(1001CMD305418044)
*1001CMD305418044* 52 This Booklet contains 52
Test Pattern pages.
NEET(UG) MAJOR
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: 1.
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1.
2.
The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is
1.
-
(1) Epicotyl
(1)
(2) Hypocotyl
(2)
(3) Radicle
(3)
(4) Scutellum
(4)
Which of the following combination(s) is/are correctly matched ? (A) Trichomes
2.
Unicellular; helps in
? (A)
gaseous exchange (B) Root hairs
Multicellular; Protect
(B)
from infections (C) Trichomes
(C)
transpiration
3.
Multicellular; prevent water loss due to
(D) Root hairs
(D)
Unicellular; absorb
water and mineral
from soil
A
(1) Only A
(1)
(2) A and B
(2) A
(3) Only B
(3)
(4) C and D
(4) C
Autoecology does not deals with the study at which of the following level :-
3.
B
B D
:(1)
(2) species level
(2)
(3) Community level
(3)
(4) Organism level
(4)
(1) Population level
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4.
In which of the following case the F1 generation resembles either one of the parents?
4.
(1)
(2)
(3) Dominance
(3)
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) (2)
(1) co-dominance (2) Incomplete dominance
5.
6.
F1 ?
How many peptide bonds present in a 900 amino acid containing polypeptide chain?
5.
900
(1) 175
(1) 175
(2) 450
(2) 450
(3) 879
(3) 879
(4) 899
(4) 899
Identify group of phylums which is exclusively marine
6.
(1)
(2)
(3) Ctenophora, chordata, echinodermata
(3)
(4) Hemichordata, echinodermata, ctenophora
(4)
, ,
(1) Mollusca, hemichordata, porifera (2) Arthropoda, coelentrata, ctenophora
7.
Common bile duct is formed by
7.
(1) Cystic duct along with common hepatic duct (2) Hepatic duct along with pancreatic duct (3) Two hepatic ducts (4) Duct of santorini along with cystic duct 8.
(3)
During contraction of skeletal muscle which is most likely to occur ? (1) Disappearance of sarcomere
8.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1)
(2) Increased length of 'A' band (3) ATP is hydrolysed into ADP and inorganic phosphate (4) Actin filaments slide over Z-line
(2) 'A'
(3) ATP ADP (4)
Z-
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9.
10.
11.
Which of the glycogenolysis?
following
stimulates
9.
(1) Catecholamines and cortisol
(1)
(2) Cortisol and insulin
(2)
(3) ADH and cortisol
(3) ADH
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) (1)
(2)
equilibrium ?
?
(1) Genetic drift
(1)
(2) Mutation
(2)
(3) Natural selection
(3)
(4) All
(4)
Which of the following affects Hardy-Weinburg
Chemiosmotic hypothesis excludes
10.
11.
(1) Splitting of water molecules on inner side of thylakoid membrane. (2) Protons & hydrogen that are produced by splitting of water accumulate within Lumen of thylakoids. (3) As electrons moves through photosystem, electrons are transports across the thylacoid membrane.
In which of the following condition biomass degraded at fastest rate (1) N2 rich content, warm & moist condition (2) cold and dry condition (3) biomass which is rich of plastic waste
(Chemiosmotic) (1)
(2)
(3)
(4) NADP
(4) NADP reductase enzyme is located on stroma side of membrane. 12.
?
12.
(1) N2
(2)
(3)
(4)
(4) solid waste rich in heavy metals.
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13.
In which of the given plants placenta develops at the base of ovary and a single ovule is attached to it ?
13.
(1) Tomato, Lemon (2) Mustard, Argemone (3) Dianthus, Primrose (4) Sunflower, Marigold 14.
Which of the following inheritance is not possible in the given pedigree ?
14.
? , (1) (2) , (3) , (4) , ?
(1)
(2)
(1) Autosomal recessive (2) Autosomal dominant
15.
(3) X-linked dominant
(3) X-
(4) X-linked recessive
(4) X-
Select the odd one from the following with respect to ecological relationship :-
15.
:(1)
(2)
(3) Copepods on marine fish
(3)
(4) Egret forage close to cattle
(4)
( )
(1) Barnacles on back of a whale (2) Sea anemon and clown fish
16.
External fertilization is found in -
16.
(1) Entire pisces and tetrapoda
(1)
(2) Phylum porifera
(2)
(3) Phylum echinodermata and phylum hemichordata
(3)
(4) Phylum porifera
(4)
arthropoda
ctenophora
and phylum
and phylum
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17.
