Reading Compilation By Susi Fauziah

READING Reading is fun! Reading is always fun because you can get to know many interesting things. As in the TOEFL test, you can read about natural science, social science, literature, language etc. All of those subjects can expand your knowledge and make you smarter. However, usually you need much time to read. So, by learning reading strategies, you will learn how to read many passages in a short time and answer the following questions correctly. And, hopefully, you can get a high score in the reading section. On this book, you will learn not only about reading strategies but also vocabulary, games and exercises that will help you to improve your reading comprehension. Now, let’s learn to read TOEFL passages by applying the following reading strategies! Have Fun!

First Strategy : Let’s learn how to answer main idea questions correctly!

Questions that often appear in the TOEFL test related with the main point of the passage. Here are examples of the questions: What is the topic of the passage? What is the subject of the passage? 1 | Page

What is the main idea of the passage? What is the author’s main point in the passage? With what is the author primarily concerned? Which of the following would be the best title? The questions and the bolded words maybe different but basically all of them ask about the main thing discussed in the passage. Topic, subject, things that the author is primarily concerned, and title should be answered in form of phrases. While, main idea and author’s main point should be answered in form of sentence (S + V). Of course, if you read the whole passage, you will be able to answer the question. However, there’s an easy way to answer it in short time by using the following strategy!

The strategy to answer main idea questions correctly: Read the first whole paragraph. Then, read each sentence of next paragraph(s)!

Example: The passage: Hurricanes generally occur in the North Atlantic from May through November, with the peak of the hurricane season in September; only rarely will they occur from December through April in that part of the ocean. The main reason for the occurence of hurricanes during this period is that the temperature on the water’s surface is at its warmest and the humidity of air is at its highest.

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Of the tropical storms that occur each year in the North Atlantic, only about five, on the average, are powerful enough to be called hurricanes. To be classified as a hurricane, a tropical storm must have winds reaching speeds of at least 117 kilometres per hour, but the winds are often much stronger than that; the winds of intense hurricanes can easily surpass 240 kilometers per hour. The question: The passage mainly discusses (A) how many hurricanes occur each year (B) the strength of hurricanes (C) the weather in the North Atlantic (D) hurricanes in one part of the world From the first paragraph, we know that the first paragraph talks about hurricanes that happen in the North Atlantic from May through November. And, the first sentence of the next paragraph tells us about other storms that also happen in North Atlantic and can be classified as hurricanes. So, the correct answer is (D). Ok! Now you have known about the tricks. So, let’s try to practice and do the following exercises! Don’t forget that your teacher will turn on the alarm to make sure that you can do the exercises based on the estimated time! Exercise 1 Fill in the following hangman games by finding the topics of the following passages! Passages 1 Australia is the world’s smallest continent, but it is one of the most fascinating. Australia has rainforest, deserts, and mountains. Seventy percent of the people in Australia live in cities near the costs. The middle of the country is nearly deserted. Australia has 175 million sheep, about a sixth of the world’s total. It produces a third of the world’s wool. It exports ninety- seven percent of its wool to Japan, Europe, and China.

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Australia also has about 24 million cattle. It exports beef to more than 100 countries.Two million tourists visit this beautiful country each year. Topic: A _ c _

_

_

_

_ _

_ _ _ _ _

_

as

an

i _

_ _

_

_

_ _ _ _

_

Passages 2 Manic depression is another psychiatric illness that mainly affects mood. A patient suffering from this disease will alternate between periods of manic excitement and extreme depression, with or without relatively normal periods in between. The changes in mood suffered by a manic-depressive patient go far beyond the day-to-day mood changes experienced by the general population. In the period of manic excitement, the mood elevation can become so intense that it can result in extended insomnia, extreme irritability, and heightened aggressiveness. In the period of depression, which may last for several weeks or months, a patient experiencces feelings of general fatigue, uselessness, hopelessness and, in serious cases, may contemplate suicide. Topic: The M_ _ _

C_ _ _ _ _ _ of

M_ _ _ _

D_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _

Passages 3 IQ or Intelligent quotient, is defined as the ratio of a patron’s mental age to chronological age, with the ratio multiplied by 100 to remove the decimal. Chronological age is easily determined; mental age is generally measured by some kind of standard test and is not so simple to define. In theory, a standardized IQ test is set up to measure an individual’s ability to perform intellectual operations such as reasoning and problem solving. These intellectual operations are considered to represent intelligence. In practice, it has been impossible to arrive at consensus as to which types of intellectual operations demonstrate intelligence. Furthermore, it has been impossible to devise a test without cultural bias, which is to say that any IQ tests so far proposed have been shown to reflect the culture of the test makers. Test takers from that culture would, it follows, score higher on such a test than test takers from a different culture with equal intelligence. Topic: The D_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ of I_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _

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Passages 4 Another program instrumental in the popularization of science was Cosmos. This series, broadcast on public television, dealt with topics and issues from varied fields of science. The principal writer and narrator of the program was Carl Sagan, a noted astronomer and Pulitzer Prize winning author. Topic: The

S_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _

T_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _

P_ _ _ _ _ _

Exercise 2 Apply the strategy on the following passages. Then choose the best answers to the questions that follow. Answer each question in one minute time. Pay attention to the time! Passage One One identifying characteristic of minerals is their relative hardness, which can be determined by scratching one mineral with another. In this type of test, a harder mineral can scratch a softer one, but a softer mineral is unable to scratch the harder one. The Mohs’ hardness scale is used to rank minerals according to hardness. Ten minerals are listed in this scale, ranging from tale with a hardness of 1 to diamond with a hardness of 10. On this scale, quartz (number 7) is harder than feldspar (number 6) and is therefore able to scratch it; however, feldspar is unable to make a mark on quartz. 1. Which of the following best states the subject of this passage? (A) The hardness of diamonds (B) Identifying minerals by means of a scratch test (C) Feldspar on the Mohs’ scale (D) Recognizing minerals in their natural state

2. The main idea of this passage is that

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(A) the hardness of a mineral can be determined by its ability to make a mark on the other minerals (B) diamonds, with a hardness of 10 on the Mohs’ scale, can scratch other minerals. (C) a softer mineral cannot be scratched by a harder mineral (D) tale is the first mineral listed on the Mohs’ scale Passage two Space shuttle astronauts, because they spend only about a week in space, undergo minimal wasting of bone and muscle. But when longer stays in microgravity or zero gravity are contemplated, as in a space station or a two-year roundtrip voyage to Mars, these problems are of particular concern because they could become acute. Fortunately, studies show that muscle atrophy can be kept largely at bay with appropriate exercise. Unfortunately, bone loss caused by reduced gravity cannot be solved. 3. What is the main point of this paragraph? a. The U.S. government is currently planning a voyage to Mars. b. Muscle atrophy and bone loss are major problems for astronauts in extended space flight. c. Astronauts confront many dangers in space flight. d. Short stays in space cause little bone and muscle damage in humans. Passage three Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reasons for roosting communally are not always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is important for birds to keep warm at night and conserve precious food reserves. The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as “information centers.” During the day, parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they return in the evening some will have fed well, but others may have found little to eat. 4. What does the passage mainly discuss? 6 | Page

(A) How birds find and store food (B) How birds maintain body heat in the winter (C) Why birds need to establish territory (D) Why some species of birds nest together Passage four The ability of falling cats to right themselves in midair and land on their feet has been a source of wonder for ages. Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for physicists it bordered on the miraculous. Newton's laws of motion assume that the total amount of spin of a body cannot change unless an external torque speeds it up or slows it down. If a cat has no spin when it is released and experiences no external torque, it ought not to be able to twist around as it falls. In the speed of its execution, the righting of a tumbling cat resembles a magician's trick. The gyrations of the cat in midair are too fast for the human eye to follow, so the process is obscured. Either the eye must be speeded up, or the cat's fall slowed down for the phenomenon to be observed. 5. What does the passage mainly discuss? (A) The explanation of an interesting phenomenon (B) Miracles in modern science (C) Procedures in scientific investigation (D) The differences between biology and physics

∗ Fun Activity

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Game : Tic Tac Toe Divide the class into two groups. One group has a symbol of “O” and the other gets a symbol of “X”. The teacher draws three boxes down and three boxes across, then gives a number in each box. 1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

The teacher flips a coin to decide which group goes first, then the group mentions on number of the boxes. The teacher writes a specific word in the box; an adjective, a noun or a verb. Each member of the group then has to make a correct sentence using the word. All of them have to make correct sentences. Whwn one member of the group fails to make a correct sentence, then a group cannot get its symbol in the box. The group that can make either a diagonal, a horizontal or a vertical line with the symbols will be the winner.

