Mock Snap 2

SNAP

MOCK 2

Test ID: 770374 Enrollment ID: Name: ................................................. Centre: ................................................ Batch: .................................................. Time: ................... Date: ...................... Other MBA Exams

Instructions

1. 2.

3.

4.

5.

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO START. This booklet contains 28 pages including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all the pages are printed properly. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT keep with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pager, palmtops, cellular phones, or any other device. The Test Paper contains 150 questions and carries 180 marks. The duration of the test is 120 minutes. The paper is divided into four sections. Sec-I: 40 Qs; Sec-II: 30 Qs; Sec-III: 40 Qs; Sec-IV: 40 Qs. All questions in section I, III and IV carry one mark and all questions in section II carry two marks.

MCT-0021/08

6.

Directions for answering the questions are given in the test booklet before each group of questions to which they apply. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate ovals. 7. Wrong answers carry negative marks. There is only one correct answer for each question. 8. Do the rough work on the test booklet only and NOT on the answer sheet or any other paper. 9. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified. 10. At the end of the test, remain seated. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, “You may leave now.” The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the test booklets and answer sheets from everyone in the room. ANY CANDIDATE GIVING / SEEKING / RECEIVING ASSISTANCE OR FOUND COPYING WILL BE IMMEDIATELY DISQUALIFIED

Space for rough work

Section – I 1.

Find the number of spherical balls, each of diameter 1 mm that can be made from a solid sphere of radius 4 cm. a. 5120 b. 512000 c. 51200 d. 25600

2.

If ‘a’ and ‘b’ are prime numbers, then what is the H.C.F. of the numbers (a2 + b2), (a + b + 1) and (a2 + b2 – 1) ? a. 2 b. 3 c. 1 d. 4

3.

In the given figure below, ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle with each side equal to 6 units. A trapezium FGED is drawn inside the triangle such that F and G are the midpoints of sides AB and AC. If BD = EC and area of the trapezium FGED = 5 sq. units, then what is the length of BD?

A

F

B

a.

4.

7 10 – units 2 2 3

b. 4 –

10 3 3

G

D units

E c.

9 10 – units 2 3 3

C

d. 3 3 units

A bag contains 4 red balls and 6 green balls. Two balls are drawn at random. Find the probability that they are of the same colour. a.

7 15

b.

1 3

c.

1 2

d. None of these

5.

The value of a car depreciates at the rate of 10% per annum. If its present value is Rs. 1,21,500, then what was the value of the car 2 years ago? a. Rs.1,00000 b. Rs.1, 50,000 c. Rs.2,00,000 d. Rs.2,50,000

6.

Three brothers Rohan, Mohan and Sohan were asked to guess their grandmother’s age which is an integral number in years. Rohan said “she is above 65 but not more than 72 years old. Mohan said “she is above 63 but not more than 70 years old”. Finally Sohan said “she cannot be older than 69 years”. If all three of them are correct in their estimations, what is the average of the probable ages of their grandmother? a. 68 years b. 68.5 years c. 67.5 years d. Data Insufficient

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Page 1

Directions for questions 7 to 11: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions: Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using any one of the statements alone. Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone. Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone. Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements. 7.

Is a = b = c = 1? A: a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ca B: a2 + b2 = 2c2

8.

8

A

B

F 4 D

3

E

C

In the given figure above ABCD is a rectangle with AB = 8 units, FD = 4 units and DE = 3 units. What is the area of the rectangle ABCD? A: ∠FED = ∠BEC B: ∠BDC = ∠FED 9.

Pipe A can fill a tank in ‘a’ hours and pipe B can fill the same tank in ‘b’ hours. If both the pipes are opened together for 2 hours, then what is the volume (in cc) of water in the tank after 2 hours? Assume that initially the tank was empty. A: a = 6 and b = 8. B: Volume of the tank is 100 cc.

10.

Four lectures Arithmetic, Biology, Chemistry and Dermatology were scheduled, one on each day on four consecutive days, but not necessarily in that order. On which day was Chemistry scheduled? A: The first lecture was scheduled on Monday, 14th January 2008 and was followed by Dermatology. B: Arithmetic was not scheduled on 16th January 2008 and there was a gap of one day between Arithmetic and Biology.

11.

If A and B are positive integers, then is the product AB divisible by 18? A: The product AB is divisible by 6. B: Both A and B are perfect squares, where A, B > 1.

12.

If P is the interest on sum Q and Q is the interest on sum R, then what is the relationship between P, Q and R? (The rate of interest and time in both the cases are the same). b. P2 = QR c. R2 = QP d. None of these a. Q2 = PR

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Directions for questions 13 to 17: Read the information carefully that are given below and answer the following questions: The table below shows the unit sales of the Yamaha CBZ motorcycle in six European countries over a six month period. These motorcycles are imported into each country by a main dealer.

Country Germany UK France Belgium Spain Italy Total

Jan 34 40 37 14 29 22 176

Feb 47 44 32 14 29 24 190

Mar 45 36 32 14 28 24 179

Apr 54 47 32 16 31 26 206

May 56 47 34 17 29 25 208

Jun 60 46 33 14 31 23 207

Total 296 260 200 89 177 144 1166

13.

What is the average number of units per month of Yamaha CBZ motorcycles imported into Italy over the first four months of the year? a. 22 b. 21 c. 24 d. 23

14.

What percentage of total imports is accounted for by the three smallest importers? a. 30% b. 25% c. 24.25% d. 35.15%

15.

What percentage of the total units of Yamaha CBZ motorcycles sold in the six Europeon countries was sold to the German importer? a. 30% b. 25.38% c. 24.25% d. 30.15%

16.

In how many countries, the sale of motorcycles has shown no increase or decrease in their sales numbers in the period February to June atleast once? a. 5 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

17.

