Mock Cat Pg

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Classic MoCAT - 105

INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE TEST 1.

The total time for the test is 150 minutes (2 hours 30 minutes).

2.

This test is divided into three sections totally comprising 115 questions. The sections may be broken into 2 parts. Questions in the test carry different marks as indicated at the beginning of each part.

3.

You may work on any part of the test at any time during the test.

4.

For each question, four suggested answers are given of which only one is correct. There are four circles against each question number in the answer sheet. Each circle is designated as 1, 2, 3, 4 corresponding to your answer choices. Mark your response to each question by darkening the circle completely.

5.

The last part of this test booklet comprises a sample bubble sheet. It is suggested that you answer all questions by shading the relevant oval in the bubble sheet.

6.

Confine all rough work to whatever blank space is available in this test booklet. No additional paper may be used.

7.

Using a HB pencil only. Use of calculators, scales and other measuring instruments is not permitted.

8.

You will be required to demonstrate adequate competence on each of the four sections.

9.

Wrong answers carry negative marks. The negative marking scheme is 1/3 of the marks allotted to the question. Hence desist from guessing wildly.

10. Now log on to www.cavindia.com. Use your username and password to upload your responses. If you are not registered on cavindia.com, then do so by visiting www.cavindia.com/usersignup.aspx 11. The deadline for submitting your responses is Wednesday, Sep 20th , 2006 by 4.00 p.m. IST. Explanatory Answers and Answer Keys will be put up after that.

84 / 2, S.T. House, Richmond Road, Bangalore – 56 00 25. Ph: 080 – 411 44 957 www.cavindia.com

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Section 1 1 mark questions (50) DIRECTIONS: Each passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Passage 1 According to Kaled Fattal: “People say the Net works, but it only works for those communities whose native language is Latin-based. The rest of the world is totally isolated.” Mr. Fattal speaks perfect English but, as chairman and chief executive of the Multilingual Internet Names Consortium (MINC), and an Arab, he knows that the majority of the world’s population does not. And he knows that this means the Internet is a bewildering and often incomprehensible place for the billions of people who live east of Greece. Despite everything you might have heard, the global resource we all know as the Internet is not global at all. Since you are reading this article in English you probably won’t have noticed, but if your first language was Chinese, Arabic, Hindi or Tamil, you would know different. At most websites you visit you will be scrabbling to find a link to a translated version in your language, seemingly hidden amid tracts of baffling text. Even getting to a website in the first place requires that you master the Western alphabet — have you ever tried to type “.com” in Chinese letters? If you think this situation need not worry you as an English speaker, think again. At a meeting this month, a number of prominent politicians and industry experts listed internationalized domain names (IDNs) as one of the Internet’s most pressing priorities. In June, at a meeting of the Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (Icann) in Marrakech, the “father of the Internet” himself, Vint Cerf, highlighted the introduction of IDNs as vital for the future of the Net. Why the urgency? Because a number of companies — and even countries — that are frustrated by years of delays, have started offering the Internet in their own languages by working outside the existing domain name system (DNS). The DNS is the Internet’s global directory and links particular websites to particular computers, so if you type in, say, “guardian.co.uk,” no matter where you are on the Internet you always end up at the same website. The problem is that, at the moment, the DNS works only with Western languages. The logic of maintaining a single global directory has so far prevented people from building and using a different system that includes their language, but in the past few years there has been such a build-up in demand from millions of new Internet users that the previous agreements are starting to unravel and risk causing a split in the Internet itself. If that were to happen, the web address you type in could suddenly open up an entirely different website depending on where in the world you are, or which ISP you use. You may want to buy a book from Amazon.com but find that you end up at a Russian website all about the world’s longest river. Email sent to you could end up with someone you do not know. The Internet community received a scare in February when China announced it had created three new toplevel domains that were the Chinese equivalents of “.com,” “.net” and “.china.” If China had decided to break away from the global Internet, others would certainly have soon followed. There was a huge wave of relief when the Chinese Government explained that it had made the new domains available only within China itself. But the fact that experts did not doubt that China was capable of and willing to separate from the global Internet was a wake-up call in itself. And it is not just China. Israel has set up its own internal system for domains in Hebrew — as have Iran, Syria and Japan. But as the world grows smaller, these countries are no longer prepared to stick with their add-on systems, accessible only when they are in their own country. They want to register a domain name that is accessible across the world in the same way that Western domains have been from day one.

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At a May meeting of the International Telecommunication Union in Geneva, however, the Western world finally woke up. MINC’s Mr. Fattal demonstrated a prototype system that worked with the existing Internet but also allowed new languages to be added to the global system. “We have found a way of connecting these islands [of different-language networks] and also connecting to the global Internet,” Mr. Fattal explains. “With this approach, we can leave the current DNS untouched and safe while helping coordinate between other countries in the namespace. In other words, now there’s a choice.” In Mr. Fattal’s presentation, suddenly the Internet that we all understand as the global Internet today was represented as the “ASCII `English’ Internet,” which took its place alongside the Arabic Internet, Persian Internet, Chinese Internet, Indian Internet, and so on. To understand how we have reached the position where there is a real risk of the Internet fragmenting, you need only review the term ASCII itself. It stands for American Standard Code for Information Interchange and it is the code devised to enable computers to represent and process all the characters in the English alphabet (a through to z, plus 0 to 9 and the various symbols you get on your keyboard such as % and &). There is only one organization that can add new top-level domains to the existing global Internet, and it is a not-for-profit company based in California and controlled by the U.S. Government: Icann. Icann was first approached in the year it was created — 1998 — with the aim of introducing “internationalized domain names” into its system. But it has yet to introduce a single one. Many members of the global Internet community have cried foul at the endless delays from a company based in the least linguistically diverse area of the world (the U.S. has speakers of 170 different languages, compared to 364 in Europe and 2,390 in Africa). These accusations have only been strengthened by the fact it is American companies that own and run the existing global domains and so have the most to lose from new foreign-language additions. These companies not only have disproportionate influence over Icann but have also been insisting on being given automatic ownership rights to any foreign versions of their domains — an argument of such corrupt logic that the very fact it is even discussed is a major cause of concern. On top of that, the proud and ancient cultures of Asia, Africa, and the Middle East are offended by the very suggestion that they should need to apply to a private U.S. company in order to have their language accepted as legitimate on the Internet. As overall coordinator of the domain name system, Icann is caught in a bind in which it is desperate to avoid the political repercussions of approving or not approving languages, whilst at the same time maintaining overall charge of the domain name system to prevent everything falling apart. Icann has successfully delayed the day it has to make such decisions by pointing to the complex technical issues that have to be decided first. However, with non-Latin-language networks becoming increasingly advanced, China making it clear it is prepared to break away from the Internet, MINC touting a solution that could bypass its processes altogether and, perhaps most crucially, Microsoft deciding to include IDN10 technology in the new version of Internet Explorer, out later this year, Icann has been left with no choice but to speed up the technical side of internationalized domain names in a bid to keep the net together. Once that technical side is completed, it will take a masterstroke of international political will to keep the Internet as we now know it together in one piece. The sore reality is that global Internet politics mean nothing to users in Syria or Egypt. They simply want to be able to use this remarkable medium in their own language, in their own way. — 1.

Why is it that the “the global resource we all know as the Internet is not global at all”? 1] Because of the digital-divide 2] Because the illiterate are unable to use the Internet 3] Internet is incomprehensible for those who can’t understand western languages. 4] Because the poor do not have access to the Internet

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2.

The Internet is incomprehensible to the non-Latin derived language users – why should an English speaker be concerned about this situation? 1] As a global citizen, one must champion the cause of universal access. 2] If eastern countries break away from the global Internet, the existing domain names could get mixed up 3] English speakers are not able to utilize the benefit of being connected to the eastern communities 4] For cyber safety its very important to ensure internationalized domain names

3.

Which of the following countries does not have its own internal system for domains 1] China 2] Israel 3] Syria 4] Egypt

4.

What made the Western world heave a sigh of relief after China announced the creation of its own top-level domains? 1] When China retracted from its decision due to global pressure 2] When China ensured that the new system would work in tandem with the global Internet 3] When China decided to postpone its move by a few years 4] When China explained that the it had made the new domains available only within China itself

5.

How has ASCII led to the risk of Internet fragmenting? 1] It is has inherent errors 2] It is suitable only for American users 3] It can process and represent only the English Language and script 4] Due to its standard nature, its lacks flexibility

6.

What, according to the author, would it take to keep the Internet together in one piece? 1] Technical expertise 2] International political will 3] Lobbying by the civil society 4] Both 1] and 2]

7.

