273 K is 20.75 kJ. The enthalpy of same reaction at 373 K (if heat capacities of reactants and products are same will be: A. -20.75 kJ B. -2075 kJ C. Zero D. -20.75 x

373 273

KJ

D. Hess's Law 25. At what temperature standard enthalpy changes are measured? A. 293K B. 273 K C. 293°C D. 298°F 26. Thermodynamics is the study of heat energy and ______ energy relationship. A. Energy of activation B. Kinetic energy C. Chemical D. Lionization

20. Which of the following values of heat of formation indicates that the product is least stable? A. -94K.Cals/mol B. -231.6K.Cals/mol C. +21.4K.Cals/mol D. +64.8K.Cals/mol 21. A property of a system that depends only on the state of a system is called a: A. state action B. state reaction C state function D. state of system E. none of the above 22. In the reaction: H2 (g) + I2 (g) → 2HI (g). ∆H = + 12.40 KJ/mole represents: A. Heat of formation B. Heat of neutralization C. Heat of oxidation D. Heat of sublimation E. reduction 23. The heat evolved or absorbed during chemical reaction depends upon: A. Amount of chemical substance B. Physical state substance C. temperature D. Whether reaction occurs at constant pressure or volume E. All of the above 24. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be transferred and transformed this known as: A. Law of conservation of energy B. Low of conservation of mass C. Law of conservation of Momentum

27. The law of conservation of energy is also called) A. Second law of Thermodynamics B. 3rd law of Thermodynamics C. First law of Thermodynamics D. None of the above 28. Which statement concerning energy change is false? A. Electrical energy is produced by the reaction in a battery B. Light energy is absorbed during photosynthesis C. Light energy is produced when Methane burns in Oxygen D. Heat energy is absorbed when Sodium reacts with water

29. Which Statement concerning energy change is false? A. Electrical Energy is produced by the reaction in a battery B. Light energy is absorbed during photosynthesis C. Light energy is produced when methane is burned in Oxygen D. Heat energy is absorbed when Sodium reacts with water 30. Properties of system which depend upon the amount of substance present in the system are called: A. Chemical properties B. Intensive properties

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C. D.

38. Which has highest K.E. amongst following? A. H2 B. O2 C. CH4 D. All of these

Extensive properties Physical properties

31. Enthalpy is the expression for the: A. Reaction rate B. Heat content C. Energy state D. Activation state

39. Hess's Law is specially applied in the process? A. To find out the heat of formation. B. To find out the specific heat of format C. To find the total heat involved in the process where it cannot be directly be calculated D. To determine the rate of reaction

32. Which of the following is an example of decrease in entropy:A. Evaporation of H2O B. Sublimation of ice 33. The heat absorbed or evolved in a given reaction must be independent of particular manner in which reaction takes place. A. Hess law B. Law of conservation of energy C. Law of thermodynamics D. Law of mass action 34. The change of enthalpy when 1gm mol of substance is formed from its elements is: A. Heat of reaction B. Heat of combustion C. Heat of formation D. Heat of condensation 35. In there action SO2 + O2 → 2SO ∆H = 45 K.CAL is: A. Endothermic reaction B. Exothermic reaction C. Constitutional reaction D. Both A and B 36. The K.E. of molecules is: A. Linearly proportional to Temperature B. Inversely proportional to temperature C. Linearly proportional to square root of temperature. D. Inversely proportional to square root of temperature 37. The K.E. of molecular theory does not state: A. There are intermolecular forces w/n gases B. There is no volume in gases C. Collision course is elastic D. Ail of the above

40. The energy that the reactants should gain in order to enter into reacting phase is called? A. Minimum Energy B. Activation Energy C. Threshold Frequency D. Kinetic Energy 41. The heat absorbed at constant volume is equal to: A. External pressure B. Energy change C. Internal pressure D. All of the above 42. Products of exothermic reaction are: A. Unstabled B. Sometimes stable and sometimes unstable C. Stable D. None of the above 43. The property of matter that is independent of its surrounding conditions and position is: A. Volume B. Density C. Mass D. Weight 44. Elastic collision involves: A. Loss of energy B. Gain of energy C. NO gain, no loss of energy D. None of the above

45. Mostly loss of electron is a ________ reaction. While gain of electron is a _________ reaction Exothermic, Endothermic PAGE N0: 39

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A. B. C.

Endothermic, Endothermic Endothermic, Exothermic Exothermic, Exothermic

C. Electron affinity D. Lattice energy E. Potential energy

46. Heat evolved or absorbed in a given reaction must be independent of particular manner. This law is called ________. A. First law of thermodynamics B. Law of heat exchange C. Hess's law D. 2nd law of thermodynamics 47. Heat provided to a system at constant pressure will be equal to A. E B. P X V C. H D. None of the above 48. The enthalpy changes of formation of gaseous ethene and gaseous ethane are 52 KJmole-1 and -85 KJ mole-1 respectively at 298K. What is the enthalpy change of reaction at 298 for the following process? A. -137 KJ mole-1 B. -33 KJ mole-1 C. +33 KJ mole-1 D. 137 KJ mole-1 49- At what temperature standard enthalpy changes are measured? A. 293K B. 273 K C. 293°C D. 298° F E. 298° C 50. The formula for Sandhur is: A. Pb3 (OH2) (CO3)2 B. PbO4 C. PbO D. Pb3O4 E. None of the above 51. The enthalpy change accompanying the gain of an electron by a neutral gaseous atom to form negative ion is called: A. Ionization potential B. Electro negativity

52. The heat of a reaction can be calculated by using: A. Joule's law B. Ohm's law C. Hess's law D. Faraday's law E. Boyle's law 53. The enthalpy change accompanying the gain of an electron by a neutral gaseous atom form negative ion is called: A. ionization potential B. electro-negativity C. electron affinity D. lattice energy E. potential energy 54. The heat of a reaction can be calculated by using: A. Joule's law B. Ohm's law C. Hess's law D. Faraday's law E. Boyle's law 55. If the matter in a given system at a given condition is divided into two equal parts, then the value of the extensive properties will become: A. Double of the original value B. Half of the original value C. Remain same as the original value D. One-fourth of the original value E. Heat of formation 56. The measurement of heat absorbed or given out in a chemical reaction is referred to as: A. Enthalpy B. Endothermic reaction C. Exothermic reaction D. Thermochemistry E. Heat of formation

57. The formula of Sandhur" is _____. A. Pb3 (OH2) (CO3)2 B. PbO C. PbO4 PAGE N0: 40

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Pb3O4

Temperature

D.