•

Vocabulary Section 1

Find the synonym for the underlined word from one of the options (a, b, c, or d) 1. It is evident that animals played a predominant role in the world of the upper Paleolithic Period. (A) hazardous (B) principal (C) minuscule (D) misunderstood 8 | Page

2. Some experts believe that the functions of the print media will be replaced by audio or visual media. (A) distribution (B) influences (C) roles (D) popularity 3. A central issue in probability is predicting the value of a future observation. (A) recording (B) interpreting (C) observing (D) foretelling 4. The modem world is inundated with competing propaganda and counterpropaganda. (A) balanced (B) sustained (C) overwhelmed (D) contaminated 5. The expansion of public services has caused concern that the civil service branches are becoming autonomous powers. (A) independent (B) advanced (C) superior (D) perilous 6. A deep rock tunnel between Washington, D.C. and Boston that employs an entirely new type of rapid conveyance is receiving serious consideration from civil planners. (A) an outlandishly (B) a comparatively (C) an intrinsically (D) a completely 9 | Page

7. Women's magazines reflect the changing view of women's role in society. (A) distort (B) show (C) accentuate (D) promote 8. Courtship is a widespread prelude to mating among modern reptiles. (A) a tedious (B) an uncontrolled (C) a common (D) an essential 9. The elimination of carbon dioxide is a necessary process in all animals. (A) rejection (B) accumulation (C) deletion (D) production 10. In contrast to traditional rhetoric, modern rhetoric has shifted its focus to the audience or reader. (A) intensified (B) narrowed (C) maintained (D) altered

Second Strategy : Answer transition questions correctly! Besides the type questions that we have discussed earlier, sometime there are questions that ask us to determine what probably came before the reading passage (in the preceding paragraph) or what probably comes after the reading passage (in the following paragraph). Of course, the topic of the preceding or following paragraph is not directly stated. So, you must draw a conclusion to determine what is probably in these paragraphs.

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This type of question is a transition question. It asks you to demonstrate that you understand that a good writing contains transitions from one paragraph to the next. A paragraph may start out with the idea of the previous paragraph as a way of linking the ideas in the two paragraphs. A paragraph may also end with an idea that will be further developed in the following paragraph. The question used to ask the transitional paragraph is: The paragraph preceding the passage probably....................... What is most likely in the paragraph following the passage ?

In answering this type of question, you can use the following strategy!

The strategy to answer transition questions correctly: •

To answer a preceding question, read the first sentence then find the option (A or B or C or D) that is related with the subject talked in the first sentence.

•

To answer a following question, read the last sentence then find the option (A or B or C or D) that is related with the subject talked in the last sentence.

Example: The passsage: Another myth of the oceans concerns Davy Jones, who in folklore is the mean-spirited sovereign of the ocean’s depth. The name, “Jones” is thought by some etymologists to have been derived from the name “Jonah,” the Hebrew prophet who spent three days in a whale’s belly.

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According to tradition, any object that goes overboard and sinks to the bottom of the ocean is said to have gone to Davy Jones’s locker, the ocean-sized, mythical receptacle for anything that falls into the water. Needless to say, any sailor on the seas is not so eager to take a tour of Davy Jones’s locker, although it might be a rather interesting trip considering all the treasures located there. The questions: 1. The paragraph preceding this paragraph most probably discusses (A) the youth of Davy Jones (B) Davy Jones’s career as a sailor (C) a different traditional story from the sea (D) preparing to travel on the ocean

2. The topic of the paragraph following the passage most likely is (A) valuable items located at the bottom of the ocean (B) where Davy Jones is found today (C) Jonah and the whale (D) preventing objects from falling overboard The first question asks about the preceding passage. So, we have to read the first sentence of the first paragraph. The first sentence talks about myth. It can be seen from the undelined words, which are another myth. So, the correct option that is related with myth is a different traditional story from the sea (C). Since the next question asks about the following passage, we have to read the last sentence of the last paragraph. The last sentence mentions about the treasure. So, the most appropriate answer will be (A). Ok! Now, we’ll continue to the following exercises! As usual, your teacher will turn on the alarm to make sure that you can do the exercises based on the estimated time! 12 | P a g e

Exercise Passage One When a strong earthquake occurs on the ocean floor rather on land, a tremendous force is exerted on the seawater and one or more large, destructive waves called tsunamis can be formed. Tsunamis are commonly called tidal waves in the United States, but this is really an inappropriate name in that the cause of the tsunami is an underground earthquake rather than the ocean’s tides. Far from land, a tsunami can move through the wide open vastness of the ocean at a speed of 600 miles (900 kilometres) per hour and often can travel tremendous distances without losing height and strength. When a tsunami reaches shallow coastal water, it can reach a height of 100 feet (30 meters) or more and can cause tremendous flooding and damage to coastal areas. 1. The paragraph preceding the passage most probably discusses (A) tsunamis in various parts of the world (B) the negative effects of tsunamis (C) land-based earthquakes (D) the effect of tides on tsunamis

2. Which of the following is most likely the topic of the paragraph following the passage? (A) the causes of tsunamis (B) the destructive effects of tsunamis on the coast (C) the differences between tsunamis and tidal waves (D) the distances covered by tsunamis

Passage Two

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While draft laws are federal laws, marriage laws are state laws rather than federal; marriage regulations are therefore not uniform throughout the country. The legal marriage age serves as an example of this lack of conformity. In most states, both the man and the woman must be at least eighteen years old to marry without parental consent; however, the states of Nebraska and Wyoming require the couple to be at least nineteen, while the minimum age in Mississippi is twenty one. If parental permission is given, then a couple can marry at sixteen in some states, and a few states even allow marriage before the age of sixteen, though a judge’s permission, in addition to the permission of the parents, is sometimes required in this situation. Some states which allow couples to marry at such a young age are now considering doing away with such early marriages because of the numerous negative effects of these young marriages. 3. The paragraph preceding the passage most probably discusses (A) state marriage laws (B) the lack of uniformity in marriage laws (C) federal draft laws (D) the minimum legal marriage age

4. The topic of the paragraph following the passage is most likely to be (A) disadvantages of youthful marriages (B) reasons why young people decide to marry (C) the age when parental consent for marriage is required (D) a discussion of why some states allow marriages before the age of sixteen

Passage three The most conservative sect of the Mennonite church is the Old Order Amish, with 33,000 members living mainly today in the states of Pennsylvania, Ohio and Indiana. Their lifestyle reflects their belief in the doctrines of separation from the world and simplicity of 14 | P a g e

life. The Amish have steadfastly rejected the societal changes that have occured in the previous three hundred years, preferring instead to remain securely rooted in a seventeenthcentury lifestyle. They live on farms without radios, televisions, telephones, electric lights, and cars; they dress in plainly styled and colored old-fashioned clothes; and they farm their lands with horses and tools rather than modern farm equipment. They have a highly communal form of living, with barn raisings and quilting bees as commonplace activities. 5. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses (A) other, more liberal sects of Mennonites (B) where Mennonites live (C) the communal Amish lifestyle (D) the most conservative Mennonites

6. Which of the following would probably NOT be found on an Amish farm? (A) a hammer (B) a cart (C) a long dress (D) A refrigerator

7. Which of the following is most likely the topic of the paragraph following the passage? (A) The effects of the communal lifestyle on the Old Order Amish (B) How the Old Order Amish differ from the Mennonites (C) The effects of modern technology on the Old Order Amish (D) The doctrines of the Old Order Amish Passage Four

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Various other Indian tribes also lived on the Great Plains. The Sioux, a group of seven American Indian tribes, are best known for the fiercely combative posture against encroaching White civilization in the 1800s. Although they are popularly referred to as Sioux, these Indian tribes did not call themselves Sioux; the name was given to them by an enemy tribe. The seven Sioux tribes called themselves by some variation of the word “Dakota,” which means “allies” in their language. 8. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses (A) how the Sioux battled the White man (B) one of the Plain Indians tribes (C) where the Sioux lived (D) American Indian tribes on the East Coast