Which of the following is NOT an accusation that has been made against the Icann? 1] The domain owners who have a sway on Icann are pressing for the ownership of the foreign versions of their domains 2] Eastern countries are required to apply to Icann, a private U.S. company in order to have their languages accepted as legitimate on the Internet 3] Icann is unnecessarily delaying the internationalization of domain names under the pretext of complex technical glitches 4] Icann is delaying the internationalization process due to pressures from the US government Passage 2

Around the turn of the century, Edward Thorndike attempted to develop an objective experimental method for the mechanical problem solving ability of cats and dogs. Thorndike devised a number of wooden crates which required various combinations of latches, levers, strings and treadles to open them. A dog or a cat would be put in one of these ‘puzzle-boxes’ and, sooner or later would manage to escape from it. Thorndike’s initial aim was to show that the anecdotal achievements of cats and dogs could be replicated in controlled, standardized circumstance, however, he soon realized that he could now measure animal intelligence using this equipment. His method was to set an animal the same task repeatedly, each time measuring the time it took to solve it. Thorndike could then compare these ‘learning-curves’ across different situations and different species. Thorndike was particularly interested in discovering whether his animals could learn their tasks through imitation or observation. He compared the learning curves of cats who had been given the opportunity of observing others escaping from a box with those who had never seen the box being solved and found no difference in their rate of learning. He obtained the same null result with dogs and, even when he showed

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the animals the methods of opening a box by placing their paws on the appropriate levers and so on, he found no improvement. He fell back on a much simpler trial and error explanation of learning. Occasionally, quite by chance, an animal performs an action which frees it from the box. When the animal finds itself in the same position again it is more likely to perform the same action again. The reward of being freed from the box somehow strengthens an association between a stimulus, being in a certain position in the box, and an appropriate action. Reward acts to strengthen stimulus-response associations. The animal learns to solve the puzzle-box not by reflecting on possible actions and really puzzling its way out of it but by a quite mechanical development of actions originally made by chance. By 1910 Thorndike had formalized this notion into a ‘law’ of psychology - the law of effect. In full it reads: “Of several responses made to the same situation those which are accompanied or closely followed by satisfaction to the animal will, other things being equal, be more firmly connected with the situation, so that, when it recurs, they will be more likely to recur; those which are accompanied or closely followed by discomfort to the animal will, other things being equal, have their connections to the situation weakened, so that, when it recurs, they will be less likely to occur. The greater the satisfaction or discomfort, the greater the strengthening or weakening of the bond.” Thorndike maintained that, in combination with the law of exercise, the notion that associations are strengthen by use and weakened with disuse, and the concept of instinct, the law of effect could explain all of human behavior in terms of the development of myriads of stimulus-response associations. It is worth briefly comparing trial and error learning with classical conditioning. In classical conditioning a neutral stimulus becomes association with part of a reflex (either the US or the UR). In trial and error learning no reflex is involved. A reinforcing or punishing event (a type of stimulus) alters the strength of association between a neutral stimulus and quite arbitrary response. The response is not to any part of a reflex. The behaviorist position that human behavior could be explained entirely in terms of reflexes, stimulusresponse associations, and the effects of reinforcers upon them entirely excluding ‘mental’ terms like desires, goals and so on was taken up by John Broadhus Watson in his 1914 book ‘Behavior: An Introduction to Comparative Psychology.’. Watson had also been involved in the introduction of the most favored subject in comparative psychology - the laboratory rat. One of his early jobs which he used to fund his Ph.D. was as a caretaker, one of whose duties was to look after laboratory rats used in studies intended to mimic ‘real-life’ learning tasks such as navigating complex mazes. Watson became adept at taming rats and found he could train rats to open a puzzle-box like Thorndike’s for a small food-reward. He also studied maze-learning but simplified the task dramatically. One type of maze is simply a long straight alley with food at the end. Watson found that once the animal was well trained at running this ‘maze’ it did so almost automatically. Once started by the stimulus of the maze its behavior becomes a series of associations between movements (or their kinaesthetic consequences) rather than stimuli in the outside world. This is made plain by shortening the alleyway - the well-trained rats now run straight into the end wall. This was known as the kerplunk experiment. The development of well-controlled behavioral techniques by Watson also allowed him to explore animals sensory abilities, for example their abilities to discriminate between similar stimuli, experimentally. Watson’s theoretical position was even more extreme than Thorndike’s - he would have no place for mentalistic concepts like pleasure or distress in his explanations of behavior. He essentially rejected the law of effect, denying that pleasure or discomfort caused stimulus-response associations to be learned. For Watson, all that was important was the frequency of occurrence of stimulus-response pairings. Reinforcers might cause some responses to occur more often in the presence of particular stimuli, but they did not act directly to cause their learning. Watson could therefore reject the notion that some mental traces of stimuli and responses needed to be retained in an animals mind until a reinforcer caused an association between them to be strengthened, which is a rather mentalistic consequence of the law of effect.

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8.

Which of the following is NOT true about Thorndike’s experiment? 1] It involved putting a cat or a dog in a puzzle-box and allowing the animal device ways to escape 2] The reward for the animal was freedom from the puzzle-box. 3] Once the animal escaped it was given food as an incentive 4] It involved giving an animal the same problem repeatedly, each time measuring the time it took to solve it.

9.

Which of the following is NOT a finding of Thorndike’s experiment? 1] Cats and dogs solve a problem by trial and error method. 2] Cats and dogs fail to learn by imitation and observation 3] Reward acts to strengthen stimulus-response associations 4] The learning happens due to the reflex of the animal

10.

Which of the following achievements cannot be attributed to Watson 1] The behaviorist position in which behavior is explained entirely in terms of reflexes, stimulusresponse associations, and the effects of reinforcers. 2] Introduction of the laboratory rat as a subject in comparative psychology. 3] He explored the sensory abilities of animals 4] He framed the law of effect

11.

The passage does NOT make an allusion to which of the following: 1] Kerplunk Experiment 2] Classical Conditioning 3] Law of Exercise 4] Operant Conditioning

12.

Which of the following is true about Watson’s stance on behavior? 1] He accepted the role of satisfaction and discomfort in governing of behavior 2] He believed that learning depended on the frequency of occurrence of stimulus-response associations 3] He concurred with Thorndike on the law of effect 4] He believed that reinforcement was necessary for learning.

Passage 3 To most people capital means a bank account, a hundred shares of IBM stock, assembly lines, or steel plants in the Chicago area. These are all forms of capital in the sense that they are assets that yield income and other useful outputs over long periods of time. But these tangible forms of capital are not the only ones. Schooling, a computer training course, expenditures of medical care, and lectures on the virtues of punctuality and honesty also are capital. That is because they raise earnings, improve health, or add to a person’s good habits over much of his lifetime. Therefore, economists regard expenditures on education, training, medical care, and so on as investments in human capital. They are called human capital because people cannot be separated from their knowledge, skills, health, or values in the way they can be separated from their financial and physical assets. Education and training are the most important investments in human capital. Many studies have shown that high school and college education in the United States greatly raise a person’s income, even after netting out direct and indirect costs of schooling, and even after adjusting for the fact that people with more education tend to have higher IQs and better-educated and richer parents. Similar evidence is now available for many years from over a hundred countries with different cultures and economic systems. The earnings of more educated people are almost always well above average, although the gains are generally larger in less developed countries. Consider the differences in average earnings between college and high school graduates in the United States during the past fifty years. Until the early sixties college graduates earned about 45 percent more than high school graduates. In the sixties this premium from college education shot up to almost 60 percent, but it fell back in the seventies to under 50 percent. The fall during the seventies led some economists and

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the media to worry about “overeducated Americans.” Indeed, in 1976 Harvard economist Richard Freeman wrote a book titled The Overeducated American. This sharp fall in the return to investments in human capital put the concept of human capital itself into some disrepute. Among other things it caused doubt about whether education and training really do raise productivity or simply provide signals (“credentials”) about talents and abilities. But the monetary gains from a college education rose sharply again during the eighties, to the highest level in the past fifty years. Economists Kevin M. Murphy and Finis Welch have shown that the premium on getting a college education in the eighties was over 65 percent. Lawyers, accountants, engineers, and many other professionals experienced especially rapid advances in earnings. The earnings advantage of high school graduates over high school dropouts has also greatly increased. Talk about overeducated Americans has vanished, and it has been replaced by concern once more about whether the United States provides adequate quality and quantity of education and other training. This concern is justified. Real wage rates of young high school dropouts have fallen by more than 25 percent since the early seventies, a truly remarkable decline. Whether because of school problems, family instability, or other factors, young people without a college or a full high school education are not being adequately prepared for work in modern economies. Thinking about higher education as an investment in human capital helps us understand why the fraction of high school graduates who go to college increases and decreases from time to time. When the benefits of a college degree fell in the seventies, for example, the fraction of white high school graduates who started college fell, from 51 percent in 1970 to 46 percent in 1975. Many educators expected enrollments to continue declining in the eighties, partly because the number of eighteen-year-olds was declining, but also because college tuition was rising rapidly. They were wrong about whites. The fraction of white high school graduates who enter college rose steadily in the eighties, reaching 60 percent in 1988, and caused an absolute increase in the number of whites enrolling despite the smaller number of college-age people. This makes sense. The benefits of a college education, as noted, increased in the eighties. And tuition and fees, although they rose about 39 percent from 1980 to 1986 in real, inflation-adjusted terms, are not the only cost of going to college. Indeed, for most college students they are not even the major cost. On average, three-fourths of the private cost—the cost borne by the student and by the student’s family—of a college education is the income that college students give up by not working. A good measure of this “opportunity cost” is the income that a newly minted high school graduate could earn by working full-time. And during the eighties this forgone income, unlike tuition, did not rise in real terms. Therefore, even a 39 percent increase in real tuition costs translated into an increase of just 10 percent in the total cost to students of a college education. The continuing growth in per capita incomes of many countries during the nineteenth and twentieth centuries is partly due to the expansion of scientific and technical knowledge that raises the productivity of labor and other inputs in production. And the increasing reliance of industry on sophisticated knowledge greatly enhances the value of education, technical schooling, on-the-job training, and other human capital. New technological advances clearly are of little value to countries that have very few skilled workers who know how to use them. Economic growth closely depends on the synergies between new knowledge and human capital, which is why large increases in education and training have accompanied major advances in technological knowledge in all countries that have achieved significant economic growth.

