Pre Mock 2

PRE MOCK CAT - 2

Test Booklet Serial Number: 7 7 0 3 4 9

INSTRUCTIONS Before the Test: 1. 2.

3. 4. 5. 6.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL THE SIGNAL TO START IS GIVEN. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, stop watches or any other device or loose paper. These should be left at a place as indicated by the invigilator. Use only an HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet. Enter in your Answer Sheet: (a) in Box 10 the Test Form Number, which appears at the bottom of this page, (b) in Box 11 the Test Booklet Serial number, which appears at the top of this page. Ensure that your personal data have been entered correctly on Side 1 of the Answer Sheet. Check whether you have entered your 7-digit Enrollment ID in Box 2 of the Answer sheet correctly.

At the Start of the Test: 1. As soon as the signal to start is given, open the Booklet. 2. This Test booklet contains 24 pages, including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet, verify that all the pages are printed properly and are in order. Also that the Test form Number indicated on the cover page and at the bottom of the inner pages is the same. If there is a problem with your Test Booklet, immediately inform the invigilator/supervisor. You will be provided with a replacement. How to answer: 1. This test has three sections which examine various abilities. These 3 sections have 90 questions in all with each section having 30 questions. You will be given two and half hours to complete the test. In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all three sections. 2. Directions for answering the questions are given before some of the questions wherever necessary. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question. 3. Each section carries 100 marks. Each section is divided into two sub-sections, A and B. All Questions in sub-sections I-A, II-A and III-A carry two marks each. All Questions in sub sections I-B, II-B and III-B carry four marks each. Wrong answers will attract a penalty of one-fourth the marks allotted to the questions. 4. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet. 5. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified. After the Test: 1. At the end of the test, remain seated. The invigilator will collect the Answer Sheet from your seat. Do not leave the hall until the invigilator announces. “You may leave now.” The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the Answer Sheets from all the candidates in the room. 2. You may retain this Test Booklet with you. Candidates giving assistance or seeking/receiving help from any source in answering questions or copying in any manner in the test will have their Answer Sheets cancelled.

MCT-0002/08

Test Form Number:

222

SECTION – I Sub-section I-A : Number of Questions = 10 Note: Questions 1 to 10 carry two marks each. DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 4: There is a blank in each of the following sentences. From the choices given, choose the one that fills the blank most appropriately. 1

“The ____________ of tobacco use and smoking amongst school children, especially girls, has been found to be alarmingly high in West Bengal compared to other states,” said Saddichha Sahoo, a senior WHO consultant. (1) prevailing (2) extravagance (3) prevalence (4) expenditure (5) inclination

2.

The activists are now using their campaign against IP on medicines as a ___________ to continue their assault on IP; and global warming has become the new battleground. (1) prologue (2) tendency (3) preference (4) precedent (5) policy

3.

An Indian rocket successfully launched 10 satellites into orbit at one go on Monday, reaching a __________ in space technology and boosting India's image as a major player in the multi-billiondollar satellite launching business. (1) nadir (2) retrograde (3) orbit (4) milestone (5) completion

4.

The few people left will be living in a ___________state - like Somalia or Sudan - and living conditions will be intolerable. One way to combat global warming, Turner said, is to stabilize the population. (1) civilized (2) cheerful (3) failed (4) secure (5) stable

DIRECTIONS for Questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Passage India nurtured various cultures in ancient times. Along with literature, fine art, music, dance and drama, architecture too, in all its grandeur, rose to great heights. It is not easy to explain Indian architecture; it is entirely different from that of Europe. Indian civilization begins with the Indus civilization that dates back about 4000 years. The famous cities of Harappa and Mohenjadaro are now in Pakistan, while the ruins of Lothal are in India. Aryans from the west settled in India and developed “Vedic” literature as part of the Brahman religion. These became the Holy Books of the religion, which later came to be known as Hinduism. During the 5th-6th centuries BC, Gautama Siddharta became Buddha and started Buddhism and Vardhamana became Mahavira and started Jainism. Buddhism had the support of the royal class and was adopted by the masses. As Buddhism spread across the country, so did its monasteries and temples. As Hinduism re-established itself strongly, the Buddhist presence disappeared from India in the 13th century. Cave temples typically represent the architecture of Ancient Times. Naturally there must have been castles, palaces and houses during that time, but none of those remain, because buildings constructed of wood, rotted or burned easily. Temples were built of bricks, but when Buddhism died out, these were destroyed or pulled down due to a lack of protectors. However, cave temples and monasteries still exist today because they were carved out of rock - a much stronger material. There are around 1,200 such cave temples and monasteries left and 75 per cent of them belong to Buddhism.

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As they were not satisfied with cave temples, entire sculpted rock temples were built during the Middle Ages. A few still exist unto the present day. In contrast to the rock temples that imitated wooden temples of ancient times, the stone temples, built by laying cut stones one on top of another, came to be the model of sculpted stone construction. But since these developed together, there is no line dividing the ages in terms of centuries. Construction of stone temples commenced in the 5th century, during the Gupta dynasty, but was standardized only during the 8th century. Many stone temples were built between the 7th and 9th centuries, but the temples carved out of rocks were constructed up till the 12th century. Hence according to the history of architecture, the transition from ancient times to the Middle Ages took many centuries. Buddhism took the lead in construction during ancient times and in contrast, Hinduism took the lead during the Middle Ages followed by Jainism. The method of stone construction improved by leaps and bounds in north and south India. The style caught on and very soon the whole of India was filled with stone structures. The Chandella dynasty in the north and the Chola dynasty in the south showed remarkable developments in architecture, by building magnificent temples, using stone. Islam entered India during the 11th century and established power in Delhi during the 13th century. Till the 16th century, the Turkish and Afghan dynasties continued to rule Delhi during a period referred to as the “Delhi Sultanate”. Western styles of architecture, including techniques like domes were brought to India during this age and had a strong influence on building styles. This period called the Middle Ages, and the advent of the Mughals who conquered most of India, signalled the beginning of the Modern Age. Mughal rule spread into more than half the sub-continent and the splendid Mughal style, which is a mix of the Indo-Islamic construction style, also blossomed. At that time, the Vijayanagara kingdom, which is predominantly Hindu, flourished in south India. At the same time, the Nayaks who were also Hindus ruled over some areas in the south. Both these dynasties appreciated technical developments with the main themes being large-scale construction, complex expressions and elaborate decorations. This phase is called the Modern Age. Emperor Akbar’s Hindu-Islamic fusion in north India and the lavish Dravidian style of construction in the south are remarkable styles of this age. Modern Age Indian architecture also includes the British era in India, until its Independence in 1947. British rule coincided with the decline of the Mughal era and the revival of Hinduism. The construction during this time was an adaptation of the Indian style in the colonial style brought from Europe. The direct impact of British architecture was seen from the second half of the 19th century, when research on Indian architectural history advanced and the Mughal style influenced colonial constructions. It is referred to as the Indo-Saracenic style. As we plunge into the age of Modernism (postIndian Independence), we have to say that architectural styles differed largely until then. A major influence on Indian architecture, post-Independence, was that of French architect, Le Corbusier, who designed Chandigarh and various buildings in Ahmedabad. Indian architects, educated in Europe and America also made a mark, but trying to transplant the architecture of Europe and America that was very different in history and style had its own problems. It is only right to call modern architecture “Cosmopolitan architecture”. The 600-odd buildings in the book, are grouped together according to their similarities. To enable the traveller to decide which place to visit, the buildings are given a star rating, from 0 to 3. The rating is based on the fascinating quality of the building. If a building has archaeological importance, but is in ruins, then it is given a low rating. Ratings are also given from 1 to 3, with regards to the region, the importance or number of buildings, natural scenery, etc. This is done as a subjective measure to help the traveller use this as a yardstick while planning his journey. 5.

It can be inferred that the author mentions the cave temples regarding ancient Indian architecture in order to (1) showcase the range of Indian art in all its forms (2) highlight their importance as enduring displays of Indian art (3) demonstrate the common man’s approach to art (4) argue against the popularity of high art (5) draw parallels between ancient and modern forms of architecture

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6.

The author mentions this “there is no line dividing the ages in terms of centuries” with reference to (1) the lack of evidence to display the development of stone temples (2) the lack of a definitive time period when temple architecture developed in India (3) the absence of a definitive demarcation between the development of rock and stone temple architecture (4) the absence of any authoritative piece of documentation that proved the superiority of rock temples (5) the lack of evidence of the starting point of temple art in India

7.

It can be inferred that the domes and other Western styles of architecture were brought into India during (1) 11th to 13th centuries (2) 11th century (3) 14th century (4) 13th century (5) 16th century

8.

It can be inferred that this passage is an extract from a/an(1) book on Indian architecture for tourists (2) article on growth and development of Indian architecture (3) a collection of essays on Indian architecture (4) a tourist guide by eminent architects (5) a book on architecture for architects

DIRECTIONS for Questions 9 and 10: Each of the following questions has a paragraph with one italicized word that does not make sense. Choose the most appropriate replacement for that word from the options given below the paragraph. 9.

Most countries rely upon the police to enforce the law. Police officers most often must be professionally trained in law enforcement before they are permitted to act under the ‘migith of law’, to issue legal warnings and citations, execute search or other legal warrants and to make arrests. (1) label (2) flush (3) colour (4) grade (5) tenet

10.

Lenin was the initiator of the central drama - the tragedy - of our era, the rise of totalitarian states. A hhixcd man with a scholar’s habits and a general’s tactical instincts, Lenin introduced to the 20th century the practice of taking an all-embracing ideology and imposing it on an entire society rapidly and mercilessly. (1) hawkish (2) boorish (3) rakish (4) bookish (5) fiendish

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Sub-section I-B : Number of Questions = 20 Note: Questions 11 to 30 carry four marks each. DIRECTIONS for Questions 11 to 14: Read the arguments given below and answer the questions that follow. 11.

Reproduction in the hammerhead shark occurs once a year and each litter contains 20 to 40 pups. Unlike many other shark species, the hammerhead shark has internal fertilization which creates a safe environment for the sperm to unite with the egg. The embryo develops within the female inside a placenta and is fed through an umbilical cord, similar to mammals. The gestation period is 10 to 12 months. A world-record 1,280 pound (580 kg) pregnant female hammerhead shark was caught off Boca Grande, Florida on May 23, 2006. The shark was carrying 55 pups, which suggested that scientists had previously underestimated the number of pups per gestation. Which of the following if true would most seriously weaken the conclusion that the scientists had previously underestimated the number of pups per gestation? (1) There is a direct correlation observed between the gestation period undergone by a female shark and the number of pups it can carry; the shark in question went through the normal gestation period of 10-12 months (2) There is a direct correlation observed between the weight of a female shark and the number of pups it can carry per gestation; most hammerhead sharks weigh somewhat less than 580 kgs. (3) There is a direct correlation observed between how far north up the US Atlantic coast a hammerhead shark is caught and the number of pups it carries in a litter; Florida is located towards the southern tip of the US Atlantic coast (4) There is no observed correlation between the weight of a female shark and the number of pups it can carry per gestation; most hammerhead sharks weigh somewhat less than 580 kgs (5) There is a direct correlation observed between the number of scientists examining a shark and the number of pups it carries; the scientist in this case were the same who had made the previous estimate

12.

The Fermi paradox is the apparent contradiction between high estimates of the probability of the existence of extra-terrestrial civilizations and the lack of evidence for or contact with such civilizations. Stated formally, Fermi's paradox states : the size and age of the universe suggest that many technologically advanced extraterrestrial civilizations ought to exist. However, this belief seems logically inconsistent with the lack of observational evidence to support it. Which of the following statements if true would most help to explain/resolve the Fermi paradox: (1) Life forms do arise and evolve elsewhere but events such as ice ages, asteroid impacts as experienced on earth destroy life before complex life forms can evolve (2) Some scientists believe that the conditions needed for complex life to evolve are unique to earth and hence the likelihood of extraterrestrial life is marginal (3) Technological civilizations may destroy themselves before or shortly after radio or space flight technology through nuclear or biological warfare or accidental contamination (4) According to Judeo-Christian belief God has placed human beings as the only intelligent life in the universe (5) It may be that advanced civilizations exist in our galaxy but they are simply too far apart for twoway communication to be effective

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The spinning jenny is a multi-spool spinning wheel It was invented in 1764 by James Hargreaves. The device dramatically reduced the amount of work needed to produce yarn, with a single worker able to work eight or more spools at once. In 1778, Samuel Crompton invented the spinning mule combining the spinning jenny with Richard Arkwright’s spinning frame and again dramatically increasing yarn production. The spinning jenny was so effective in increasing the efforts of a worker’s labor that Karl Marx cited it as one of the causes behind the elimination of slavery. Which of the following statements, if true, would most significantly strengthen the conclusion drawn by Karl Marx in the passage (1) Before the invention of the spinning jenny the number of slaves employed in the cotton plantations for harvesting raw cotton had been on the rise (2) Before the invention of the jenny more slaves were employed in cotton plantations for producing yarn than for harvesting raw cotton (3) After the invention of the jenny the number of slaves employed in producing yarn in cotton plantations fell dramatically compared to the number employed in other jobs on such plantations (4) The invention of the spinning jenny made it possible for workers using it to charge more for their skills (5) The regular use of the spinning jenny marked the beginning of the Industrial Revolution in many countries

14.

Our work has proven to be very successful in the past three years; each of our five clients has experienced the fastest growth of sales in their history. Therefore, if your company wants to increase sales, do not hesitate to call Singh and Mathur since we are the solution. Which of the following, if true, weakens the argument presented above? (1) Most of the consultants at Singh and Mathur hold MBA degrees. (2) Even without the help of Singh and Mathur, the five clients of Singh and Mathur would have achieved the same growth rate in sales. (3) Singh and Mathur does not provide a complete range of services. (4) Singh and Mathur uses an updated accounting approach to help companies cut cost. (5) Singh and Mathur has a dynamic DBMS.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 15 to 18: Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences. 15.

A. It is undisputable that in order to fulfill its many functions, water should be clean and biologically valuable. B. The costs connected with the provision of biologically valuable water in food production with the maintenance of sufficiently clean water, therefore, are primarily production costs. C. Purely ‘environmental’ costs seem to be in this respect only costs connected with the safeguarding of cultural, recreational and sports functions. D. This is fulfilled by water courses and reservoirs both in nature and human settlements. (1) D and A

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(2) C and B

(3) C and D

(4) A and B

(5) A and C

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16.

A. The pollution problem of the atmosphere resemble those of the water only partly. B. So far, the supply of air has not been deficient as was the case with water, and the dimensions of the air-shed are so vast that a number of people still hold the opinion that air need not be economized. C. However, scientific forecasts have shown that the time may be already approaching when clear and biologically valued air will become Problem No. 1. D. People are particularly sensitive about any reducing in the quality of the atmosphere, the increased contents of dust and gaseous exhalations and particularly about the presence of odors. (1) B, C and A

17.

A. B. C. D

(3) B, D and A

(4) C, D and B

(5) B and C

But I don’t care! On going fast, that is. I care about feeling in control and enjoying the act of driving. If I owned a Tribeca I’d tape the “off” button down.

(1) A only 18.

(2) A, D and C

(2) A and B

(3) C only

(4) B only

(5) A and D

A. The United States aren’t de-industrializing. B. Rather, many of its historic industries is getting smaller, and the jobs they offer are declining in quality. C. The scary thing is that this re-proletarianization of industrial work is moving up the value chain. D. Wheres’ it going next? (1) A, B and C

(2) B and C

(3) B and D

(4) C and D

(5) A, B and D

DIRECTIONS for Questions 19 to 21: Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D to form a logical sequence between sentences 1 and 6. 19.

1. Meeting people after nine to ten years, almost to the day, is a very weird experience. A. It genuinely felt awkward to meet people, some married and some with children, others married but who forgot to send out 200 cards to school friends, others, divorced. B. I did find out that the marriage was unhappy for all the wrong reasons, none because of the obnoxious twit that he is. C. I actually felt sorry for one of those guys, because, and if you knew equation with him in the school bus where we almost killed each other a few times, I would not have wished a divorce on him though, I would not have wished any woman on him either. D. I am in close touch with a couple of school friends - Doc, for example is an ass I can still call my best friend after twenty years - but my god, did he (or rather his overheating BMW) push my patience on Saturday night. 6. Everybody was fatter/ balder and in some cases both. (1) DCBA

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(2) CBDA

(3) DACB

(4) BCDA

(5) ABCD

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1. A. B. C. D. 6.

Even though dance starts a bit later than school does during the week, Saturday morning is still pretty chaotic around here. More so if John is leaving for an auction that day, because it means I have to truck Kristen and Alex with me and get them ready too. This is one of those mornings where John was rushing to leave too. There are buns to be done, bodysuits to find, tights to mend (because they’re always ripped somewhere) and a good breakfast to be had. His work van has been giving him some problems, so he was nervous about travelling with it (not to mention what it’s costing us to fix it). He couldn’t find his cell and even though he had woken up in a general good mood, I could see it going downhill from there.

(1) ACBD

21.

(2) ABCD

(3) ADCB

(4) BCDA

(5) BDCA

1. Climate change will trigger a chain of events that is likely to prompt an increase in HIV rates worldwide, an expert has warned. A. Daniel Tarantola of the University of New South Wales (UNSW) said the disadvantage in developing countries must be addressed if the world is to prevent a dramatic escalation of the HIV epidemic as well as other health problems. B. "It was clear soon after the emergence of the HIV epidemic that discrimination, gender inequality and lack of access to essential services have made some populations more vulnerable than others," Tarantola said on Wednesday. C. "Today, additional threats are lurking on the horizon as the global economic situation deteriorates, food scarcity worsens and climate change begins to affect those who were already dependent on survival economies," Tarantola said. D. David Cooper, also of UNSW, said: “Science has achieved great strides towards shaping a more effective response to HIV. 6. Yet research has not succeeded in producing the hoped-for 'magic bullets' of either a cure or a vaccine.” (1) BACD

(2) DCBA

(3) CDBA

(4) ABCD

(5) ADCB

DIRECTIONS for Questions 22 to 30: Each of the two passages given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Passage – I For 10 years or longer, my weekday routine as a psychiatrist had been constant: write mornings, see patients afternoons. With the publication of my book Listening to Prozac in 1993, new elements were added: travel and public appearances. One question followed me from lecture to lecture, from talk show to talk show, bookstore to bookstore. Because the question was so automatic, so predictable, it took me months to appreciate how peculiar it was. At a book signing, I might give a short introduction to this or that aspect of Listening to Prozac, discussing workplace pressures to remain upbeat, say, and the ethics of using medications in response. What I spoke about seemed not to matter. Inevitably someone would ask: “What if so-and-so had taken Prozac?” The candidates for drug treatment were drawn from a short roster of tortured 19th-century artists and writers. Friedrich Nietzsche and Edgar Allan Poe made frequent appearances.

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My response was perfunctory — a quick review of theories of art and neurosis. I resented the joking distraction from issues I had raised. I did not treat the what if question as I did others. I did not attend to it, puzzle over it, take it to heart. And then one day I did. The setting was a professional meeting in Copenhagen, in 1995. At home, as the Prozac book’s popularity grew, my standing among my colleagues fell — or so I feared. With a few thousand copies sold, a man is all right. With hundreds of thousands of sales, it is another matter. I was a popularizer, an opportunist who had made his way on the backs of others, the real researchers. This apprehension was a matter of hypersensitivity, of mild paranoia — although when a book succeeds, there are always belated “debunking” reviews, to feed an author’s insecurity. Speaking invitations poured in, and still I thought I heard snickering from the back row. But in Scandinavia! There I was a prophet with honour, like Jerry Lewis in France. The Finns were among the first to translate Listening to Prozac. Now it was being put into Swedish, with an introduction by the most eminent biological psychiatrist in Northern Europe, Marie Åsgard. The Swedes had persuaded the Scandinavian Society for Psychopharmacology to invite me as the keynote speaker at their annual meeting. My hosts had proposed the topic “Myths and Realities” about antidepressants. The core of the talk would concern an orthodoxy I considered mythical, the one that said antidepressants treat only depression. I wanted to review evidence that the drugs might influence personality traits in people with no mental illness at all. I spent a pleasant afternoon in Copenhagen on my own. The morning of my presentation arrived. I was in serious company — laboratory and clinical researchers. The practising doctors had seen effects similar to the ones I had described in my book, dramatic responses to medication. I felt myself on solid ground, the honoured guest. I launched into my talk. The audience was attentive, applause polite. A hearty fellow stood up to ask the first question. He had a smile that was familiar to me, from other audiences. His question was: “So, Dr. Kramer, what would have happened if Kierkegaard had taken Prozac?” Of course, in Copenhagen the suffering artist would be Søren Kierkegaard. Who else? He is the most famous Dane, give or take Hans Christian Andersen. Certainly Kierkegaard is the Dane best known for his melancholy, if you understand Hamlet to be fiction. Danes know Kierkegaard the way we know Mark Twain or Henry David Thoreau — perhaps more intimately. I was once told that when Danish children are sullen, parents will scold them, “Don’t be such a Søren!” Kierkegaard is part of what had brought me to Copenhagen, what had made the invitation appealing. I read Kierkegaard when I was young. My college roommate and I plowed through Either/Or together, after my roommate’s mother died. She had lived with Hodgkin’s disease for almost the whole of her son’s life and had never told him, for fear of blighting his childhood. That was like something out of Kierkegaard — selfsacrifice so radical as to be disturbing. On the flight across the Atlantic, I had browsed in a paperback version of Kierkegaard’s Diaries. How grim they are. Kierkegaard describes self-loathing, pessimism, dread, isolation, guilt, and anomie. He writes of wanting to shoot himself. Kierkegaard complains of a “primitive melancholy ... a huge dowry of distress.” He writes, “My whole past life was in any case so altogether cloaked in the darkest melancholy, and in the most profoundly brooding of misery’s fogs, that it is no wonder I was as I was.” And then: “How terrible to have to buy each day, each hour — and the price varies so!” And again: “The sad thing with me is that the crumb of joy and reassurance I slowly distill in the painstakingly dyspeptic process of my thought-life I use up straightaway in just one despairing step.”

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On my arrival in Copenhagen, I had taken a walk to the Kierkegaard statue, in the garden of the Danish Royal Library. For good measure, I sought out Kierkegaard’s grave in the old central churchyard. The walks gave time and occasion to take the measure of the man. So when I heard Kierkegaard in the usual question, I was aware of a particular person. What if effective treatment had been available to this man, the one who pays a terrible price for each day and each hour? That was how, standing before a group of friendly faces in a standard hotel conference room, I caught a glimmer of the problem with the what if challenge: The question had nothing to do with my talk and not much to do with my book. I had asked my listeners to consider medication’s effects on people who meet no criteria for any illness. How did that presentation suggest Kierkegaard? 22.

It can be inferred that the victim of the ‘mild paranoia’ was / were (1) The researchers who claimed him to be a popularizer (2) His publishers (3) The author (4) The reviewers (5) The researchers

23.

It can be inferred that Psychopharmacology deals with (1) Using scientific methods to treat mental problems (2) Using medicine to treat mental problems (3) Using medicine to alter the psychological state of people (4) Using medicine to treat relatives and families of mental patients (5) Using medicine to develop psychological healing techniques

24.

The phrase “…if you understand Hamlet to be fiction” is used to mean (1) Hamlet was a creation of Kierkegaard who was a melancholic (2) Hamlet is also a popular melancholic in Sweden but he is fictitious (3) Hamlet is a semi fictitious figure who is well known for melancholia (4) The author realized that the Danes were big fans of Shakespeare (5) Hamlet was an enthusiast

25.

Why does Kierkegaard describe ‘primitive melancholy’ as ‘a huge dowry of distress’? (1) Primitive melancholy refers to the genetic depression in human beings and is a legacy (dowry) from the ancestors (2) Depression is like a gift that turns to be something else altogether. (3) Swedes were against dowry and the association of dowry with depression fits in culturally. (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

Passage – II On the first page of the novel I am writing, I describe a horse — a gray mare named Mathilde. The mare is not a principal character in my novel; on page 23, when she briefly reappears in the hold of a ship crossing the Atlantic Ocean on her way to South America, I may, in the confusion of a stormy passage, easily forget about her and call her a pony; worse still, on page 84 where Mathilde is galloping on the plains of the Gran Chaco in Paraguay, I could have her become a filly. My point is that there is a huge difference between a mare, a pony and a filly. My Mathilde is long-legged, elegant, reliable, whereas a pony is tricky, often mean and tends to nip, and a filly is skittish, untrained, ready to bolt and do who knows what.

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Misspellings and inaccurate quotations and/or inaccurately rendered foreign phrases (and the writer herself is often the one to notice these most) stop the reader cold on the page. The same is true of typos. In a story I read recently, a dog called Marcia suddenly becomes Marci, and during the few seconds I was musing over the typo I lost sight of the actual dog. (It can also work the other way around and for the benefit of the writer: Richard Ford tells of meaning to write that someone was cold-eyed; only he typed old-eyed, which he liked better, so he kept it.) Either way, it doesn’t take much. Writing consistently goes beyond getting the facts right. “If it is one, say one,” says a Chinese proverb (and not eighteen minus seventeen nor five-sixths plus one-sixth). This is not, I think, a question of keeping it simple but of making it as true as possible. Not an easy task: At every turn, the sentence invites me to show how much I know, to show how smart I think I am; every metaphor, every analogy has the potential for fraudulence. Most of my comparisons are odious. Adverbs are hills I must climb to get to my destination; adjectives are furniture blocking my way. English is a naming language; its power derives from nouns. “Art,” Ken Kesey said, “is a lie in the service of truth,” a statement which may appear to be contradictory but is not. Interesting, too, how often a true story sounds both false and boring while a lie sounds quite plausible. (How often have I heard: “Listen, you won’t believe this but it’s a true story and if only I had the time to write, I’d . . . ?” I may believe it, but I don’t want to listen to it.) The truth does not have the urgency given a lie, nor does it have the consistency or the accuracy. The truth is obvious, self-evident; the truth is right there in front of your nose. A lie is more trouble. As the liar/writer, I have to convince. I have to appear sincere and be twice as clever so as not to get caught. One way of doing this is to use a lot of details, to distract the reader: “Yeah, yeah, I tell you, the guy was riding a horse, a big gray mare, with a long white tail and a braided mane, and the other thing I noticed about the mare is how she kept tossing her head up and down and working the bit in her mouth and how she kept flicking her ears back and forth . . . .” Or else one can do the opposite: Keep the lie simple and not describe or explain much; let the reader do some of the work: “I told you, he was riding a horse{ndash}you know what a horse looks like. . . . “ Making things up — as in fiction — sounds easy and like fun and it may be at first. By page three, to say nothing of by chapter five or six, I guarantee, it becomes harder and harder to sustain that lie or whatever the story is that you have made up. Harder still to continue to sustain the belief of your reader as well as to convince him of the worth of your endeavor; hardest of all for him to trust you with it. In my case, some of my writing is based on my experience — yes, I lived in Thailand, yes, I spent my childhood in South America — but most of it is based on accidentals, what I have heard or seen, and the rest on imagination. I borrow a bit here and a bit there; then I mix and rearrange to make it my own. And if I’m successful, in the end, I won’t be able to remember — like a good liar, I suppose — what is true and what is made up. Or I like to write about stuff the average reader may not know a whole lot about: Sufis, Thai culinary customs, Guarani lace-making. Or I do a lot of research and then try my damndest to hide it all — another form of deceit — because every fact, every date, every statistic (however accurate and consistent) in fiction is like a stone hurled into the hull of a boat and with each stone the boat sinks further in the water. But fiction in the long run and final analysis has more to do with vision and desire than with making things up. The stronger both are, the more the language will be accurate, consistent and, possibly, lovely. The reverse is also true — the more accurate and consistent the language, the stronger the vision. Each word must be paid strict attention to, looked after, prized — “a rose by any other name” does not smell as sweet. And there’s no point fooling around; once a word is set down on paper, it is out there forever (like the cork from a champagne bottle). “Stay on the body,” Gordon Lish used to admonish us in class about our prose; an example he liked to point to was Amy Hempel’s word-perfect “It was as quiet as a church,” her description of — what else? — of being inside a church in a story called “In a Tub.” Often, too, the shorter the word the trickier, the more difficult to deal with. And consider, for instance, if Molly Bloom had not said “yes.” For sure, to write is to

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engage in a difficult relationship with language. I picture each word as a jealous husband, a demanding lover, an unreliable friend. Language is a problem, a presence, a kind of energy; language, in the words of Ahab, “taxes me.” 26.

It can be inferred that the author talks about the mistakes with the horse, filly and mare in order to (1) Present herself as an easygoing person who is not afraid to admit to her mistakes (2) Showcase instances where she had also committed mistakes (3) Highlight the details that need to be taken care of while writing a book (4) In order not to appear too critical of others (5) Provide a framework for young writers

27.

What does the author mean by saying “English is a naming language”? (1) English is most conducive to indulge in name-calling (2) The main focus of English literature is names (3) The power of name-calling is immense in English (4) English is most suited to talking about different people (5) English language’s power derives from pronouns

28.

What does the author mean by quoting “Art is a lie in the service of truth”? (1) Art is all about lying in order to make the truth appear more plausible (2) Art deals with the truth in a different manner and sometimes this might appear as lying (3) Art lies in order to make the truth more interesting (4) Art is a lie and truth opposes it (5) Art is a lie that conceals the truth

29.

It can be inferred that fiction (1) tries to convince the reader of the veracity of the content (2) tries to interest the reader who knows that fiction is a lie (3) tries to match the level of lying between the author and the reader (4) shows that readers are not fooled equally easily (5) tries to get the reader muddled with a lot of data

30.

What is the author trying to convey by using the imagery of throwing stones into a boat, which sinks further to talk about fiction? (1) It becomes more and more difficult to sustain it (2) Each section irrevocably grounds the story (3) The stones indicate the burden of being a writer (4) The feeling of claustrophobia and entrapment as a writer (5) Putting the reader in endless circles

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SECTION – II Sub-section II-A : Number of Questions = 10 Note: Questions 31 to 40 carry two marks each. 31.

Given f(x) is a function satisfying f(x + y) = f(x) × f(y) for all real values of x & y. If f(1) = 3 and f(1) + f(2) + f(3) ....+ f(n) = 1092, then find the value of n. (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 (5) 9

32.

If x + y + z = 1 and x, y, z are non-negative numbers, then what is the minimum possible value of the following expression: [2 – x + yz]– 1 + [2 – y + xz]–1 + [2 – z + xy]– 1. (1)

33.

27 16

(2)

25 9

(3)

(4)

3 2

(5)

12 5

Find the number of consecutive zeros at the end of the number S where, S=

51 × 10 2 × 153 × ........100 20

11 × 22 × 33 × .....1010 (1) 245 (2) 195

34.

38 25

.

(3) 210

(4) 147

(5) 160

In a certain sequence, the first number P(1) = 1. Every subsequent number P(n) is equal to the previous number divided by 1 more than the previous number. What is the value of P(n)? (1)

1 n

(2)

1 2n – 1

(3)

1 2n + 1

(4)

1 n +1

(5)

2 n +1

35.

A picnic invites two kinds of charges: bus fare, which is independent of the number of people attending the picnic and buffet lunch, which increases directly with an increase in the number of people. The charges are calculated to be Rs. 165 per head when there are 200 invitees and Rs. 170 per head when there are 150 invitees. What would be the charges per head when there are 100 invitees? (1) Rs.175 (2) Rs.180 (3) Rs.185 (4) Rs.190 (5) Rs.195

36.

The number of integral solutions for (x, y) satisfying the equation x2 = 14 + y2 is (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (5) More than 3

37.

Find the sum of the series

1 1 1 1 + + + ....... + . log3 9 log9 9 log27 9 log n 9 3

12

(1)

n(n + 1) 2

(2)

2 n(n + 1)

(4)

n(n + 1) 4

(5)

4 n(n + 1)

(3)

n(n + 1)(2n + 1) 12

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38.

A trader used to make 5% profit on an item selling at usual marked price. One day, he trebled the marked price of the item and finally offered a discount of 30%. Find the percentage profit he made on the item that day. (1) 120.5% (2) 100% (3) 99.5% (4) 94.5% (5) None of these

39.

A trapezium DEFG is circumscribed about a circle that has centre C and radius 2 cm. If DE = 3 cm and the measure of ∠DEF = ∠EFG = 90°, then find the area of trapezium DEFG.

D

M

E

P C

G (1) 18 cm2 40.

(2) 16 cm2

N (3) 15 cm2

F (4) 12 cm2

(5) 20 cm2

The total number of dogs in a colony is a composite number less than 200. The ratio of the number of dogs which are Pomeranian, to those who are not, could be (1) 100 : 49 (2) 102 : 55 (3) 87 : 76 (4) 94 : 85 (5) 86 : 101

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Sub-section II-B : Number of Questions = 20 Note: Questions 41 to 60 carry four marks each. 41.

Srinivas was able to find the two natural numbers, both greater than one as soon as their product was told to him. There is no other piece of information that was given to him. If the product of the two natural numbers is greater than 40, then which of the following could be the product of the two numbers? (1) 48 (2) 55 (3) 60 (4) 63 (5) 42

42.

A rectangle with perimeter 88 m is partitioned into 5 congruent rectangles, as indicated in the diagram given below. Find the perimeter of each of the congruent rectangles.

(1) 20 m

(2) 32 m

(3) 48 m

(4) 96 m

(5) 40 m

43.

S is a set of triangles such that no two triangles in S are similar, all triangles in S are having angles in integral degrees. What is the maximum possible number of different isosceles triangles in S? (1) 88 (2) 89 (3) 90 (4) 91 (5) 92

44.

How many different points in the X-Y plane are at a distance of 5 units from the origin and have co-ordinates (a, b), where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are integers? (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 12 (5) 16

45.

Himesh said to Reshamiya “My wife is six years older than your daughter who is one-sixth the age my great-grandfather lived upto, but your eldest son is eight years younger than your second wife.” Reshamiya said to Himesh “My second wife is eight-seventh times the age of your wife. My eldest son is one-sixth the age of your great-grand father would have been today, had he not died six years ago.” What would Himesh’s great-grand father’s age have been at the time of conversation? (1) 84 years (2) 90 years (3) 96 years (4) 102 years (5) 108 years

46.

A person used to save 20% of his income. Since his income has increased by 20%, he started giving

2 10% of the income to a charity. Now he is saving 16 % of his net income (after donation to the 3 charity). Find the percentage change in his “Saving percent”. [“Saving percent” is defined as the savings of the person as a percentage of his income] (1) 10% (2) 15% (3) 22.22% (4) 25% (5) 20% 47.

Four digit numbers are formed using digits 3, 5, 6 and 8 without any repetition of digit in any number. Out of all such numbers formed, how many are divisible by 4 but neither divisible by 8 nor by 11? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) 6

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48.

Three triangular pyramid shaped dice, each having the faces numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4 were rolled simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the three faces appearing at the bottom is at least 8? (1)

49.

50.

35 64

29 64

(3)

1 2

(4)

What is the remainder when 36001 is divided by 13? (1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 4 2 3 If a b c =

(1) 3 51.

(2)

33 64

(4) 3

(5)

15 32

(5) 6

256 , then find the minimum value of (a + b + c), where a, b and c are positive real numbers. 27 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 9 (5) 12

ABCD is a rectangle with AB and BC equal to 4 units and 4 3 units respectively. On every side an equilateral triangle is drawn as shown in the figure. Points G, O, H and also points E, O, F are collinear. Find the area of the shaded region in square units.

E A

D O

G

H

B

C F

(1)

12 3

(2)

13 3

(3)

14 3

(4)

15 3

(5)

16 3

52.

An ‘n’ digit number is formed using the digits 3, 4, 5 and 6 where repetition of the digits is allowed. If the number of all such possible ‘n’ digits numbers exceeds 10000, then what is the minimum value of n? (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 (5) 9

53.

Two boats start from the opposite banks of a river simultaneously. They meet at a distance of 410 m from one of the banks and continue sailing further till they reach the opposite banks. They take rest for 1 hr each and start off the return journey. Now they meet at a distance of 230 m from the other bank. Find the distance between the two banks. Note: (Assume that river water is almost still) (1) 750 m (2) 840 m (3) 1100 m (4) 1200 m (5) 1000 m

54.

Three men are gambling in Casino Royal. They start with sums of money in the ratio 7 : 6 : 5 and finish with sums of money in the ratio 6 : 5 : 4, in the same order as before. One of them won $ 12. How many dollars did he start with ? [The three men gambled amongst each other, only] (1) $1080 (2) $420 (3) $210 (4) $108 (5) None of these

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15

55.

If ABCD is a square of side 2 cm, then what is the area of triangle EBC if the measure of the angle ∠ABE is 60°?

A

B

E C

D 3 +1 sq. cm 4

(3) ( 3 − 1) sq. cm

(1) (2 3 − 3) sq. cm

(2)

(4) (2 2 − 2) sq. cm

(5) 3 3 − 2 sq. cm

(

)

DIRECTIONS for Questions 56 and 57: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. 545 containers were shifted by a certain number of men and the job took 5 working days to complete. Everyday after the first day 6 more men were put on the job as a result of which each man had to shift 5 fewer containers than what he shifted on the previous day. 56.

57.

What was the total number of containers shifted on the 3rd day? (1) 144 (2) 150 (3) 169 (4) 181

(5) 200

How many men worked on the 5th day? (1) 12 (2) 15 (3) 25

(5) Cannot be determined

(4) 27

58.

The team of 11 players is to be selected out of 16 shortlisted aspirants. The team must include exactly one wicketkeeper, at least five bowlers and at least four batsmen. Out of these shortlisted aspirants, two are wicketkeepers, nine are batsmen and the rest are bowlers. In how many ways can the team be selected? (1) 108 (2) 126 (3) 1512 (4) 252 (5) 192

59.

Between the two natural numbers N and 450(both inclusive), there are four numbers that occur in both the series {7, 12, 17, 22, 27, …} and {16, 22, 28, 34, 40, …}. Find the number of possible values of N. (1) 36 (2) 24 (3) 15 (4) 18 (5) 30

60.

f(x) = log x for any real number x > 0

 n; if n is even  g(n) =  1  n ; if n is odd

for any natural number n.

If ‘x’ is a natural number greater than 1 then what is the value of f(f(xg(10))) – f(f(xg(9))) + f(f(xg(8)) – ..... – f(f(xg(1))? (1) log 10

16

(2) log (10!)

(3) log

256 63

(4) log

63 256

(5) None of these

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SECTION – III Sub-section III-A : Number of Questions = 10 Note: Questions 61 to 70 carry two marks each. DIRECTIONS for Questions 61 to 64: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A transportation company Dilli Ki Kanak, has a fleet of 30 trucks. It is in the business of transporting wheat to various cities from Delhi. The following table shows the freight charges(in Rs.) per truck, for transporting wheat from Delhi to various cities.

States Uttar Pradesh

Punjab

Madhya Pradesh

Cities

Charges

Cities

Charges

Cities

Charges

Amritsar

7200

Lucknow

7000

Bhopal

10500

Rajpura

5300

Allahabad

10150

Jabalpur

12000

Jalandhar

5200

Varanasi

11000

Bilaspur

13000

Khanna

7500

Kanpur

9000

Raipur

11000

The maximum capacity of each truck owned by the company is 5000 tons. Also, there are some additional charges as described below: I.

II. III. IV.

Any truck upon entering any of the three given states has to pay an additional state entry fees of Rs.5000, Rs.8000 and Rs.10000 for Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh respectively from Delhi. State entry fees is reduced by 30% for any truck which does not come directly from Delhi, irrespective of which state it enters from. For a truck commuting between two cities of a state, the freight charges will be equal to the difference between the freight charges of the cities from Delhi. If a truck is commuting between two cities of different states, the freight charges will be equal to double the difference between the freight charges of the cities from Delhi.

61.

The requirement at Jalandhar and Jabalpur are 2000 tons and 3000 tons respectively. What will be the minimum cost of transporting wheat to these two cities from Delhi? (1) Rs.25680 (2) Rs.300800 (3) Rs.32200 (4) Rs.34200 (5) Rs.30800

62.

If on a particular day the entry fee collected at the entry points of Uttar Pradesh is Rs.1,68,000, then which of the following cases is definitely false? (1) Ten trucks came from Punjab, Ten from MP and Seven from Delhi. (2) There was no truck from Delhi. (3) The total number of trucks that entered UP cannot exceed 24 on that day. (4) Not more than 21 trucks came from Delhi. (5) Seven from Delhi, Seven from MP and thirteen trucks from Punjab.

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17

63.

Recently, the company bought a smaller truck with the maximum capacity of 3000 tons and the total charges (freight + entry fees) for these trucks is 65% of the ones the company already has. If the wheat requirement in Kanpur is 9000 tons, then which of the following schemes should the company choose to minimize the cost of transporting wheat from Delhi to Kanpur? (1) 2 big trucks (2) 1 big and 2 small trucks (3) 3 small trucks (4) Either (1) or (2) (5) Either (1) or (3)

64.

Which of these cannot be the freight charge for a truck starting from Jalandhar and going directly to one of the given cities in UP? (1) Rs.3600 (2) Rs.9900 (3) Rs.10600 (4) Rs.7600 (5) Rs.11600

DIRECTIONS for Questions 65 to 68: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Ashok, Amit, Ajay, Akansh and Abhishek are five friends living in five different cities named Kunnamangalam, Joka, Vastrapur, Banerghatta and Prabandhnagar, not necessarily in that order. Their salaries are 700000, 800000, 900000, 1100000, 1300000 (INR per annum), in no particular order. Further, the following information is given about them: • • • • • •

Akansh, who does not live in Banerghatta, earns a salary that is a prime number multiple of 100000. The person, who lives in Prabandhnagar, is not the one who earns the minimum amongst these five friends. The difference between salaries of Akansh and Ajay is the same as the difference between salaries of Ashok and Abhishek. Amit made a call to one of his four friends living in Prabandhnagar who was earning a perfect square multiple of 100000 INR in salary. Ajay’s salary is 100000 INR more than the average salary of Akansh and Ashok Amit lives in the city, which has the shortest name amongst the above cities.

65.

If Akansh lives in Vastrapur, then what is the average salary of the persons living in Banerghatta and Kunnamangalam? (1) Rs.9 lakh (2) Rs.10 lakh (3) Rs.12 lakh (4) Rs.10.5 Lakhs (5) Data Insufficient

66.

Who stays in Prabandhnagar? (1) Ashok (4) Ajay

(2) Amit (5) Akansh

(3) Abhishek

67.

If Amit and Ajay live in cities with names starting with consecutive alphabets, then who lives in Vastrapur? (1) Ashok (2) Amit (3) Abhishek (4) Ajay (5) Akansh

68.

If person from Banerghatta does not earn the maximum or the minimum salary, then what is the average salary of persons living in Kunnamanglam and Vastrapur? (1) Rs.10.5 lakhs (2) Rs. 10 lakhs (3) Rs.12 lakh (4) Rs. 9 Lakh (5) Cannot be determined

18

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 69 and 70: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Five friends namely Bunty, Babli, Bonny, Bimal and Beckham are movie-buffs. In a given week they watch four movies namely No Entry, Page 3, Salaam Namaste and Iqbal such that each of them watches at least one movie during this week. Each of the four given movies are being screened at four different movie halls namely Satyam, Chanakya, Priya and Plaza (not necessarily in that particular order). One movie hall screens only one movie in that week. These five friends watch movies at these four movie halls only. Additional information given: 1. One of them watches all the four movies in this week. 2. Bunty and Babli always watch movies together and they watched only ‘No Entry’ and ‘Page 3’ in this week. 3. ‘Iqbal’ was not liked by most of these mentioned friends and was watched only by Bimal in this week. 4. There is only one movie that Beckham has not watched and it is being screened at Plaza. 5. Bunty does not watch a movie at either Priya or Plaza. 69.

70.

‘No Entry’ is being screened at which of the movie halls this week? (1) Priya (2) Satyam (4) Plaza (5) Cannot be determined

(3) Chanakya

‘Page 3’ is being screened at which of the movie halls this week? (1) Priya (2) Satyam (4) Plaza (5) Cannot be determined

(3) Chankya

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19

Sub-section III-B : Number of Questions = 20 Note: Questions 71 to 90 carry four marks each. DIRECTIONS for Questions 71 to 75: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following table gives the standings at a certain stage of a six-nation football tournament. Each team plays with the other team only once. A game of football involves only two teams. The team that scores more number of goals is the winner of that particular game. A game is said to be a draw if the goals scored by both the teams is the same. The following nomenclature holds true for the table, ‘P’ – Games played, ‘W’ – Games won, ‘L’- Games lost, ‘D’ – Games drawn, ‘GF’ – Goals For, ‘GA’- Goals Against, ‘GD’ – Goal Difference, ‘Points’ – Total number of points. Three points are awarded for a win, one for a draw and no points are awarded in case of a loss.