58. Cl + e- → Сl- ∆H = -348kJ / mol the value 348KJ/mol in this case will be: A. Ionization energy B. Electronegativity C. Electron affinity D. Entropy E. Free energy

Temperature

60. The amount of heat provided to a system at constant pressure (qp ) is equal to ______. A. Change in internal energy (∆E) B. Change in enthalpy (∆H) C. Change in free energy (∆G) D. Change in temperature only (∆T) E. Change in pressure only (∆P)

Temperature A.

TIME

TEMPERATURE

Temperature D.

62. Dissolution of ammonium nitrate in water is an endothermic process. Which of the following graph shows how the temperature alters as the ammonium nitrate is added to water and then the solution is left at room temperature

TEMPERATURE

ROOM

TIME

C.

61. EDTA ion is a ______ legand. A. Monodentate B. Bidentate C. Tridentate D. Polydentate E. None of the above

ROOM

TEMPERATURE TIME

B.

59. 1 calorie= ______ Joules. A. 200 Joules B. 2000 Joules C. 4.184 Joules D. 4180 Joules E. 3630 Joules

ROOM

ROOM TEMPERATURE TIME

63. Which of the following statements is NOT true for the first law of thermodynamics? A. total energy of the system and surrounding is conserved B. energy can neither be created nor destroyed C. it is the same as law of conservation of energy D. total energy of the system is increasing 64. Which of the following statements is/are true with regard to the reaction? 2SO3 (g) ⇋ 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) In which the forward reaction is exothermic? A. The forward reaction is favored at higher pressure and higher temperature B. The forward reaction is favored at lower pressure and higher temperature C. At constant temperature, more SO2 is formed at equilibrium if the total pressure is increased D. At constant total pressure, more O2 is formed at equilibrium if the temperature is increased.

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E. Both B & D 65. The chemical reactions in which reactants require high amount of activation energy are generally: A. Slow B. First fast then slow C. First slow then fast D. Spontaneous 66. In those reactions where determination of enthalpy value is difficult by experiments, in such cases enthalpy value can be calculated by: A. Hess's law B. Henry's law C. Kirchhoff’s law D. Clapeyron equation E. Boyle's law

67. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends upon its: A. Molecular size B. Pressure only C. Volume only D. Temperature only 68. Heat evolved or absorbed in a chemical reaction does not depend upon? A. Amount of reactants B. Pressure of reaction C. Physical state of reactants and products D. Temperature 69. For a reaction given below C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 394kJ/mol The enthalpy of reaction is A. 394 kJ/mol B. -394 kJ/mol C. 197 kJ/mol D. -197 kJ/mol

C. 19 K.J/Mole

UNIT NO. (06) 1. In which of the following reactions kp and Kc will have the same numerical value? A. 2SO2 + O2 ⇌2SO3 B. N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 C. PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2 D. N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO E. Both C and D 2. Consider the following system, PCl5 = PCI3 + Cl2.The unit of Kc for this reaction is: A. mole² / L² C. L²/mole² D. mole/L E. mole/L² 3. Chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature because. A. the equilibrium is attained rapidly B. concentration of reactants and products become equal at equilibrium C. concentration of reactants and products does not become equal at equilibrium D. both forward and backward reaction occur at all times with the same speed

4. Chemical equilibrium is dynamic nature because. A. the equilibrium is attained slowly B. concentration of reactants is always greater than products C. Concentration of reactants does not become equal at equilibrium. D. It is one sided reaction. E. both forward and backward reactions occur at all times with the same speed 5. AgCl ⇌ Ag+ + ClThe ksp for the reaction will be:

70. For a chemical reaction A → B, the threshold energy of reaction is 31K.J/mole. The average A. internal energy of A is 12K.J/Mole. What will be the B. activation energy of A? A. 43 К.J/Mole C. B. 37 К.J/Mole D. A. С. 25 К.J / Mole PAGE N0: 42

Ksp = Ksp =

[𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙] [𝐴𝑔+ ][𝐶𝑙 − ] [𝐴𝑔+ ][𝐶𝑙 − ] [𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙]

Ksp = [Ag+] [Cl-] Ksp = [AgCl]

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E. Ksp =

[𝐴𝑔+ ]

E. Concentration of the product is raised

[𝐶𝑙 − ]

6. Nitrogen dioxide decomposes on heating according to the following equation 2NO2 (g) ⇌ 2NO (g) + O2 (g) When 4 mole of nitrogen dioxide were put into a 1 dm3 container and heated to a constant temperature, the equilibrium mixture contained 0.8 mole of oxygen. What is the numerical value of the equilibrium constant Kc, at the temperature of the experiment? A. B. C. D.

0.82

10. The equilibrium for the formation of HI from H2 and I2 can be represented by either of the stoichiometric equation: k1 (i) H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI k2 𝟏 𝟏 (ii) 𝟐 H2 + 𝟐 I2 ⇌ HI The equilibrium constants k1 and k2 are related as: A. k2 = (k1)1/3 B. k2 = (k1)-1/2

𝑥 0.8

1

C. k2 = k1 2 D. k2 = 2 k1

42

1.6 𝑥 0.8 2.4 2 1.62 𝑥 0.8

11. For the equilibrium reaction 2NO2 ↔ N2O4 (g) + 61 kJ, increase of temperature would: A. Favour the formation of N2O4 B. Favour the decomposition of N2O4 C. No effect on equilibrium D. Stop the reaction

42 2 1.6 𝑥 0.8 2.4 2

E. None of the above 7. In a reaction: 𝑴𝒏𝑶𝟐

2H2O2 (aq) → 2H2O (l) + O2 (g) MnO2 is a: A. positive catalyst B. negative catalyst C. auto catalyst D. bio catalyst E. none of the above 8. The average rate of chemical reaction can be expressed is the. A. concentration of reactants more the concentration of products B. concentration of products or reactants divided by the time required for the reaction C. change in concentration of products or reactants divided by the change in time D. change in time divided by change in concentration of products or reactants 9. For a reaction H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI, there will be no effect on equilibrium, if: A. Temperature is lowered B. Concentration of the reactants is raised C. Pressure is lowered D. Temperature is raised

12. When 0.20 mole of hydrogen gas and 0.15 mole of iodine gas are heated at 723 K until equilibrium is established, the equilibrium mixture is found to contain 0.26 mole of hydrogen iodide. The equation for the reaction is as follows. H2 (g) + I2 (g) → 2HI (g) What is the correct expression for the equilibrium constant Kc? 2 x 0.26 A. 0.20 x 0.15 B.