9. The paragraph following this passage most probably discusses (A) the American Indian tribes (B) the word Dakota which means “allies” (C) the explanation about the seven Sioux tribes (D) the White civilization in the 1800’s

10. Which of the following represents a likely reaction of the Sioux in the 1800s to the encroaching White civilization? (A) The Sioux would probably help the Whites to settle in the West (B) The Sioux would probably attack the White Settlers (C) The Sioux would probably invite the Whites to smoke a peace pipe (D) The Sioux would probably join together in hunting parties with the White settlers

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Third Strategy: Recognize the organization of ideas

Okay! Now, we move on to the next reading strategies! Just as an architect needs a blueprint when designing a building, writers must have a plan that organizes their information and ideas. Learning organizational strategies will help us identify common patterns so that we can guess at what is coming ahead. Recognizing structural techniques also helps you answer two types of questions on the TOEFL exam: supporting-detail questions (you will be able to locate specific information in a passage) and sentence-insertion questions (you will know where best to place new information in a passage). The four most common organizational patterns that writers use are: 1. chronological order (time) 2. order of importance 3. comparison and contrast 4. cause and effect Chronological order describes events in the order that they happened, will happen, or should happen. History texts, memoir, personal essays, and instructions often use this organization. Writers often provide clues in the form of transitional words or phrases to guide readers through events. Here are some common chronological transitions: first

now

Immediately

while

in the

second

then

suddenly

meanwhile

meantime

third

when

soon

later

at last

before

as soon as

during

finally

eventually

after

afterward

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Order of importance arranges ideas by rank instead of time. Writers may organize their ideas: ■ by increasing importance (least important idea→most important idea), or ■ by decreasing importance (most important idea→least important idea) Newspaper articles follow the principle of decreasing importance; they give the most important information first (the who,what, when, where, and why about an event). Arguments may follow the principle of increasing importance, saving the most persuasive points for the end. Transitions offer clues about this type of organizational pattern, too. The following are common transitions used to indicate order of importance: first and foremost, most important, more important, moreover, above all, first, second, third, last but not least, finally. Comparison and contrast arranges two things side by side to show their similarities and differences. In this way, a writer can analyze two items by seeing how they measure up to one another. For example, this description of the two movie versions of King Kong uses comparison and contrast: Both versions of the monster movie used the most sophisticated effects of their day (comparison). However, the stop-motion animation of the 1933 film retains its magic, whereas the state-of-the-art special effects of 1976 seem hopelessly out of date today (contrast). Here are common transitions that signal that a writer is organizing her ideas through comparison and contrast. Words Showing Similarity similarly

Words Showing Difference but

in the same way

on the other hand

likewise

yet

like

however

in a like manner

on the contrary

just as

in contrast

and

conversely

also

while

both

unlike

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Cause and effect arranges ideas so that readers can see why something took place (cause) and what changes happened as a result (effect). For example, a historian may write about the causes of the stock market crash of 1929 in the United States (investors borrowing money on easy credit to buy stock) and the effects of the crash (lost fortunes, business and bank closings, unemployment). The following are key words that give clues about when a writer is describing cause and effect. Words Indicating Cause because of

Words Indicating Effect therefore

because

so

created by

so that

since

hence

caused by

consequently as a result

Question that often given in the TOEFL test related with the organization of ideas are: •

How is the information in the passage organized?

•

How is the information in the passage organized in the second paragraph related to the information in the first paragraph?

Or •

In form of sentence-insertion question.

To answer that type of question, apply the following strategy! The strategy to answer questions for the organization of ideas correctly: •

Read the first line of each paragraph.

•

Look for words that show the relationship between the paragraphs

•

Choose the answer that best expresses the relationship

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Example: The passage: If asked who invented the game of baseball, most Americans would probably reply that it was Abner Doubleday. At the beginning of this century, there were some disagreements over how the game of baseball had actually originated, so sporting-goods manufacturer Spalding inaugurated a commission to research the question. In 1908, a report was published by the commission in which Abner Doubleday, a U.S Army officer from Cooperstown, New York, was given credit for the invention of the game. The National Baseball Hall of Fame was established in Cooperstown in honor of Doubleday. Today, most sport historians are in agreement that Doubleday really did not have much to do with the development of baseball. Instead, baseball seems to be a close relation to the English game of rounders and probably has English rather than American roots. The question: The second paragraph (A) provides examples to support the ideas in the first paragraph (B) precedes the ideas in the first paragraph (C) outline the effect of the idea in the first paragraph (D) refutes the idea in the first paragraph First, read the first line of each paragraph. The first line of the first paragraph tells us that most people believe that Abner Doubleday is the inventor of the baseball game. On the other hand, the first line of the second paragraph tells us that historians think that the inventor

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of the baseball game is not Abner Doubleday. Therefore, the best answer to the question is (D). Alright! Now let’s do the following exercises! As usual, your teacher will turn on the alarm to make sure that you can do the exercises based on the estimated time! Passage one Common types of calendar can be based on the Sun or on the Moon. The solar calendar is based on the solar year. Since the solar year is 365. 242 days long, solar calendars consist of regular years of 365 days and have an extra day every fourth year, or leap year, to make up for the additional fractional amount. In a solar calendar; the waxing and waning of the moon can take place at various stages of each month. The lunar calendar is synchronyzed to the lunar month rather than the solar year. Since the lunar month is twenty- nine and a half days long, most lunar calendars have alternating months of twenty- nine and thirty days. A twelve- month lunar year thus has 354 days, 11 days shorter than a solar year. 1. How is the information in the passage organized? (A) Characteristics of the solar calendar are outlined. (B) Two types of calendars are described. (C) The strength and weaknesses of the lunar calendar are described. (D) The length of each existing calendar is contrasted.

2. What is the main idea of the passsage? (A) All calendars are the same (B) The solar calendar is based on the Sun (C) Different calendars have dissimilar bases (D) The lunar month is twenty-nine and a half days long

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Passage two Vaccines are prepared from harmful viruses or bacteria and administered to patients to provide immunity to specific diseases. The various types of vaccines are classified according to the method by which they are derived. The most basic class of vaccines actually contains disease- causing microorganisms that have been killed with a solution containing formaldehyde. A second type of vaccine contains the toxins produced by the microorganisms rather than the microorganisms themselves. A final type of vaccine contains living microorganisms that have been rendered harmless. 3. How many types of vaccines are presented in the passage? (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five 4. Which of the following expresses the main idea of the passage? (A) Vaccines provide immunity to specific diseases (B) Vaccines contain disease-causing microorganisms (C) Vaccines are derived in different ways (D) New approaches in administering vaccines are being developed Passage three Theodore Roosevelt was born with asthma and poor eyesight. To conquer his handicaps, Teddy trained in a gym and became a lightweight boxer while at Harvard. Next, he went west to hunt buffalo and run a cattle ranch. After returning east in 1886, he became a civil service reformer and also a police commissioner. He entered national politics in 1896 when he became assistant navy secretary under President McKinley. He served in that post during the Spanish-American War. Later, he led the Rough Riders on a cavalry charge up San Juan Hill in Cuba. After achieving fame, he became Governor of New York and then Vice President under McKinley. When McKinley died in 1901, he assumed the presidency. In 1904, he was elected president in his own right. The following sentence can be added to the passage: 22 | P a g e

Yet this sickly child later won fame as a political leader, Rough Rider, and hero of the common people. 5. Where would this sentence best fit in the passage? Choose the number to indicate where you would add the sentence to the passage. a. (1) b. (2) c. (3) d. (4) Passage four A hoax, unlike an honest error, is a deliberately concocted plan to present an untruth as the truth. It can take the form of a fraud, a fake, a swindle, or a forgery, and can be accomplished in almost any field: successful hoaxes have been foisted on the public in fields as varied as politics, religion, science, art, and literature. A famous scientific hoax, known as the Piltdown Man and scientifically named Eoanthropus Dawsoni, occured in 1912 when Charles Dawson claimed to have uncovered a human skull and jawbone on the Piltdown common in southern England. However, it was then discovered that actually the bones were modern bones that had been skilfully aged. 6. The second paragraph includes (A) an illustration to support the ideas in the first paragraph (B) a counterargument to the ideas in the first paragraph (C) an analogy to the ideas in the first paragraph (D) a detailed definition of a hoax

7. The topic of the passage could best be described as (A) the Piltdown Man (B) Charles Dawson’s discovery (C) Eoanthropus Dawsoni 23 | P a g e

(D) a definition and an example of a hoax

8. The author’s main point is that (A) various types of hoaxes have been conducted (B) Charles Dawson discovered a human skull and jawbone (C) Charles Dawson was not an honest man (D) the human skull and jawbone was extremely old

∗ Fun Activity Game: Scatter-Gories (Group Work) Class is divided into groups consisting of 5 students. Each group has to collect words as many as possible. Categories can be: a. Any verbs b. Words that start with the letter M c. Names of objects d. Adjectives that start with S e. Etc. The winner is the group that can collect the most words compared to the other groups.