Which of the following months recorded the lowest percentage change in sales of Yamaha CBZ motorcycles for the given six countries? a. February b. March c. June d. May

Directions for questions 18 to 21: The following table depicts the marks obtained by 1000 students in English and Computer Science in an entrance exam conducted by JET(Junior Entrance Test). Marks out of 50 Subject English Computer Science Average marks per subject

18.

> 40

> 30

> 20

> 10

>0

90 40 70

320 210 270

800 660 730

920 810 870

1000 1000 1000

What is the difference between the percentage of students who secured more than 60% marks in aggregate and those who secured more than 40% marks in aggregate? a. 27% b. 73% c. 46% d. 0%

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19.

What is the total number of students securing more than 20 marks in English and 40 marks in Computer Science? a. 70 b. 40 c. 840 d. Cannot be determined

20.

The percentage of the number of students securing more than 60% marks in Computer Science is what percent of those getting more than 40% marks in aggregate? a. 31% b. 29% c. 20% d. Cannot be determined

21.

Which of the following statements is not true? a. Number of students securing marks between 20 and 30 in English is 480. b. Number of students securing marks between 60 and 80 in aggregate is 200. c. The percentage of students securing not more than 20% marks in Computer Science is 20. d. Both (a) and (c).

Directions for questions 22 to 25: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following pie chart provides information about the number of runs scored by Sachin against each of the six teams namely England, Pakistan, Australia, South Africa, Bangladesh and New Zealand as a percentage of the total number of runs scored by Sachin in the year 2007. Assume that the mentioned teams are the only teams against which Sachin scored runs in the year 2007. 10%

20%

12%

15% 25% 18% England South Africa

Pakistan Bangladesh

Australia New Zealand

The following table provides information about the number of runs scored by Sachin in 4’s and 6’s against each of the mentioned teams in the year 2007. The total number of runs scored by Sachin against South Africa in 6’s as a percentage of the total number of runs scored by him against New Zealand is 18%. England Pakistan Australia South Africa Bangladesh New Zealand

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4's 240 160 280 200 120 160

6's 96 120 144 72 180 240

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22.

What is the difference between the number of runs scored by Sachin against Bangladesh and Pakistan in 2007? a. 96 b. 120 c.144 d.160

23.

The number of runs scored by Sachin in 4’s against Australia as a percentage of the total number of runs scored by him against England is a. 35% b. 40% c. 38% d. None of these

24.

The total number of runs scored by Sachin in 6’s in 2007 as a percentage of the total number of runs scored by him in 2007 is a.18.4% b.19.6% c. 21.3% d.22.8%

25.

Against which team the number of runs that are not scored by Sachin in 4’s or 6’s is second largest? a. Pakistan b. South Africa c. Bangladesh d. England

Directions for questions 26 to 28: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The line graph below depicts the number of employees who left the company ABC Pvt. Ltd. and the number of new joinees in that year. Also, it is known that the number of employees in the year 2002 was 2000. 700 600 500 400 300 200 100 0

450 350

250

2003

500 400

350

300

300

2004

2005

New Joinees

400

250

2006

2007

Employees that left

26.

What was the percentage change in number of employees in the company from the year 2002 to year 2003? a. 5% b. 2.5% c. 2.5% d. Data Insufficient

27.

In which of the following years was the number of employees in ABC Pvt. Ltd. the maximum ? a. 2004 b. 2005 c. 2006 d. 2007

28.

In which of the given two years was the number of employees in ABC Pvt. Ltd. the same? a. 2003 & 2007 b. 2003 & 2005 c. 2006 & 2007 d. None of these

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29.

Three men A, B and C have three varieties of rice costing Rs.15 per kg, Rs.20 per kg and Rs.25 per kg respectively. They mix these varieties in the ratio 3:2:1 in the same order and sold the mixture at Rs.30 per kg. If the total profit in the transaction is Rs.150, then the share of B in the profit and the total quantity of rice sold are a. Rs.45.5, 12.35 kg b. Rs.50.5, 13.85 kg c. Rs.54.5, 12.85 kg d. Rs.57.5, 13.25 kg

30.

One of the management test papers comprises of 9 questions divided equally among three sections, namely section I, section II and section III. There are fifteen different questions available such that there are five questions for every section to choose from, for designing the test. If no two sections bear a common question, then how many different tests can be designed? a. 1000 b. 800 c. 480 d. 640

31.

If two triangles and one circle intersect with each other on a plane, then what is the maximum possible number of non over lapping bounded regions that can be formed? a. 12 b. 16 c. 18 d. 19

32.

A shop sells 5 different types of sweets. In how many different ways a total of 8 sweets can be purchased? a. 495 b. 795 c. 840 d. 125

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Directions for questions 33 to 36: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The data in the table given below provides the average number of members in the family, the population (in millions) and the percentage of families with T.V. in the mentioned 10 countries. The bar-graph provides information about the percentage of people in the country having access to the personal computer and the percentage of people having access to the internet. Country

Australia Brazil China France Germany India Italy Japan Mexico Russia

Average number of members in the family

3

4

4

2

3

6

3

4

5

3

Population (in millions)

200

350

900

140

260

650

100

150

80

180

Percentage of families with T.V.

96

85

75

95

80

42

96

99

80

97

18

Russia

12

Mexico

14

20

Japan Italy

50

39

70

55

18

India

11

Germany

55

45

France

58

44

China

5

Brazil

9 10

20

Australia

68

53 0

10

20

30

40

50

60

70

80

% of Population having access to the Internet % of Population having access to the Personal Computer

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33.

What is the ratio of aggregate number of families in China, Brazil and Mexico to the aggregate number of families in Australia, Japan and India? a. 657:425 b. 435:515 c. 38:43 d. 53:37

34.

Which of the following statements is true? a. The number of families with T.V. in Italy is more than the number of families with T.V. in Japan b. China has more number of families with T.V. than aggregate number of families with T.V. in India and Brazil. c. Total number of families in the mentioned ten countries is 900 million. d. Both (b) and (c)

35.

For how many mentioned countries, the population having access to personal computer as a percentage of the population having the access to internet is not less than 70%? a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 5

36.