C.

D.

(2 x O.26)2 0.20 x 0.15 (O.26)2 0.07 x 0.02 (O.26)2 0.13 x 0.13

E. none of the above 13. How will the equilibrium of the following reaction be affected if more nitrogen is added? PAGE N0: 43

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E. Reactants

N2 (g) 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) A. It will be shifted to the right B. It will be shifted to the left. C. It will be unaffected D. The effect on the equilibrium cannot be determined without more information. E. More NH3 will be produced.

17. In equilibrium Ks.p is expressed as: BaSO4 ===== Ba+2 + SO42 A. Ks.p = [BaSO4] B. Ks.p =

[Ba+2 ][𝑆𝑂4−2 ] [baSO4 ]

C. Ks.p = [Ba+2][SO4-2] D. None of the above

14. For the reaction A+B⇌C+D The equilibrium constant can be expressed as: [A][B] A. Kc = [C][D] [C][D] B. Kc = [A][D] [C][D] C. Kc = [A][B] C.D D. Kc = A.B A.B E. Kc = C.D

18. Ks.p is called A. Solubility product B. Concentration C. Equilibrium D. Constant concentration

19. Factors affecting the balance of a chemical equilibrium are following except: A. Concentration B. Temperature C. Enthalpy D. Pressure

ENERGY

15. The energy profile diagrams for the reaction in presence and absence of a catalyst are shown below. In these profile A represents:

A

REACTANT

PRODUCT

Progress of reaction A. Threshold energy B. Energy of activation in absence of catalyst C. Average internal energy of reactants D. Energy of activation in presence of catalyst E. None of the above 16. The reaction. H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI is independent of. A. Temperature B. Concentration C. catalyst D. pressure

20. In a reactor: NO + O2 → NO3 + heat Le Chattlier's principle can be favoured by: A. High pressure - High temperature B. High pressure - Low temperature C. Low pressure - Low temperature D. Low pressure - High temperature

21. Point the incorrect statement in case of equilibrium state: A. It is dynamic in nature B. It readjusts itself in the changing conditions C. It can be attained from the side of reactants only D. It can be attained from either side of the reaction 22. N2+ O2 → 2NO; Heat= + ve, the yield of N2 can be increased in this reaction by: A. Increasing the pressure B. Increasing the temperature C. Decreasing the temperature D. Decreasing the pressure 23. NaNO3 + heat--> NaNO2 + O2 in his reaction: A. Kp = Kc B. Kp > Kc C. Kp < Kc PAGE N0: 44

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D.

Kp Ksc 29. In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the system is increased? A. C (S) + 02 (g) ↔CO2 (g) B. CaCO3(s) ↔ CaO (s) + CO2(g) C. 2Mg (s) + O2 (g) ↔ 2MgO (s) D. 2H2 (g) +O2 (g) ↔ 2H2O (g)

24. When the reaction is in equilibrium: A. Production is equal to reaction B. Rate of forward reaction is equal to backward reaction C. Product is not equal to reaction D. All of the above 25. 66 Nylon is a polymer of: A. Vinyl chloride B. Aldehyde C. Adiphic acid + hexamethylene Diamine D. Both a & b

30. Point the incorrect statement in case of equilibrium state: A. It is dynamic in nature B. It readjusts itself on the changing conditions only C. It can be attained from the side of reactants only D. It can be attained from either side of the reaction

25- Equilibrium is established when: A. Rate of forward reaction = rate backward reaction B. Rate of forward reaction > rate backward reaction C. Rate of forward reaction < rate of backward reaction D. Rate of forward reaction rate of backward reaction 26. MgCl2 _____ +2 CI + Mg+2 This reaction represents the equilibrium between MgCl2 and Cl, Mg++ ions. Ks p for this reaction can be calculated as A. ks.p = [Mg++] [a] [𝑀𝑔++ ] [a] [MgCl] [𝑀𝑔++ ] [ 𝐶𝑙]2 [MgCl]

B.

ks.p =

C.

ks.p =

D.

ks.p = [Mg++] [Cl]2

27. Given the equilibrium system at 25°c) NH4CI(s) → NH4+ (aq) + C - (aq) (H= +3.5 kcal/mol) What change will shift the equilibrium to the right? A. Dec the temp to 15°C B. Inc the temp to 35°c C. Dissolving NaCl crystals D. Dissolving NH4NONH3 crystals 28. Given the reaction at equilibrium: 2CO (g) + 02 (g) → 2CO2 (g) when the reaction is subjected to stress, a change will occur in the concentration of: A. Reactants only B. Products only C. Both reactants and products D. Neither reactants nor products

31. A catalyst can't initiate the reaction but speeds up a reaction which is possible: A. Physically B. Thermodynamically C. Chemically D. In laboratory 32. Given the reaction at equilibrium: 2CO (g) + O2 (g) ←→ 2CO2 (g) When the reaction is subjected to stress, a change will occur in the concentration of: A. Reactants, only B. Products, only C. Both reactants and products D. Neither reactants nor products 33. According to law of mass action, "The rate of chemical reaction is proportional to: A. Products B. Product of molar concentration of reactants C. Initial concentrations of reactants D. Catalyst E. Pressure 34. For, the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 The production of NH3 will be favored at A. High pressure and catalyst B. Low pressure only C. Low pressure and catalyst D. High pressure only E. Catalyst only

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35. The sum of exponents of the molar concentration of the reactants is equal to A. Molecular B. Polarity C. Activation energy D. Rate of reaction E. Order of reaction 36. When 18x10-3 moles/dm3 of acetic acid react with 22x10-3 moles/dm3 of ethyl alcohol to form 40x10-3 moles/dm3 of ethyl acetate and 40x10-3 moles/dm3 of water. Find the value of equilibrium constant (kc) A. 4.04 B. 3.14 C. 3.04 D. 2.02 E. 1.04 37. When 18 x 10-3 moles/dm3 of acetic acid react with 22x10-3 moles/dm3 of ethyl alcohol to form 40 x 10-3 moles/dm3 of ethyl acetate and 40 x 103 moles/dm3 of water. Find the value of equilibrium constant (kc): A. 4.04 B. 3.14 C. 3.04 D. 2.02 E. 1.04 38. According to law of mass action, "The rate of chemical reaction is proportional to: A. products B. product of molar concentration of reactants C. initial concentration of reactants D. catalyst E. pressure 39. In a reaction A + B ↔ 2C When equilibrium was attained, the concentration was [A] = [B] = 4 moles/ dm3 [C] = 6 moles/dm3 The equilibrium constant K c of this reaction is: A. 1.25 B. 2.25

