Quiz Histology

Histology

14Mar2009

Histology #1 – Histological Techniques 1) Which of the following is NOT a goal of tissue fixation? a) Terminate metabolism b) Prevent enzymatic self-digestion c) Freeze cell components d) Kill microorganisms e) Harden tissue by cross-linking 2) Which of the following fixation agents works well for electron microscopy and fixes by cross-linking unsaturated fatty acids? a) Permanganate b) Osmium tetroxide c) Glutaraldehyde d) Formaldehyde e) Freeze fracture 3) Which of the following combinations of embedding and tissue cutting techniques would be best for making a 6 micrometer cut? a) Agarose; Vibratome b) Paraffin; Ultra Microtome c) Ice/Polyethyleneglycol; Freezing stage microtome/Cryostat d) Plastic; Ultra Microtome e) Paraffin; Rotary Microtome 4) Which imaging technique adds shadowing? a) Light microscope + Normarski b) Light microscope + Phase contrast c) Light microscope + Non-stained section d) Fluorescence + Confocal (laser) e) Light microscope + Reflectance 5) Which of the following is NOT true about regarding the Hemotoxilin stain? a) Basic dye b) Basophilic c) Dyes acidic molecules blue d) Dyes DNA/RNA e) Dyes mitochondria 6) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Eosin stain? a) Acidic dye b) Acidophilic c) Dyes basic molecules pink d) Dyes RER e) Dyes lysosomes 7) Which of the following is true regarding the PAS stain? a) Stains aldehydes bright red b) Stains sugars bright red c) Stains aldehydes blue d) Stains sugars blue e) Attacks a single –OH group

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Histology

14Mar2009

8) Alkaline Phosphatase is in every cell and removes phosphate groups from proteins. If tissue is incubated in Gomori stain, cells with active phophatase will give a dark precipitate. This is an example of: a) En vivo stain b) In vivo stain c) Enzyme histochemistry d) X-Gal reaction e) Motion paralax 9) Which of the following is NOT matched correctly? a) Golgi stain; developed in 1970 b) DeOlmos stain; for viewing degenerating cells c) Golgi stain; stains one cell at a time d) DeOlmos stain; shows PCP damage to neurons e) Golgi stain; for visualizing neuron structure 10) Which of the following is NOT true when comparing polyclonal to monoclonal antibodies? a) Polyclonal antibodies are made in animals b) Monoclonal antibodies are made in a single animal c) Monoclonal antibodies have less cross reactivity than polyclonal d) The direct labeling method puts a visual label on the antibody e) The indirect labeling method puts a label on a secondary antibody to save cost 11) Which of the following best describes in situ hybridization? a) Double helix DNA used b) Double helix RNA used c) Matching DNA strand used d) Matching RNA strand used e) Complementary DNA strand used 12) Autoradiography requires injecting an animal or cells with a radioactive ____, such as H3 (3H-thymidine). a) DNA strand b) RNA strand c) Coat d) Probe e) Emulsion 13) When viewing an electronic microscopy slide treated with Lead and Uranium, you see the outline of the cell membrane. What are you actually seeing? a) Membrane proteins b) Membrane lipids c) Heavy metals d) Membrane phosophlipids e) Membrane sugars Histology #2 – Cell Membrane & Organelles 1) Which of the following is NOT matched correctly? a) SER; lipid and steroid synthesis b) RER; protein synthesis and modification

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Histology

14Mar2009

c) Mitochondria; DNA for rRNA synthesis d) Peroxisomes; digestion e) Golgi; protein sorting 2) Which of the following cannot be found in the cell membrane? a) Cholesterol b) Sphingolipids c) Phosphodiglycerides d) Proteins e) Mannose 6-Phosphate 3) Which of the following is most important for stabilizing the cell membrane? a) Cholesterol b) Unsaturated fatty acids c) Saturated fatty acids d) Peripheral proteins e) Sphingolipids 4) What accounts for lipid composition being different on opposite sides of the bilayer? a) Lateral diffusion is slow b) Layer-to-layer diffusion is slow c) Lateral diffusion is free d) Layer-to-layer diffusion is free e) Flip flop diffusion is free 5) The mitochondrial matrix is ____. a) Basic and low in Ca++ b) Acidic and low in Ca++ c) Basic and high in Ca++ d) Acidic and high in Ca++ e) Basic and contains no Ca++ 6) Which of the following is NOT correct? a) Heterochromatin is in the nucleus and stains darkly because the DNA is tightly coiled b) Euchromatin is in the nucleus and stains lightly because DNA is actively transcribing c) Pars granulosa is in the nucleolus and stains lightly because it contains actively developing ribosomes d) Pars fibrosa is in the nucleolus and stains darkly because it contains inactive DNA e) Pars fibrosa is in the nucleolus and stains lightly because it contains actively translating RNA 7) Which of the following can you say for sure about a patient if their tissue shows a Barr Body adjacent to the nuclear envelope? a) Kleinfelter’s syndrome b) Female c) Male hermaphrodite d) Female hermaphrodite e) Extra X chromosome 8) The nuclear pore allows ____ to get in and ____ to get out.