Identify enzyme which mediates this reaction ?
17.
?
?
CO2 H2O H2CO3 HCO3 H
(3) Trypsinogen (4) Elastase This is age related disorder and decline in level of a sex hormone is a common cause for this disorder. Identify it
18.
(1)
(2)
(3) Arthritis
(3)
(4) Osteoporosis
(4)
(1) Muscular dystrophy (2) Tetany
Which of the following hormone interact with intracellular receptors
19.
(1) Steroid hormones and iodothyronines (2) Peptides and protein hormones (3) Peptides and steroid hormones (4) Peptide hormone and iodothyronines 20.
21.
(2) (3) (4) (1)
(2) Dehydrogenase
19.
Cranial capacity of Homo habilis was
20.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) 1400 cc
(1) 1400 cc
(2) 650-800 cc
(2) 650-800 cc
(3) 450 cc
(3) 450 cc
(4) 900 cc
(4) 900 cc
Which synchronise fruit set in pineapple ? (1) Auxins (2) Cytokinin (3) Gibberellin (4) Ethylene
?
CO2 H2O H2CO3 HCO3 H
(1) Carbonic anhydrase
18.
21.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
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22.
Statins commercially used as blood cholesterol lowering agents are produced by
22.
(1) Monascus purpureus
(1)
(2) Trichoderma
(2) (3) Agrobacterium
(3)
(4) Acetobacter 23.
(4)
AATTCGATACGATA sequence in a chromosome of human repeat 15 times, due to mutation one of the repeat mutate into AATTCGATACGTTA. This change is called-
23.
25.
26.
AATTCGATACGATA 15 repeat repeat AATTCGATACGTTA
(1) SNP
24.
(1) SNP
(2) STP
(2) STP
(3) VNTR
(3) VNTR
(4) ISR
(4) ISR
Stored food of red algae is similar to :-
24.
(1) Chitin
(1)
(2) Mannitol
(2)
(3) Amylopectin and glycogen
(3)
(4) Glycogen and chitin
(4)
Isogamous sexual reproduction is found in:
25.
(1) Chlamydomonas
(1)
(2) Chara
(2)
(3) Volvox
(3)
(4) Fucus
(4)
Examples of dense-regular connective tissue are:
26.
(1)
(2)
(1) Ligament (2) Tendon (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Blood
(3) (1) (4)
(2)
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27.
28.
Rh-incompatibility is found in between
27.
Rh-
(1) Rh -ve blood of pregnant mother and Rh -ve blood of foetus.
(1)
Rh -ve Rh -ve
(2) Rh +ve blood of pregnant mother and Rh +ve blood of foetus.
(2)
Rh +ve Rh +ve
(3) Rh -ve blood of pregnant mother and Rh +ve blood of foetus.
(3)
Rh -ve Rh +ve
(4) Rh +ve blood of pregnant mother and Rh -ve blood of foetus.
(4)
Rh +ve Rh -ve
Which of the following is a cartilaginous joint?
28.
(1)
(2)
(3) Joint between pubis bones
(3)
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) (2)
(1) Joint between skull bones (2) Joint between adjacent vertebrae
29.
Which of the following functions is performed by progesterone ?
29.
(1)
(2)
(3) Female sexual behaviour
(3)
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) (1)
(1) Formation of alveoli in mammary glands (2) Milk secretion
30.
(3)
Which antibody exists in pentamer form ?
30.
(2)
?
(1) IgG
(1) IgG
(2) IgM
(2) IgM
(3) IgA
(3) IgA
(4) IgD
(4) IgD
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31.
Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
31.
(1)
(2)
(3) Vallisnaria is pollinated by water
(3)
(4) Maize is a monoecious plant
(4)
(1) Pappaya is a monoecious plant (2) Grass is pollinated by air
32.
33.
Which is a potent force for organic evolution?
32.
(1) Intra specific competition
(1)
(2) Inter specific competition
(2)
(3) Predation
(3)
(4) Parasitism
(4)
Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to its predator because :-
33.
(1) Special chemical is synthesisd in its wings
35.
:(1)
(2)
(3) It contain strychnine
(3)
(4) It contain Quinine
(4)
(2) Special chemical stored in its body
34.
Ringworm disease in human is caused by
34.
(1) Virus
(1)
(2) Bacteria
(2)
(3) Fungi
(3)
(4) Nematode
(4)
Which of the following polynucleotide recognize monomer of polypeptide and on other hand recognise codon-
35.