A family is considered to have access to the internet even if only one of the members of the family has access to the internet, then which of the following countries could have the largest number of families having access to the Internet? a. Germany b. Brazil c. China d. India

37.

Six companies A, B, C, D, E and F visited a campus on day 1, day 2, day 3, day 4, day 5 and day 6 respectively. Also on each day, only one company visited the campus. Six students Anil, Bani, Chander, Deepak, Esha and Fateh got placed in the given companies and exactly one student got placed in one company. Esha got placed in D. Bani and Chander got placed on day 2 and day 3. Anil couldn’t get placed on the day 1. Half of the given students got placed in companies with same alphabets as the initial alphabet of their names. In which company did Deepak get place? a. A b. C c. B d. F

38.

The amount used to purchase one litre of Liquid A can be used to purchase 3 litres of liquid B or 5 litres of Liquid C. Out of a certain amount, Rs.300 is spent on Liquid B. How much is spent on Liquid C, if equal volumes of the three liquids are purchased with the total amount? a. 500 b. 900 c. 90 d. 180

39.

Product A is 25% cheaper than product B and 25% dearer than product C. If Rahul bought one unit each of product A, B and C and sold all of them at a price which is thrice the price of product B, then what is the percentage gain made by him? a. 25% b. 0% c. 15% d. None of these

40.

If the heights of the two cones C1 and C2 are 4 cm and 5 cm respectively and their volume is in the ratio of 5:4 in the given order, then find the ratio of the radius of the cones C1 and C2. a. 1:2 b. 5:4 c. 1:1 d. 25:16

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Section – II 41.

Find the missing term in the given sequence. 3, 6, 13, 24, ?, 58 a. 39

42.

b. 36

c. 37

d. 35

c. 1.6662

d. 1.6875

c. 334

d. 330

Find the next term in the following series. 1, 2, 1.5, 1.75, 1.625, ? a. 1.6774

43.

b. 1.6882

Find the next term in the following series –2, 4, 22, 58, 118, 208, ? a. 332

b. 300

Directions for questions 44 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. There are seven persons namely A, B, C, D, E, F and G out of which 3 are females and rest are males. Each of these seven persons was born on one or the other of the seven days of a particular week ‘z’ namely Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday. The week starts from Sunday and ends on Saturday. Additional Information given: I. II. III. IV. V.

No male was born on a day starting with the letter ‘S’. D who is not a female, is younger than F as well as G. No two females were born on the consecutive days of the week. F who is not a male is younger to only one female namely A. G is younger than F and elder than B. C is a male and is younger to only one person.

44.

Which of the following cannot be the day on which D was born? a. Friday b. Thursday c. Wednesday

d. None of these

Which of the following persons is definitely a male? a. B b. G c. E

d. None of these

45.

46.

If E was born on Saturday, then on which day of the week B was born? a. Wednesday b. Thursday c. Friday d. Cannot be determined

47.

On which of the following days C was born? a. Thursday b. Monday

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c. Wednesday

d. Tuesday

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Directions for questions 48 and 49: Choose the correct option that will follow next to the series of pictures given below.

B E

B C

D Z

×

+

F

D

×

+

E F

V

b.

V

B

D c.

C

F

D

D V

d.

V

E

+

49.

D

F

D

C

W

D B

C A E

C

X

Y

A

a.

C D

×

48.

C

E

E

+ ×

×

×

+ a.

b.

+

+ c.

d.

×

+

×

50.

A

B

C

D

E (5)

F

G

H

I(6)

Given above is a 3 × 3 grid with each unit box filled with natural numbers less than 10. All the nine boxes are filled with distinct natural numbers. If the sum of numbers in each row, each column and each of the diagonals is 15, then which of the following numbers is filled in box C? a. 6 b. 2 c. 3 d. 7 51.

In a certain language ‘378’ means ‘she is beautiful’. ‘832’ means ‘she is tall’ and ‘481’ means ‘He is studying’. Which digit represents ‘is’ in the code? a. 8 b. 3 c. 4 d. 1

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52.

In a certain language ‘PEOPLE’ is coded as JUKJNU. What will be the code of COUNTRY? a. YMGNHJC b. KWLEFHA c. WKELFHA d. AHFLEKW

53.

In a certain code, GAURAV is coded as 35, then what will be the code of ROHAN? a. 14 b. 28 c. 56 d. None of these

54.

In a certain language ‘MAN’ is coded as NLBZOM, then how will ‘WOMAN’ be written in that code? a. NLBZOMVXNPN b. XVPNNLBZOM c. VXNPNLBZOM d. XPVNNLBZOM

55.

In a certain language ‘AIRTEL’ is coded as ‘UWO’, then how will ‘VODAFONE’ be written in that code? a. VUOI b. IQGY c. YGIQ d. Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 56 to 59: Read the information carefully and answer the questions that are given below. Eight cats in an obedience have learned to follow atleast one of the two commands— ”Pick” and “Go”. Each cat is one or the other of three breeds of cats namely Sheroo, Raroo and Texas, and each of these three breeds is represented at least once among the group. All female cats in the group are Raroos. The results of the first lesson are as follows: I. II. III. IV.

At least two of the cats have learned to follow the “Pick” command, but not the “Go” command. At least two of the cats have learned to follow the “Go” command, but not the “Pick” command. At least one of the cats has learned to follow both the commands. Among the eight cats, only Texass have learned to follow the “Go” command.

56.

Which of the following statements CANNOT be true?. a. The group includes more females than males. b. The group includes fewer Texass than Sheroos. c. The group includes more Sheroos than Raroos. d. More number of cats have learned to ‘Go’ than to ‘Pick’.

57.

If each cat has learned to follow at least one of the two commands, then all of the following must be true EXCEPT: a. All Raroos have learned to ‘Pick’. b. All Sheroos have learned to ‘Pick’. c. All Texass have learned to ‘Go’. d. No Raroo has learned to ‘Go’.