•

Vocabulary Section 2 24 | P a g e

Find the synonym for the underlined word from one of the options (a, b, c, or d) 1. The enormous rigid plates that make up the outer shell of the Earth continually move relative to one another. (A) vast (B) ancient (C) dense (D) deep 2. The process of eutrophication involves a sharp increase in the concentration of phosphorus and nitrogen and promotes the growth of algae. (A) conceals (B) boosts (C) disrupts (D) halts 3. Evidence that harmful effects may result from small amounts of radiation has prompted concern about low level irradiation from various sources. (A) minimized (B) exaggerate (C) generated (D) sustained 4. Large sponges often harbor smaller organisms. (A) shelter (B) reject (C) avoid (D) consume 5. Most varieties of squash were cultivated by American Indian civilizations. (A) bartered (B) grown 25 | P a g e

(C) eaten (D) gathered 6. The sugar maple grows to a height of 120 feet and has a dense crown of leaves that turns bright red in the fall. (A) vibrant (B) thick (C) remarkable (D) large 7. The sumacs grown for landscape use display a graceful style with spectacular fall colors and colorful fruit clusters. (A) elude (B) maintain (C) develop (D) exhibit 8. Tadpoles typically dwell at the bottom of bodies of fresh water. (A) swim (B) feed (C) live (D) reproduce 9. John Quincy Adams was a conspicuous opponent of the expansion of slavery. (A) consistent (B) noticeable (C) distinguished (D) formidable 10. The Indian civilizations of Alabama spanned over 10.000 years. (A) declined (B) developed

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(C) covered (D) prospered

Fourth Strategy : Answer the supporting detail questions correctly! There are many questions in the Reading part of the TOEFL test that require answers directly stated in the passage. Therefore, the third strategy is important in helping you getting the high score in the TOEFL test. Supporting details are facts or specific information that provide evidence for an author’s main idea. They often answer the questions what? when? where? why? or how? Three question types on the reading test ask you about specific information within a passage: supporting-detail questions, exception questions, and location of information questions. The form of questions usually used to ask about supporting details: •

According to the passage,...............................

•

It is stated in the passage................................

•

The passage indicates that..............................

•

The author mentions that................................

•

Which of the following is true ......................

Sometimes we can also find questions that ask about details that are anot mentioned in the passage: •

Which of the following is not stated..............?

•

Which of the following is not mentioned.................?

•

Which of the following is not discussed...................?

•

All of the following are true except..............

To answer the questions, you will need to be able to: ■ identify supporting details from a passage ■ recognize information that is not provided in the passage ■ identify the place in the passage where specific information is given How can you recall one fact from a passage that is five paragraphs long? Follow these techniques as a guide: •

Do not memorize. The reading test does not ask you to have perfect recall. Instead, it measures your ability to read carefully and know where to look for specific information. 27 | P a g e

•

Look for language clues as you read the passage. Writers often use one of the following phrases to signal that they are introducing a fact or example: one reason is in one case specifically for example for instance in particular

•

Use key words from the question. Questions have two or three important words that tell you exactly what information to look for in the passage. For example, in the question How many species of penguins are there worldwide? The key words are how many, and species. They signal to you to look for a sentence in the passage that has a number and the word species.

•

Take note of structure. As you read, pay attention to how information is presented and in what order. Understanding the organization of a passage will help you locate the facts you need.

Then after following the technique, apply the following strategy:

Strategy for answering questions correctly:

supporting

detail

1. Choose a key word in the question 2. Skim in the appropriate part of the passage for the key word or idea 3. Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea carefully 4. Look for the answer that restates an idea in the passage 5. Eliminate the definitely wrong answers and choose the best answer from the remaining choices Example: Ice ages, those periods when ice covered extensive areas of the Earth, are known to have occured at least six times. Past ice ages can be recognized from rock strata that show evidence of foreign materials deposited by moving walls of ice or melting glaciers. Ice ages

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can also be recognized from land formations that have been produced from moving walls of ice, such as U-shape valleys, scultured landscapes, and polished rock faces. Question: 1. According to the passage, what happens during an ice age? (A) Rock strata are recognized by geologists (B) Evidence of foreign materials is found (C) Ice covers a large portion of the Earth’s surface (D) Ice melts six times The answer is (C) because the underlined sentence (first line of the paragraph) explains what happens during the ice age. Ok! Now let’s do the following exercises! On this exercise, you will have longer passage than the one in the previous exercise. So, manage your time well and make sure that you can do the exercises based on the estimated time! Passage one Great Barrier Reef is the world’s largest network of coral reefs, stretching 2,010 km (1,250 miles) off Australia’s northeastern coast. Although coral looks like a plant, it is the limestone skeleton of a tiny animal called a coral polyp. The reef’s 300 species of coral create an underwater garden of brilliant colors and intricate shapes. From microorganisms to whales, diverse life forms make their home on the reef. Over 1,500 fish species, 4,000 mollusk species, 200 bird species, 16 sea snake species, and six sea turtle species thrive in the reef’s tropical waters. The reef is also a habitat for the endangered dugong (sea cows), moray eels, and sharks. Although protected by the Australian government,Great Barrier Reef faces environmental threats. Crown of thorns starfish feed on coral and can destroy large portions of reef. Pollution and rising water temperatures also threaten the delicate coral. 1. How many species of coral are there in the Great Barrier Reef? a. 30 b. 200 c. 300 d. 3,000 2. Which of the following NOT a threat to the Great Barrier Reef? a. dugong (sea cows) 29 | P a g e

b. crown-of-thorn starfish c. pollution d. rising sea temperatures 3. In which line does the author describe the coral polyp? a. line (1- 2) b. line (2 - 3) c. line (4 - 5) d. line (5 - 6) Passage two The ability of falling cats to right themselves in midair and land on their feet has been a source of wonder for ages. Newton's laws of motion assume that the total amount of spin of a body cannot change unless an external torque speeds it up or slows it down. If a cat has no spin when it is released and experiences no external torque, it ought not to be able to twist around as it falls. In the speed of its execution, the righting of a tumbling cat resembles a magician's trick. The observation done by scientists proves that as the cat rotates the front of its body clockwise, the rear and tail twist counterclockwise, so that the total spin remains zero, in perfect accord with Newton's laws. The explanation was that while no body can acquire spin without torque, a flexible one can readily change its orientation, or phase. Cats know this instinctively, but scientist could not be sure how it happened until they increased the speed of their perceptions a thousandfold. 4. What does the passage mainly discuss? (A) The explanation of an interesting phenomenon (B) Miracles in modern science (C) Procedures in scientific investigation (D) The differences between biology and physics

5. According to the passage, a cat is able to right itself in midair because it is (A) frightened 30 | P a g e

(B) small (C) intelligent (D) flexible

6. How did scientists increase “the speed of their perceptions a thousandfold” (last sentence)? (A) By analyzing photographs (B) By observing a white cat in a dark room (C) By dropping a cat from a greater height (D) By studying Newton's laws of motion Passage three The Woodstock Music and Art Fair—better known to its participants and to history simply as “Woodstock”—should have been a colossal failure. Just a month prior to its August 15, 1969 opening, the council of Wallkill, New York, informed the fair’s organizers that it was withdrawing its permission to hold the festival. Amazingly, the organizers found a new site, a large field in Woodstock, New York, owned by a local dairy farmer. The event drew a larger audience than the organizers had expected. On the first day of the fair, crowd estimates of 30,000 kept rising; traffic jams blocked most roads leading to the area. Some musicians could not reach the site to appear at their scheduled times. In addition, fences that were supposed to facilitate ticket collection never materialized, so the organizers abandoned all attempts at taking tickets. But that was not all: as the large crowd gathered, so did summer storm clouds. It started raining on opening night and continued for much of the three-day event. To deal with the crowd, which reached an estimated 500,000 by the third day, helicopters flew in food, doctors, and medical supplies.