(1) t-RNA
(1) t-RNA
(2) r-RNA
(2) r-RNA
(3) m-RNA
(3) m-RNA
(4) SnRNA
(4) SnRNA
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36.
Given diagram represents head region of cockroach and parts of head region. Identify structure which forms upper lip.
Ocellus
36.
Ocellus
Compound eye
Compound eye
a
a c
c
b
b
d
d
37.
(1) a
(1) a
(2) b
(2) b
(3) c
(3) c
(4) d
(4) d
Select correct answer regarding blood vascular systemOpen circulatory system
Closed circulatory system
(1)
Frog, cockroach
Earthworm, human
(2)
Cockroach, housefly Frog, earthworm
(3)
Mollusca, annelida
(4)
Chordata, arthropoda Mollusca, annelida
Arthropoda, chordata
37.
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38.
Match the column w.r.t. different types of neurons Type of neuron
38.
Occurrence
A.
Unipolar
i.
Retina of eye
B.
Bipolar
ii. Embryonic stage
C.
Multipolar
iii. Cerebral cortex
(1) ABC / i, ii, iii
39.
(1) ABC / i, ii, iii
(2) ABC / ii, i, iii
(2) ABC / ii, i, iii
(3) ABC / iii, i, ii
(3) ABC / iii, i, ii
(4) ABC / i, iii, ii
(4) ABC / i, iii, ii
Match the column Column-A
A.
A. i. B. ii. C. iii.
Perimetrium
39.
-A
-B
(A)
i.
(B)
ii.
(C)
iii.
Column-B i. Thin membranous layer
B.
Myometrium
ii. Glandular layer
C.
Endometrium
iii. Thick layer of
smooth muscle (1) ABC / i, ii, iii
(1) ABC / i, ii, iii
40.
41.
(2) ABC / i, iii, ii
(2) ABC / i, iii, ii
(3) ABC / ii, i, iii
(3) ABC / ii, i, iii
(4) ABC / iii, i, ii
(4) ABC / iii, i, ii
Examples of passive immunity are
40.
(1) Vaccination
(1)
(2) Infections through pathogens
(2)
(3) Antibodies against snake venom
(3)
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) (1)
Thalamus is edible part in fruit of (1) Apple (2) Mango (3) Coconut (4) Banana
41.
(3)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
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42.
43.
44.
Enzyme required to obtain protoplast from a typical plant cell-
42.
Enzyme protoplast
(1) Proteolytic enzyme
(1)
(2) Cellulase
(2)
(3) Lysozyme
(3)
(4) Lipase
(4)
World population day is-
43.
(1) 11 July
(1) 11 July
(2) 1 May
(2) 1 May
(3) 5 June
(3) 5 June
(4) 29 Dec
(4) 29 Dec
In which of the following aspect mutation breeding is better than conventional breeding-
44.
-
(1) Constraint by availability of desired genes. (2) May produce new desired combination of trait.
(1)
(2)
(3) Radiation (3) Use radiation. (4)
(4) Less expansive. 45.
Select the correct statement with respect to growth
45.
(1)
(2) Growth in animals is indefinite
(2)
(3) Growth in living beings is mainly intrinsic
(3)
(4) Growth is a defining property of living beings.
(4)
(1) Growth in plants is always definite
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46.
47.
juice?
?
(1) Trypsinogen, prorennin, ptyalin
(1)
(2) Chymotrypsinogen, lipase, nuclease
(2)
(3) Maltase, sucrase, trypsinogen
(3)
(4) Pancreatic amylase, lactase, dipeptidase
(4)
Identify set of enzymes found in pancreatic
This is diagrammatic presentation of ECG. Which of the following waves represents repolarisation of ventricle ?
46.
47.
ECG R
R
P P
Q
S
T
(2) Q-wave
(2) Q-
(3) S-wave
(3) S-
(4) T-wave
(4) T-
During repolarisation of a neuron, permeability of axonal membrane is higher for (1) K
48.
(2) Na+
(3) Ca++
(3) Ca++
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) (1)
Which of the following cells are diploid (1) Secondary spermatocytes and primary oocytes
49.
(4) Sperms and ovum
(2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(2) Primary spermatocytes and oogonia (3) Spermatid and spermatozoa
T
(1) K +
+
(2) Na+
49.
S
(1) P-
(1) P-wave
48.
Q
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50.
51.
Genome of HIV is :-
50.
(1) Single stranded RNA
(1)
(2) Double stranded RNA
(2)
(3) Single stranded DNA
(3)
(4) Double stranded DNA
(4)
used respectively:
C4 ATP
(1) 36 and 60
(1) 36
60
(2) 10 and 20
(2) 10
20
(3) 18 and 30
(3) 18
30
(4) 15 and 20
(4) 15
20
In the synthesis of one mole of sucrose by C3
51.
and C4 plants, the number of moles of ATP
52.
Which one of the following layer does not surround the microsporangium ?
52.
(1) Epidermis (2) Endodermis (3) Middle layer (4) Tapetum 53.
Which of the following Medalian principle explain 3:1 ratio-
53.
(1) Non disjunction (2) law of dominance (3) law of independent assortment (4) law of unit pair 54.
:-
In maize, inflorescence is
54.
C3
? (1) (2) (3) (4) 3:1 (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) Spadix
(1)
(2) Umbel
(2)
(3)
(4)
(3) Catkin (4) Corymb
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55.
The stroma of chloroplast contains :-
55.
(a) enzymes for krebs cycle.
(a)
(b) ribosomes similar in size and density to that of mitochondria.
(b)
(c) enzymes for photosynthesis.
(c)
(d)
A=
dark
reaction
of
(d) DNA is rich in A = T.
56.
(1) b and c
(1) b
c
(2) a and d
(2) a
d
(3) a and b
(3) a
b
(4) b, c and d
(4) b, c
A : Stomach stores food for 4-5 hours.
56.
A:
d
4-5
B : Carbohydrates in the chyme are
B :
hydrolysed by pancreatic amylase into
(1)
A
(2)
B
(3) Both A and B correct
(3)
A B
(4) Both wrong
(4)
(1) Only A correct (2) Only B correct
58.
T
Choose the correct :-
disaccharides.
57.
Effect of parasympathetic nervous sytem on heart is : (1) Increased cardiac output (2) Increased speed of conduction of action potential (3) Decreased heart rate (4) Increased speed of ventricular contraction
57.
Limbic system includes :-
58.
(1) Amygdala and hippocampus (2) Mid brain and hind brain (3) Pons and medulla (4) Olfactory lobe and medulla
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
:(1) (2) (3) (4)
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59.
The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called
59.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
60.
X-
(1) Menarche (2) Pubarche (3) Thelarche (4) Menorrhagia 60.
61.
X-rays are associated with (1) Treatment of tumours
(1)
(2) Generation of tumours
(2)
(3) Detection of tumours
(3)
(4) All of these
(4)
Sexaul reproduction in fungi occur by means of:(1) Sporangiospore, Ascospore
Oospore
61.
and
(1)
(2) Zoospore, Oospore and Ascospores
(2)
(3) Sporangiospore, basidiospore
(3)
(4)
Ascospore
and
(4) Oospore, Ascospore and basidiospore 62.
Which of the following is the most common cause of trisomy and mental retardation in children ?
62.
? (1)
(2)
(3) Down's syndrome
(3)
(4) Sickle cell Anaemia
(4)
(1) Klinefelter's syndrome (2) Turner's syndrome
63.
?
The process in which egg cell of female gametophyte is responsible to form embryo without fertilization is known as :(1) Parthenogenesis (2) Parthenocarpy (3) Adventive embryony (4) Apospory
63.
:(1) (2) (3) (4)
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64.
65.
Peat is obtained from
64.
(1)
(2) Chara
(2)
(3) Sphagnum
(3)
(4) Chlorella
(1) (2) (3) (4) (4)
During the formation of leaves and elongation of stem, some cells left behind from shoot apical meristem, they consitute–
65.
(2) Fascicular cambium (3) Axillary bud (4) Secondary meristem
67.
66.
Normal inspiration is initiated by
(1) Contraction of diaphragm
(1)
(2) Relaxation of EICM
(2) EICM
(3) Contraction of IICM
(3) IICM
(4) Contraction of both EICM and IICM
EICM IICM
Select correct option regarding to animal group and their waste -
(1) Ammonia
Uric acid
(2) Uric acid
Ammonia
(3) Ammonia
Urea
(4) Urea
Ammonia
Select correct statement :-
(4)
67.
Many bony fish Many marine fish
68.
(1) Riccia
(1) Lateral meristem
66.
68.
(1) Twilight vision is function of cones
(1)
(2) Iodopsin is also called visual purple
(2)
(3) Optic nerve leaves eye at blind spot
(3)
(4)
(4) Vitreous chamber is filled with thin watery fluid
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69.
First and second meiotic divisions in different stages of oogenesis are respectively-
69.