.

58.

If four of the cats are male and four of the cats are female, then all of the following must be true EXCEPT: a. One of the cats is a Sheroo. b. Four of the cats are Raroos. c. Three of the cats are Texass. d. Four of the cats have learned to ‘Pick’.

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59.

If the group includes more Sheroos than Texas, then the number of male cats among the group that have learned to follow the command ‘Pick’ is a. 4 b. 6 c. 5 d. Cannot be determined

60.

In order to conduct the work at store it is necessary to have a minimum of three workers each day. The staff consists of five persons who work on part time basis. Alice can work on Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays. Betty cannot report for work on Wednesdays. Carol can report for work on Tuesdays and Wednesdays only. Dorothy cannot work on Fridays. Emmy is available anytime except on the first Monday and Thursday of the month. During which day of the week, it might be impossible to conduct the work at store? Note that the store remains closed on Sundays. a. Monday b. Tuesday c. Wednesday d. Thursday

Directions for questions 61 and 62: Each question consists of six statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are most logically related. 61.

A. Some aircraft are bombers B. Bomber aircraft are dangerous C. Dangerous planes should not fly D. Bombers have a twin-engine E. Some aircraft have a twin engine a. ABE

62.

b. BDE

c. ADE

d. ACE

c. EAC

d. EDC

A. Inhuman people cannot become teachers B. Rahul is a scholar of history C. Rahul is not inhuman D. Rahul teaches at Stanford University E. No teacher is inhuman a. DBA

b. CEB

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Each question has a main statement followed by four statements (A, B, C and D). Choose the alternative (ordered pair of statements) where the first statement implies the second and the two statements are logically consistent with the main statement. 63.

Salman works only when there is a Remington typewriter on his desk A. Salman is not working. B. Salman is working. C. Remington is not on Salman’s working desk. D. Remington is on Salman’s working desk. a. AC

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b. DB

c. BD

d. CB

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64.

Vivek doesn’t eat when his mother doesn’t cook A. Vivek’s mother cooked. B. Vivek ate. C. Vivek didn’t eat. D. Vivek’s mother didn’t cook. a. DC

65.

c. AB

d. AC

c. DB

d. AC

c. DB

d. BC

Ram Lal does not jump only if Seema dances A. Ram Lal jumps. B. Seema dances. C. Seema doesn’t dance. D. Ram Lal doesn’t jump. a. BA

66.

b. CD

b. AB

Either Rahul or Kay Kay is a good actor A. Rahul is a good actor. B. Kay Kay is not a good actor. C. Kay Kay is a good actor. D. Rahul is not a good actor. a. BA

b. AC

Directions for questions 67 to 70: Read the arguments given below and answer the questions that follow. 67.

The media plays a very important role in the entire criminal justice system. Most people go through their life having little or no direct contact with any law enforcement personnel, but they still think they have a genuine understanding of who the police are and what they are about. They get this idea from what they see and hear through the media, so it is crucial for law enforcement to have good, solid relations with all media outlets. “Media Power” represents the extent to which individuals or groups influence the content of media messages relevant to their interests. As mass media are the primary image builders in contemporary society, an ability to shape the contents of media has become central to impression management and public relations. Which of the following statements strengthens the author’s conclusion? a. An underlying propaganda secretly guides media content to achieve the much desired impact on the audience – to increase the television ratings of that particular channel. b. Media messages designed to improve or maintain a decent image of the criminal justice system do not ensure popularity of the system among the public. c. Peoples’ perceptions are fragile and media messages can make or break the public image of an institution. d. Underestimating the power of media is equivalent to committing suicide in this competitive world where every company is out there to make maximum profit.

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68.

The analysis of dreams and their cause by psychoanalysts are defective. They maintain that the cause of dream creation lies in the suppressed desires of the dreamer. Can they create dreams as they like by suppressing desires? No, they cannot do that. They say that desires stimulate or help the dream creation. But they do not know what supplies the material out of which they are made and what turns the desires into actual expression, enabling the dreamer see his own suppressed desires materialised and appearing to him as real. The desires only supply the impulse. The mind creates the dream out of the materials supplied by the experiences of the waking state. The dream creatures spring up from the bed of Samskaras or impressions in the subconscious mind. Which of the following statements weakens the point of view of the author? a. A team of psychoanalysts has proved that it is the neurological veins that constantly feed the right side of our brain that is responsible for dream creation and turning desires into actual expression. b. There are alternate theories available that contradict the psychoanalysts’ theories. c. No one can surely say or identify the real cause of dreams in human beings. d. Many Vets believe that even animals dream. This theory has evolved into a complete science and established a completely novel career option – Vet Psychoanalyst.

69.

Should people who have gone to the trouble of putting themselves on the record be allowed to change or even erase it later? I don’t mean journalists and I’m not talking about politicians, celebrities or other public figures either. I mean people not ordinarily involved with the media who have chosen to disclose things about themselves to newspapers. When you write a blog, agree to be interviewed, send a letter for publication or post a comment online, you are making a public statement in permanent form. Which of the following statements is a conclusion from the above paragraph? a. b. c. d.

70.

Most people detest the idea of speaking out their true and honest opinion. People must understand the consequences of putting information into the public domain. Some media houses publish materials without informing the author/s. Writing is a form of permanent compilation of one’s thoughts and hence they must be composed in the most proper fashion.

Personal, organizational, and cultural values can create a difficult problem when trying to make a business decision that includes all the previously stated. Personal values are what each individual holds dear to himself while living the types of lives that he or she likes and would like to lead. Organizational values are what are best for the company to maintain a good public image and employee guidance. Cultural are set on traditions handed down from generation to generation to preserve a way of living that each culture holds dear and true to them. Trying to intertwine these types of values when making professional and personal decisions in ones life can create a very stressful situation. Which of the following statements is an underlying assumption made by the author? a. Personal, organizational and cultural values exist; however, human beings are free to choose and make their decisions by keeping in mind one, two or all of these values. b. Stressful situations are caused only when humans try to please everyone – themselves, organization and society. c. No such values can interfere with our decision making unless we allow them to. d. It does not matter what values you have unless your organization is making profits.