13.

What led to the concept of the ‘overeducated American’? 1] American government in the seventies started laying stress on rigorous examination system, hence the term. 2] In the sixties college graduates earned 60% more than what high school graduates earned, but in the seventies this premium fell down to under 50%, this fall led to the term. 3] Back in the seventies 89% Americans were at least high school graduates and 67% were at least college graduates, they were all highly educated, hence the term. 4] The hippies coined the phrase in the seventies to mock the old school.

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14.

Which of the following is NOT true about human capital? 1] It is the knowledge, skills, health, and values possessed by human beings 2] It gives increased returns over long periods of time 3] It is a tangible form of asset 4] Investment in healthcare leads to an enhancement in human capital

15.

Which of the following is not true about return on investment in human capital? 1] It is higher in developing countries 2] It has been consistently increasing over the decades in United States 3] It is generally measured in terms of increase in earnings 4] It is usually estimated for investment in higher education

16.

Why is there a concern over the quality and quantity of education and training in the United States? 1] The direct and indirect cost of education is very high 2] Education and training do not really raise productivity, they simply provide signals about talents and abilities. 3] There is a remarkable difference between the average salaries of college and high school graduates 4] Real wage rates of young high school dropouts have fallen by more than 25 percent since the early seventies.

17.

Why has the percentage of white students enrolling for college education increased in the eighties despite a 39% increase in tuition costs? 1] Earnings by college graduates registered a sharp increase in the 1980s 2] Most of the white students were able to secure huge scholarships in the eighties 3] The opportunity cost of going to college did not increase in real terms 4] The total cost of going to college remained the same

18.

According to the passage, the economic growth of a country depends on which of the following: 1] Expansion of scientific and technical knowledge 2] Investment in human capital 3] A synergy between 1] and 2] 4] Abundance of natural resources

Passage 4 In biology and ecology, extinction is the ceasing of existence of a species or group of taxa. The moment of extinction is generally considered to be the death of the last individual of that species. Extinction is usually a natural phenomenon; it is estimated that more than 99.9% of all species that have ever lived are now extinct. Through evolution, new species are created by speciation - where new organisms arise and thrive when they are able to find and exploit an ecological niche - and species become extinct when are no longer able to survive in changing conditions or against superior competition. A typical species becomes extinct within 10 million years of its first appearance, although some species survive virtually unchanged for hundreds of millions of years. Descendants may or may not exist for extinct species. Daughter species that evolve from a parent species carry on most of the parent species’ genetic information, and even though the parent species may become extinct, the daughter species lives on. In other cases, species have produced no new variants, or none that are able to survive the parent species’ extinction. Extinction of a parent species where daughter species or subspecies are still alive is also called pseudoextinction. However, pseudoextinction is difficult to demonstrate unless one has a strong chain of evidence linking a living species to members of a pre-existing species. For example, it is sometimes claimed that the extinct

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Hyracotherium, which was an ancient animal similar to the horse, is pseudoextinct, rather than extinct, because there are several extant species of horse, including zebra and donkeys. However, as fossil species typically leave no genetic material behind, it’s not possible to say whether Hyracotherium actually evolved into more modern horse species or simply evolved from a common ancestor with modern horses. Pseudoextinction is much easier to demonstrate for larger taxonomic groups. For example, it could be said that dinosaurs are pseudoextinct, because some of their descendants, the birds, survive today. A species may become functionally extinct when only a handful of individuals survive, which are unable to reproduce due to health, age, lack of both sexes (in species that reproduce sexually), or other reasons. Coextinction of a species is the loss of one species upon the extinction of another. The term was originally used in the context of the extinction of parasitic insects following the loss of their hosts. The term is now used describe the subsequent loss of any interacting species, including predators with their prey, and specialist herbivores with their food source. Currently, environmental groups and some governments are concerned with the extinction of species due to human intervention, and are attempting to combat further extinctions. According to the World Conservation Union (WCU, also known as IUCN), 784 extinctions have been recorded since the year 1500, the arbitrary date selected to define “modern” extinctions, with many more likely to have gone unnoticed. Most of these modern extinctions can be attributed directly or indirectly to human effects. In addition to actual extinction, human attempts to preserve critically endangered species have caused the creation of the conservation status extinct in the wild. Species listed under this status by the WCU are not known to have any living specimens in the wild, and are maintained only in zoos or other artificial environments. Some of these species are functionally extinct. There are a variety of causes that can contribute directly or indirectly to the extinction of a species or group of species. Most simply, any species that is unable to survive or reproduce in its environment, and unable to move to a new environment where it can do so, dies out and becomes extinct. Extinction of a species may come suddenly when an otherwise healthy species is wiped out completely, as when toxic pollution renders its entire habitat unlivable; or may occur gradually over thousands or millions of years, such as when a species gradually loses out competition for food to newer, better adapted competitors. Around three species of birds die out every year due to competition.

19.

Which of the following is NOT true about extinction? 1] It is marked by the death of the last individual of a particular species 2] It is caused only due to human interference 3] Extinction occurs when a species is not able to adapt to change 4] It is an antithesis of speciation

20.

Match the following: I. Pseudoextinction II. Functional extinction III. Co-extinction IV. Extinction in the wild 1] I – D II – A III – B IV – C

A. Extinction of predator with the prey B. Zoos and artificial habitats C. Dinosaurs D. Failure to reproduce 2] I – C II – D III – A IV – B

3] I – A II – B III – D IV- C

4] I - C II - B III - D IV – A

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21.

Which of the following is NOT true about pseudoextinction? 1] It happens when daughter species are able to survive the extinction of the parent species 2] Daughter and parent species have similar genetic composition 3] Hyracotherium is pseudoextinct 4] It can only be proved if there is strong genetic evidence supporting the evolution of a living species from a pre-existing one

22.

Which of the following is true according to the passage? 1] Human Beings have led to the extinction of 784 species 2] All species extinct in the wild are also functionally extinct 3] Extinction always takes place suddenly within a few years 4] All species become extinct within 10 million years of their appearance

Passage 5 A patent is the government grant of monopoly on an invention for a limited amount of time. Patents in the United States are granted for seventeen years from the date the patent is issued or for 20 years from the date of filing. Other countries grant patents for similar time periods. Italy and Mexico grant patents for fifteen years from the date of application; Japan grants them for fifteen years from the patent’s publication; Germany grants for eighteen years from application. An invention is a new device or composition of matter, or a newly created technical method. In contrast, the discovery of a law of nature—the law of gravity, for example, is not an invention. The economic justification for patents is straightforward. If there were no patents, then someone who invested time and money to create an invention would not necessarily get a return on even a very valuable invention. The reason is that others could imitate his or her invention. If imitators have the same production costs as the inventor, they could compete the price down so that the original inventor covers only production costs, but not invention costs. Potential inventors, knowing this, would be less likely to invest in inventing. But with a patent system in place, potential inventors are more likely to invest because they can expect to have a monopoly on their inventions for as long as seventeen years. Although this argument is airtight, it is, in itself, an insufficient argument for patents. There are two main reasons. First, there is a cost to the patent system. By creating a monopoly, it causes higher prices for consumers and thus a loss to them that outweighs the gain to producers. One might argue that the loss is fictitious because without the patent the invention would not have been made. But many inventions would be made and have been made without patents. Sometimes such inventions occur intentionally, such as when the inventor thinks he can keep the invention secret long enough (but typically much less than seventeen years) to collect a monopoly return on it. Other times, the inventions occur by accident. Either way, one of the patent system’s negative effects is to create monopolies in inventions that would have existed anyway. Second, as British economist Arnold Plant argued in the thirties, the patent system diverts creative energy into the patentable inventions and away from the kinds of improvements that cannot be patented. An example of such an unpatentable improvement would be a new way of organizing shelf space in a supermarket. There is no assurance that this diversion creates net economic benefits for society. One argument against patents, at one time thought to have merit, has been shown to be bogus. This is the argument that a monopolist who gets a patent on an improved product that costs no more to produce than his or her existing product would suppress it rather than use it. By so doing, goes the argument, the monopolist would avoid destroying the market for his current product. This idea has been so commonly held by noneconomists that it is the premise of a 1952 Alec Guinness comedy, The Man in the White Suit, and a more sinister 1980 movie titled The Formula. In the former a perpetually durable suit is suppressed, and in the latter a formula for synthetic fuel is suppressed. UCLA economist Jack Hirshleifer has shown that a rational monopolist would not suppress such inventions.