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Despite all of its problems, the festival featured some of the greatest musicians of the 1960s. Today, many people think of Woodstock not only as a milestone for rock music but as the defining moment for an entire generation. 7. The main idea of this passage is best expressed in which sentence? a. Most Americans think of Woodstock as a bunch of kids dancing to music in the mud. b. The organizers underestimated how many people the festival would attract. c. Despite poor planning, Woodstock was a success and a high point for a generation of Americans. d. The organizers succeeded in their goal of creating a historically significant event. 8. What was the final crowd estimate? a. 20,000 b. 30,000 c. 50,000 d. 500,000 9. Which of the following was NOT a problem faced by the event’s organizers? a. blocked access to the site b. attracting musical talent c. bad weather d. finding a location for the festival 10. Where in the passage does the author describe the weather conditions during the event? a. at the end of paragraph 1 b. at the beginning of paragraph 2 c. at the end of paragraph 2 d. at the beginning of paragraph 3

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Fifth Strategy: correctly!

Answer

Inferred

questions

Inference questions on the TOEFL exam require us to draw logical conclusions about what you read. Sometimes a writer does not explicitly state his or her main idea or offer a conclusion. Thus, we must infer the writer’s meaning. To do this, we must carefully read the details and facts of a passage and look for context clues that reveal a writer’s attitude. One main thing that can help us answering this type of question is : Word choice—the specific words a writer chooses to describe people, places, and things—is one of the best clues to how a writer feels about her subject. Word choice, also called diction, includes these forms: ■ the particular words a writer uses ■ the way words are arranged in a sentence ■ repetition of words or phrases ■ inclusion of particular details For example, consider how word choice affects the two sentences below: A: Improved job training would reduce workplace injuries. B: Improved job training would minimize workplace injuries. The only difference between the two sentences is that sentence A uses the word reduces and sentence B uses minimize. Both sentences state that improved job training would result in fewer workplace injuries. However, sentence B is stronger because of its word choice: to minimize means to reduce to the smallest possible amount. Even words that have similar dictionary definitions may have different connotations, or suggested meanings. For example, consider the words rich, wealthy and affluent. Although similar in meaning, each word evokes different thoughts and feelings. Rich implies having more than enough to fulfill normal needs, wealthy suggests the possession of property and things of value, and affluent implies increasing wealth. Form of questions that usually appear in the TOEFL test: •

It is implied in the passage that ......

•

It can be inferred from the passage that ......

•

It is most likely that

•

What probably happened .......?

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Fifth Strategy for answering inferred questions correctly! 1. Choose a key word in the question 2. Scan the passage for the key word (or a related idea) 3. Carefully read the sentence that contains the key word or idea 4. Look for answers that could be true, according to that sentence Example: Storytelling should speak first to the heart and only second to the intellect. It should, in Isaac Bashevis Singer’s words, “be both clear and profound,” and it should also entertain. The new writer should avoid creating pieces that are deliberately obscure and impossible to understand except by a small, elite group of other writers. 1. What is the passage suggesting about new writers? a. They are excellent writers. b. They write better than those who have practiced the art of writing. c. They think that good writing should be difficult to understand. d. They aim to please a wide audience. To answer this question, we find the key word first, which is the new writer. So, we read the third sentence. From the sentence, we know that the correct answer is (D). Besides, if we look at the other sentences, they also imply the same answer.

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Ok! Now let’s do the following exercises! You will read long passages so don’t forget to manage your time well and make sure that you can do the exercises based on the estimated time! Passage one The largest of the world’s 17 penguin species, emperor penguins stand nearly four feet and weigh up to 90 pounds. These sea birds never set foot on dry land. An estimated 200,000 breeding pairs live in about 40 penguin colonies scattered along the coasts of Antarctica. Their waterproofed feathers, flipper-like wings, and streamlined bodies make them excellent swimmers and divers. On ice they can travel distances up to 50 miles by “tobogganing”— gliding on their stomachs while pushing with their wings and feet. Emperor penguins breed during the Antarctic winter in some of the world’s most severe weather conditions (temperatures of –80 F and winds up to 112 miles per hour). Breeding during the winter allows chicks to mature in midsummer when food is plentiful. After the female lays a single egg, the male holds it in a fold of skin near his feet for a twomonth incubation period. During this time he huddles with other males to keep warm. The male moves very little and does not eat, usually losing up to a third of his body weight. Meanwhile, the females go to sea and dive for fish so that when they return they can feed and care for the newly hatched chicks. After the male restores his body weight, both parents take turns caring for their young. The world’s emperor penguin population declined in the last 50 years due to a period of warming ocean temperatures. Warm water shrinks ice cover and reduces the population of krill—a small crustacean that is the emperor penguin’s staple food. Today the emperor penguin population has stabilized, but warming trends could again threaten this magnificent sea bird. 1. What is the author’s main purpose in this passage? a. to describe the recent plight of the emperor penguin 35 | P a g e

b. to show the differences between penguin species c. to describe the characteristics and breeding practice of the emperor penguin d. to describe the eating habits of the emperor penguin 2. Which of the following is NOT true of the emperor penguin? a. They can travel 50 miles by gliding. b. They breed during Antarctic summer. c. The male incubates the egg. d. They can withstand severe weather. 3. The passage suggests that a. the female emperor penguin should take better care of her young. b. no animal can survive in subzero temperatures. c. scientists have never been close enough to observe the emperor penguin. d. changes in the global environment can threaten the emperor penguin. 4. What makes up the staple diet of the emperor penguin? a. cuttlefish b. krill c. seaweed d. fried clams 5. Where in the passage does the author describe the characteristics that make emperor penguins excellent swimmers? a. at the beginning of paragraph 1 b. at the end of paragraph 1 c. at the beginning of paragraph 2 d. at the end of paragraph 2 6. Why do male emperor penguins form a huddle? a. to protect the eggs from sea lions b. to share their food supply c. to maintain body heat in harsh temperatures d. to share parenting advice 36 | P a g e

7. The following sentence can be inserted into the passage: Instead they feed and breed in the frigid waters and sea ice of the southern Ocean. Where would this sentence best fit in the passage? Choose the number to indicate where you would add the sentence to the passage. a. (sentence 1) b. (sentence 2) c. (sentence 3) d. (sentence 4)

Passage two With Robert Laurent and William Zorach, direct carving enters into the story of modern sculpture in the United States. Direct carving ― in which the sculptors themselves carve stone or wood with mallet and chisel ― must be recognized as something more than just a technique. Implicit in it is an aesthetic principle as well : that the medium has certain qualities of beauty and expressiveness with which sculptors must bring their own aesthetic sensibilities into harmony. For example, sometimes the shape or veining in a piece of stone or wood suggests, perhaps even dictates, not only the ultimate form, but even the subject matter. The technique of direct carving was a break with the nineteenthcentury tradition in which the making of a clay model was considered the creative act and the work was then turned over to studio assistants to be cast in plaster or bronze or carved in marble. Neoclassical sculptors seldom held a mallet or chisel in their own hands, readily conceding that the assistants they employed were far better than they were at carving the finished marble. With the turn-of-the-century Crafts movement and the discovery of nontraditional sources of inspiration, such as wooden African figures and masks, there arose a new urge for hands-on, personal execution of art and an interaction with the medium. Even as early as the 1880's and 1890's, nonconformist European artists were attempting direct carving. By the second decade of the twentieth century, Americans ― Laurent and Zorach most notably ― had adopted it as their primary means of working. Born in France, Robert Laurent(1890-1970) was a prodigy who received his education in the United States. In 1905 he was sent to Paris as an apprentice to an art dealer, and in the years that followed he 37 | P a g e

witnessed the birth of Cubism, discovered primitive art, and learned the techniques of woodcarving from a frame maker. Back in New York City by 1910, Laurent began carving pieces such as The Priestess, which reveals his fascination with African, pre-Columbian, and South Pacific art. 8. What is one of the fundamental principles of direct carving? (A) A sculptor must work with talented assistants. (B) The subject of a sculpture should be derived from classical stories. (C) The material is an important element in a sculpture. (D) Designing a sculpture is a more creative activity than carving it. 9. How does direct carving differ from the nineteenth-century tradition of sculpture? (A) Sculptors are personally involved in the carving of a piece. (B) Sculptors find their inspiration in neoclassical sources. (C) Sculptors have replaced the mallet and chisel with other tools. (D) Sculptors receive more formal training. 10. Where did Robert Laurent learn to carve? (A) New York (B) Africa (C) The South Pacific (D) Paris

∗ Fun Activity 38 | P a g e

Game : Tail Words The teacher mentions a word then a student say a word started with the last letter of the previous word. Example: A: Honesty B: Yes C: Sweet D: Tone The game can be done individually as a class or as a group work. As a class or group activity, later the teacher can make a competition between students who can continue many words. The winner is the one who has the most words.