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Histology

14Mar2009

a) Nuclear proteins; Ribosomes b) Ribosomes; Nuclear proteins c) DNA; RNA d) RNA; DNA e) Lipids; Steroids 9) Phosphorylation of Mannose (M6P) targets proteins to the: a) Peroxisome b) Golgi c) Lysosome d) RER e) SER 10) Clatherin coated pit regions are initially important for: a) Exocytosis b) Endocytosis c) Lysosomal digestion d) Peroxisomal digestion e) DNA synthesis 11) Late endosomes typically develop into: a) Nuclear pores b) Golgi c) Ribosomes d) Lysosomes e) SER 12) Zellweger syndrome is a dysfunction of: a) Lysosomes b) Peroxisomes c) Golgi d) Ribosomes e) Neurons Histology #3 – Cytoplasm, Cytoskeleton, Cell Trafficking 1) Which of the following is NOT correct? a) Transcription occurs in the nucleus and mitochondria b) Translation occurs on ribosomes c) RNA is made in the cytoplasm and translocated to the nucleus d) Sugar synthesis occurs mostly in the cytoplasm e) Lipid synthesis occurs mostly in the SER 2) Which of the following is NOT correct? a) Synthesis of rRNA occurs in the nucleus b) Synthesis of tRNA occurs in the nucleus c) Synthesis of mRNA occurs in the cytoplasm d) Synthesis of cytoplasmic proteins occurs on the free ribosomes e) RNA is translocated to the cytoplasm from the nucleus 3) Which of the following molecules is NOT synthesized on free-floating ribosomes? a) Lipids b) Nuclear proteins

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Histology

14Mar2009

c) Mitochondrial proteins d) Peroxisomal proteins e) Soluble cytoplasmic proteins 4) Which of the following molecules is NOT synthesized on or in the RER? a) Phospholipids b) Steroids c) Golgi p-roteins d) Lysosomal proteins e) Membrand and secreted proteins 5) The pathway for a secretory protein leaving the cell would be: a) RER (stop sequence) to SER to Golgi trans face to Golgi cis fast to secretion b) RER (stop sequence) to SER to Golgi cis face to Golgi trans face to secretion c) Free floating ribosomes (stop sequence) to RER to Golgi trans face to Golgi cis fast to secretion d) Free floating ribosomes (stop sequence) to RER to Golgi cis face to Golgi trans face to secretion e) SER (stop sequence) to Golgi trans face to Golgi cis face to secretion 6) The attachment of Ubiquitin to a protein leads to: a) Protein secretion b) Protein synthesis c) Lysosomal degradation d) Peroxisomal degradation e) Proteosomal degradation 7) On an electron micrograph you see large, round, fatty deposits in the cell. After more investigation, you determine the patient has I-Cell (inclusion-cell) Disease as the cell is accumulating unneeded inclusions. What causes this disorder? a) Failure to label proteins for peroxisomes b) Failure to label proteins for secretion c) Failure to label proteins for lysosomes d) Failure to label proteins for synthesis e) Failure to label proteins for conversion Histology #4 – Nucleus & Cell Cycle 1) You are looking at an electron micrograph of a cell in S-phase and see two objects oriented at 90 degrees. The one you can see on-end is surrounded by nine triplets of little circles. What would best describe one of these objects? a) Centrosome b) Basal Body c) Centriol d) Cilia e) Microtubule 2) Which of the following is NOT true? a) In size, Actin filaments < Intermediate filaments < Tubulin b) Microfilaments have a role in wound healing c) Intermediate filaments have a role in tumor diagnosis d) In size, Actin filaments = Microfilaments = Thin filaments

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Histology

14Mar2009

e) Tubulin has no pharmacologic value 3) A static cell population, such as neurons, is said to be in the ____ phase of the cell cycle. a) G0 b) G1 c) G2 d) S e) M 4) If a cell has a high level of irreparable damage, DNA synthesis will be blocked. This pathway begins with active p53 and the transcriptional regulation by: a) CDK2 b) p21 c) Cycline E d) pRb e) E2F 5) Mitotic catastrophe can occur in all of the following cases EXCEPT: a) Failure to activate apoptotic cycle b) Malfunction of restriction checkpoints c) Malfunction of S-phase DNA-damage checkpoint d) Malfunction of M-phase DNA-damage checkpoint e) Malfunction of G1/G2-phase DNA-damage checkpoints 6) In what cell phase does crossing over (pachytene) take place? a) Meiotic I metaphase b) Meiotic I prophase c) Meiotic II metaphase d) Meiotic II prophase e) Meiotic I anaphase 7) Which of the following best describes cell necrosis? a) Same as apoptosis b) For cells that are no longer needed c) For cells exposed to toxin or physical damage d) Is controlled autodigestion e) Cell lysis generally does not happen 8) All of the following are factors that can trigger apoptosis EXCEPT: a) Sudden release of calcium from the mitochondria b) Tumor necrosis factor c) Transforming growth factor (beta) d) Lack of growth factors e) DNA fragmentation (radiation, toxins, CD8+) Histology #5 – Epithelium I 1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial cells? a) Cohesive b) Avascular c) Organized d) Contents are the same from apical to basal