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Consider, says Hirshleifer, a monopolist of light bulbs. He or she acquires the patent to a new light bulb that gives twice as many hours of use as his current bulbs, but that costs the same to produce. Hirshleifer points out that what the monopolist’s customers care about is light hours. So, argues Hirshleifer, the monopolist could sell the same number of light hours at the same price per light hour by producing half as many as the new light bulbs as he or she was producing of the old ones, and charging twice the price. The monopolist would then earn the same revenue, but costs would be cut in half. Bottom line: higher profits from using the invention. 23.

The economic rationale behind a patent is that 1] It helps the inventor eliminate competition 2] It prevents the invention from being imitated 3] It ensures that the benefits of the invention reach the public 4] It encourages potential inventors to invest time and money in inventing

24.

Which of the following is an argument against patents? 1] Consumers have to pay a higher price for patented products 2] Inventors choose to invent patentable products, neglecting the unpatentable products in the process 3] Monopolists tend to suppress improvements in existing products 4] Both 1&2

25.

Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? 1] Discoveries cannot be patented 2] A system for organizing shelf space in a supermarket is unpatentable 3] Sometimes inventions can take place accidentally 4] Processes and methods do not come under the definition of an invention

DIRECTIONS: Fill up the blanks, numbered [26], [27] ...up to [30], in the passage below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank. The collapse of the Doha “development” round of trade talks has been widely [26] as bad news for the world’s poor. But poverty is not exclusive to developing countries, and there is little danger that the poor are going to become an endangered species, whatever the deal on trade. Poverty is not a static condition which people may be [27] from or “raised out of.” Poverty has as many guises as the words that describe it: the destitution of the landless laborer is not the exclusion of the city slum-dweller; the elective austerity of the religious foundation is a million miles away from a drought-stricken tribal village in Orissa; and the violent dispossession of the Rio favela is not the same thing as the scarcity of a lean season in Bangladesh. As Western governments never cease to [28], poverty is relative. (They do not state what it is relative to: whether to neighbors, to the rich, or to those whose personal fortunes [29] the GDP of whole countries.) If anyone with below 60 per cent of median income is said to remain in poverty, a significant proportion of the people will always be poor. It should not be imagined that poverty in the rich countries is a [30] or sheltered experience, as the existence of gun and violent crime, a knife culture, gang warfare, and a drug economy testifies. 26.

1] criticized

2] deplored

3] condemned

4] lamented

27.

1] revived

2] salvaged

3] rescued

4] redeemed

28.

1] affirm

2] insist

3] establish

4] confirm

29.

1] exceed

2] surpass

3] outdo

4] transcend

30.

1] limited

2] mitigated

3] tempered

4] toned down

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DIRECTIONS: For each of the words below, a contextual usage is provided. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most appropriate in the given context. 31.

Finesse: She also phrases sublimely, stretching vowels and caressing consonants with a jazz musician’s finesse. 1] acumen 2] flair 3] delicacy 4] ingenuity

32.

Deference: There is a “certain degree of deference, a certain degree of consideration that should be given to the president. 1] veneration 2] idolization 3] fidelity 4] civility

33.

Subterfuge: Congress must not reward deceit and subterfuge by authorizing the very programs that have violated the law. 1] chicanery 2] stunt 3]circumvention 4] evasion

34.

Eclectic: And what a bizarre, eclectic and always fascinating scattering of culture, language, history and folklore they turned out to be. 1] multifarious 2] universal 3] selective 4] superior

35.

Specious: This mischaracterization is a deliberate and specious attempt to distract observers from the history of this conflict and current cause of its reemergence. 1]insidious 2] superficial 3] inaccurate 4] underhanded Directions: Identify the correct sentence or sentences

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

A. He had his leg injured in an accident. B. We were knowing each other well. C. Wordsworth has written a number of nature poems D. Have you ever considered doing something else for a living? 1] Only A 2] Both A & D 3] Both B & D

4] Only C

A. I’d prefer waiting rather than coming again. B. Are you working tomorrow? C. He has left the office barely five minutes ago. D. Did you get those cushions embroidered? 1] Only A 2] Only B

3] Both B & D

4] Only D

A. I failed in doing my job. B. You must visit us some time. C. She is used to being treated badly. D. I dream to make it big some day. 1] Only A 2] Only C

3] Only D

4]Both B & C

A. I am going to the market for buying new shoes. B. How long are they married. C. How often do you go shopping? D. I am going to Paris for a holiday. 1] Only A 2] Only B

3] Both C & D

4] Only D

A. I will go to the movies this afternoon. B. Nic is supposed to have stolen the watch, but I don’t believe it. C. She hates being kept waiting. D. I’d rather you don’t tell anyone about this. 1] Only A 2] Only B 3] Both B & C

4] Only D

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DIRECTIONS: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. 41.

A. Since its launch in 2001, the Doha round has had a chequered record. B. After the most recent suspension of the Doha round of trade talks in Geneva, only the diehard optimists can hope for an early revival, leave alone a satisfactory resolution. C. Trade negotiations have tended to flounder and all deadlines have been missed because of the uncompromising positions adopted by some member countries. D. Representatives from the six important trading blocs — India, the United States, the European Union, Brazil, Japan, and Australia — failed to achieve the much-needed breakthrough in agricultural trade negotiations, which hold the key to a broader agreement covering nonagricultural market access (NAMA) and services. 1] ABCD 2] BDAC 3] BACD 4] DBCA

42.

A. The notion that destruction of a few days’ old embryo amounts to killing human life is not just flawed, it is over the top. B. With a stroke of the pen, President George Bush has dealt a body blow to science and dashed the hopes of countless human beings round the world who look to human embryonic stem cell research as a possible cure for their afflictions. C. The exact time when life begins is a debatable issue and scientists see such embryos as nothing more than a bunch of cells. D. His veto of a Bill seeking to enlarge federal funding for the research underlines the fact that fundamentalist religious objections, not scientific considerations, matter when his administration deals with issues that seem to conflict with far-Right ideology. 1] ACBD 2] BCAD 3] BDAC 4] DBCA

43.

A. We may well ask why the state does not fulfill its constitutional obligation. B. In certain parts of society one sees such a desire, but it is too weak and casual to lead to sustained pressure on the state. C. To ask such a question is to get caught in a language game. D. There is plenty of evidence to say that India’s present-day society lacks the desire to see every child at school. 1] BDAC 2] DBAC 3] BDCA 4] DBCA

44.

A. Those who watched closely the tortuous process through which the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) and the Right to Information Act (RTI) came into existence, know well that neither this government nor the bureaucracy was ever enthusiastic. B. Is this government simply tolerating unwillingly the two most important Acts that can empower considerably the poor and the most vulnerable in this country? C. And now in less than a year’s time the Union Cabinet is reported to have decided to restrict significantly the reach of the RTI Act. D. Without the support they received from the National Advisory Council headed by Congress president Sonia Gandhi, these two Acts would not have been possible. 1] ABCD 2] BCAD 3] CDAB 4] BADC

45.

A. The innovative global measure of progress, the Happy Planet Index, has been constructed by the New Economics Foundation (Nef) and Friends of the Earth using three factors: life expectancy, human well-being, and damage done via a country’s “environmental footprint.” B. The index has been compiled to draw attention to the fact that it is not necessary to use up the earth’s resources to achieve long life and happiness. C. The most happy place on the planet is the South Pacific island nation of Vanuatu, according to a radical new index published on Wednesday. D. Vanuatu comes top because its people are satisfied with their lot, live to nearly 70 and do little damage to the planet. 1] CABD 2] ABCD 3] CBDA 4] CBAD

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DIRECTIONS: Four alternative summaries are given below each paragraph. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the paragraph. 46.

For more than a year now, Parliament has remained on the margins as the nuclear deal with the United States has exercised the nation. Four things stand out starkly. First, what was claimed to be a balanced deal has turned into a continuing exercise involving the progressive addition of onesided conditions on India. Secondly, the conditionalities have expanded even beyond the nuclear realm to potentially encroach on India’s foreign policy and strategic autonomy. Thirdly, Prime Minister Manmohan Singh has been unable to honor his solemn assurances to Parliament. And fourthly, the balance of the Indo-U.S. agreement announced on July 18, 2005 started tilting against India in later closed-door negotiations between the two governments, but the U.S. legislative process has gone further and changed the basic terms of the Agreement. 1] The last one year has not been good for India as far as the nuclear deal with the United States is concerned. Not only has the deal resulted in India having to fulfill many other conditions, but also that the Prime Minister had to take back his words on the assurances he gave to the parliament. 2] Not only has India had to give more than what it got from the Indo-U.S. nuclear deal, but also the basic terms of the deal have been changed to suit the needs of the United States legislative process. The foreign policy as well as the autonomy of India, too, have suffered 3] The nuclear deal with United States has led to India giving more than what it can get. Even the basic terms of the deal have been changed to top it all; Prime Minister Manmohan Singh could not honor his solemn assurances to the parliament. 4] Although the basic terms of the agreement have been changed it should be kept in mind that United States is doing what it could to pass the deal in its parliament. Some compromises need to be made and so they are being made.