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Section – III 71.

Millet in India mainly Constitute... a. Jowar, bajra, maize c. Jowar, bajra, ragi

b. Jowar, maize, ragi d. Bajra, maize, ragi

72

In India, the National Income is estimated by_____ a. Planning Commission b. Indian statistical Institute x. National Sample Survey Organisation d. Central Statistical Organisation

73.

When the door of a refrigerator is opened the room temperature_____ a. decreases b. increases c. remains unchanged d. increases in winter and decreases in Summer

74.

‘Nutralite’ cholesterol free butter is manufactured by_____ a. Amul b. Mother Dairy c. Zydus Cadila d. Ranbaxy

75.

Sulman Rushdie recently received Best of Booker award for _____. a. Midnight’s children b. The ground beneath her feet c. Satanic verses d. Shame

76.

Match the following:

Metal A. aluminium B. iron C. Mercury D. Copper

Ore (i) bauxite (ii) cinnabar (iii) Haematite (iv) malachite

a. A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii c. A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv

b. A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv d. A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii

77.

Which of the following pairs is incorrect? a. Ram Krishna Mission - Founder Swami Vivekananda b. Fa-hein - Chinese Traveller c. Dhyanchand - Hockey d. Dhanvantari - Sanskrit Poetry

78.

Which party recently resigned from the Lock - Sabha demanding a separate Telangana state? a. TDP b. BSP c. TRS d. TLP

79.

______ is the sponsor and official IT service provider of FIFA World Cup - 2010 and 2014. a. Tata Consultancy Services b. Satyam Compute Services x. Microsoft d. IBM

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80.

‘Monday to Sunday dressing’ is launched by... a. Bombay Dyeing b. Vimal Suitings c. Siyaram Suitings & Shirtings d. Raymond Suitings

81.

Who is the father of Blood Grouping? a. James Blundell c. Aristotle

b. Kari Landsteiner d. Pascal

82.

The first electric train in India was ‘Deccan Queen’. It was introduced in 1929 between which two cities? a. Bombay and Poona b. Bombay and thane c. Calcutta and Howrah d. Banglore and Mysore

83.

A transformer is a device which is used to a. increase DC voltage c. decrease DC voltage

b. decrease DV voltage d. convert DC into AC.

84.

Who among the following is an Advisor to P. Chidambaram the union Finance Minister. a. Y. V. Reddy b. Montek Singh Ahluwlia c. Subhasis Gangopadhyay d. None of these

85.

What is zero hour? a. When money Bill is introduced in Lok Sabha. b. When matters of utmost importance are generally raised. c. When proposals of opposition are considered. d. Interval between morning and evening sessions.

86.

Which of the following is the winner of the ‘Best Film’ award in the recently concluded 54th National Film Awards for 2006? a. Paruthiveeran b. Lagey Raho Munnabhai c. Pulijanman d. Khosla Ka Ghosla

87.

Areva is the name of the energy giant that belongs to.... a. Germany b. UK c. France d. USA

88.

‘Thinking new Perspectives’ is the tag-line that you would associate with... a. ICRA b. Credit Suisse c. Fronklin Templeton Investments d. None of these

89.

The film, Starring Sohail Khan, Sharman Joshi and Isha Koppikar, titled “Hello” is based on best selling novel one Night @ call centre. Name the author of the novel. a. Chetan Bhagat b. Amitav Ghosh c. Jhumpa Lahri d. Tushar Raheja

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90.

What is the new name of Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited? a. Tata Infocomm b. Tata Communication c. Tata VSNL Infocomm d. VSNL Communications

91.

Currency votes in India are printed and supplied by a. Security Press Mumbai b. Security Press Noida c. Security Press Nashik d. RBI, New Delhi

92.

Noble Prize is awarded every year on which of the following date? b. 10th January a. 10th August th d. 10th December c. 10 April

93.

Whiteman cup is related to which of the following sport? a. Football b. Tennis c. Polo d. Basketball

94.

Yellow Book is the official book of ... a. Japan c. France

b. Britain d. China

The first battle of Panipat was fought between a. Akbar and Sikandar c. Akbar and Ibrahim Lodi

b. Babar and Ibrhim Lodi d. Babar and Rana Pratap

95.

96.

In Rail Budget 2008 - 09 concession for Senior citizen women has been hiked from existing 30% to... a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% d. No Change

97.

India lifted the under - 19 World Cup after beating... a. South Africa b. West Indies c. Australia d. Pakistan

98.

‘LACM’ stands for_____. a. Land Area Connecting Mobile c. Light Aircraft Combat Missile

b. Land-Attack - Cruise Missile d. All of the above

99.

Diamond Harbour and Salt Lake City are situated in which of the following city of India? a. Chennai b. Manglore c. Mumbai d. Kolkata

100.

Which of the subsidiary bank of SBI has been merged with State Bank of India? a. State Bank of Patiala b. State Bank of Mysore c. State Bank of Travancore d. State Bank of Saurashtra

101.

Who among the following is not one of the Nobel Prize winners of 2008? a. J. M. G. Le Clezio b. Martti Ahtisaari c. Albert Fert d, Paul Robin Krugman

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102.

Which of the following gases may cause acid rain in an industrial area? b. SO2 a. CO2 c. CO d. CH4

103.

Which country declared independence on 17th February 2008? a. Serbia b. Nepal c. Kosovo d. Bhutan

104.

Which of the following Country is not a permanent member of the security council of UNO? a. China b. France c. Germany d. Russia

105.

Who was the “ICC umpire of the year” for the third consecutive year in 2008? a. Simon Taufel b. Billy Bowden c. Darrel Hair d. Steve Bucknor

106.

Who described the war of 1857 as the first war of independence? a. Gopal Krishan Gokhle b. Balgangadhar Tilak c. Motilal Nehru d. V. D. Savarkar

107.