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Histology

14Mar2009

e) Contain cytokeratins 2) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the basal lamina? a) It lies between epithelial cells and connective tissue b) It is made of reticular lamina c) It contains the lamina densa d) It contains the lamina lucida e) Main components include type IV collagen and laminin 3) Which of the following is NOT a function of epithelial cells? a) Impulse conduction b) Sensation (neuroepithelium) c) Transport d) Absorption e) Protection 4) Which of the following prevents the movement of materials between adjacent cells? a) Microvillus b) Zonula adherens c) Zonula occludens d) Desmosome e) Gap junctions 5) The ____ function to adhere neighboring cells and the ____ function to adhere cells to the basement membrane. a) Hemidesmosomes, Desmosomes b) Cadherins; Desmosomes c) Hemidesmosomes; Integrines d) Integrins; Cadherins e) Desmosomes, Hemidesmosomes 6) Which of the following is involved in cell-to-cell communication? a) Gap junctions b) Desmosomes c) Demilunes d) Hemidesmosomes e) Basal lamina Histology #6 – Epithelium II 1) Which of the following is NOT matched correctly? a) Simple squamous; flattened nucleus b) Simple cuboidal; rounded nucleus c) Simple columnar; circular nucleus d) Simple squamous; lining of blood vessels e) Simple cuboidal; tubules of kidney 2) Which of the following contribute to the brush border? a) Actin and microvilli b) Microvilli and glycocalyx c) Glycocalyx and actin d) Actin and myosin e) Protein and sugar

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Histology

14Mar2009

3) How can you identify cilia on a slide? a) PAS stains them dark and H&E would leave them lucent b) There would be nine triplets of tubes c) There would be thirteen doublets of tubes on the outside and two inside d) There would be nine doublets of tubes on the outside and two inside e) They can be seen at 100x magnification 4) Stereocilia move via: a) ATPase b) GTPase c) Magnesium d) Calcium e) Passive methods only 5) You are given an unknown epithelial cell sample from a female patient. Which of the following is it most likely to be? a) Stratified sqaumous b) Stratified cuboidal c) Stratified columnar d) Transitional e) Stereocilia 6) Which of the following is NOT true regarding serous glands? a) Exocrine b) Named based on secretion c) Watery d) Few enzymes e) Cells form spherical clumps (alveolus/acinus) 7) Which of the following is NOT true regarding mucous glands? a) Secretions are viscus b) Secrete mucin c) RER is not present in basal region d) Cells form tubules e) Cytoplasm stains clear/lucent 8) Which of the following is true regarding serous demilunes? a) Mucus cells form a cap over serous tubule/acinus b) Serous cells form a cap over mucus tubule/acinus c) Mucus cells form a cap over mucus tubule/acinus d) Serous cells form a cap over serous tubule/acinus e) Parotid gland cells form a cap over submandibular cells 9) Which of the following is NOT true regarding exocrine glands? a) In merocrine there is no loss of cytoplasm b) In apocrine there is apical cytoplasm loss c) In holocine, the entire cell is lost d) Sebacious glands are considered holocrine e) Holocrine is the most common mode of secretion 10) Which of the following cells functions to contract and squeeze out secretions? a) Myoepithelial b) Contractoepithelial

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Histology

14Mar2009

c) Alveolar d) Tubular e) Acinar 11) Neuroendocrine cells (e.g. DNES) are considered ____ cells because they produce chemical signals that diffuse into the surrounding extracellular fluid to regulate the function of neighboring cells, without passing through the vascular system. a) Autocrine b) Exocrine c) Holocrine d) Paracrine e) Merocrine 12) Steroid-secreting cells stain pink due to large amounts of eosinophilic ____. a) RER b) SER c) Cytoplasm d) Nuclear membranes e) Peroxisomes 13) Which of the following best describes goblet cell cancer? a) Lymphoma b) Carcinoma c) Adenocarcinoma d) Sarcoma e) Adenosarcoma Histology #7 – Muscle I 1) Which of the following best describes the contraction of cardiac muscle? a) Strong, quick, discontinuous, voluntary b) Strong, quick, continuous, voluntary c) Strong, quick, continuous, involuntary d) Strong, quick, discontinuous, involuntary e) Weak, slow, involuntary 2) Mature muscle cells develop from ____ and initially from ____. a) Myoglobin; Myotubes b) Myotubes; Myoblasts c) Myoblasts; Myoglobin d) Myoblasts; Mytotubes e) Myotubes; Myoglobin 3) What is the function of endomysium? a) Separates muscle fibers b) Contraction c) Cell boundary d) Contains bundles of muscle fibers e) Covers the muscle 4) TnT associates with ____. a) ATP b) ADP

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Histology

14Mar2009

c) Actin d) Tropomyosin e) Ca2+ 5) TnC interacts with ____, which is required to move muscle. a) ATP b) ADP c) Actin d) Tropomyosin e) Ca2+ 6) TnI inhibits the ____ interaction. a) Ca2+/TnC b) Cross-bridge c) Actin/Myosin d) TnC/TnT e) TnC/ADP 7) Which of the following is associated with the M-line? a) Alpha actinin b) Creatine Kinase c) Myosin d) Tropomyosin e) ATPase 8) Which of the following is associated with the Z-disc? a) Alpha actinin b) Creatine Kinase c) Myosin d) Tropomyosin e) ATPase 9) Which of the following is associated with the H-zone/band? a) Alpha actinin b) Creatine Kinase c) Myosin d) Tropomyosin e) ATPase 10) (A-band) – (Zone of Overlap) = a) Z-disc b) M-line c) H-zone d) I-band e) (A-band) / 2 11) Which of the following is associated with the I-band? a) Alpha actinin b) Creatine Kinase c) Myosin d) Tropomyosin e) Actin