47.

The passage of the Indian Right to Information Act 2005 was hailed, almost universally, as a landmark piece of legislation that could change the relationship of the citizen with the state. It was considered one of the most progressive RTI laws in the world, with several provisions worthy of emulation. With widespread use, it had begun to be seen by citizen groups as a ray of hope to fight corruption, inefficiency, and the arbitrary use of power in an otherwise dark scenario. However, just six months after the Act has come into effect, the Union Cabinet has approved a set of amendments, some of which will crucially damage the scope and power of the Act. The most critical of these relate to barring the disclosure of “file notings.” Also Cabinet papers available currently after the decision is complete will now be barred from disclosure even after the decision is taken. As a result, the process of decision-making will be kept out of the public domain, making it far more difficult for citizens to participate in the process. 1] The initial hope over the Right to Information Act 2005, one of the most progressive RTI laws in the world, could not last for more than six months. With the latest amendments approved by the Union Cabinet, especially the one that bars the disclosure of ‘file notings’ will severely curtail the citizen participation in the decision-making process. 2] Right to Information Act 2005 was seen as a ray of hope in the other wise dark scenario. It was hailed as one of the most progressive RTI laws in the world, with several provisions worthy of emulation. Soon the RTI laws will have no wings to flutter. 3] According to the current modifications in the RTI Act 2005, Cabinet papers available currently after the decision is complete will now be barred from disclosure even after the decision is taken. As a result, the process of decision-making will be kept out of the public domain, making it far more difficult for citizens to participate in the process. 4] Just six months after the Act has come into effect, the Union Cabinet has approved a set of amendments, some of which will crucially damage the scope and power of the Act. The enthusiasm and optimism associated with the act would no longer be there.

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48.

Kofi Annan finally made the headlines with his call on July 21 for an immediate ceasefire in the Middle East crisis. It was too little, too late. That the United Nations Secretary-General waited nine days before seriously speaking out has dealt a severe blow to the organization’s humanitarian image. That he twinned his criticism of Israel’s “excessive use of force” with repeated condemnations of Hizbollah again showed how deeply in thrall to the U.S. the world is. With Britain now firmly in the U.S. camp even on the Middle East conflict, the G8, the EU, and the U.N. Security Council are still not calling for a ceasefire. This international decision to sanction such atrocities is the most troubling dimension of the current war. 1] The United Nations has always said what the US wants it to say. And the case of the present Middle East conflict is no different. This is nothing but a sanction to atrocities, which has dealt a severe blow to the UN’s humanitarian image. 2] Kofi Annan has waited for nine days to speak on the Middle East crisis. Even now his statement is insufficient and biased. Similarly other international groups are also under the sway of the US. 3] Though the UN Secretary General Kofi Annan has called for a ceasefire in the Middle East crisis, the appeal is both late and insufficient. Annan’s condemnation of the Hizbollah along with that of Israel is indicative of an American influence which is also evident in the case of the G8, the EU and the UN Security Council. 4] The UN Secretary General’s call for peace in the Middle East is untimely and inadequate. In addition, the G8, the EU, and the U.N. Security Council are still not calling for a ceasefire which is quite troubling.

49.

Nearly half a century after decolonization, there is still a tendency in the West to see the Third World as a bit of a white man’s burden, though, mercifully, not in the way that once prompted the dispatch of “civilizing” missions across the length and breadth of the Asian and African continents. Rather, the Third World is now seen to have mutated, as it were, into a “virus” that is threatening to “contaminate” the Western values of tolerance, good governance, and probity in public life. They call it the Third World “syndrome.” Last week, Mathew Parris, one of Britain’s more sober commentators, accused Prime Minister Tony Blair of bringing a “Third World flavor” to British politics. 1] For ever and anon, the West has looked down upon the Third World as lowly and its influence as polluting. The terms used by the politicians change but the ‘colonizing’ tendencies of the West continue to exist. This is clearly evident from the comments made by Mathew Parris in which he accused Prime Minister Tony Blair of bringing a “Third World flavor” to British politics. 2] The Imperialistic tendencies of Britain have not ceased to exit; they have only changed their form. What was once called the ‘white man’s burden’ is now referred to as ‘the Third World syndrome’. 3] British Politicians have accused the Asian and African countries of contaminating their value tolerance, good governance, and probity in public life. This is nothing but an example of ‘white man’s burden’. 4] The concept of ‘white man’s burden’ which had led to the colonization of the Third World has now taken a new garb. ‘The Third World syndrome’ is the term used by political commentators in the West, for the contaminating influence of the Asian and African countries on Western values.

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50.

Normally, when Iraqi leaders come to Britain they tend to ad-lib the script their hosts in Downing Street and the Foreign Office wish to hear — or have written for them. Prime Minister Tony Blair, therefore, looked surprised and embarrassed when during a short visit to London this week his usually loyal guest — Iraqi Prime Minister Nouri al-Maliki — turned on him over his refusal to condemn the Israeli actions in Lebanon and to intervene to halt the violence. In a rare public display of disagreement and frustration with the British position, the soft-spoken Mr. al-Maliki exploded in anger after Mr. Blair, standing next to him at a joint press conference in Downing Street on Monday, echoed the American line that a ceasefire would not help until Hizbollah was first reined in. 1] Iraqi leaders, when they come to Britain merely read out the speeches written for them by their British counterparts. But Iraqi Prime Minister Nouri al-Maliki publicly embarrassed British Prime Minister Tony Blair when Mr. Blair refused to condemn Israel. He exploded in anger at a jointpress conference in Downing Street with Mr. Blair. 2] Iraqi Prime Minister Nouri al-Maliki set a new tradition by going against the wishes of British Foreign Office and Prime Minister Tony Blair. He failed to follow suit when Mr. Blair condemned Israeli actions in Lebanon. 3] All Iraqi leaders are expected to echo the sentiments of the British government but Iraqi Prime Minister Nouri al-Maliki in his recent visit to Britain refused flew into a rage when PM Tony Blair refused to denounce Israeli actions in Lebanon and to intervene to halt the violence. Mr. Blair had reiterated the American stance on the issue. 4] Prime Minister Tony Blair was surprised and embarrassed when is soft-spoken and loyal guest Iraqi Prime Minister Nouri al-Maliki flew into a rage in a joint press conference and condemned Israeli actions in Lebanon. He even indicated that Iraq would intervene to halt the violence.

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Section 2 Part A 1 mark questions (20) Directions for 51 and 52: These questions are based on the following: Jeevan Blood Bank looks for three types of antigens in blood tests: A, B and Rh. When the antigen A or B is present, it is listed, but if both these are absent, the blood is type O. If the Rh antigen is present, the blood is positive, otherwise, it is negative. A laboratory technician reports the following results after testing the blood samples of 100 people. Number of Samples 40 18 82 5 31 11 4 51.

52.

53.

54.

Antigen in Blood A B Rh A and B A and Rh B and Rh A, B and Rh

How many people were classifieds as O negative? 1] 3 2] 7

3] 53

4] Indeterminate

How many people are O positive? 1] 82 2] 47

3] 44

4] 4

A man set out at noon to walk from Khalagpur to Danapur, and a friend of his started at 2 pm on the same day to walk from Danapur to Khalagpur. They met on the road at five minutes past four o'clock, and each man reached his destination at exactly the same time. Can you say at what time they both reached their respective destinations? 1] 6 pm 2] 7 pm 3] 6:30 pm 4] 7:25 pm

x 11 x+y is five greater than times its reciprocal. If xy is negative, then is y 4 y 1] 0 2] 1/2 3] – 1/2 4] 1

55.

Ahmed promised to pay Balaji Rs. 8400 and a certain amount after 24 months called as “pagadi” for working for him for 2 years. When Balaji quit 8 months before the agreed time, Ahmed paid him Rs. 4500 plus the entire pagadi as compensation. How much was the pagadi (in Rs.) if Balaji received all monies due to him in the appropriate proportion ? 1] 3300 2] 4500 3] 5000 4] 6000

56.

In the figure given below, ACDE is a rectangle and ABCE is a isosceles trapezoid. The length of segment AB is 10 units and the length of segment CE is 20 units. Find the length of segment AE. B

A C

E

1] 10 units

D

2] 12 units

3] 14 units

4] 12 units

20

.

57.

58.

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Directions for questions 57 to 58: Read the following data to answer the questions given below. Four gentlemen (A, B, C, and D) went to an expensive restaurant to dine. They checked their coats, hats, gloves, and canes at the door (each of the gentlemen had one of each). But when they checked out, there was a mix up, and each of the men ended up with exactly one article of clothing (a pair of gloves is considered a single article of clothing) belonging to each one of the four. A and B ended up with their own coats, C ended up with his own hat, and D ended up with his own gloves. A did not end up with C's cane. Who had the hat of A? 1] D

2] B

Which of the following statement is true? 1] A had C’s gloves 2] B had C’s gloves

3] C

4] A

3] C had D’s coat

4] None of these

59.