•

Vocabulary section 3

Find the synonym for the underlined word from one of the options (a, b, c, or d) 1. The banana is a gigantic herb that springs from an underground stem to form false trunks up to 20 feet high. (A) an immense (B) a striking (C) an attractive (D) a plentiful 39 | P a g e

2. The evolution of agriculture in the early years of the twentieth century was characterized by the partial mechanization of the sowing and reaping processes. (A) created (B) enriched (C) accelerated (D) typified 3. One of the most striking aspects of Indian cultures was the production of ceremonial costumes and ornaments worn during religious rituals. (A) absurd (B) remarkable (C) arbitrary (D) spontaneous 4. The innovative use of iron and steel in construction represented an important advancement in the building industry of the 1800s. (A) improvement (B) element (C) influence (D) occasion 5. Professional interior design assignment are typically complex endeavors that begin with an interview with the client. (A) personal (B) intricate (C) orderly (D) gratifying 6. In antiquity, mosaics were made of uncut pebbles of uniform size. (A) consistent (B) ideal (C) moderate 40 | P a g e

(D) minuscule 7. All organisms must obtain nutrients from the environment in order to sustain themselves. (A) isolate (B) harvest (C) acquire (D) digest 8. Sauropods are distinguished by their body form as well as their enormous size. (A) limited (B) overwhelmed (C) allocated (D) identified 9. The predominant unit of drawing is the line. (A) smallest (B) resilient (C) principal (D) dramatic 10. The primary task of the kidney is to maintain the volume and composition of bodily fluids. (A) preserve (B) distribute (C) assimilate (D) condense

Sixth Strategy: correctly!

Answer

reference

questions

Sometimes in the reading section, we will find reference questions. Reference questions measure our understanding of what a particular sentence means. Therefore, we will be asked to determine which noun a pronoun refer to. 41 | P a g e

The form of question used to ask the reference: The pronoun “..........” in line X refers to which of the following? In this type of question, it is important to understand that a noun is generally used in first in the passage, and the pronoun that refers to it comes after. Thus, whenever we are asked which noun a pronoun refers to, we should look before the pronoun to find the noun. Then, apply the following strategy to help you answer the question faster.

Sixth Strategy for answering reference questions correctly! 1. Eliminate any answers that you know are incorrect.

2. Insert each remaining answer choice into the sentence. 3. Decide whether the answer makes sense in the context of the sentence. If not, eliminate it and try another.

For example, look at how the strategy works with the following reference question. The word they in paragraph 2 refers to: a. the victims of heat stroke b. the treatments for heat stroke c. the people who administer aid to victims of heat stroke d. the characteristics of heat stroke Here’s the sentence in which they is used: They are a high body temperature (which may reach 106 degrees F or more); a rapid pulse; hot, dry skin; and a blocked sweating mechanism.

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They clearly does not refer to people, so you can rule out choices a and c. When you replace they with the remaining answer choices, you can easily narrow your answer to the correct choice: d. Ok! Now let’s do the following exercises! Don’t forget to apply the strategies that you have learnt! As usual, manage your time well and make sure that you can do the exercises based on the estimated time! Passage one Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking, and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810 a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850's an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860's, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cansfrom tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year. Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban populations created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890's, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. An easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870's, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920's and 1930's. Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavy in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? 43 | P a g e

(A) Causes of food spoilage (B) Commercial production of ice (C) Inventions that led to changes in the American diet (D) Population movements in the nineteenth century 2. The pronoun “them” in paragraph 2 line 5 refers to (A) Railroad refrigerator cars (B) growers and meat packers (C) great distances (D) perishables 3. During the 1860's, canned food products were (A) unavailable in rural areas (B) shipped in refrigerator cars (C) available in limited quantities (D) a staple part of the American diet 4. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use (A) before 1860 (B) before 1890 (C) after 1900 (D) after 1920 5. The word “it ” in paragraph 2 line 12 refers to (A) refrigerator (B) a fixture (C) mechanized refrigerator (D) icebox 6. The author implies that in the 1920's and 1930's home deliveries of ice (A) decreased in number (B) were on an irregular schedule (C) increased in cost (D) occurred only in the summer 44 | P a g e

7. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage? (A) Drying (B) Canning (C) Cold storage (D) Chemical additives 8. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage? (A) Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available. (B) Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners. (C) Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables. (D) People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods. Passage two The changing profile of a city in the United States is apparent in the shifting definitions used by the United States Bureau of the Census. In 1870 the census officially distinguished the nation's “urban” from its “rural” population for the first time. “Urban population” was defined as persons living in towns of 8,000 inhabitants or more. But after 1900 it meant persons living in incorporated places having 2,500 or more inhabitants. Then, in 1950 the Census Bureau radically changed its definition of “urban” to take account of the new vagueness of city boundaries. In addition to persons living in incorporated units of 2,500 or more, the census now included those who lived in unincorporated units of that size, and also all persons living in the densely settled urban fringe, including both incorporated and unincorporated areas located around cities of 50,000 inhabitants or more. Each such unit, conceived as an integrated economic and social unit with a large population nucleus, was named a Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area (SMSA). Each SMSA would contain at least (a) one central city with 50,000 inhabitants or more or (b) two cities having shared boundaries and constituting, for general economic and social purposes, a single community with a combined population of at least 50,000, the smaller of which must have a population of at least 15,000. Such an area included the county in which the central city is located, and adjacent counties that are found to be metropolitan in character and economically and socially integrated with the county of the central city. By 1970, about twothirds of the population of the United States was living in these urbanized areas, and of that figure more than half were living outside the central cities. 45 | P a g e

9. What does the passage mainly discuss? (A) How cities in the United States began and developed (B) Solutions to overcrowding in cities (C) The changing definition of an urban area (D) How the United States Census Bureau conducts a census 10. According to the passage, the population of the United States was first classified as rural or urban in (A) 1870 (B) 1900 (C) 1950 (D) 1970 11. Prior to 1900, how many inhabitants would a town have to have before being defined as urban? (A) 2,500 (B) 8,000 (C) 15,000 (D) 50,000 12. According to the passage, why did the Census Bureau revise the definition of urban in 1950? (A) City borders had become less distinct. (B) Cities had undergone radical social change. (C) Elected officials could not agree on an acceptable definition. (D) New businesses had relocated to larger cities. 13. The word “those”in paragraph 1 line 8 refers to (A) boundaries (B) persons (C) units (D) areas

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14. Which of the following is NOT true of an SMSA? (A) It has a population of at least 50,000 (B) It can include a city's outlying regions. (C) It can include unincorporated regions. (D) It consists of at least two cities. 15. By 1970, what proportion of the population in the United States did NOT live in an SMSA? (A) 3/4 (B) 2/3 (C) 1/2 (D) 1/3

Seventh Strategy: Answer vocabulary questions correctly! Active readers make a habit of looking up unfamiliar words. But in a testing situation, you can’t use a dictionary. So, you need to know the type of questions and strategies to answer it. Okay, let’s study! First step, as usual, we have to identify the form of questions related with the vocabulary part. Basically, the vocabulary questions can be categorized into two parts: 1. Finding the definition of the word based on the passage Form of questions: •

What is....................?

•

What is the meaning of..........................?

•

What is true about...............................?