Nano knowledge city is being established at _____ a. Jaipur b. Chandigarh c. Bangaluru d. Mumbai

108.

World’s AIDS Summit was held on 3 - 8 August, 2008 in _____ a. Mexico City b. New York c. Brussels d. New Delhi

109.

With which revolution is ‘Boston Tea Party’ associated? a. Russian Revolution b. French Revolution c. American Revolution d. None of these

110.

Which of the following business groups was recently in the news as it acquired General Chemical Industrial products in a deal worth 4000 crores? a. Reliance Industries Ltd. b. Tata Chemicals c. Imperial Chemical Industries d. Mitsui Chemicals

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Section – IV Directions for questions 111 to 126: Each of the four passages given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Passage – 1 Barely 10 days ahead of the Summit of the Group-20 here called by President George Bush in November 2008, IMF has revised its global economic outlook and forecast that advanced economies would slip into recession next year, while the growth rate of Asian nations would come down. In its World Outlook Report published today, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) has predicted that the global growth would slow down by 0.2 per cent in 2008 and 0.9 per cent in 2009, thus leaving the revised growth figures at 3.7 per cent for this year and 2.2 per cent for the next. The outlook is not too different for India as well, since IMF sees the country’s economic growth going down to 6.3 per cent, 0.6 per cent less than what it had projected last month, as the financial meltdown envelops the globe. With special mention to the US economy, the report says that it would contract by as much as 0.7 per cent in 2009, while the Eurozone has been forecast to shrink by half-a-point next year. For the advanced economies in general, IMF sees a negative growth of 0.3 per cent and 5.1 per cent for the emerging and low-income countries, a full one per cent decrease over its previous projection. ”...the sharp decrease in demand in advanced countries observed in the last few months has lead us to predict a sharper contraction for the end of 2008 and the first half of 2009. Because of the sharp worsening of credit conditions to emerging countries...and lower exports is why we have substantially revised our forecasts for that part of the world,” said Economic Counsellor and Director of Research Department of IMF Oliver Blanchard. Painting a scary picture of world trade, IMF forecast suggests that the global growth in volume of trade in goods and services would slide from 7.2 per cent to 4.6 per cent in 2008 and dip to 2.1 per cent next year. Blanchard said that this was clearly a period of “very high uncertainty” with two downside risks, “Despite the measures taken to address the financial system, we cannot be sure that there are no hidden land mines left in the field. A worsening of the financial crisis would clearly lead to further contraction of activity.” ”Another risk, which a number of commentators have mentioned, is sustained deflation. It is an issue to worry about, but we do not give it high probability at this stage.” In line with the market development, IMF has revised petroleum price projection from 100 dollar a barrel to 68 dollar a barrel for 2009. According to IMF projections, the UK will be the worst hit on account of the global crisis and may witness contraction of its economy by 1.3 per cent in 2009. In addition, the advanced countries which will witness negative growth in 2009 include the US, Germany, France, Italy, Spain and Japan. MOCK – SNAP 2

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111.

According to the IMF, the global growth for the year 2009 is predicted to be: a. 0.2 per cent. b. 3.7 per cent. c. 0.9 per cent d. 2.2 per cent.

112.

In the passage, the reason for lower rates of growth is due to which of the following? a. A generally bad outlook. b. Higher global benchmarks. c. The global financial meltdown. d. The reduction in the European growth rates.

113.

Why, according to the passage, does IMF foresee a higher negative growth for emerging countries? a. Due to a sharp increase in demand in advanced countries. b. Due to a pointed decrease in demand in advanced countries c. Due to worsening of credit conditions to advanced countries. d. Due to increasing exports by low-income countries.

114.

According to the passage, the two downside risks are: a. Revision of oil prices and the crisis in UK. b. Hidden land mines and eventualities thereof. c. Further contraction of activity and a continued deflation. d. A downslide in economy and a global downtrend in 2009.

Passage – 2 A study of the evolution of Human Resource Management (HRM) or People Management (PM) indicates that the roles and responsibilities of HR professionals are changing and growing with time. Today, PM is not just a mere requirement but a strategic asset in organisations. It has been accepted that apart from the technology used, it is the human factor, which differentiates organisations. The primary focus has thus shifted to People Management. Every organisation encounters threats, opportunities, and challenges provided by the environment in which it exists. The environment also provides the necessary resources in terms of technology and human capital. However, even the greatest technological advancement can prove to be a failure in the absence of human competence to use it. In short, people fuel the entire organisation and create value for it with the help of technology and financial resources. People management has various facets. As people managers, employees manage diversity, teams, employees’ performance, and motivation besides helping conflict resolution through successful negotiation. Various aspects of managing people involve managing diversity. Diversity traditionally implies individual differences in age, gender, and cultural backgrounds. Today though, it is about appreciating and valuing differences of employees with regard to skills, beliefs and work experiences.

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Geographical locations are no more a hindrance to talent seeking suitable employment. Today’s organisations comprise a diverse workforce, employees from various countries, backgrounds and beliefs. The skills and capabilities of each individual contribute to an organisation’s success. Individual skill sets are unique and cannot be replicated. It is for the HR to transform these diversities into a competitive advantage. Organisations continually interact with other organisations and systems. Every organisation attributes its success to certain core practices. Other organisations can adapt them to suit their individual needs. This is where diversity management gains importance. Managing diversity is about seamless culture and a creative environment in an organisation. It is inclined towards the necessary attitude change and involvement of employees. Managing diversity aims at creating a workplace that identifies itself with “Us” and not with ‘them’. Thus, to survive in a global marketplace, organisations need to manage diversity by adapting the current cultural and sociological trends. This calls for creation of a heterogeneous environment with a varied customer base, employees and work practices that could enhance their productivity. 115.

What, according to the passage, makes a distinction in organizations? a. The use of state of the art technology. b. The level of threats, opportunities, and challenges it faces. c. The evolution of the HR professionals. d. The human factor possessed by the organization.