A clock is observed. The hour hand is exactly at the minute mark, and the minute hand is six minutes ahead of it. Later, the clock is observed again. This time the hour hand is exactly on a different minute mark, and the minute hand is seven minutes ahead of it. How much time has elapsed between the first and the second observation? 1] 3 hrs 24 min 2] 2 hrs 12 min 3] 1 hr 48 min 4] None of these

60.

You begin your vacation at Village A and travel to Village B. From Village B you move on to Village C and then to Village D. You leave Village D and return back to Village A. Your round trip was 54 km and the distance between each village is a whole number. The distance between Village A and Village B is greater than between Village B and Village C. Also, if you went directly from Village B to Village D, it would be a distance of 12 km. What is the distance from Village C to Village D? B 12 A

1] 6 km

D

2] 9 km

3] 5 km

C

4] Indeterminate

61.

This game is played by two people. Put 18 dots on a black board or on paper. Each player is to erase 1, 2 or 3 dots in his playing turn. Turns alternate between the two players, i.e. player 1 takes turn 1, then player 2 takes turn 2, then player 1 takes turn 3, and so on. You need not choose a number and stay with it. For instance, you might erase 1 dot on your first turn, 2 dots on your second, 1 dot on your third and 3 dots on your fourth turn. The player who erases the last dot loses. You make the first move, and both players play intelligently, and you win. What is the number of dots that were erased in turns 1, 2 and 3 together? 1] 5 2] 6 3] Indeterminate 4] None of these

62.

A Math Club devices the following method for encoding positive integers. First the integer is expressed in base 5, second a one to one correspondence is established between the digits that appear in the expression in base 5 and the elements of the set {A, E, I, O, U}. Using this correspondence, the members find that three consecutive integers in increasing order are coded as AOU, AOI, AAE respectively. What is the base –10 expression for the integer coded AEIOU ? 1] 682 2] 777 3] 1358 4] None of these

63.

I start counting numbers from 10 on my fingers, starting with my little finger and moving towards my thumb. On reaching the thumb, I count the next number on my fore finger, the next on my middle and so on, until I reach the little finger. The next number is then counted on the ring finger. If I count upto 99, then on which finger do I count 99 ? 1] Ring finger 2] Middle finger 3] Fore finger 4] None of these

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64.

A 3 kg cake is cut into 4 pieces. The first piece is one fifth the weight of the sum of the weights of the other 3 pieces. The second is one third the weight of the sum of the weights of the other pieces. The third piece is one-half the weight of the sum of the weights of the other pieces. How much did the fourth piece weigh ? 1] 1000 grams 2] 850 grams 3] 750 grams 4] 600 grams

65.

There are two concentric circular tracks of lengths 200 km. and 300 km. A car moves on the outer track at the speed of 50 kmph in the clock wise direction. A scooter moves on the inside track in the anti-clockwise direction at a speed of 60 kmph. If both start from the north most point of the track at the same time and the first person to travel 1200 km does so and stops, then how many times has he crossed the other person in the time in which he was moving? 1] 3 2] 4 3] 6 4] None of these

66.

Unlike in India, the pizzas in Italy are wafer thin and are square shaped. There is a square pizza that has to be cut into pieces to serve 115 guests. What is the minimum number of straight cuts required to divide the pizza into exactly 115 pieces, if it does not matter whether the pieces are equal sized or not. 1] 12 2] 15 3] 18 4] Not possible Directions for questions 67 and 68: Read the following data to answer the questions given below Let f (x) be a function. fn (x) denotes function calculated n times, i.e., fn (x) = f (f (f ………… n times (x))), so f3 (x) = f (f (f (x))). It is defined that

67.

68.

G1 (x) = f (x) G2 (x) = f2 (x) . . Gn (x) = f n (x)

H1 (x) = f 2 (x) H2 (x) = f 4 (x) . . Hn (x) = f 2n (x)

If f (x) = x, then Gn (x) ≥ Hn (x) for 1] [ − 1, 1 ] 3] The entire number line

2] [ − ∞, − 1 ] ∪ [ 1, ∞ ] 4] None of these

If fn (x) = f 2n (x) = x , then Gn (x) ≥ Hn (x) for 1] (0, ∞ ] 2] [ − 1, 1 ]

3] [0, ∞ )

4] None of these

69.

In table tennis the first player to score 21 points wins. Service alternates between the two players every 5 points. A player can score points both during his service and his opponent’s service. Ali beat Badshah 21–16 in a game, 24 of the 37 points played were won by the player serving. Who served first? 1] Ali 2] Badshah 3] Indeterminate 4] Inconsistent data

70.

A car’s headlights make two circular bright spots on a wall when the car is 10 m away. At what rate is the area of the bright spots changing when the car is 6 m away. The velocity of the car is 3 m/s. see diagram

1] 12 π m2/sec

2] 48 π m2/sec

3] 10 π m2/sec

4] None of these

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Section 2 Part B 2 mark questions (15) 71.

Triangle ABC is an equilateral triangle with sides of length 5 units. Point D is any point in the interior of triangle ABC. Segments ED, FD, and GD are perpendicular to the sides of the triangle. If the segments ED, FD, and GD are equal in length, then find the sum of segments ED, FD, and GD.(Note: Diagram is not to the sacle)

1] 4.30 units

2] 5.20 units

3] 3.8 units

4] None of these

72.

A team of X men are engaged to do two tasks A and B where time required for A is twice that required for B. The men work half the day on task A, and then an equal number of them work on task A and B simultaneously for the second half of the day. At the end of the day, task A is completed, but task B is not. The next day, one man is assigned to complete task B and he does it in 1 day. If all men work at the same rate, then what is the number of men in the team ? 1] 6 2] 8 3] 10 4] 12

73.

What is the digit at the ten’s place in the number 299 ? 1] 2 2] 4 3] 8

4] None of these

Directions for questions 74 and 75: Refer to the data below. Every year CAV organizes a Quant workshop, one month before the CAT exam. A maximum of 1000 students are allowed for the workshop. The workshop is priced at Rs. 1500, of which the management retains 15% and 25% is used to pay for the faculties. The remaining amount is used for prize money to be distributed to top performing students on a test which is conducted at the end of the workshop. The price money is distributed equally to all students who score more than 50% in the test. In October 2004, a winner student took home Rs. 28140. The next year, another winner took home Rs. 40200. The number of students who enrolled for the workshop was the same in both the years. The conditions for distributing and utilizing the money also remained the same for both the years. 74.

What was the amount spent by the management for the faculties in October 2004? 1] Rs. 351570 2] Rs. 357150 3] Rs. 351750 4] None of these / Indeterminate

75.

How much money was divided among the students who were awarded the price in the year 2005? 1] Rs. 844200 2] Rs. 763800 3] Rs. 884400 4] None of these / Indeterminate

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Directions for questions 76 and 77: Refer to the data below. A fortune teller has a unique way of predicting his customer’s prognosis. He has three parrots kept in three different cages. Each cage also has three cards with a single digit non zero number inscribed on every card. No two cards have the same number and no cage contains two cards with digits totaling ten. Further, the total of the three cards in the first cage is greater by two than the second cage and by four than the third cage. When a customer asks for a prognosis, the fortune teller lets out the three parrots which randomly pick out one card out of their respective cages. Before the prognosis is made, the fortune teller totals the digits on the three cards picked out and charges the customer the same number of rupees as the total of the cards. One day a customer paid seven rupees for his prognosis. 76.

77.

What is the lowest payment possible? 1] Rs. 5 2] Rs. 3

3] Rs .6

4] Rs. 8

What is the maximum possible that one can pay? 1] Rs. 22 2]Rs. 23

3] Rs. 24

4] Rs. 45

78.

There are two women participating in a chess tournament. Each participant played two games with every other participants. The number of games played by the men among themselves exceeded by 66, than the number of games played by men against women. How many male participants were in the tournament? 1] 16 2] 15 3] 14 4] 11

79.

A number of children played at marbles. Each child won a different number of games and the total number of games won by the boys equaled the total number of games won by the two girls. As a memento of the occasion, they each received a present of marbles, equal to the square of the number of games he or she had won. In total, the boys received as many marbles as the girls, and the total number of marbles received by all of them together was less than 100. How many marbles were given as presents? 1] 18 2] 81 3] 73 4] None of these

80.

81.

EVE = . TALK DID Each letter represents a different digit, and the division represents a common fraction that can be written as a repeating decimal. What is the fraction? 242 222 242 1] 2] 3] 4] None of these 303 303 313 There are two friends – Mr. Additive and Mr. Multiple. Both pass through a hall containing 100 doors numbered 1 to 100. As they walk through the hallway from door number 1 towards 100, Mr. Multiple multiples the number written on the doors with the product of numbers on all previous doors and tells it to Mr. Additive, who adds it with the previous number that Mr. Multiple had calculated. At the end of the hallway, what is the number in the units place of Mr. Additive’s final answer? 1] 0 2] 3 3] 6 4] 9

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82.