2. Finding the meaning of the word based on the context Form of questions: •

Which of the following is the closest in meaning to ..............?

•

Which of the following has the same meaning with............

Next, you need to know the strategy that enable you to answer this type of question .

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Example

Seventh

strategy

for

answering

vocabulary

questions correctly! 1. Look at context—the words and sentences surrounding the word—for clues about

meaning. For example, you can determine what the word gullible means from this context: Fred is so gullible. He will believe anything that Oliver tells him. The phrase “he will believe anything” restates the meaning of the word gullible and suggests its meaning of being easily duped or cheated. 2. Is the word negative or positive? Using the context of the passage, determine

whether the unfamiliar term is a negative or positive one. In the preceding example, you can conclude that gullible is not positive in that context. Thus, you can eliminate any answer choices that are positive terms. 3. Replace the vocabulary word with the remaining answers, one at a time. Does the

answer choice make sense when you read the sentence? If not, eliminate that answer choice. 1. When you are in an interview, try not to show any overt signs that you are nervous. Don’t shift in your chair, shake, or stutter. Overt means a. subtle. b. obnoxious. c. obvious. d. confident.

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Based on the context, we know that the word overt gives negative connotation to the sentence. Thus, we can eliminate confident. Then, when we put the three other words in the context, we find that the most appropriate word that fit with the context is obvious. 2. Although teaching is not a particularly lucrative career, I wouldn’t do anything else. Knowing I’m helping others to learn is far more important to me than money. Lucrative means a. highly profitable. b. highly rewarding. c. highly exciting. d. highly repetitive. Use the same strategies like in the previous number, and we will know that the correct answer is (A) because it is the meaning that is suitable with the context. Alright! Let’s do the following exercises! Don’t forget to apply the strategies that you have learnt! As usual, manage your time well and make sure that you can do the exercises based on the estimated time! Passage one The conservatism of the early English colonists in North America, their strong attachment to the English way of doing things, would play a major part in the furniture that was made in New England. The very tools that the first New England furniture makers used were, after all, not much different from those used for centuries – even millennia: basic hammers, saws, chisels, planes, augers, compasses, and measures. These were the tools used more or less by all people who worked with wood: carpenters, barrel makers, and shipwrights. At most the furniture makers might have had planes with special edges or more delicate chisels, but there could not have been much specialization in the early years of the colonies. The furniture makers in those early decades of the 1600’s were known as “joiners,” for the primary method of constructing furniture, at least among the English of this time, was that of mortise-and-tenon joinery. The mortise is the hole chiseled and cut into one piece of wood, while the tenon is the tongue or protruding element shaped from another piece of wood so that it fits into the mortise; and another small hole is then drilled (with the auger) through the mortised end and the tenon so that a whittled peg can secure the joint – thus the term 49 | P a g e

“joiner.” Panels were fitted into slots on the basic frames. This kind of construction was used for making everything from houses to chests. Relatively little hardware was used during this period. Some nails – forged by hand – were used, but no screws or glue. Hinges were often made of leather, but metal hinges were also used. The cruder varieties were made by blacksmiths in the colonies, but the finer metal elements were imported. Locks and escutcheon plates – the latter to shield the wood from the metal key – would often be imported. Above all, what the early English colonists imported was their knowledge of, familiarity with, and dedication to the traditional types and designs of furniture they knew in England. 1. The phrase “attachment to” in paragraph 1 line 2 is closest in meaning to (A) control of (B) distance from (C) curiosity about (D) preference for 2. The word “protruding” in paragraph 2 line 4 is closest in meaning to (A) parallel (B) simple (C) projecting (D) important 3. The relationship of a mortise and a tenon is most similar to that of (A) a lock and a key (B) a book and its cover (C) a cup and a saucer (D) a hammer and a nail 4. For what purpose did woodworkers use an auger (A) To whittle a peg (B) To make a tenon (C) To drill a hole (D) To measure a panel

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5. Which of the following were NOT used in the construction of colonial furniture? (A) Mortises (B) Nails (C) Hinges (D) Screws 6. The author implies that colonial metal workers were (A) unable to make elaborate parts (B) more skilled than woodworkers (C) more conservative than other colonists (D) frequently employed by joiners 7. The word “shield” in paragraph 3 line 4 is closest in meaning to (A) decorate (B) copy (C) shape (D) protect 8. The word “they” in paragraph 4 line 2 refers to (A) designs (B) types (C) colonists (D) all 9. The author implies that the colonial joiners (A) were highly paid (B) based their furniture on English models (C) used many specialized tools (D) had to adjust to using new kinds of wood in New England 10. Which of the following terms does the author explain in the passage? (A) “millennia” (line 4 ) (B) “joiners” (line 10 ) (C) “whittled” (line 15) 51 | P a g e

(D) “blacksmiths” (line 20 ) Passage two In addition to their military role, the forts of the nineteenth century provided numerous other benefits for the American West. The establishment of these posts opened new roads and provided for the protection of daring adventurers and expeditions as well as established settlers. Forts also served as bases where enterprising entrepreneurs could bring commerce to the West, providing supplies and refreshments to soldiers as well as to pioneers. Posts like Fort Laramie provided supplies for wagon trains traveling the natural highways toward new frontiers. Some posts became stations for the pony express; still others, such as Fort Davis, were stagecoach stops for weary travelers. All of these functions, of course, suggest that the contributions of the forts to the civilization and development of the West extended beyond patrol duty. Through the establishment of military posts, yet other contributions were made to the development of western culture. Many posts maintained libraries or reading rooms, and some – for example, Fort Davis – had schools. Post chapels provided a setting for religious services and weddings. Throughout the wilderness, post bands provided entertainment and boosted morale. During the last part of the nineteenth century, to reduce expenses, gardening was encouraged at the forts, thus making experimental agriculture another activity of the military. The military stationed at the various forts also played a role in civilian life by assisting in maintaining order, and civilian officials often called on the army for protection. Certainly, among other significant contributions the army made to the improvement of the conditions of life was the investigation of the relationships among health, climate, and architecture. From the earliest colonial times throughout the nineteenth century, disease ranked as the foremost problem in defense. It slowed construction of forts and inhibited their military functions. Official documents from many regions contained innumerable reports of sickness that virtually incapacitated entire garrisons. In response to the problems, detailed observations of architecture and climate and their relationships to the frequency of the occurrence of various diseases were recorded at various posts across the nation by military surgeons. 11. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage? (A) By the nineteenth century, forts were no longer used by the military. (B) Surgeons at forts could not prevent outbreaks of disease. (C) Forts were important to the development of the American West 52 | P a g e

(D) Life in nineteenth-century forts was very rough. 12. The word “daring” in paragraph 1 line 3 is closest in meaning to (A) lost (B) bold (C) lively (D) foolish 13. Which of the following would a traveler be likely be LEAST likely to obtain at Fort Laramie? (A) Fresh water (B) Food (C) Formal clothing (D) Lodging 14. The word “others” in paragraph 1 line 7 refers to (A) posts (B) wagon trains (C) frontiers (D) highways 15. The word “boosted” in paragraph 2 line 4 is closest in meaning to (A) influenced (B) established (C) raised (D) maintained 16. Which of the following is the most likely inference about the decision to promote gardening at forts? (A) It was expensive to import produce from far away. (B) Food brought in from outside was often spoiled (C) Gardening was a way to occupy otherwise idle soldiers. (D) The soil near the forts was very fertile.

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17. According to the passage, which of the following posed the biggest obstacle to the development of military forts? (A) Insufficient shelter (B) Shortage of materials (C) Attacks by wild animals (D) Illness 18. The word “inhibited” in paragraph 3 line 4 is closest in meaning to (A) involved (B) exploited (C) united (D) hindered 19. How did the military assists in the investigation of health problems? (A) By registering annual birth and death rates (B) By experiments with different building materials (C) By maintaining records of diseases and potential causes (D) By monitoring the soldiers’ diets 20. The author organizes the discussion of forts by (A) describing their locations (B) comparing their sizes (C) explaining their damage to the environment (D) listing their contributions to western life

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∗ Fun Activity Game: Chinese Whisper Class is divided into two groups. The teacher shows one message to the first person of each group. The student will have to whisper the message to his friend next to him who will do the same thing to the next person in the same group. The group that can write more correct and complete sentence on the paper provided by the teacher will be the winner. Examples: Vica never comes to the school again after she becomes the finalist of Indonesian Idol.