116.

Managing diversity in people has evolved and now means which of the following in the passage? a. It implies diversity in age. b. Valuing varied skill sets. c. It constitutes differences in gender. d. It deals with diverse cultural backgrounds.

117.

How, according to the passage, does diversity management achieve meaning? a. By utilizing unique skill sets available to them. b. By converting the diversities into a viable plus. c. By seeking people from diverse geographical locations. d. By replicating global models within organizations.

118.

Which one of the following is a result of creating a mixed setting according to the passage? a. An increase in productivity. b. A decrease in attrition. c. Creation of a competitive environment. d. Establishment of a sound customer base.

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Passage – 3 The Human Genome Project unlike any other project in science received unprecedented attention, as evident from print and visual media coverage. The reason was obvious. It was hoped that having gotten the ‘first glimpse of the book of life, previously known only to God’, scientists would be able to solve most of the diseases and health-related miseries afflicting mankind. The Human Genome Project was not the first genome sequencing effort undertaken by scientists. Many genomes including bacteria, viruses, fungi and microorganisms had been sequenced before the human genome was sequenced. When the complete genome sequence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis was published in 1998 there were hopes that the cure for the disease that kills so many persons everyday will soon be found. Have we discovered any new drug against tuberculosis even after knowing the genome sequence, or for that matter against any other pathogenic organisms for which the complete genome sequence had been made available? I am afraid I do not have a comforting answer, except in the case of some viruses for which knowledge-based inhibitors were designed with the aid of high performance computing and structural biology. Many of these are in the market and one of them has even become a blockbuster drug. The take home from genome sequencing projects is that the outcome of such projects provides us with an opportunity to further dissect the biology of the organism in a manner otherwise impossible. Knowledge gained from such analyses will one day definitely aid in the discovery of new drugs and intervention regimes against the disease process. Going back to the Human Genome Project, what came as a big surprise was the large degree of similarity (>99%) between two humans, at the genome level. It became apparent that the difference between two individuals, which could be responsible for the way we look, behave, have a life style or succumb to a disease, is primarily because of millions of genetic differences (variants) known as Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs) spread across the genome. It is estimated that there are over 10 million SNPs in the human genome which occur once out of every 100 nucleotides. Such gene variants are at best an indication of predisposition to common diseases and not the cause of the disease. 119.

The Human Genome Project received unprecedented attention because: a. It was hoped that scientists would now be able to solve most of the diseases. b. The media coverage was extraordinary. c. The ways of God were finally uncovered. d. No other project had ever received such attention.

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120.

The reason for the author’s skepticism stems from: a. The number of genomes being sequenced earlier. b. Our inability to discover new drugs despite earlier genome sequencing projects. c. The sequencing of the microorganisms. d. The breakdown of the genome sequencing effort.

121.

The take from genome sequencing projects is that: a. It aids high performance computing. b. It helps to further analyze the biology of the organism. c. It protects one from other pathogenic organisms. d. It develops knowledge about structural biology.

122.

According to the passage, the revelation of the Human Genome Project was the: a. differences in various individuals. b. presence of genetic variants. c. large degree of similarity between two humans, at the genome level. d. spread of over 10 million SNPs in the human genome.

Passage – 4 History is important. In centuries past this statement would have seemed self-evident. Ancient cultures devoted much time and effort to teaching their children family history. It was thought that the past helps a child understand who he is. Modern society, however, has turned its back on the past. We live in a time of rapid change, a time of progress. We prefer to define ourselves in terms of where we are going, not where we come from. Our ancestors hold no importance for us. They lived in times so different from our own that they are incapable of shedding light on our experience. Man is so much smarter now than he was even ten years ago that anything from the past is outdated and irrelevant to us. Therefore the past, even the relatively recent past, is, in the minds of most of us, enshrouded by mists and only very vaguely perceived. Our ignorance of the past is not the result of a lack of information, but of indifference. We do not believe that history matters. But history does matter. It has been said that he who controls the past controls the future. Our view of history shapes the way we view the present, and therefore it dictates what answers we offer for existing problems. Let me offer a few examples to indicate how this might be true. One of my children comes running up to me, “Papa, Stefan hit me!” Another child comes close on the heels of the first, “I did not. You hit me!” As a parent I have to determine what happened. Usually I have to sort through conflicting testimony to get to the truth of the matter. Part of my information is my knowledge of human beings in general; part of my information is the knowledge I have assembled over the lifetimes of these particular children. All of this is essentially history. It is knowledge about the past. I must have a good understanding of the past in order to know how to deal wisely with these children in the present. Any punishment or chastisement will depend on my reconstruction of what actually happened. The children MOCK – SNAP 2

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realize this, and thus they present very selective histories of the event in an attempt to dictate my response. In these kinds of situations, children very clearly understand that history matters. When you go into a doctor’s office for the first time, you invariably have to fill out an information sheet that asks about your medical history. Some of these forms are very detailed, asking questions that require information from rarely accessed memory banks. Why does a doctor ask these questions? The doctor is trying to construct an accurate picture of your state of health. Your health is heavily influenced by the past. Your heredity, past behaviors, past experiences are all important determinants and clues to your present condition. Whenever you return to the doctor, he or she pulls out a file which contains all the notes from past visits. This file is a history of your health. Doctors understand very clearly that the past matters. Some of you might be thinking that these examples are not very compelling because they both deal with the very recent past-they are not what we think of when we think of history. Let me give one final example that is more to the point. In 1917 the Communists took control of Russia. They began to exercise control over how the history of their country ought to be told. They depicted the tsar as oppressive and cruel. The leaders of the revolution, on the other hand, were portrayed in a very positive light. The Communist government insisted that these leaders, and in particular Lenin, understood more clearly than any one else what Russia needed and what course of action the government ought to follow. According to the official history, Lenin made no mistakes and he passed his virtually infallible understanding on to the other leaders of the party. The official history presented Lenin and Stalin as kind, compassionate, wise, nearly divine leaders. Consequently, difficulties that people in the Soviet Union experienced were all attributable to capitalism. The nation’s economic backwardness, the need for a massive military and tight security, and domestic crime were all ultimately tied to the influence of capitalistic countries. This is the perspective of history that was taught to Soviet children for half a century. 123.

Modern society views history as all but for which one of the following? a. It has turned its back on the past. b. Ancestors hold no importance for them. c. The past is indistinctly perceived. d. That history has substance.

124.

The episode of the children’s conflict helps the author to substantiate: a. The fact that children of all age groups fight. b. The understanding that history helps to solve problems. c. That punishment is an important part of justice. d. That selective histories matter.

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125.

According to the passage, one’s present medical condition depends on which of the following? a. On rarely accessed memory banks. b. On the past. c. On old files and notes. d. On the doctor’s interpretation.

126.

The Communist government used history to: a. implement control over the country’s past. b. change the nation’s backwardness. c. restrict domestic crime. d. show the Tsar in a kind light.

Directions for questions 127 and 128: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. 127.

A. In short, it was the start of our current era. B. The Reagan Revolution was the formative political experience of my generation’s lifetime, like the Great Depression, the Second World War or Vietnam for those before us. C. And it was. An era of unbridled deregulation, wealth-enhancing perks for the already well-off and miserly indifference to the poor and middle class. D. “Save this paper,” she told us. “This is the start of a whole new era.” a. ABCD b. DBAC c. DCAB d. DCBA

128

A. That something, for me, was the story of Lisa Collins, a 28-year-old former office manager in Friendswood, Tex., who in late 2004 began taking the antidepressant Paxil. B. In early 2005, Collins became pregnant and continued taking the drug, with her doctor’s approval, for the first nine weeks of her pregnancy. C. But every now and then something comes along to puncture the din and grab you by the gut. D. In November of that year, she gave birth to a baby boy with severe heart abnormalities. a. CADB b. BCAD c. CBAD d. CBDA

Directions for questions 129 to 132: In each of the questions given below from the given options select the word which is nearest in meaning to the word given in the question. 129.

130.

SEPULCHRAL a. Zenith

b. Gaiety

c. Sanguine

d. Dismal

BANISTER a. Support

b. Ceiling

c. Paint

d. Staircase

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131.

132.

CRIMSON a. Blue

b. Embarrassment

c. Insult

d. Green

POLEMIC a. Judgement

b. Doctrine

c. Controversy

d. Discussion.

Directions for questions 133 to 136: In each of the questions given below from the given options select the word which is opposite in meaning to the word given in the question. 133.

134.

135.

136.

RECALCITRANT a. Contumacious

b. Intractable

c. Amenable

d. Stubborn

POIGNANT a. Perturbing

b. Numb

c. Distressing

d. Heartrending

FASTIDIOUS a. Punctilious

b. Queasy

c. Captious

d. Uncouth

TEMPESTUOUS a. Calm

b. Tumultuous

c. Violent

d. Unbridled

Directions for questions 137 and 138: In each of the following questions one word is written in four different ways, choose the option which has the correct spelling of the word. 137.

a. greatful

b. grateful

c. gratefull

d. greatfull

138.

a. liason

b. lisaion

c. liaison

d. liaision

Directions for questions 139 and 140: The following questions consist of two words each that have a certain relationship with each other followed by alternatives. Select the alternative that has the same relationship as depicted in the original pair of words. 139.

140.

Apocryphal : Genuine : a. Laconic : Pithy c. Dull : Soporific Ominous : Evil : ? a. Glutton : Intelligent c. Precocious : Intelligent

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? b. Enervated : Tired d. Mellifluous : Harsh

b. Atheist : Godfearing d. Diligent : Lazy

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Directions for questions 141 to 144: Fill in the blank with the appropriate preposition / phrase. 141.

The students were asked to _______ a seating arrangement for the school debate. a. think of b. think up c. think out d. think through

142.

Behind every film there is a _______ and creative process. a. lengthening b. verbose c. lengthy

d. tiresome

143.

The children were eager to _______ an acquaintance with new neighbours. a. strike up b. strike out c. strike off d. strike in

144.

She had objected to his becoming aware that she did all the _______ tasks. a. realistic b. somber c. prosaic d. redolent

Directions for questions 145 to 150: In each of these questions the part that is underlined has a grammatical error. Replace the underlined part with the grammaticaly correct option. 145.

Mangoes trace their origin to India and Burma where they has been grown for over 5000 years. a. where they has been grown for over 5000 years. b. where they have been grown since over 5000 years. c. where they are been grown for over 5000 years. d. where they have been grown for over 5000 years.

146.

Unless we control or manage our mind, it is difficult to achieve success or peace. a. Unless we control or manage one’s mind, b. Unless we control or manage our mind, c. Unless we control or managing our mind, d. Unless we should control or manage our mind,

147.

Fiction, in the long run has more to do with vision and desire, than with making things up. a. with vision and the desire, than with making things up. b. with vision, desire, than with making things up. c. with vision and desire, than with making things up. d. with vision and desire, than to making things up.

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148.

With happiness and spiritual knowledge, one can relearn the meaning of life. a. one can relearn the meaning for life. b. one can the meaning of life relearn. c. can one relearn meaning of the life. d. one can relearn the meaning of life.

149.

Animals in the wild lead lives of compulsion and necessity within an unforgiving socially hierarchy. a. compulsion and necessity within an unforgiving social hierarchy. b. compulsion and necessity within an unforgiving socially hierarchy. c. compulsion and necessity within hierarchy that is socially unforgiving. d. compulsion and necessity in an unforgivable social hierarchy.

150.

At the start of railways only first class passengers traveled in fully-enclosed coaches. a. At a start of railways only first class passengers b. At the start of railways only first class passengers c. At the only start of railways first class passengers d. At the start of railways only first class passenger

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