Five pirates raid the ship of a wealthy bureaucrat and steal his trunk of gold pieces. By the time they get the trunk aboard, dusk has fallen, so they agree to split the gold the next morning. But the pirates are all very greedy. During the night one of the pirates decides to take some of the gold pieces for himself. He sneaks to the trunk and divides the gold pieces into five equal piles, with one gold piece left over. He puts the gold piece in his pile, hides it, puts the other four piles back in the trunk, and sneaks back to bed. One by one, the remaining pirates do the same. They sneak to the trunk, divide the coins into five piles, with always one coin left over. Each pirate puts the gold coin in his own pile, hides it, and puts the remaining four piles back in the trunk. What is the smallest number of pieces there could have been in the trunk originally? 1] 3121 2] 3211 3] 2131 4] 3721

83.

How many two digit numbers exist such that the product of the two digits is a perfect square? Note that neither of the two digits are zeroes. 1] 9 2] 11 3] 17 4] None of these

84.

In a nuclear plant there are warning lights placed at locations numbered 1 to 13: The management wishes to set up the smallest possible number of fixed monitoring stations, so as to continuously monitor all the lights. A monitoring station set up at a given location, can of course monitor the light at that location, Further, from location 1, it is possible to see the lights at locations 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. From location 2, it is possible to see the lights at locations 1, 3, 5, 6, 7, and 8. From location 3, it is possible to see the lights at locations 1, 4, 5, 6, and 7. From location 4, it is possible to see the lights at locations 1, 7, and 9. From location 5, it is possible to see the lights at locations 4, and 10. From location 6, it is possible to see the lights at locations 3, and 11. From location 7, it is possible to see the lights at locations 2, 12 and 13. From location 8, it is possible to see the lights at locations 2 and 13. The minimum number of monitoring stations which must be set up is. 1] 3 2] 4 3] 5 4] None of these

85.

Consider two cubes of side n. The first has a short-put ball in it, such that the all ball exactly fits into the box. i.e. radius is n/2. In the second box are arranged marbles of equal size, in neat rows and columns in such a way that number of rows = number of columns = number of layers of marbles. The first and last marble of any row or column or layer touch the sides of the box, and all marbles pack tightly into the box. What is the ratio of the volume of empty space in box 1 to that in box 2 ? n(4 − π) 4n − π 1] 1:1 2] 2 :1 3] 4] n(4 − π) 4n − π

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Section 3 Part A 1 mark questions (10 questions) Directions for questions 86-90: Refer the data given below to answer the following questions. Indian National Congress - All India Performance (1991-2004) Total Seats: 126 seats -North Zone Number of seats won State/UT Total Seats 1991 1996 1998 1999 Haryana 10 09 02 03 00 Himachal Pradesh 04 02 04 01 00 J&K 06 00 04 01 00 Punjab 13 12 12 00 08 UP 85 05 05 00 10 Chandigarh 01 01 00 00 01 National Capital Territory of Delhi 07 02 02 01 00

State/UT Andhra Pradesh Karnataka Kerala Tamil Nadu Andaman & Nicobar Islands Lakshadweep Pondicherry

State/UT Dadra & Nagar Haveli Daman & Diu Goa Gujarat Madhya Pradesh Maharashtra Rajasthan

State/UT Arunachal Pradesh Assam Bihar Manipur Meghalaya Mizoram Nagaland Orissa Sikkim Tripura West Bengal

Total Seats: 132 seats-South Zone Number of seats won Total Seats 1991 1996 1998 1999 42 25 22 22 05 28 23 05 09 18 20 13 07 08 08 39 28 00 00 02 01 01 01 01 00 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 00 01 Total Seats: 143 seats- West Zone Number of seats won Total Seats 1991 1996 1998 1999 01 01 01 00 00 01 01 01 00 01 02 02 00 02 00 26 05 10 07 06 40 27 08 10 11 48 38 15 33 10 25 13 12 18 09 Total Seats: 142 seats-East Zone Number of seats won Total Seats 1991 1996 1998 1999 02 02 00 00 02 14 08 05 10 10 54 01 02 05 04 02 01 02 00 00 02 02 01 02 01 01 01 01 00 00 01 00 01 01 01 21 13 16 05 02 01 00 00 00 00 02 02 00 00 00 42 05 09 01 03

2004 09 03 02 02 09 01 06

2004 29 08 00 10 01 00 00

2004 00 01 01 12 04 13 04

2004 00 09 03 01 01 00 00 02 00 00 06

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Seats Contested Seats Won Percentage of Votes secured

All India - Total Seats: 543 1991 1996 529 483 245 150 36.4% 29.7%

1998 474 141 25.82%

1999 453 114 28.30

2004 417 137 27%

86.

What percentage of the total seats won by the Congress were from Punjab in the year 1999? 1] 8.20% 2] 6.35% 3] 1.47% 4] None of these

87.

What percentage of the seats won in the year 1991 were won in the North Zone of India? 1] 12.65% 2] 10.35% 3] 11.47% 4] None of these

88.

Seats won in Maharashtra as a percentage of the total seats won across India was maximum in the year_______ 1] 1991 2] 1996 3] 1999 4] 1998

89.

How many of the following statement(s) is/are true? (i) In 1998, among the seats won in South Zone, Karnataka approximately won 22% of the seats. (ii) Among the seats won in South Zone, the year in which Andhra Pradesh won maximum percentage of the seats is 2004. (iii) Among the seats won in South Zone, the year in which Kerala won maximum percentage of the seats is 1998. (iv) Among the seats won in 1991, South Zone contributed to the largest number of seats won. 1] 1 2] 2 3] 3 4] 4

90.

50% of India’s population is eligible to vote, of which only 50% votes in each election. In the year 2004, if 2862 × 105 people voted for Indian National Congress, then what is the approximate total population of India in 2004? 1] 106 × 107 2] 1144 × 106 3] Indeterminate 4] None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 91 to 95: Each problem contains a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to select the correct answer from [1] to [4] depending on the sufficiency of the data given in the statements to answer the question. Mark 1, if statement I alone without the help of statement II is sufficient to answer the question. Mark 2, if statement II alone without the help of statement I is sufficient to answer the question. Mark 3, if statements I and II together are needed but not either statement alone sufficient to answer the question. Mark 4, if the question cannot be answered and additional information is needed besides statements I and II. 91.

A committee consists of ‘n’ women and ‘k’ men. In addition, there are 4 alternatives, 2 of whom are women. If one of the committee members is selected at random to be replaced by one of the alternates, also selected at random, what is the probability that the number of women on the committee will increase ? I. n + k = 12 k 1 II. = n 3

92.

If the length of each side of rectangle R is squared, what is the sum of the 4-squared lengths? I. The diagonal of rectangle R has length 15. II. The product of the lengths of two adjacent sides of rectangle R is 108.

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93.

3 different locations are represented on a square map by the points x, y, and z, such that z is the exact centre of the map. What is the actual distance between the locations represented on the map by x and y ? I. On the map, 1 cm equals 200 km. II. x, y and z are on a straight line, and x is 4 cm from z, while y is 3 cm from z.

94.

The number of boys in grade 7 is equal to the number of girls in grade 8. If 2 students are selected at random, one from the 7th grade and one from the 8th grade, which of the two is more likely to be a girl ? I. If each girl from grade 7 was paired with a boy of grade 8, then 25 boys of grade 8 would have no partners. II. If each girl of grade 8 was paired with each boy of grade 8, then 15 boys of grade 8 would have no partners.

95.

Is k greater than 3 ? I. (k – 3)(– 2)(k – 1) > 0 II. k > 1

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Section 3 Part B 2 mark questions (20 questions) Directions for questions 96 to 98 : The following table gives the scores of 10 students of a class who have opted for various credits (subjects). The credits are labeled A through F and are rated on a scale of 1 to 5, where students can score integral values only. Not all credits are necessarily taken by a student, and not all students necessarily take a credit. The range of scores indicates the minimum and maximum scores in that credit by students who may have chosen that credit. The average is the average of the scores in a credit of students who may have chosen a particular credit. The number of credit takers out of the 10 students is given in the last column. Credit

96.

A B C D

Range of scores of all credit takers (minimum & maximum scored) 1–4 2–4 1–5 1–2

E F

2–5 3–5

Average scores of credit takers 3.5 3 4 1 1 3 4 2 3 3

How many students have scored over 4 in atleast 2 credits? 1] 4 2] 7 3] 2

Number of credit takers 6 3 7 3 4 6

4] Indeterminate

97.

The number of student who have scored less than 2 in atleast one credit is atleast 1] 3 2] 4 3] Indeterminate 4] None of these

98.