Quiz 1 Questions 1 – 11 The United States Constitution makes no provision for the nomination of candidates for the presidency. As the framers of the Constitution set up the system, the electors would, out of their own knowledge, select the "wisest and best" as President. But the rise of political parties altered that system drastically — and with the change came the need for nominations. The first method that the parties developed to nominate presidential candidates was the congressional caucus, a small group of members of Congress. That method was regularly used in the elections of 1800 to 1824. But its closed character led to its downfall in the mid-1820's. For the election of 1832, both major parties turned to the national convention as their nominating device. It has continued to serve them ever since. With the convention process, the final selection of the President is, for all practical purposes, narrowed to one of two persons: the Republican or the Democratic party nominee. Yet there is almost no legal control of that vital process. The Constitution is silent on the subject of presidential nominations. There is, as well,

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almost no statutory law on the matter. The only provisions in federal law have to do with the financing of conventions. And in each state there is only a small body of laws that deal with issues related to the convention, such as the choosing of delegates and the manner in which they may cast their votes. In short, the convention is very largely a creation and a responsibility of the political parties themselves. In both the Republican and Democratic parties, the national committee is charged with making the plans and arrangements for the national convention. As much as a year before it is held, the committee meets (usually in Washington, D.C.) to set the time and place for the convention. July has been the favored month; but each party has met in convention as early as mid-June and also as late as the latter part of August. Where the convention is held is a matter of prime importance. There must be an adequate convention hall, sufficient hotel accommodations, plentiful entertainment outlets, and efficient transportation facilities. 1. Which of the following motivated a change in the original method of selecting a President of the United States? (A) The framers of the Constitution (B) The rise of the congressional caucus (C) The emergence of the party system (D) The establishment of national Conventions 2. When was the congressional caucus used? (A) In the early 1800's (B) During the election of 1832 (C) Throughout the nineteenth century (D) In several recent elections 3. What can be inferred about why the congressional caucus system was terminated? (A) It was too expensive. (B) It took too much time. (C) It did not conform to the Constitution. (D) It did not include enough citizens. 4. The word "them" in line 10 refers to (A) conventions (B) parties (C) elections (D) candidates 5. The word "Yet" in line 13 indicates that what follows is (A) an unexpected fact (B) a personal observation (C) a list (D) an example 6. The word "vital" in line 13 is closest in meaning to (A) extremely important (B) always accessible (C) political (D) optional 7. According to the passage, the only aspect of political conventions addressed by federal law involves (A) organization (B) choosing delegates (C) voting procedures (D) funding 8. In paragraph 4, the author compares

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(A) nominations and conventions (B) finances and the Constitution (C) delegates and candidates (D) federal and state laws 9. The words "charged with" in lines 20-21 are closest in meaning to (A) responsible for (B) excited about (C) blamed for (D) in favor of 10. The passage refers to all of the following as necessary in the city where the convention is held EXCEPT (A) an acceptable meeting place (B) politically aware citizens (C) an easy way of traveling around the city (D) sufficient amusement opportunities 11. Where in the passage does the author refer to the original method of selecting a president? (A) Lines 2-3 (B) Lines 11-13 (C) Lines 18-19 (D) Lines 20-21

Questions 12 – 17 Several hundred million years ago, plants similar to modern ferns covered vast stretches of the land. Some were as large as trees, with giant fronds bunched at the top of trunks as straight as pillars. Others were the size of bushes and formed thickets of me undergrowth. Still others lived in the shade of giant club mosses and horsetails along the edges of swampy lagoons where giant amphibians swam. A great number of these plants were true ferns, reproducing themselves without fruits or seeds. Others had only the appearance of ferns. Their leaves had organs of sexual reproduction and produced seeds. Although their "flowers" did not have corollas these false ferns (today completely extinct) ushered in the era of flowering plants. Traces of these flora of the earliest times have been preserved in the form of fossils. Such traces are most commonly found in shale and sandstone rocks wedged between coal beds. Today only tropical forests bear living proof of the ancient greatness of ferns. The species that grow there are no longer those of the Carboniferous period, but their variety and vast numbers, and the great size of some, remind us of the time when ferns ruled the plant kingdom. 12. What does the passage mainly discuss? (A) Plant reproduction (B) How to locate fossils (C) An ancient form of plant life (D) Tropical plant life 13. The word "others" in line 3 refers to (A) plants (B) pillars (C) trees (D) fronds 14. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the plants described

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in the passage? (A) They once spread over large areas of land. (B) They varied greatly in size. (C) They coexisted with amphibians, mosses, and horsetails. (D) They clung to tree trunks and bushes for support 15. The word "true" in line 6 is closest in meaning to which of the following? (A) accurate (B) genuine (C) straight (D) dependable 16. The author states that fossils of early plant life are usually found in rocks located between deposits of (A) coal (B) shale (C) sandstone (D) corollas 17. The word "bear" in line 13 could best be replaced by which of the following? (A) call for (B) provide (C) tolerate (D) suffer Questions 18 – 28 The economic expansion prompted by the Second World War triggered a spectacular population boom in the West. Of course, the region was no stranger to population booms. Throughout much of its history, western settlement had been characterized by spurts, rather than by a pattern of gradual and steady population growth, beginning with the gold and silver rushes of the 1850's and 1860's. The decade after the First World War — the 1920's — witnessed another major surge of people pouring into the West, particularly into urban areas. But the economic depression of the 1930's brought this expansion to a halt; some of the more sparsely settled parts of the region actually lost population as migrants sought work in more heavily industrialized areas. By 1941,when the United States entered the Second World War and began to mobilize, new job opportunities were created in the western part of the nation. If the expansion of industries, such as shipbuilding and aircraft manufacturing, was most striking on the Pacific coast, it also affected interior cities like Denver, Phoenix, and Salt Lake City. Equally dramatic were the effects of the establishment of aluminum plants in Oregon and Washington and the burgeoning steel industry in Utah and California. The flow of people into these areas provided an enormous impetus to the expansion of the service industries — banks, health care services, and schools. Although strained to the limit by the influx of newcomers, western communities welcomed the vast reservoir of new job opportunities. At the same time, the unprecedented expansion of government installations in the West, such as military bases, created thousands of new civilian openings. As land had served as a magnet for western migrants in the late nineteenth century, so wartime mobilization set in motion another major expansion of population. Indeed, it could be said that the entire western United States became a giant boomtown during the Second World War. This was especially true of California. Of the more than eight million people who moved into the West in the decade after 1940, almost one-half went to the Pacific coast. In fact, between 1940 and 1950, California's population surged by more than three million people. 18. What is the main point of the passage? (A) California dominated the economic growth of the West during the Second World War. (B) Industrial growth during the 1940's attracted large numbers of people to the West. (C) The military drew people away from civilian jobs during the 1940's. (D) The West experienced gradual and steady economic growth from 1900 to 1940.

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19. The word "triggered" in line 1 is closest in meaning to (A) was connected to (B) generated (C) interfered with (D) illuminated 20. Why does the author mention "the gold and silver rushes of the 1850's and 1860's" in the first paragraph? (A) As causes of gradual population growth (B) As contrasts to later patterns of population growth (C) As illustrations of a market economy (D) As examples of western population Booms 21. Which of the following occurred in the West during the 1920's? (A) Gold and silver deposits were discovered. (B) The population density gradually increased. (C) The population of the cities increased significantly. (D) Many military bases were Established. 22. According to the passage, the depression of the 1930's caused which of the following? (A) A lack of population growth in the West (B) The building of new suburbs (C) A creation of more job opportunities (D) A growth in immigration from abroad 23. Which of the following statements about the shipbuilding industry is suggested by the passage? (A) It came into being during the First World War. (B) Many new shipbuilding yards were established on the Pacific coast during the 1940's. (C) Denver was considered to be a poor location for shipbuilding factories. (D) Shipbuilding was the dominant industry in Oregon and Washington. 24. The word "it" in line 13 refers to (A) expansion (B) Denver (C) manufacturing (D) the Pacific coast 25. The word "enormous" in line 16 is closest in meaning to (A) unexpected (B) immense (C) adequate (D) important

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