The Occupied Territories
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The Occupied Territories - The Peace FAQ
The Occupied Territories Frequently Asked Questions: ●
● ●
What do people mean when they refer to 'The Occupied Territories' of the Middle East? Are these territories really 'occuppied'? How did the phrase 'Occupied Territories' come into popular usage?
What do people mean when they refer to 'The Occupied Territories' of the Middle East? The 'Occupied Territories' refers to land lost by Israel's Arabneighbors, and gained by Israel, in the Six-Day Warof 1967. They include Judaea and Samaria(previously occupied by Jordan, and now known as the 'West Bank'), the Golan Heights(previously occupied by Syria), and the Gaza Strip (previously occupied by Egypt). Interestingly, while these territories were conqueredby Jordan, Syriaand Egyptin 1948to the time they were gained by Israel, the territories were not refered to as 'occupied' by the international community. Furthermore, the people living in those territories before 1967were not called 'Palestinians' as they are today; they were called Jordaniansand Egyptians. How things change... - The Society for Rational Peace
Are these territories really 'occuppied'? ●
"Yesha [the "West Bank"] is not an 'occupied Arab land' but in fact an area of the Mandate which are to be dealt with in accordance with the terms of the Mandate." [That means that according to International law all Jewish settlements are legal as they are built according to Mandate's provision of "encouraging the close
http://www.peacefaq.com/occupied.html (1 of 2)8/9/2007 10:19:44 AM
The Occupied Territories - The Peace FAQ
settlement in these areas by the Jews."] "The Mandate does not provide for a separate Arab state to be created in Yesha." [Israel has much more right to Yesha than anybody else, according to International law, since Jordan, which captured Yesha in 1948 in an aggressive war against the young Jewish state, officially renounced all claims to Judea and Samaria in 1988]. - Australian lawyer David Singer, in his article "A Mandate for Peace," dedicated to the 75th anniversary of the promulgation by the League of Nations of the Mandate for Palestine, ●
In November of 1947, UN General Assembly resolution 181 was issued, recommending a "Plan of Partition" of Palestine. The Arabs rejected the resolution outright and Azzam Pasha, secretarygeneral of the Arab League, proclaimed that "the partition line shall be nothing but a line of fire and blood." The terrorist operations that began against Jewish targets on the day after the UN vote escalated into a full scale aggressive war against the newborn state. It was Jordan, and not Israel, that occupied the land of Judea and Samaria as a result of this war. Like the Romans, who changed the name Eretz Israel to Palestine in order to obliterate the name of the Jewish state from the memory of mankind, the Jordanians introduced the term "West Bank" trying to convince the world that they had always owned both banks of the Jordan river. When Israel liberated Judea and Samaria in 1967 justice was restored -- the only lawful owner of the land regained possession of it. It is ridiculous to say that Judea, Samaria and Gaza are "occupied territories" as these areas are, in fact, areas of the Mandate, where the Jews were and are encouraged to settle.
How did the phrase 'Occupied Territories' come into popular usage? ●
Legal scholars have debated for years whether the Fourth Geneva Convention even applies to the West Bank and Gaza. In fact, Arab diplomats have boasted that one of their key objectives immediately after the Six-Day War was to make the term "occupied territories" the standard nomenclature to describe these lands...
http://www.peacefaq.com/occupied.html (2 of 2)8/9/2007 10:19:44 AM
The Occupied Territories Frequently Asked Questions: ●
● ●
What do people mean when they refer to 'The Occupied Territories' of the Middle East? Are these territories really 'occuppied'? How did the phrase 'Occupied Territories' come into popular usage?
What do people mean when they refer to 'The Occupied Territories' of the Middle East? The 'Occupied Territories' refers to land lost by Israel's Arabneighbors, and gained by Israel, in the Six-Day Warof 1967. They include Judaea and Samaria(previously occupied by Jordan, and now known as the 'West Bank'), the Golan Heights(previously occupied by Syria), and the Gaza Strip (previously occupied by Egypt). Interestingly, while these territories were conqueredby Jordan, Syriaand Egyptin 1948to the time they were gained by Israel, the territories were not refered to as 'occupied' by the international community. Furthermore, the people living in those territories before 1967were not called 'Palestinians' as they are today; they were called Jordaniansand Egyptians. How things change... - The Society for Rational Peace
Are these territories really 'occuppied'? ●
"Yesha [the "West Bank"] is not an 'occupied Arab land' but in fact an area of the Mandate which are to be dealt with in accordance with the terms of the Mandate." [That means that according to International law all Jewish settlements are legal as they are built according to Mandate's provision of "encouraging the close
http://www.peacefaq.com/occupied.html (1 of 2)8/9/2007 10:19:44 AM
The Occupied Territories - The Peace FAQ
settlement in these areas by the Jews."] "The Mandate does not provide for a separate Arab state to be created in Yesha." [Israel has much more right to Yesha than anybody else, according to International law, since Jordan, which captured Yesha in 1948 in an aggressive war against the young Jewish state, officially renounced all claims to Judea and Samaria in 1988]. - Australian lawyer David Singer, in his article "A Mandate for Peace," dedicated to the 75th anniversary of the promulgation by the League of Nations of the Mandate for Palestine, ●
In November of 1947, UN General Assembly resolution 181 was issued, recommending a "Plan of Partition" of Palestine. The Arabs rejected the resolution outright and Azzam Pasha, secretarygeneral of the Arab League, proclaimed that "the partition line shall be nothing but a line of fire and blood." The terrorist operations that began against Jewish targets on the day after the UN vote escalated into a full scale aggressive war against the newborn state. It was Jordan, and not Israel, that occupied the land of Judea and Samaria as a result of this war. Like the Romans, who changed the name Eretz Israel to Palestine in order to obliterate the name of the Jewish state from the memory of mankind, the Jordanians introduced the term "West Bank" trying to convince the world that they had always owned both banks of the Jordan river. When Israel liberated Judea and Samaria in 1967 justice was restored -- the only lawful owner of the land regained possession of it. It is ridiculous to say that Judea, Samaria and Gaza are "occupied territories" as these areas are, in fact, areas of the Mandate, where the Jews were and are encouraged to settle.
How did the phrase 'Occupied Territories' come into popular usage? ●
Legal scholars have debated for years whether the Fourth Geneva Convention even applies to the West Bank and Gaza. In fact, Arab diplomats have boasted that one of their key objectives immediately after the Six-Day War was to make the term "occupied territories" the standard nomenclature to describe these lands...
http://www.peacefaq.com/occupied.html (2 of 2)8/9/2007 10:19:44 AM
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