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Histology

14Mar2009

12) A segment of muscle shows cells of various diameters in cross-section (spindleshaped). What type of muscle is this segment? a) Skeletal b) Cardiac c) Smooth Histology #8 – Muscle II 1) What structure invaginates into the middle of the muscle cell to transport Ca2+ into the middle of the cell when it is released into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, to help depolarize the membrane? a) Basal lamina b) Myofibrils c) T-tubules d) Reticular fibers e) Sarcolemma 2) What structures form what is known as the triad? a) 3 T-tubules b) 2 T-tubules, 1 Sarcoplasmic reticulum c) 1.5 T-tubules, 1.5 Sarcoplasmic reticulums d) 1 T-tubule, 2 Sarcoplasmic reticulums e) 3 Sarcoplasmic reticulums 3) Which of the following is true for White skeletal muscle fibers? a) Lots of ATP b) Large glycogen store c) For prolonged contractions d) Found in erector spinae e) Fast-twitch 4) A patient arrives at the Emergency Room complaining of difficulty breathing, vomiting, and diarrhea. The patient, a farmer, was exposed to an organophosphate fertilizer (similar to nerve gas). These chemicals bind to acetylcholinesterase and, in vivo, are abundant in comparison to acetylcholine. What would be the likely result of this interaction on skeletal muscle and what action would you look for in a drug to help fix this clinical problem? a) No muscle stimulation; Increase acetylcholine production b) No muscle stimulation; Increase acetylcholinesterase production c) Muscle over-stimulation; Increase acetylcholine production d) Muscle over-stimulation; Increase acetylcholinesterase production e) Muscle over-stimulation; Cleave current bond to acetylcholinesterase 5) What is the function of epimysium? a) Separates muscle fibers b) Covers the muscle with dense connective tissue c) Cell boundary d) Contains bundles of muscle fibers e) Contraction 6) In a fully contracted muscle, which of the following disappears? a) H-zone

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Histology

14Mar2009

b) M-line c) Z-disc d) I-band e) A-band 7) What enters the voltage gated channels and causes the synaptic vesicles to release acetylcholine? a) ACh b) AChE c) Ca2+ d) Actin e) Myosin 8) You are looking at a stained slide that was treated with pararosaniline-toluidine blue (PT stain). You notice dark-staining transverse lines that cross the chains of cells at irregular intervals. These are unique to what type of muscle? a) Non-striated b) Cardiac c) Skeletal d) Smooth e) Endodermic 9) In a small muscle such as the interossei of the fingers, one can expect to see ____ cells innervated by a single axon. a) No b) Very few c) Average; this number does not change between muscles in the body d) Many e) More than most other muscles in the body 10) Cardiac muscle characteristically has ____ T-tubule(s) and ____ sarcoplasmic reticulum(s). a) 2; 1 b) 1; 2 c) 2; 2 d) 1; 1 e) 3; 3 11) Which of the following is not a junctional specialization within cardiac muscle intercalated discs? a) Zona adherens b) Fascia adherens c) Desmosomes d) Gap junction 12) What type of muscle can be found in the walls hollow organs and sphincters? a) Skeletal b) Cardiac c) Smooth 13) What binds to Ca2+ and allows smooth muscle to contract? a) Desmin b) Vimentin

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Histology

14Mar2009

c) Actin d) Myosin e) Calmogulin 14) Which of the following is associated with dense bodies in smooth muscle? a) Alpha actinin b) Creatine Kinase c) Myosin d) Tropomyosin e) ATPase 15) What type of muscle cannot regenerate? a) Skeletal b) Cardiac c) Smooth Histology #9 – Connective Tissue 1) Which of the following is a major constituent of connective tissue? a) Golgi b) SER c) RER d) Extracellular matrix e) Calmogulin 2) The connective tissue originates from the ___ during embryonic development. a) Ectoderm b) Endoderm c) Mesenchyme d) Ectomesenchyme e) Endomesenchyme 3) Mucous connective tissue comes from what part of the embryo? a) Umbilical cord b) Midgut c) Hindgut d) Foregut e) Cardiac 4) Which of the following is not an embryonic connective tissue derivative? a) Cartilage b) Smooth muscle c) Fat cells d) Bone e) Skeletal muscle 5) A patient is hit in the face with a baseball during a pick-up game. The patient presents with a great deal of swelling on the left cheek. What type of connective tissue is responsible for this swelling response? a) Bone b) Cartilage c) Adipose d) Dense

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Histology

14Mar2009

e) Loose 6) Which of the following is characteristic of dense irregular connective tissue and NOT of dense regular connective tissue. a) Few fibroblasts b) Little ground substance c) Fibers arranged in a parallel array d) Found in hollow organ submucosa e) Large amounts of collagen fibers 7) Which of the following is found in both the ground substance and extracellular matrix? a) Proteoglycans b) Glycoproteins c) Glycosaminoglycans d) Dermatan sulfate e) Keratane sulfate 8) Which of the following is NOT true regarding collagen? a) High tensile strength b) Form covalent bonds between adjacent molecules c) Stain with hemotoxylin d) Molecules are composed of three glycoprotein alpha-chains e) Combination of 27 different alpha-chains can make 19 collagen types 9) Reticular fibers are composed of Type ____ collagen fibrils. a) II b) III c) IV d) I e) VI 10) A lesion of the ____ gene results in Marfan’s sydrome. a) Elastin b) Tubuline c) Reticulin d) Collagenin e) Fibrillin 11) The special stains orcein (brown) and resorcin-fuchsin (bluish-gray) are used for what type of connective tissue? a) Collagen fibers b) Reticular fibers c) Elastin fibers d) Fibroblasts e) Histiocytes 12) Resident cell populations (relatively stable component) include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Macrophages b) Adipose cells c) Mast cells d) Basophils e) Mesenchymal cells