The maximum number of students who have scored more than 3 in atleast one credit is 1] 5 2] 6 3] 7 4] None of these

Directions for questions 99- 101 Refer the data given below Rishab runs an aquarium of exotic fish. He everyday buys for free a total of 100 newborn fish (less than a day old) and feeds them, gives them TLC (Tender Love and Care) and watches them as they grow. He realizes that 20% of the fish that he buys on day 0 (i.e. on a particular day) do not survive more than a week. Also, 15% of the remaining fish die within 28 days, i.e. the next three weeks. He sells the surviving fish at the beginning of the 5th week (i.e. on day 29) at a price of Rs. 35 per fish. He does this for the next 100 weeks, buying a 100 new born fish everyday. 99.

What is the total number of fish sold by Rishab at the end of 10 weeks ? 1] 4760 2] 2730 3] 4550

4] 2856

100.

Using an advanced form of diet, Rishab manages to reduce the total number of fish dying within 0 to 4 weeks by 25%. Rishab uses this diet on fish that he purchases from the 51st week onwards. If each packet of this diet food costs Rs. 770 and a packet lasts for seven days, what is the net income (in Rs. ’000) from the project ? Net Income = Total Income – Total Expenses 1] 1592.5 2] 1725.5 3] 2106.5 4] None of these

101.

Rishab decides not to use this special diet, but instead of waiting for 4 weeks, he now sells all fish surviving more than 1 week immediately after the 1st week. However the sale price now is only Rs. 30. If this option had been applied right from the start of the project then what would have been the total income (in Rs. ’000) from the project? 1] 1592 2] 1666 3] 1680 4] 1785

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Directions for questions 102- 105: Refer the data given below The CEO of HKK Ltd was perplexed as he had to make a presentation to the company’s board in an hour, but his secretary had messed up the data he needed to present. The first table that the CEO has contains information on the 4 products of HKK called Alpha, Beta, Gamma and Theta and the market share in revenue terms of these products across 4 regions – North (N), South (S), East (E) and West (W). The second table contains data on total sales of the 4 products (in Rs. million) across these regions. The secretary has ended up adding the information of two regions in all the columns. E.g. If the market share of HKK in region N and S was 10% and 20% respectively, the secretary has added it up to 30%

Product Alpha Beta Gamma Theta

Market share by revenue (in % terms) N+S E+W S+W S+E 70 50 65 65 30 75 55 60 80 105 85 100 55 75 80 45

Product Alpha Beta Gamma Theta

Sales Volume (Rs. Million) N+E S+E E+W N+S 21 16 31 25 40 35 40 35 50 25 35 35 60 40 38 60

102.

In terms of total market size (in million Rs.), across which region was total market size the least for product Gamma? 1] S 2] W 3] E 4] Indeterminate

103.

If actual market share of HKK for product X in region Y = Sales of HKK of Pr oduct X (Re gion Y) × 100, then Actual Market Share of HKK for Alpha across Total Market size for Pr oduct X (Re gion Y) the markets of North and South equaled 1] 35.71% 2] 25% 3] 33.33% 4] None of these

104.

By what percentage do sales of Gamma have to increase so as to equal the total sales of Beta across the 4 regions? 1] 7.14 % 2] 6.66% 3] 3.44% 4] None of these

105.

In the western region, the selling price per unit of which product was the least ? 1] Gamma 2] Beta 3] Alpha 4] Indeterminate

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Directions for questions 106 to 108: Refer the following data to answer the questions given below. The following grid show the marks scored with ranks of a student in 4 tests I, II, III and IV. Initially the marks were entered in a grid such as the one shown below with marks and rank of subject I on the top left, II on the top right, etc. I

II 40

80

3

1 2

6

30

60 III

IV

The data is to be read as follows. In test I, the person scored 40 and secured the 1st rank, in test II the person scored 30 and secured 3rd rank, etc. Using a concept similar to the one above, marks of 4 students A, B, C and D were entered in 4 grids as shown below. However, in the following grids, the subjects for B, C and D have been erased and these 3 grids have been turned clockwise by 900, 1800 and 2700, not necessarily in that order. There are 10 students in the class, and in no subjects do any two students score the same marks. The more marks a person scores, the higher his rank in the subject. A scored the first rank in 2 subjects, while C and D scored the first rank in 1 subject each.

A

I 60

30

1

1

5

9

B

II 80

40

60

50

3

8

60

III

IV

C 70

40

106.

40

5

5

D

1

3 7

8

60

30

Which of the three grids was flipped by 2700 ? 1] B 2] C 3] D

20

50

1

9 2

3

80

50

4] Indeterminate

107.

What was the total marks received by the four students together in subjects II ? 1] 220 2] 160 3] 200 4] None of these

108.

If we take the average of the ranks of the four students in each subject, then in how many subjects was the average of the ranks an integer ? 1] 0 2] 1 3] 2 4] 3

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Directions for the questions 109 to 112; Refer the following data to answer the questions given below. There are 11 players on each side in ODI cricket, and one team bats while the others bowl. Then the teams swap after 50 overs. Kraig Chapal, the coach of the Indian ODI cricket team is a master strategist when it comes to shuffling the batting order. In a match in which India scored 340 runs, 9 batsmen were out and the last unbeaten pair of batsmen together scored 40 runs before they ran out of overs. In the batting order the 4th and the 5th men each scored exactly a 100 runs, while the first two batsmen scored 50 between themselves. The ratio of the runs scored by the first three batsmen, Ganguly, Sehwag and Pathan (though not necessarily 1, 2 and 3 in the batting order) was 6 : 4 : 3. Two consecutive batsmen scored 0, and the first 9 batsmen in the batting order scored either 0 or scores that were multiples of 5. Dhoni was the 8th batsmen in the batting order, and the next person after Dhoni scored a 5. The runs scored by Tendulkar if added to the extras (bonus runs not scored by any batsmen but given by the bowling team to the batting team) equaled Ganguly’s scores. Sehwag scored one-fifth of Yuvaraj and equal to Tendulkar. Srinath scored 5 times what Tendulkar scored. Munaf and Mohanty scored 18 and 22 respectively, while together they scored 25 more than Dhoni and Pathan together. Kumble was India’s most successful bowler of the match, and Harbhajan took 2 wickets less than Kumble. 109.

What was the number of extras in the Indian score? 1] 0 2] 10

3] 20

4] Indeterminate

110.

Tendulkar’s number in the batting order was immediately after 1] Yuvaraj 2] Srinath 3] Yuvaraj or Srinath 4] Indeterminate

111.

What is the total of the least 5 scores in the Indian cricket team (excluding extras)? 1] 20 2] 30 3] 35 4] 38

112.

Who has scored 5 runs ? 1] Kumble 3] Tendulkar

2] Harbhajan 4] Kumble or Harbhajan

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Directions for questions 113 to 115: Refer the data given below to answer the following questions. 6 students at CAV sat down to discuss a MoCAT. They sat in a circle, with a girl between any 2 boys. After some time, a girl - Taby, walked out, and the two girls who remain are Sandhya and Shikha. Amit, a faculty at CAV notices that • • • • • • • • • • 113.

114.

115.

Three of the students wore blue t-shirts and the other 2 wore red t-shirt. 3 students wore sandals, while the other 2 wore sneakers. Sandhya was in a blue denim trouser (jeans). One student who wore sandals wore a khaki trouser; the others wore blue denim trousers (jeans). Aseem either wore a blue t-shirt or wore a khaki trouser. It is known that if Sandhya wears a red t-shirt, then Shikha wears a blue t-shirt. The person wearing a khaki trouser wore a red t-shirt When Shikha walked out to meet Amit, the number of students wearing blue and red t-shirts was equal. Amit notices that Shikha wore sandals Naveen sat between the two girls, and Aseem sat to the left of Shikha. Sandhya sat to the left of Sharma. The two people wearing red t-shirts were separated by a boy who wore sneakers.

Who wore the khaki trousers? 1] Aseem 2] Shikha

3] Naveen

Who wore sneakers? 1] Sandhya and Naveen 3] Sharma and Sandhya

2] Sharma and Naveen 4] Indeterminate

Other than Shikha, who wore sandals? 1] Aseem and Sandhya 3] Sandhya and Naveen

2] Aseem and Naveen 4] Indeterminate

4] Sharma

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SAMPLE OMR SHEET

NAME

DATE

DIRECTIONS :

1 2 3

1 2 3 4

Mark your answer by darkening the appropriate circle with an HB Pencil. Erase clearly any answer you want to change. Make no stray mark anywhere on the score sheet.

1 2 3 4

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

26

31

8 9 10

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

11 12 13 14 15

1 2 3 4

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

51

56

33 34 35

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

36 37 38 39 40

16 17 18 19 20

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

21 22 23 24 25

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

1 2 3 4 5 6 7

1 2 3 4

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

76

81

58 59 60

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

61 62 63 64 65

41 42 43 44 45

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

46 47 48 49 50

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

27 28 29 30

32

1 2 3 4

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

101

106

83 84 85

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

108 109 110

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

86 87 88 89 90

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

111 112 113 114 115

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

66 67 68 69 70

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

91 92 93 94 95

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

116 117 118 119 120

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

71 72 73 74 75

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

96 97 98 99 100

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

121 122 123 124 125

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

52 53 54 55

57

77 78 79 80

82

102 103 104 105

107

OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO