Objective-ques

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MOCK Exam I 1. Auditor can also participate in Testing - T/F a) True b) False 2. The purpose of Testing is to uncover defects – T/F a) True b) False 3.

Most of the problems associated with the testing process occur from one of the following causes: a) Time constraint. c) People b) Use of ineffective test techniques

4.

Letting the testers find problems is an appropriate way to debug – Negative view of testing. a) True b) False 5. The U.S. General Accounting office summarized the errors detected in computerized applications broadly in to two categories: a) Logical and Cosmetic b) High, Low and Medium c) Software problems and Data problems d) Program defect and Poor Performance 6. Establishment of a testing policy is an: a) Test Manager’s responsibility b) Software Engineer’s responsibility c) Management responsibility d) IT Management responsibility 7. Two components of testing strategy are: a) What to test and what not to test b) Test Factor and Test phase c) White box and Black box testing 8. Testing produces a higher defect yield than any other dynamic techniques: a) White box b) Black box c) Load testing d) Stress testing 9. Retesting modules connected to the program or component has been changed: a) Unit Regression. b) Regional Regression c) Full Regression. 10. Designed to get a complete message with minimal distortion: a) Discriminative listening b) Comprehensive listening c) Critical listening d) Therapeutic listening

11. The listener is performing an analysis of what the speaker said: a) Discriminative listening b) Comprehensive listening c) Critical listening d) Therapeutic listening 12.

Within that time you should be communicating the solution to the problem to the customer: a) 5 Minutes b) 10 Minutes c) 30 Minutes d) 4 Minutes 13. The Leader of the task force should be an expert on the issues before the task force a) True b) False 14. The task force team should consists of: a) 10 to 12 members. b) 1 to 3 members. c) 3 to 8 members. 15. Task forces should be organized for a single purpose. a) True b) False 16. Which one of the following is not a structural system testing technique: a) Black box testing b) Stress Testing c) Execution Testing d) Compliance Testing 17. Data is selected to ensure that all paths of the program have been executed: a) Condition testing b) Branch testing c) Path testing d) Expression testing 18. A tool used to derive test cases from specifications: a) Check point review b) Code comparison c) Cause-Effect Graphing d) Complexity based analysis. 19. System transactions that are created for the purpose of testing the application: a) Test scripts b) Test Stubs c) Test Harness d) Test Data 20. From customer’s point of view Quality is Fit for use a) True b) False

21. Quality Assurance is sometimes called Quality control over quality control a) True b) False

a) b) c) d)

22. Verification what is being installed does not affect any portion of the application already installed or other applications interfaced by the new application. Functional Testing Manual Testing Regression Testing System Testing 23. The Objective of integrated testing: a) Validate the Application Design, and prove that the application components can be successfully integrated to perform one or more application functions: b) User Acceptance c) Path and Branch testing d) Functionality of a System 24. Cost of Quality is: Cost of Materials +Cost of Labor +Cost of tools a) True b) False 25. Testing should verify that the authorization rules have been properly implemented and evaluate with them: a) Functional Testing b) Manual Testing c) Compliance Testing d) Recovery Testing 26. Decision/branch coverage strategy a) always satisfies statement coverage b) is used in black box testing c) means that every branch direction is traversed atleast once d) is the same as condition coverage 27. Regression testing is a White Box testing method a) True b) False 28. Integration testing occurs when a) The system is ready to use b) Interfaces between unit-tested programs needs to be tested c) When testing client/server applications d) Testing the functions of the program against the specifications Match the following with the choices 29. Retesting modules connected to the changed program 30. Determines how well the user can interact with the system 31. Demonstrates key functional capabilities by testing a string of units 32. Path or Logic in a unit or program is known 33. Testing the functions of the program against the specifications 34. Test all the integrated components of an information system a) Black Box Testing d) Regression Testing b) White Box Testing e) Thread Testing c) System Testing f) Usability Testing

35. From Customer’s point of view, Quality is “Meeting Requirements” a) True b) False 36. Defects are recorded to a) Correct the defect b) To report the status of the application c) To improve the S/W development process d) All of the above 37. Integration testing occurs when _________ is complete a) Phase-end review b) Unit testing c) System Testing d) In-process Review 38. What are the 2 major components of risk a) Event and Loss b) Probability and Loss c) Judgement and Instinct 39. Test Manager a) Prepares test Documentation b) Designs the Test strategy c) Test data planning, capture and conditioning d) All of the above 40. Verification and validation activities begin a) After development phase b) After Design phase c) At the start of the project d) Before closing the project 41. Configuration management includes: a) Managing artifacts after development activity b) Managing artifacts after Testing activity c) Managing artifacts throughout all the phases 42. System test plan generation and verification activity takes place during the a) Analysis Activity b) Design Activity c) Conceptualization Activity d) Operation Activity 43. Regression testing is done during all stages of testing after a change is made a) True b) False 44. Knowledge of the most common risks associated with software development and the platform you are working on is known as ___________ a) Testing Risk b) Software Risk c) Business Risk d) Premature Release Risk

45. You see a programmer constantly under performing. You know he is a good worker but of late he has not been doing anything right. What would you do? a) Throw him out of the job b) Give him time, maybe he’ll turn around c) Talk to him privately and try and understand his problem, provide constructive feedback/criticism d) Scold him in front of all his co-workers; it will surely make an impression 46. Testing is least costly in the requirements phase a) True b) False 47. __________ is the most powerful Quality Control Tool a) Control Chart b) Pareto Analysis c) Checklist d) Histogram 48. Which of these is not a quality attribute? a) Reliability b) Transparency c) Usability d) Flexibility e) Correctness 49. Requirements should include which of the following Functionally what the program is to do a) Form, format, data types and units b) How exceptions, errors, deviations are to be handled c) Technical architecture/target platform d) All of the Above 50. S/W engineer is responsible for a) Identifying tool objectives b) Defining selection criteria c) Identifying candidate tools d) All of the above 51. Which is not a software risk a) Availability of Automated Tools b) System will be difficult to operate c) Programs will be unmaintainable d) Unreliable results from the system 52. Which of the following information will not be included in a Defect Tracking Tool a) Name of the tester who reported the defect b) Person to whom the defect is assigned c) Defect Number d) Description 53. What is the Primary Objective of the system proposal from the Producer’s viewpoint a) To present the costs/benefits of the proposal b) To obtain an agreement for more work c) To standardize presentations

54. The process used for documenting user’s requirements is known as validation a) True b) False 55. The responsibility of testing lies on a) Testers b) Everybody c) Developers d) Test Managers 56. Which of the following is a Structural Testing? a) Stress Testing b) Path Testing c) Code Coverage Testing d) All of the Above 57. A metric used to measure the characteristics of documentation and code is known as Process Metric a) True b) False 58. From Customer’s viewpoint, defect is a deviation from specifications, whether missing, wrong or extra. a) True b) False 59. COQ does not comprise of ------a) Cost of Appraisal b) Cost of Failure c) Cost of Prevention d) Cost of Production 60. Testing is deemed to be complete when a) All test cases are executed b) Testers run out of time c) The Test Manager, is able to report with some degree of confidence that the application will perform as expected d) All of the above 61. Bottom-up testing requires the development of interim stubs for test input a) True b) False 62. Test Readiness review is conducted by a) Test Engineer b) Project Manager c) Test Manager d) Developer Match the following with the choices given below 63. Performed when application components near completion 64. Coding begins at the close of this review 65. Looks at identifying defects as work progresses 66. CM Plan, Test plan and development plan are reviewed a) In Process Review c) Critical Design Review b) S/W Requirements Review d) Test Readiness Review ……………..