C. 3.25 D. 2.75 E. 3.75 40. If the ratio of initial concentration of the reagents is greater than the Kc then A. The reaction will shift towards the reserve direction B. More quantity of products is obtained C. The ratio increases to the value of Kc D. Equilibrium has been attained E. There is no shifting of reaction 41. If the reaction P + Q ---> R + S is described as being of zero order with respect to P, it means that: A. P is a catalyst in this reaction B. No P molecules possesses sufficient energy to react C. The concentration of P does not change during the reaction. D. The rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of P E. The rate of reaction is proportional to the concentration of Q 42. Nitrogen dioxide decomposes on heating according to the following equation 2NO2 (g) ⇌ 2NO (g) + O2 (g) When 4 mole of nitrogen dioxide were put into a 1 dm3 container and heated to a constant temperature, the equilibrium mixture contained 0.8 mole of oxygen. What is the numerical value of the equilibrium constant, Kc, at the temperature of the experiment? A. 0.82 ×0.8/42 B. 1.6 x 0.8/ 2.42 C. 1.62 x 0.8/42 D. 1.62 x 0.8/2.42 E. None of the above 43. AgCl ⇌ Ag+ + CIThe ksp for the reaction will be: [𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙] 𝐶𝑙− ] [𝐴𝑔+ ][ 𝐶𝑙 − ]

A. ksp = [𝐴𝑔+][ B. ksp =

[𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙]

C. ksp = [Ag+] [Cl-] PAGE N0: 46

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D. ksp = [AgCl] E. ksp =

[𝐴𝑔+ ] [𝐶𝑙 − ]

44. A system at equilibrium can be disturbed by: A. Concentration change B. Pressure change C. Temperature D. All of the above 45. Catalyst used in reaction 𝟏 𝟐

CHCl3 + O2 → COCl2 + HCI is ________ and its nature is ___________ A. 5% methyl alcohol ... Negative B. 2% Ethyl alcohol ... Negative C. V2O5 … Positive D. AL2O3...Negative 46. If products of a reaction act as catalyst, such process is called: A. Positive catalyst B. Negative catalyst C. Auto catalyst D. Both A and B 47. In which of the following gaseous equilibrium, more yield of the product is formed by decreasing pressure? A. N2 + O2 ⇋ 2NO в. PCl5 ⇋ PCl3 + Cl2 C. 2NO2 ⇋ N2O4 D. 2NH3 ⇋ N2 + 3H2

48. How will the equilibrium of the following reaction be affected if additional nitrogen is added? N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇆ 2NH3 (g) A. It will be shifted to the right B. It will be shifted to the left C. It will be unaffected D. The effect on the equilibrium cannot be determined without more information E. More NH3 will be produced.

When a pure ___P__ is heated, a temperature is reached where it changes sharply into liquid. This is __Q__ of solid. It is defined as that __R__ at which there is __S__ between solid and liquid phases. Temperatur melting equilibriu crystalline e point m solid A. S Q R P B. P Q S R C. S P Q R D. R S P Q E. P Q R S A. B. C. D. E.

SQRP PQSR SPQR RSPQ PQRS

50. A catalyst: A. increases the rate of forward reaction B. increases the rate of both forward and reverse reaction C. changes equilibrium position D. increases the rate of reverse reaction 51. 1 mole of N2O4 (g) was placed in an empty 1 dm3 container and allowed to reach equilibrium according to the following equation: N2O4 (g) ↔ 2NO2 (g) At equilibrium, x mole of N2O4 (g) had dissociated. What is the value of the equilibrium constant, Kc, at the temperature of the experiment? A. B.

C. D.

2𝑥 (1−𝑥) 4𝑥 2 (1−𝑥)2 2𝑥 (1−𝑥)2 4𝑥 2 (1−𝑥)

52. If 4.6 gm of ethyl alcohol and 6.0 gm of acetic acid kept at constant temperature until equilibrium was established 2.0gm of unused acetic acid were present. What is the Kc? A. 2.0 B. 3.0 C. 4.0

49. Four words are shown below: Equilibrium crystalline solid melting point temperature These words can be used in the spaces P, Q, R, and s to complete the sentences below. PAGE N0: 47

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D. 5.0

53. At 100°C, 0.1mole of N2O4 is heated in a one dm3 flask. At equilibrium concentration of NO2 was found to be 0.12 moles. Calculate Kc for the reaction. A. 0.12 B. 0.36 C. 0.21 D. 0.012 E. 0.02 55. In which of the following reactions Kp > Kc A. 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3 B. N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 C. PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2 D. N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO E. Both C and D

1. For the reaction 2HCl (g) ⇌ H2 (g) +Cl2 (g) the Kc is 1.0 x10-5. If the equilibrium concentrations of H2 and Cl2 are 1.2 x 10-3 M and 1.2 x 10-4 M respectively, the concentration of HCl is: A. 12 x 10-2 M B. 12 x 104 M C. 12 x 10-3 M D. 12 x 10-5 M E. 10 x10-2 M

3. Increasing the temperature, of an aqueous solution will cause, A. decrease in molality D. decrease in molarity C. decrease in mole fraction D. decrease in % w/w

5. Water is non-electrolyte but conducts electricity on dissolving a small amount of A. NaCl B. sugar C. acetone D. oxygen 6. Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 has pH A. Greater than 7 B. Less than 7 C. 7 D. 0 E. Inadequate information

UNIT NO. (07)

2. A 5°% NaCl solution by weight means: A. 5g of NaCl/95g of water B. 5g of NaCl/95g of solution C. 5g of NaCI/100g of water D. 5g of NaCI/100g of solution E. 95g of NaCI/100ml of water

4. In the electrolysis of fused salt, the amount of the substance deposited on electrode will not depend on: A. current Intensity B. time of electrolysis C. temperature D. electrochemical equivalent of ions

7. The electrode potential measure: A. the tendency of the electrode to gain or lose electron B. the tendency of the cell reaction to occur C. current carried by an electrode D. difference in the ionization potential E. the atomic weight of an element 8. The number of moles of solute dissolved per liter of solution is called: A. Normality B. Molality C. Molarity D. Percentage composition E. Mole fraction 9. The oxidation number of all the elements in Free State is ______. A. 1 B. 3 C. 0 D. -1 E. -3 10. Indicators are complex molecules those themselves are: A. strong acids

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B. strong bases C. weak acids D. weak bases E. both C and D

C. pH paper D. litmus paper E. indicator

11. When the product of the ionic concentrations is equal to the solubility product, the solution is said to exist in: A. Unsaturated form B. Saturated form C. super-saturated form D. Both A and B E. None of the above 12. The conductance of electric current through solutions: A. increases with dilution. B. increases with increase in concentration C. increases with the decrease of absolute velocities of ions in a solution D. increases by decreasing the temperature by 1°C E. increases by large increase in pressure, 13. What is the pH of 1.0 M HNO3 (aq)? A. 7 B. 14 C. 5 D. 0 14. If 10 g of NaOH are dissolved in 500 g of water, what is the molality of the solution? A. 1.5 m B. 2.5 m C. 0.50 m D. 3.5 m 15. Which of the following solutions is most acidic? A. A solution of phosphoric acid at pH 4. B. A solution of sodium hydroxide at pH 11. C. A solution of hydrochloric acid at pH 5. D. A solution of acetic acid at pH 6. E. A solution of aqueous ammonia at pH 9. 16. The end point of an acid-base titration is often detected by means of __________. A. catalyst B. flame

17. To what volume must 10.0 ml of 5.00 M HCL be diluted to make a 0.500 M HCL solution? A. 1 mL B. 50 mL C. 100 mL D. 500 mL E. 1000 mL 18. The amount of solute present in the given amount of solvent is called: A. Molarity B. Molality C. Concentration D. Solubility 19. In the reaction 2Fe + Cl2 ↔ 2FeCl3 A. Fe is reduced B. Fe is oxidized C. Cl2 is oxidized D. None of the above 20. The process in which electric current is used to carry out a non-spontaneous redox reaction is called: A. Electrolyte B. Electrolysis C. Metallic conductor D. None of the above 21. A correct formula must: A. be balanced with proper coefficients B. always has subscripts C. always conform to the valency rules D. always conforms to the law of multiple proportions 22. The value K for H2 (g) + CO2 (g) ↔ H2O (g) + CO (g) is 1.80 at 1000°C. If 1.0 mole of each H2 and CO2 are place in 1 liter flask, the final equilibrium concentration of CO at 1000°C will be: A. 0.295 M B. 0.385 M C. 0.531 M D. 0.473 M

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B. Positive C. zero D. -1 E. -2

23. Oxidation number of S in [SO3]-2 is: A. 4+ B. 6+ C. 2+ D. 2E. 0+

30. If pH of solution is 7.00, it represents: A. Acidic solution B. Basic solution C. Point of neutrality D. Molar solution E. None of the above

24. Hydrolysis does not occur in case of NaCI because: A. It does not change pH of water B. it changes the pH of water C. It is acidic D. It is alkaline E. Both B & C

31. How many grams of NaCl are required to completely neutralize 100 ml of 1M of H2SO4? A. 80 grams B. 40 grams C. 24 grams D. 8 grams

25. Which of the following will be the most electrically conductive? A. Sugar dissolved in water B. Salt water C. Salt dissolved in an organic solvent D. An oil and water mixture E. Oil

32. During the electrolysis of H2O, H2 is liberated at A. Anode B. Cathode C. Diode D. None of the above

26. Phenolphthalein is an indicator used for: A. Strong acid and weak base. B. Strong base and weak acid C. Strong acid and strong base D. Weak acid and weak base E. Strong base and weak base

33. The pH of a solution contains 10-4 M [H+]. A. 4 B. 3 C. -3 D. 0

27. H3PO4 dissolves in Water and ionizes as follows ________. A. H3PO4 = 3H+ + PO4-3 B. H3PO4 = 4H+ + PO4-3 C. H3PO4 = 5H+ + PO4-3 D. H3PO4 = H+ + PO4-3 E. H3PO4 = 8H+ + PO4-3

34. A sample of air was bubbled into pure water. The pH of water slowly changes from 7 to 6. Which gas in the sample caused this change? A. Aragon B. Carbon Dioxide C. Carbon Monoxide D. Oxygen

28. Buffer solution is used to A. increase the acidity B. Decrease the acidity C. Maintain the pH D. Increase the basicity E. Add color to the solution 29. The oxidation number of all the elements in Free State is: A. Negative

35. In which of the following instances is there no change in the concentration of the solution during electrolysis? A. Concentrated HCI between Carbon Electrodes

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B. C. D.

Copper (ii) sulphate solution between platinum electrodes Copper (ii) sulphate solution between copper electrodes Dilute Sulphuric Acid between Platinum electrodes

41. Which indicator has green color in neutral solution? A. Phenolphthalein B. Universal indicator C. Methyl orange D. Acid-base indicator

36. Which one of the following compounds in a 1 mol/dm3 solution has the lowest pH value? A. Ammonia B. Hydrochloric Acid C. Ethanoic Acid D. Sodium Hydroxide 37. Which one of the following correctly describes the process occurring at the electrodes when molten sodium chloride is electrolyzed? Anode Cathode A. Oxidation. Oxidation B. Reduction. Reduction C. Oxidation. Reduction D. Reduction. Oxidation 38. In the electrolysis of CuCl2 (Copper Chloride) the substance liberated at the anode A. Copper B. Chloride C. Hydrogen D. Copper Chloride 39. Molarity of 10g of NaOH dissolved in 1 dm3 of solution is:A. 2 M B. 0.25 M C. 10 M D. 20 M 40. A solution which tends to resist change in pH is:A. Boric solution. B. Basic solution. C. Buffer solution. D. Neutral solution

42. What will make an electrolyte? A. Salt dissolved in water B. Sugar dissolved in water C. Salt dissolves inorganic solvent D. All of the above 43. What is the property of oxidizing agent? A. Electron gainer B. Electron donor C. Negative charge D. Loose hydrogen 44. 18 gm of glucose in 1000 gm of solution of glucose .The molar concentration of Glucose is: A. 1M B. 0.1M C. 0.02M D. 2M 45. The density of a substance is 1.5g/ml. what will 100ml of its weight be? A. 150 g B. 100 g C. 200 g D. 300 g 46. Super oxides are expressed as: A. O2B. O22C. O2-1 D. O147. SiO2 is known as: A. c and d B. rust C. Silicon dioxide D. Sand or silica

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48. How many moles are present in 20 cm3 solution of 0.05 M HCI A. 1 mol B. 10-3 mol C. 1 x 103 mol D. None of the above 49. In the electrolysis of aqueous NaCI with inert electrode what product will form on electrode Cathode Anode A. Sodium Oxygen B. Sodium Chlorine C. Chlorine Sodium D. Hydrogen Chlorine 50. Fe° ---- Fe++ + 2e This is an _______ process A. Oxidation B. Reduction C. Redox D. None of the above

55. A metal M forms a carbonate, M2 (CO3)3 which of the following is the Correct formula for the corresponding hydroxide of M? A. M (OH)3 B. M3(OH) C. M2(OH)3 D. M(OH)3 E. M(OH)2 56. If the valences of a metal M are 2 and +3, and it combined with a radical X of Valency -1, the possible formulae of the compounds formed would be: A. M2X, M3X B. M2X, MX3 C. MX2, M3X D. MX2, MX3 E. MX, MX2

51. What is the pH of 0.001M HCI? A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 1.5 52. Which of the following is most likely to be the meeting point of an ionic solid? A. B. C. D.

54. Chloride ion reacts with silver ions according to following. Ag+ + Cl- -----> AgCl It is found 10 cm3 of 0.05 M solution of chloride of a metal X needed 10 cm3 of a 0.1M Silver nitrate solution for complete reaction which is the formula of the chloride? A. X2Cl B. XCl C. XCl2 D. XCl3

-182℃ -78°C 114°C 943°C

53. What is the conc) of I2 molecule in a solution containing 2.54g of iodine in 250 cm3 of solution? A. 0.01 M B. 0.02 M C. 0.04 M D. 0.08 M

57. Which of the following will balance the given equation? xFe + yCl2 → zFeCl3 x y z A. 1 2 3 B. 2 2 2 C. 2 3 2 D. 3 3 2 E. 3 3 3 58 How many moles of ions are there in 0.5 mole of aqueous sulphuric acid solution? A. 0.5 mole B. 1 mole

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C. 1.5 mole D. 2 moles E. 5 moles

63. What is the morality of a KF (aq) solution containing 116 grams of KF in 1.00 liter of solution? A. 1.00 M B. 2.00 M C. 3.00 M D. 4.00 M

59. What is the pH of a 0.00001 molar HCI solution? A. 1 B. 9 C. 5 D. 4 60. When HCI (aq) is exactly neutralized by NaOH (aq), the hydrogen ion concentration in the resulting mixture is: A. Always less than the concentration of the hydroxide ions. B. Always greater than the concentration of the hydroxide ions. C. Always equal than the concentration of the hydroxide ions. D. Sometimes greater and sometimes less than the concentration of the hydroxide ions. 61. A student wishes to prepare approximately 100 millimeters of an aqueous solution of 6M HCI using 12 M HCI. Which procedure is correct? A. Adding 50 ml of 12 M HCl to 50 ml of water while stirring the mixture steadily. B. Adding 50 ml of 12 M HCI to 50 ml of water and then stirring the mixture steadily. C. Adding 50 ml of water to 50 ml of 12 M HCl while stirring the mixture steadily. D. Adding 50 ml of water to 50 ml of 12 M HCl and then stirring the mixture steadily. 62. Which solution is the most concentrated? A. 1 mole of solute dissolved in 1 liter of solution? B. 2 moles of solute dissolved in 3 liters of solution? C. 6 moles of solute dissolved in 4 liters of solution? D. 4 moles of solute dissolved in 8 liters of solution?

64. Which procedure will increase the solubility of KCI in water? A. Stirring the solute and solvent mixture B. Increasing the surface area of the solute. C. Raising the temperature of the solvent D. Increasing the pressure on the surface of the solvent 65. A battery consists of which type of cells? A. Electrolytic B. Electrochemical C. Electroplating D. Electromagnetic 66. Given the reaction ZnO + X +heat → Zn + XO Which element, represented by X, is used industrially to reduce the ZnO to Zn? A. Cu B. C C. SN D. Pb 67. Given the lead-acid battery reaction: 𝐃𝐢𝐬𝐜𝐡𝐚𝐫𝐠𝐞

Pb + PbO2 + H2SO4 𝐜𝐡𝐚𝐫𝐠𝐞−− > 2PbSO4 + 2H2O Which species is oxidized during battery discharge? A. Pb B. PbO2 C. SO42D. 2H2O 68. Which substance functions as the electrolyte in an automobile battery? A. PbO2 B. PbSO4 C. H2SO4

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D. H2O 69. Given the reaction for the nickel-cadmium battery: 2NiOH + Cd + 2H2O →2Ni (OH)2 + Cd(OH)2 What species is oxidized during the discharge of the battery? A. PbO2 B. PbSO4 C. Cd D. Cd

C. The oxidation half-reaction occurs after the reduction-half reaction. D. The oxidation half-reaction occurs spontaneously but the reduction halfreaction does not 74. Which quantities are conserved in all oxidation-reduction reactions? A. Charge only B. Mass only C. Both charge and mass D. Neither charge or mass

70. Given the redox reaction: 75. Given the balanced equation: 2Al(s) + 6H+ (aq) ----> 2Al3+ (aq) +3H2 When 2 moles of AI(S) completely react, what is the total number of moles of electrons transferred from Al(s) to H+ (aq)? A. 5 B. 6 C. 3 D. 4

2I- (aq) + Br2 (I)→2Br (aq) + I2 (s) What occurs during this reaction? A. The I ion is oxidized, and its oxidation number increases B. The l ion is oxidized, and its oxidation number decreases. C. The l ion is reduced, and its oxidation number increases D. The l' ion is reduced, and its oxidation number decreases.

76. Which statement best describes how a salt bridge maintains electrical neutrality in the half cells of an electrochemical cell? A. It prevents the migration of electrons B. It permits the migration of ions C. It permits the two solutions to mix completely D. It prevents the reaction from occurring spontaneously

71. Which half-reaction correctly represents reduction? A. Cr3 + 3e- → Cr (s) B. Cr3 → Cr (s) + 3eC. Cr (s) → Cr3+ + 3eD. Cr (s) + 3e- →Cr3+ 72. What is the oxidation number of carbon in NaHCO3? A. +5 B. +2 C. -4 D. +4 73. Which statement correctly describes a redox reaction? A. The oxidation half-reaction and the reduction-half reaction occur simultaneously B. The oxidation half-reaction occurs before the reduction-half reaction

77. In what kind of cell are the redox reactions made to occur by an externally applied electrical current? A. Galvanic cell B. Chemical cell C. Electrochemical cell D. Electrolytic cell 78. Buffer action can be explained by: A. Common ion effect B. Law of mass action

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C. Le-Chatliers Principle D. All of the above 79. Ionization of weak acid is expressed in term of following constant: A. Kw B. Kn C. Ka D. Kb 80. Unit of Kw are: A. mole/dm3 B. mole2/dm3 C. mole2 /dm6 D. mole/dm6 81. A buffer solution can be prepared by mixing: A. Weak acid and its salt with strong base B. Strong acid and its salt with weak base C. Weak base and its salt with strong acid D. Strong base and its salt with weak acid 82. Which of the following is a pair of partially miscible liquids? A. Ethyl Alcohol-water B. CCl4- water C. Phenol-water D. Methyl alcohol-benzene 83. 5 mole of H2O contain _____ no. of OH- ions. A. 6.02 x 1023 ions B. 3.10 x 1023 ions C. 6.02 x 1024 ions D. 3.10 x 1024 ions 84. Which one of the following compounds in a 1 mol/dm3 solution has the lowest ph value? A. Ammonia B. Hydrochloric Acid C. Ethanoic Acid D. Sodium Hydroxide E. Acetic acid 85. Five liters of 0.5 M HNO3 solution contains A. 2.5 moles

B. C. D. E.

3.0 moles 3.5 moles 40 moles 1.5 moles

86. The weight of solute present in 100 parts by weight of solution is called: A. Weight percentage B. Percentage Solution C. Percentage Solute D. Percentage Solvent E. None of the above 87. Which of the following acids is not strong? A. HC B. HBr C. HNO3 D. H3PO4 89. Which of the following can be considered as a colligative property? A. Elevation of boiling point B. Depression in freezing point C. Both of them D. None of the above 90. What is the pH of 0.001 M HCI? A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 0 91. Which solution is the most concentrated? A. 1 mole of solute dissolved in 1 liter of solution B. 2 moles of solute dissolved in 3 liters of solution C. 6moles or solute dissolved in 4 liters of solution D. 4 moles of solute dissolved in 8 liters of solution 92. What is the oxidation number of carbon in NaHCO3? A. +6

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B. +2 C. - 4 D. +4

O ∥ B. H-C-OH

93. If the NaCI produced in the equation: FeCl3 + NaOH → Fe(OH)3 + NaCl Was dissolved in water to make a liter of solution, the molarity would be: A. 0.1M B. 3M C. 8M D. 0.5M E. 1.5M

C. HCL D. Ether 98. What is the PH of 0.001 MHCL? A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 1.5

94- The range of pH below ____ and above ____ of soil represents its sterility. A. 5... 10 B. 10... 5 C. 3... 10 D. 10...3 E. 5... 3 95. If NaCI produced in the equation: FeCl3 + NaOH → Fe(OH)3 + NaCl Was dissolved in water to make a liter of solution, the molarity would be A. 0.1M B. 3MM C. 8M D. 0.5M E. 1.5M

99. In voltaic cell _____ reaction occurs. A. Spontaneous B. Both "a" and "b" C. None. Spontaneous D. None of above 100. Given 5.00 ml of 14.8 M NH3. What will be the final volume diluted with water to give 1.00 M NH3. A. 74.0 ml B. 80 ml C. 79.23 ml D. 90 ml 101. Molarity of 10 gm of NaOH dissolved in 1 dm3 of solution. A. 2M B. 0.25M C. 10M D. 20M

96. Oxidation number of Nitrogen in HNO3 is: A. +4 B. +2 C. +6 D. +5 E. +7 97. Which one of the following dissociate more readily? O ∥ A. CH2Cl-C-OH

102. Which of the following pair of partially miscible liquid? A. C2 Hs OH ------ Water B. Phenol ------ water C. CCl4 ------ Water D. CH3 ------- OH and CH 103. The number of moles of solute dissolved per liter of solution is called: A. Normality

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B. Molality C. Molarity D. Percentage composition E. Mole fraction

D. Pink

104. The oxidation number of all the elements in Free State is A. 1 B. 3 C. 0 D. -1 E. -3 105. In the following reaction: 3Br2 + 6CO3-2 + 3H2O → 5Br-1 + BrO3-1 + 6HCO3-1 A. bromine is educed and water is oxidized B. bromine is both reduced and oxidized C. bromine is oxidized and carbonate is reduced D. bromine is neither reduced nor oxidized

111. Common ion effect is useful application in: A. Qualitative salt analysis B. Quantitative salt analysis C. Both A and B D. None of the above 112. Which one of the following has the lowest % ionic character? A. CCI4 B. BCI3 С. ВеCl2 D. LiCl E. HCI

106. Which is most basic in character? A. RbOH B. KOH C. LiOH D. NaOH 107. The solubility product for BaSO4 at 18-25°c is: A. 1.0x10-10 mole2 dm-6 B. 8.7x10-36 mole2 dm-6 C. 1.8x10-21 mole2 dm-6 D. 8.4 x10-28 mole2 dm-6 E. 3.5x10-52 mole2 dm-6 108. CH3Cl + CI2 → CH2Cl2 + HCI is an example of: A. Oxidation reaction B. Addition reaction C. Substitution reaction D. Auto-Oxidation reaction E. Reduction reaction 109. The color of methyl orange in base is: A. Red B. Yellow C. Orange

110. G.N. Lewis described which one of the following bonds? A. Ionic bond B. Covalent bond C. Co-ordinate covalent bond D. All of the above

113. Consider the following reaction N2 (g) + O2 (g) <--> 2NO (g) Kc =0.1 at 2000°C if original concentrations of N2 and O2 were 0.1M each. Calculate the concentrations of NO at equilibrium. A. 0.028 M B. 0.0012 M C. 0.18 M D. 0.0018 M E. 0.002 M 114. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired d electrons? A. Mg2+ B. Ti3+ C. V3+ D. Fe2+ 115. Which of the following ion will show maximum hydration?

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A. Mg+2 B. Na+1 C. AI+3 D. Ca 2+

4. In general rate of reactions can be increased by all the factors except A. Increasing the temperature B. Increasing the concentration of reactants C. Increasing the activation energy D. using catalyst

116. Aqua regia can dissolve noble metal due to the formation of A. Nitrous acid B. Nitric oxide C. Nitrosyl chloride D. Nascent nitrogen

6. Which of the following can give order of a reaction? A. balanced chemical equation B. experimental into law C. magnitude of specific reaction rate D. nature of reactants

105

117. 1.8 x is the dissociation constant of: A. Formic acid B. Acetic acid C. Chloroacetic acid D. Hydrocyanic acid

UNIT NO. (08) 1. The term -

𝒅𝒙 𝒅𝒕

in the rate expression refers to

the: A. Decrease in concentration of the reactant B. Instantaneous rate of the reaction C. Increase in concentration of the reactant D. Increase in solubility of the reactants 2. The rate law expression for the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 A. can be represented by rate =

[𝑁𝐻3 ]2 [𝑁2 ][𝐻2 ]3

B. can be represented by rate =k[NH3] C. can be represented by rate = D. can be represented by rate =

𝑘[𝑁𝐻3 ]2 [𝑁2 ][𝐻2 ]3 𝑘[𝑁𝐻3 ]2 [𝑁2 ]

E. cannot be determined from the information given 3. Radioactive decay is reaction of A. Zero order B. First order C. Second order D. Third order

5. When a reaction proceeds in a sequence of steps, the overall rate is determined by A. slowest step B. fastest step C. order of different steps D. molecularity of the steps

7. for the reaction 2NO + O2→2NO2 The order of the reaction is. A. Fractional order B. First order C. Second order D. Third order E. zero order 8. If the reaction P+Q→R+S is described as being of zero order with respect to P, it means that: A. P is a catalyst in this reaction B. No P molecules possesses sufficient energy to react C. the concentration of P does not change during the reaction. D. The rata of reaction is independent of the concentration of P E. The rate of reaction is proportional to the concentration of Q 9. Sum of all the exponents of molar concentration of the reactant present in the rate equation is known as _______. A. molecularity B. order of reaction C. rate of reactions D. gradient

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E. slope

15. A substance which does not lower energy of activation but combines with reactant molecule is called:A. Catalyst B. Negative catalyst. C. Positive catalyst D. None

10. Which of the following is an element? A. Tap water B. Graphite C. Sea water D. Brass E. Sulphuric acid 11. Which of the following is most likely to increase the rate of a reaction? A. Decreasing the temperature B. Decreasing the surface area of reactant C. Reducing the activation energy D. Decreasing the concentration of the reactant in the reaction' vessel E. Negative catalysts 12. Which of the following reaction is the third order reaction? A. B. C. D. E.

1

N2O5 --> 2NO2 + O2 2 2NO + O2 ---> 2NO2 2CH3CHO ----> 2CH4 + 2CO 2NH3 ---> N2 + 3H2 Both B and D

13. The rate equation for a reaction is given: rate =k [A] [B]. If concentration units are mol dm-3, what are the possible units of the rate constant, k? A. mol dm-3 s-1 B. mol dm3 s-1 C. mol s-2 dm3 s-1 D. mol-1 s-1 E. s-1 14. What will be the effect on the rate of reaction of chemical reaction? 2NO (g) + O2 (g) →2NO2, if concentration of NO is halved? A. 4 times B. 1/4 times C. 2 times D. 1/2 times E. No effect

16. The rate at unity 1mol/1dm3. 1sec than K is known as: A. Rate of reaction B. Specific rate constant C. Rate constant D. Velocity of reaction 17. 2NO + O2→ 2NO2 whereas dx/dt = k[NO]2[O2] than reaction is: A. 1st order reaction B. 2nd order reaction C. 3rd order reaction D. 0 order reaction 18. Which of the following will increase the rate of a reaction: A. Lowering the temp B. Increasing volume C. Reducing activation energy D. Increasing activation energy 19. H2 + Br → 2HBr The rate expression is : Rate =K [H2] [Br]1/2, the order of the reaction is: A. 2 B. 1.5 C. 1 D. Zero 20. A catalyst can't initiate the reaction but speeds up a reaction which is possible: a) Physically b) Thermodynamically c) Chemically d) In laboratory 21. Rate of reaction depends upon all of the following except: a) Concentration b) Pressure

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C. Mole (dm3)-2 sec-1 D. Mole (dm3)-2 sec -2 E. Mole (dm3)-1 sec-2

c) Temperature d) Molecularity 22. How much atoms are present in 60 grams of CuS04-5H2O. (Cu63.5, S=32, O = 16, H=1) a) 6 x 1023 atoms b) 0.05 x 1023 atoms c) 1.9 x 1023 atoms d) 30 x 1023 atoms 23. The effect of temperature on the rate of reaction is given by: a) Arrhenius equation b) Newton's equation c) Change in degree of hydration d) All of the above e) Both A and B 24. The effect of temperature on the rate of reaction is given by: a) Arrhenius equation b) Newton's equation c) Change in degree of hydration d) All of the above e) Both A and B 25. The sum of exponents of the molar concentration of the reactants, is equal to A. molecularity B. polarity C. activation energy D. rate of reaction E. order of reaction

28. Sum of all the exponents of molar concentration of the reactant present in the rate equation is known as _____ A. molecularity B. order of reaction C. rate of reaction D. gradient E. slope 29. Rate = K [N2O5] has _____ of reaction. A. First order B. Pseudo first order C. Second order D. Third order E. Pseudo order 30. For a reaction 2A + B ⇌ C + D the active mass of B is kept constant and that of A is tripled. It is observed that the rate of A. decreases three times B. decreases nine times C. increases six times D. increases nine times 31. Ketone reacts with Grignard's reagent to form ______ in Acidic media. A. Tertiary Alcohol B. Isopropyl Alcohol C. Primary Alcohol D. Carboxylic Acid

26. A certain chemical reaction follows the following rate law: Rate K [A] [B]2 The order of reaction is: A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

2NO (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO2 (g) Rate K[NO]2 [O2] 32. What will be the effect on Rate constant, if concentration of NO is halved? A. 1/4 times B. Doubled C. Unchanged D. Increase 4 times

27. The unit of rate of reaction is: A. Mole (dm3) sec B. Mole (dm3)-1 sec-1

33. In the end of periodic table ______ are found. A. s block element B. p block element PAGE N0: 60

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C. d block element D. Noble gases 34. The change in concentration of reactant or product per unit time is called: A. Rate constant B. Rate of reaction C. Rate equation D. Rate law E. Both A & D 𝒅𝒙

35. The term + 𝒅𝒕 in the rate expression refers to the: A. Decrease in concentration of the reactant x B. Instantaneous rate of the reaction C. Increase in concentration of the reactant x D. Increase in solubility of the reactants

UNIT NO. (09) 1. A. B. C.

Except sucrose all oligosaccharides are :Reducing Non reducing None

UNIT NO. (10) 1. Which one is correct:A. Glass is not a true solid b/c molecules are not arranged in definite manner B. Glass is a true solid b/c molecules are not arranged in a definite manner

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