Syntax Ps4
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Malaree Baraniuk #0849952 Syntax 3I03 Problem Set #4 1. Draw the trees with the correct transformations a) I have always loved peanut butter CP C’ C
TP Ø T [+past]
D Ø
T’ VP DP
V’
D’ NP
V VP have AdvP
N’
Adv’
N I
Adv always
V’
V love [+ed]
DP D’ D Ø
NP N’
AdjP
N but
ter Adj’ Adj peanut
b) I do not love peanut butter
CP C’ C
TP Ø T’ T NegP +DO Neg’
VP
Neg not
DP
V’ DP
D’ V D Ø
NP
D’ love D
NP N’
I
N’ N AdjP N butter Adj’ Adj peanut
c) Do you like peanut butter? CP
Ø
C’ C +DO
TP Ø [+Q]
T Ø
T’ VP DP
V’
D’
V
DP like
D Ø
NP
D’
N’
D Ø
NP
AdjP
N butter
N you
N’
Adj’ Adj peanut
d) Have you always hated peanut butter? CP C’
C TPØ [+Q] T [+ have] DP
T’ VP V’
D’ D Ø
V
VP have ed AdvP V’
NP N’ N you
Adv’ V DP hate [+ed] Adv D’ always D NP Ø N’ AdjP
N butter
Adj’ Adj peanu t
e) Are you always so moody? CP C’
[ +Q ] Ø
C
TP
T’ T are
VP [2sing] D’
D Ø
DP V be
V’ VP
NP
AdvP V’
N’
Adv’
N you
Adv
AdjP
V moody
Adj’ always Adj so
1. Part 1: How does the data from American English support the idea that the auxiliary have ends up in T, but the possessive have is a main verb, and stays downstairs? (i.e. has affix lowering applied?) Part 2: Does the possessive verb have in this dialect undergo V-to-T movement? How can you tell?
Part 1: V-to-T and T-to-C movement interact for a verb to be able to move to C, but it first must be able to move to T. Only English auxiliaries can do this; which explains why only English auxiliaries undergo sub-aux inversion. The examples show that the auxiliary have can move from the V node to the T node as in the example: I have had a horrible day. If we were to treat the main verb had as an auxiliary, it wouldn’t make sense to raise the verb because we need to lower the past tense affix. If we raised the main verb we would get: Had I have a horrible day. This causes problems because we know affix hopping and verb raising are in complimentary distribution, and if we introduce these two together we get problems. This is why the main verb needs to stay downstairs; if it doesn’t we cannot apply affix hopping/ lowering. Part 2: Yes, the possessive have undergoes V-to-T movement in this dialect. This is because the [+Q] parameter is null and requires something to move to C to give the complementizer a phonological content. Since this dialect is not using DO Insertion we must use the possessive have to fill in the spot. If we used DO insertion the question would be: “Do you have a pencil?” where have remains as the main verb. Instead, the target question is “Have you a pencil?” and therefore we must treat have as an auxiliary which raises to the C place holder. The possessive verb is originally located as the main verb, but it must undergo V-to-T and then T-to-C movement in order to form the question and fulfill the [+Q] parameter requirements.
TP Ø T [+past]
D Ø
T’ VP DP
V’
D’ NP
V VP have AdvP
N’
Adv’
N I
Adv always
V’
V love [+ed]
DP D’ D Ø
NP N’
AdjP
N but
ter Adj’ Adj peanut
b) I do not love peanut butter
CP C’ C
TP Ø T’ T NegP +DO Neg’
VP
Neg not
DP
V’ DP
D’ V D Ø
NP
D’ love D
NP N’
I
N’ N AdjP N butter Adj’ Adj peanut
c) Do you like peanut butter? CP
Ø
C’ C +DO
TP Ø [+Q]
T’ VP DP
V’
D’
V
DP like
D Ø
NP
D’
N’
D Ø
NP
AdjP
N butter
N you
N’
Adj’ Adj peanut
d) Have you always hated peanut butter? CP C’
C TP
T’ VP V’
D’ D Ø
V
VP have ed AdvP V’
NP N’ N you
Adv’ V DP hate [+ed] Adv D’ always D NP Ø N’ AdjP
N butter
Adj’ Adj peanu t
e) Are you always so moody? CP C’
C
TP
T’ T are
VP [2sing] D’
D Ø
DP V be
V’ VP
NP
AdvP V’
N’
Adv’
N you
Adv
AdjP
V moody
Adj’ always Adj so
1. Part 1: How does the data from American English support the idea that the auxiliary have ends up in T, but the possessive have is a main verb, and stays downstairs? (i.e. has affix lowering applied?) Part 2: Does the possessive verb have in this dialect undergo V-to-T movement? How can you tell?
Part 1: V-to-T and T-to-C movement interact for a verb to be able to move to C, but it first must be able to move to T. Only English auxiliaries can do this; which explains why only English auxiliaries undergo sub-aux inversion. The examples show that the auxiliary have can move from the V node to the T node as in the example: I have had a horrible day. If we were to treat the main verb had as an auxiliary, it wouldn’t make sense to raise the verb because we need to lower the past tense affix. If we raised the main verb we would get: Had I have a horrible day. This causes problems because we know affix hopping and verb raising are in complimentary distribution, and if we introduce these two together we get problems. This is why the main verb needs to stay downstairs; if it doesn’t we cannot apply affix hopping/ lowering. Part 2: Yes, the possessive have undergoes V-to-T movement in this dialect. This is because the [+Q] parameter is null and requires something to move to C to give the complementizer a phonological content. Since this dialect is not using DO Insertion we must use the possessive have to fill in the spot. If we used DO insertion the question would be: “Do you have a pencil?” where have remains as the main verb. Instead, the target question is “Have you a pencil?” and therefore we must treat have as an auxiliary which raises to the C place holder. The possessive verb is originally located as the main verb, but it must undergo V-to-T and then T-to-C movement in order to form the question and fulfill the [+Q] parameter requirements.
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