S.No.

Teams

P

W

L

D

GF

GA

GD

Points

1 2 3 4 5 6

ARGENTINA SPAIN FRANCE ITALY BRAZIL ENGLAND

4 4 4 4 4 4

1 0 0 2 1 1

1 1 1 0 0 2

2 3 3 2 3 1

4 4 3 6 5

4 5 4 4 3 6

0 –1 –1 2 2

5 3 3 8 6 4

Additional information given: (i) (ii) (iii)

The total number of goals scored in each of the drawn game is 2. Argentina and Italy drew their games with England and Brazil respectively. England beat Spain.

71.

France lost its game with a Scoreline (GF-GA) of (1) 0-1 (2) 1-2 (4) 2-3 (5) None of these

(3) 1-3

How many goals has England scored in its 4 games? (1) 2 (2) 3 (4) 5 (5) 4

(3) 6

How many games have been played till now? (1) 20 (2) 12 (4) 7 (5) 15

(3) 10

72.

73.

74.

Find the number of goals scored in the game between England and Spain. (1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Five

75.

Which of the following teams did Argentina beat? (1) Brazil (2) France (4) Spain (5) Italy

20

(3) England

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 76 to 80: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below: Each of 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are given a certain number of cards. They play a game, which has 8 rounds. In each of these rounds they redistribute the cards among themselves. The following bar graph shows the number of cards with each person at the end of every round. Additional information given: 1.

2. 3.

4. 5. 6.

A person has not received any card from any person if the number of cards with him/her has decreased in that particular round. Similarly a person has not given any card to any person if the number of cards with him/her has increased in that particular round. A person has neither received nor given any cards to any person if the number of cards with him/her does not change in that particular round. At the beginning of round 1 the number of cards with C is 3 more than the number of cards with A, the number of cards with E is 2 less than the number of cards with D and the number of cards with D and B are equal. The number of cards with A at the beginning of round 1 is equal to the number of cards with him/her at the end of at least one of these 8 rounds. The number of cards with E at the beginning of round 1 is never equal to the number of cards with him/ her at the end of any particular round. In any one round, a person can give cards to at most 1 person. 16

15 14

14

Number of Cards

14

14 13

13

12 12

12

12 10

14

13

13 12

11 9

9

10

10

9

10 9

8 8

11

10

10

9 8

8

10

10 9

8

8

8 7

7 6

6

6

5 4

4 2 0 1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

Rounds A 76.

B

C

D

E

Find the number of cards with C at the beginning of round 1. (1) 11 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 16

(5) 17

77.

Find the aggregate number of cards with D and E at the beginning of round 1. (1) 15 (2) 16 (3) 17 (4) 18 (5) 19

78.

Find the maximum possible number of cards that could have been exchanged between D and E. (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9 (5) 10

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79.

Find the number of cards exchanged between A and B across all the 8 rounds. (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7 (5) 8

80.

Find the minimum possible number of cards that could have been exchanged between E and C. (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7 (5) 8

DIRECTIONS for Questions 81 to 85: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In UK, as a part of a larger survey, the data on the weight and height of each individual was collected. The data for 5 individuals is as given in the graphs below. The survey results were also compared with the annual deaths (vis-a-vis the number of annual deaths in each category in the previous year) in each category of people namely underweight, normal weight, overweight, obese and extremely obese. The categorization was done based on the Body Mass Index (BMI). The index which considers both weight and height can be

 weight in pounds   × 700. calculated as BMI =   ( height in inches )2   

Height (in inches)

400

Height (in inches)

Weight (in pounds)

Weight (in pounds)

300 200 100 0 0

1

2

3

4

76 74 72 70 68 66 64

5

0

1

Individual

2 3 Individual

BMI

Weight Type

Annual Deaths

Less than 18.5 18.5 − 24.9 25 − 29.9 30 − 34.9

Underweight Normal weight Overweight

33,000 more No change 86,000 fewer

Obese Extremely obese

29,500 more 82,000 more

35 or more

4

5

81.

If the height of a person is 60 inches and the weight of the same person is 85 pounds, then find his BMI. (1) 16.45 (2) 16.76 (3) 16.53 (4) 15.53 (5) 15.93

82.

Which person is extremely obese from the given data? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1

83.

22

(5) Cannot be determined

From the given data, how many persons belong to the overweight category? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5

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84.

Which category of people, from the given data, witnessed a reduction in the number of annual deaths over the previous year? (1) Underweight (2) Overweight (3) Obese (4) Extremely obese (5) Normal weight

85.

If in 2002, there were 1.68 million obese people who died in UK, then what is the number of deaths of obese people in 2003? (1) 1.975 million (2) 1.85 million (3) 1.475 million (4) 1.79 million (5) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for Questions 86 to 90: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Between 1999 and 2003, UltraTech was the choice of all prospective employees, such that once a person was recruited at UltraTech, he never left the company. The following table gives the number of employees at UltraTech at the end of the year for the time period 1999 to 2003. The table also captures the education level of the employees. UltraTech does not employ people who are not atleast matriculates and once a person gets recruited, he cannot pursue further education. Number of Employees at the end of the year Post Graduates

Doctorates 5

17

16 28

1999 2000 2001 2002

24

Matriculate 64

52 112

1999 2000

132

268

1999 2000

2001

2001

2002

150

1999 2000 2001 2002

50

Graduates

212

37

62

2002 186

NOTE: It is necessary for a doctorate to be a post graduate, for a post graduate to be a graduate and for a graduate to be a matriculate. This means that the number of matriculates also include those who have gone ahead and done their graduation, post graduation, doctorates. Similarly for the numbers of graduates and post graduates.

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86.

At least how many graduates joined UltraTech in the year 2001? (1) 38 (2) 56 (4) 48 (5) Cannot be determined

(3) 62

87.

How many post graduates who did not continue their education to become doctorates, joined UltraTech in 2001 and 2002? (1) 15 (2) 14 (3) 13 (4) 12 (5) Cannot be determined

88.

How many employees joined UltraTech in the year 2000? (1) 68 (2) 91 (4) 75 (5) Cannot be determined

(3) 84

How many employees joined UltraTech in the period 1999 to 2002? (1) 204 (2) 268 (4) 364 (5) Cannot be determined

(3) 432

How many employees joined Ultra Tech in the period 2000 to 2002? (1) 220 (2) 264 (4) 248 (5) 256

(3) 204

89.

90.

24

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