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Histology

14Mar2009

13) Transient cell populations (migrate from other tissues to specific stimuli) include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Fibroblasts b) Lymphocyetes c) Plasma cells d) Neutrophils e) Eosinophils 14) While looking at a section of skin (dermis, connective tissue) stained with H&E, you see several elongated cells. What are these? a) Mast cells b) Fibroblasts c) Elastin fibers d) Reticular fibers e) Histiocytes (Macrophages) 15) Similar in behavior to smooth muscle, these cells are seen in wound contraction and closure. a) Collagen fibers b) Fibroblasts c) Elastin fibers d) Reticular fibers e) Myofibroblasts 16) While looking at a section of lymph node at high magnification, you see some cells that have kidney shaped nuclei, large golgi complexes, and lots of RER. What are these structures? a) Mast cells b) Fibroblasts c) Mesenchymal cells d) Histiocytes e) Reticular fibers 17) While looking at a respiratory tract section stained with tuloidin blue, you see metachromatically stained granules. You notice large, ovoid cell with spherical nuclei. You recall these cells are involved in anaphylactic reactions. What are they? a) Mast cells b) Fibroblasts c) Mesenchymal cells d) Histiocytes e) Reticular fibers 18) These connective tissue cells are defensive, have Barr body nuclei in females, and are capable of migrating. a) Fibroblasts b) Neutrophils c) Basophils d) Eosinophils e) Mast cells 19) What type of lymphocyte differentiates in the thymus and is the most common? a) B

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Histology

14Mar2009

b) Plasma c) T d) NK (natural killer) e) Basophil 20) What type of adipose cells is characteristics for newborns, has numerous mitochondria, and several fat droplets in the cytoplasm? a) White b) Yellow c) Gray d) Brown e) Black Histology #10 – Cartilage 1) Cartilage consists of cells called condrocytes, which are large ____ cells with ____ cytoplasm and a small nucleus. They produce the extracellular matrix, which is high in glycoasminoglycans (GAGs). a) Large; Dark staining b) Large; Light staining c) Large; No d) Small; Dark staining e) Small; Light staining 2) What extracellular matrix subtype involves Type I collagen fibers? a) Hyalin cartilage b) Elastic cartilage c) Fibrous cartilage 3) What extracellular matrix subtype involves Type II collagen fibers and is not detectable with the H & E stain? a) Hyalin cartilage b) Elastic cartilage c) Fibrous cartilage 4) Hyalin cartilage is found in low friction joint surfaces, binding bones together via: a) Synchondrosis b) Synovial c) Symphysis d) Ligaments e) Tendons 5) The hyalin cartilage matrix contains 60-80%: a) Type II fibrils b) Type XI fibrils c) Type IX fibrils d) GAGs and proteoglycans e) Water 6) Chondrocyte cytoplasm is ____ when active (lots of RER). The territorial matrix, unlike the interterritorial matrix, is high in GAGs and thus stains ____ blue. a) Eosinophilic; Dark b) Eosinophilic; Light

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Histology

14Mar2009

c) Basophilic; Dark d) Basophilic; Light 7) You are looking at a slide of chondrocytes and do not see any isogenous groups (clusters). What would this indicate? a) Damaged cartilage b) Eosinophilic cytoplasm c) Old, non-dividing cartilage d) Young, growing cartilage e) Nothing can be discerned from this information 8) All of the following would stain lightly EXCEPT: a) Golgi b) Lipids c) Chondroblast d) Glycogen storage 9) Which of the following is NOT true regarding perichondrium? a) Carries vessels and nerves to the avascular cartilage b) Outer layer is rich in collagen fibers c) Inner layer is source of new cartilage cells d) It is always present at articular surfaces e) A hemotoma pushing on the perichondrium would lead to cartilage death 10) What type of cartilage does not calcify with aging and stains with resourcin-fuchsin or orcein? a) Hyalin cartilage b) Elastic cartilage c) Fibrous cartilage 11) Which of the following is NOT true regarding fibrocartilage? a) There is little collagen between isogenous groups b) Chondrocytes sit in rows (isogenous groups) c) There is no perichondrium d) Stains with trichrome 12) You are looking at a slide of damaged cartilage and see a large eosinic area where cartilage should be. What do you suspect is replacing the cartilage in this area? a) Bone b) Nerve tissue c) Blood d) Lymph e) Muscle Histology #11 – Bone 1) What type of cells sit in the lacunae and are spider-shaped? a) Osteocytes b) Osteoblasts c) Osteoclasts d) Osteoprogenitor cells

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Histology

14Mar2009

2) You are looking at a cross sectional slide of bone stained. You see several concentric eosinophilic circles around a non-stained circle. What normally sits in the non-stained area? a) Nerve b) Artery c) Vein d) Lamella e) Lipids 3) The interstitial lamina is between the osteon space and is filled with ____ Haversian systems. The outer circumferential lamella is under the ____ and the inner circumferential lamella is under the ____. a) Old; Haversian system; Lacunar space b) New; Endosteum; Periosteum c) Old; Endosteum; Periosteum d) New; Periosteum; Endosteum e) Old; Periosteum; Endosteum 4) Immature bone would have ____ lamella and would stain _____ basophilic. a) More; More b) Less; Less c) More; Less d) Less; More 5) Which of the following is a secretory cell (collagen secreting) capable of division? a) Osteocytes b) Osteoblasts c) Osteoclasts d) Osteoprogenitor cells 6) Which of the following are large multinucleated acidophilic cells that originate from monocytes? a) Osteocytes b) Osteoblasts c) Osteoclasts d) Osteoprogenitor cells 7) What type of ossification occurs in the flat bones of the embryo skull and involves mesenchymal cells turning into osteoblasts? a) Endochondral b) Heterotopic c) Intramembranous d) Epiphyseal e) Metaphysis 8) What type of ossification uses hyaline cartilage and involves interstitial and appositional growth (diameter increased via periosteum)? a) Endochondral b) Heterotopic c) Intramembranous d) Epiphyseal e) Metaphysis

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Histology

14Mar2009

9) During endochondral ossification, which zone has cartilage cells arranged in rows? a) Zone of resorption b) Zone of calcified cartilage c) Zone of hypertrophy d) Zone of proliferation e) Zone of reserve cartilage Histology #12 – Nerve Tissue 1) The Golgi-Silver stain darkly stains about ____ of all cells in a ____ manner. a) 95%; Random b) 95%; Structured c) 5%; Random d) 5%; Structured 2) Most neurons belong to what category? a) Sensory, somatic afferent b) Sensory, visceral afferent c) Motor, somatic efferent d) Motor, visceral afferent e) Interneurons 3) Nissl bodies are high in ____ and have a ____ level of metabolism (protein synthesis). a) RER; Low b) RER; High c) SER; Low d) SER; High 4) The axon hillock stains ____ because it has ____ cell organelles, which is the major distinction between the axon and dendrite. a) Darkly; Numerous b) Lightly; No c) Darkly; Numerous d) Lightly; No 5) Most neuron cells are of what type? a) Bipolar b) Multipolar c) Pseudounipolar 6) Purkinji cells are unique to what part of the brain? a) Corpus callosum b) Cerebrum c) Limbic system d) Cerebellum e) Brain stem 7) Where would pseudounipolar nerve cells most likely be found? a) IML b) Ventral horn c) Dorsal root ganglion d) Superior cervical ganglion e) Cardiac plexus

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Histology

14Mar2009

8) Olfactory sensory cells are ____ and retinal sensory cells are ____. a) Bipolar; Bipolar b) Unipolar; Unipolar c) Bipolar; Unipolar d) Unipolar; Bipolar e) Multipolar; Multipolar 9) Satellite cells are unique to the: a) IML b) Ventral horn c) Dorsal root ganglion d) Superior cervical ganglion e) Cardiac plexus 10) Motor neurons (multipolar) in the spinal cord have cell bodies in the: a) IML b) Ventral horn c) Dorsal root ganglion d) Superior cervical ganglion e) Cardiac plexus 11) The Giemsa Stain (a Nissl stain) could show some of the ____ cortical layers. a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6 12) What type of cell is NOT formed from mesoderm? a) Skeletal muscle b) Tubule of the kidney c) Microglia d) Red blood cells e) Cardiac muscle 13) Which of the following cells is NOT found in the CNS? a) Oligodendroglia b) Astrocytes c) Microglia d) Schwann cells e) Ependymal 14) Which of the following contains GFAP, an easily stained protein? a) Oligodendroglia b) Astrocytes c) Microglia d) Schwann cells e) Ependymal 15) Which of the following is a phagocytic cell derived from bone marrow? a) Oligodendroglia b) Astrocytes c) Microglia

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Histology

14Mar2009

d) Satellite cells e) Ependyma 16) Which of the following CNS cells has a similar function to the Schwann cell (producing mylin sheath)? a) Oligodendrocytes b) Astrocytes c) Microglia d) Satellite cells e) Ependymal 17) Unmyelenated axons would be found in the ____ embedded into ____ cell cytoplasm. a) CNS; Oligodendrocyte b) CNS; Astrocyte c) PNS; Satellite d) PNS; Schwann 18) Which of the following envelopes covers a bundle of nerve fibers? a) Endoneurium b) Perineurium c) Epineurium 19) Which of the following envelopes contains blood vessels? a) Endoneurium b) Perineurium c) Epineurium 20) Protoplasmic astrocytes (vs. fibrous astrocytes) are mainly in the ____ matter and have ____ branching processes. a) Gray; Short b) Gray; Long c) White; Short d) White; Long 21) Which of the following is the largest neuroglial cells in the CNS? a) Oligodendrocytes b) Astrocytes c) Microglia d) Satellite cells e) Ependymal 22) Which of the following cells functions in debris removal (activated at injury sites)? a) Oligodendrocytes b) Astrocytes c) Microglia d) Satellite cells e) Ependymal 23) Which of the following cells in involved in formation of CSF and lines CSF-filled cavities of the CNS? a) Oligodendrocytes b) Astrocytes c) Microglia d) Satellite cells

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Histology

14Mar2009

e) Ependymal 24) As a cell becomes more polarized (negative charge inside), Na+ moves ____ and K+ moves ____. a) Out; Out b) In; In; c) Out; In d) In; Out 25) A patient presents after eating at an exotic asian restaurant. They ordered pufferfish after signing a waiver. A mistake by the chef in preparing the pufferfish could lead to tentrodotoxin in the served dish. What would be the most likely result for the patient if they ingested the toxin? a) Cells rapidly polarize b) Cells cannot polarize c) Cells rapidly depolarize d) Cells cannot depolarize 26) A patient presents after visiting a clinic to get BOTOX (Botulinum toxin) injected into their lips. However, it appears the dosage given was too strong. What would be the most likely clinical presentation seen? a) Cells rapidly depolarize b) Cells cannot depolarize c) Excess neurotransmitter is released d) Neurotransmitter release is blocked 27) Inhibitory neurotransmitters will ____ channels, while excitatory neurotransmitters have the same action on the other ion. a) Open cation (Na) b) Close cation (Na) c) Open anion (Cl) d) Close anion (Cl) 28) Slow antegrade axonal transport carries: a) Structural proteins b) Mitochondria c) RER d) SER e) Lysosomes Histology #13 – Blood 1) Blood accounts for what percentage of total body weight? a) 3-4% b) 7-8% c) 11-12% d) 15-16% e) 19-20% 2) Hematocrit for males is approximately ____ and ____ for females. a) 20-30%; 15-25% b) 30-40%; 25-35% c) 40-50%; 35-45%

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Histology

14Mar2009

d) 50-60%; 45-55% e) 60-70%; 55-65% 3) Neutrophils account for what percentage of granulocytes (WBCs)? a) 10-30% b) 20-40% c) 30-50% d) 40-60% e) 50-70% 4) Lymphocytes account for what percentage of agranulocytes? a) 15-20% b) 25-30% c) 35-40% d) 45-50% e) 55-60% 5) Monocytes account for what percentage of agranulocytes? a) 2% b) 4% c) 6% d) 8% e) 10% 6) Which of the following is involved in managing osmotic pressure? a) Albumin b) ! globulins (immunoglobulins) c) " & # globulins (nonimmunoglobulins) d) Fibrinogen e) Bilirubin 7) Which of the following is the largest plasma protein secreted by the liver and is involved in clot formation? a) Albumin b) ! globulins (immunoglobulins) c) " & # globulins (nonimmunoglobulins) d) Fibrinogen e) Bilirubin 8) Erythrocytes are anucleate, deformable, eosinophilic cells devoid of typical organelles. They are broken down in the spleen, bone marrow, and liver; lasting approximately: a) 5 days b) 60 days c) 120 days d) 240 days e) 1 year 9) When viewing a scanning electron micrograph of erythrocytes from a blood tube, what appearance would be expected? a) Rings of donuts b) Random assortment c) Stacks of coins d) “X” formations

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Histology

14Mar2009

e) “H” formations 10) What is the role of erythrocyte integral membrane proteins in the lipid bilayer? a) Bind protein 4.1, 4.2, and 4.9 b) Activate actin and tryptomyosin c) Create hexagonal lattice network d) Create cytoskeletal framework e) Anchor cytoskeletal proteins 11) How many polypeptide subunits are contained within a hemoglobin molecule? a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1 e) None 12) Which of the following single point-mutation (gene) defects involves erythrocytes making them more rigid and increasing the risk of stroke? a) Cystic fibrosis b) Sickle-cell anemia c) Fragile-X syndrome d) Huntington’s disease e) Muscular dystrophy 13) Basophils account for what percentage of agranulocytes? a) 0.6% b) 0.3% c) 6% d) 3% e) 30% 14) Eosinophils account for what percentage of granulocytes? a) 50-70% b) 2-5% c) 0.3% d) 25-30% e) 8% 15) What type of cell has a tri-lobed nuclealis and is capable of migration to an injury site? a) Basophil b) Neutrophil c) Eosinophil d) Lymphocyte e) Monocyte 16) What type of cell has azurophylic granules and phagocytose antigens (Fc receptors)? a) Monocyte b) Lymphocyte c) Eosinophil d) Neutrophil e) Basophil

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Histology

14Mar2009

17) What type of cell has azurophilic granules, crystalloid body granules, granular matrix, and a bilobed nucleus? a) Eosinophil b) Lymphocyte c) Monocyte d) Neutrophil e) Basophil 18) What type of cells are intensely staining, look like poppy seeds, are activated by natural killer cells? a) Eosinophil b) Monocyte c) Lymphocyte d) Neutrophil e) Basophil 19) What type of cell has azurophilic granules, a bilobed nucleus, and is closely related to mastocytes of the connective tissue? a) Eosinophil b) Lymphocyte c) Monocyte d) Neutrophil e) Basophil 20) T-lymphocytes account for what percentage of all lymphocytes in the body? a) 60-80% b) 20-30% c) 5-10% 21) What type of lymphocyte does not express antibodies on the cell surface? a) T b) B c) NK 22) What T-lymphocyte subtype secretes lymphokines and recognizes antigen-bound MHC I molecules on virus-infection and neoplastic cells? a) Cytotoxic (CD8+) b) Helpter (CD4+) c) Supressor CD8+ d) CD45RA+ 23) What type of cells are capable of migration, phagocytose antigens, and remain in the blood for only three days? a) Eosinophil b) Lymphocyte c) Neutrophil d) Monocyte e) Basophil 24) What zone of the platelet structure contains microtubles and actin filaments? a) Peripheral b) Structural c) Organelle

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Histology

14Mar2009

d) Membrane 25) What type of platelet granules contains hydrolytic enzymes (lysosomes)? a) " (alpha) b) $ (delta) c) ! (gamma) Histology #14 – Lymphatic Tissue 1) Mucous associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) is the site of initial immune response and is an accumulation of what type of lymphocytes? a) T b) B c) NK 2) At what location do efferent lymphatic vessels leave the bean-shaped lymph node? a) Cortex b) Convex surface c) Medulla d) Hilum e) Sinuses 3) Follicular dentritic cells are not “classical” antigen presenting cells as they do not have MHCII and do not phagocytose the antigen. These cells have branches that surround what type of lymphocytes? a) T b) B c) NK 4) Which of the following correctly lists the circulation of lymphocytes from the lymph? a) Afferent lymph vessel, trabecular sinus, medullary sinus, subcapsular sinus, efferent lymph vessel b) Afferent lymph vessel, medullary sinus, subcapsular sinus, trabecular sinus, efferent lymph vessel c) Afferent lymph vessel, trabecular sinus, subcapsular sinus, medullary sinus, efferent lymph vessel d) Efferent lymph vessel, subcapsular sinus, trabecular sinus, medullary sinus, afferent lymph vessel e) Afferent lymph vessel, subcapsular sinus, trabecular sinus, medullary sinus, efferent lymph vessel 5) What type of cells phagocytose T-cells and stain intensely with PAS? a) Epithelioreticular cells b) Reticular cells c) Macrophages d) Lymph nodes e) Multipotential lymphoid stem cells 6) What type of cortical epithelioreticular cells are stellate with desmosomes and a light nucleus? a) Type I b) Type II & V c) Type III

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Histology

14Mar2009

d) Type IV e) Type VI 7) What type of cortical epithelioreticular cells do not express MHC I and II molecules? a) Type I b) Type II & V c) Type III d) Type IV e) Type VI 8) What type of cortical epithelioreticular cells arrange concentrically (like a sectioned onion) and produce thymosin/thymopoietin hormones? a) Type I b) Type II & V c) Type III d) Type IV e) Type VI 9) What is the function of the blood-thymus barrier? a) To prevent thymus vascularization b) To allow lymphocytes to be exposed to antigens c) To prevent lymphocytes from being exposed to antigens d) To allow the thymus cells to be replaced by adipose e) To prevent the thymus cells from being replaced by adipose 10) T-cell education involves ____ lymphoid cells and is characterized by expression and deletion of ____ antigens. a) Monopotential; Integral b) Monopotential; Surface c) Multipotential; Integral d) Multipotential; Surface 11) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the spleen? a) The red pulp is involved in cellular filtration of blood b) The white pulp is involved in immunological monitoring c) Capsule trabeculae divide the spleen into lobes d) The surface tissue capsule contains myofibroblasts e) The spleen is the smallest lymph organ 12) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the spleen? a) The splenic artery divides into trabecular arteries b) Central arteries branch from the trabecular into the white pulp c) After leaving the red pulp the central arteries divide into the white pulp d) Central arteries are sheathed with periarterial lymphatic (PALS) e) Malpighian corpusles contain B cells 13) ____ circulation is when penicillar arterioles enter into the ____ pulp cords and then filter into the sinusoids. a) Open; Red b) Open; White c) Closed; Red James Lamberg d) Closed; White

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Histology AnswerKey Histo #1 1) C 2) B 3) E 4) A 5) E 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) E 12) D 13) C Histo #2 1) C 2) E 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) E 7) E 8) A 9) C 10) B 11) D 12) B Histo #3 1) C 2) C 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) E 7) C Histo #4 1) C 2) E 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) B

14Mar2009 7) C 8) A Histo #5 1) D 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) E 6) A Histo #6 1) C 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) B 9) E 10) A 11) D 12) B 13) C Histo #7 1) C 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) E 6) C 7) B 8) A 9) C 10) C 11) E 12) C Histo #8 1) C 2) D 3) E 4) E 5) B

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6) A 7) C 8) B 9) B 10) D 11) A 12) C 13) E 14) A 15) B Histo #9 1) D 2) C 3) A 4) B 5) E 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) E 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) E 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) D Histo #10 1) B 2) C 3) A 4) A 5) E 6) C 7) D 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) A

Histo #11 1) A 2) B 3) E 4) D 5) B 6) C 7) C 8) A 9) D Histo #12 1) C 2) E 3) B 4) D 5) B 6) D 7) C 8) A 9) C 10) B 11) E 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) B 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) E 24) C 25) D 26) D 27) C 28) A

4) B 5) D 6) A 7) D 8) C 9) C 10) E 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) E 20) A 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) B 25) C Histo #14 1) B 2) D 3) B 4) E 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) E 9) C 10) D 11) E 12) C 13) A

Histo #13 1) B 2) C 3) E

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