(1)
(2)
(3) Unequal and unequal
(3)
(4) Unequal and equal
(4)
(1) Equal and equal (2) Equal and unequal
70.
Match each disease with its correct type of
70.
vaccine:
: (a)
(i)
(b) whooping cough (ii) inactivated toxin
(b)
(ii)
(c) diphtheria
(iii) killed bacteria
(c)
(iii)
(d) polio
(iv) harmless bacteria
(d)
(iv)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a) tuberculosis
(a)
71.
(i) harmless virus
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) (iii)
(ii)
(iv)
(i)
(1) (iii)
(ii)
(iv)
(i)
(2) (iv)
(iii)
(ii)
(i)
(2) (iv)
(iii)
(ii)
(i)
(3) (i)
(ii)
(iv)
(iii)
(3) (i)
(ii)
(iv)
(iii)
(4) (ii)
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
(4) (ii)
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
Which of the following is not a function of ecosystem ?
71.
(1)
(2)
(3) Energy flow
(3)
(4) Decomposition
(4)
(1) Productivity (2) Stratification
72.
Which enzyme catalyse polymerisation of lagging strand in prokaryote-
72.
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) DNA ligase
(2) DNA ligase
(3) -DNA polymerase
(3) -DNA polymerase
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
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73.
74.
Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath is present in vascular bundle of
73.
(1) Gram stems
(1)
(2) Pea stems
(2)
(3) Sunflower stems
(3)
(4) Grass stems
(4)
74.
Read the following statements– (i)
Golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged near the nucleus with distinct concave cis or convex maturing face.
(ii) The cis and the trans faces of the golgi body are entirely different and not inter connected. (iii) Lipases, proteases, carbohydrases are hydrolytic enzymes. (iv) Extrinsic proteins are present only at outer surface of plasma membrane (1) Only (iii) incorrect (2) Only (iii) correct
75.
:-
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(1)
(iii)
(2)
(iii)
(3) Both (i) and (iii) correct
(3) (i)
(4) Only (iv) correct
(4)
Amount of DNA become double in a cell in-
75.
(iii)
(iv)
DNA
(1) G1-Phase
(1) G1-
(2) S-Phase
(2) S-
(3) G2-Phase
(3) G2-
(4) Prophase
(4)
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76.
77.
78.
Which of the following factors shift oxygen dissociation curve to right ? (1) High pO 2 , low pCO 2 , lesser H + concentration (2) Low pO 2 , high pCO 2 , high H + concentration (3) High temperature, low pCO2, lesser H+ concentration (4) Low pO2, less temperature, high H+ concentration
76.
Urea can be found in
77.
(1)
pO2, pCO2, H+
(2)
pO2, pCO2, H+
(3)
, pCO2, H+
(4)
pO2, , H+
(1) Blood and urine
(1)
(2) Urine and sweat
(2)
(3) Sweat and saliva
(3)
(4) All
(4)
Perilymph is found in
78.
(1) Scala media and scala vestibuli (2) Scala vestibuli and scala tympani (3) Scala media and scala tympani (4) All of the above 79.
79.
Match the column Column-A A.
Multiload 375
(1) (2) (3) (4) -B
Column-B i. Copper releasing
A.
i.
IUD B.
LNG-20
C.
Lippes loop
ii. Hormone releasing B.
IUD
ii.
iii. Non-medicated IUD
-B
C.
(1) ABC / ii, i, iii
(1) ABC / ii, i, iii
(2) ABC / iii, ii, i
(2) ABC / iii, ii, i
(3) ABC / i, iii, ii
(3) ABC / i, iii, ii
(4) ABC / i, ii, iii
(4) ABC / i, ii, iii
iii.
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80.
81.
a normal cardiac cycle is
(1) 120 m.L.
(1) 120 m.L.
(2) 50 m.L.
(2) 50 m.L.
(3) 70 m.L.
(3) 70 m.L.
(4) 60 m.L.
(4) 60 m.L.
The average value of end diastolic volume in
In independent assortment what actually assort independently :-
80.
81.
(1) Characters (2) Contrasting traits (3) Allelic genes (4) Non homologous chromosomes 82.
w=–5
82.
w=–5
B A Selectively permeable membrane
w=–5
w=–5
A
B
If some solutes molecules are added in system B then net movement of solvent is (1) A to B by active transport (2) B to A by passive transport (3) A to B by passive transport (4) No movement at solvent moleculer 83.
:(1) (2) (3) (4)
How many autosomes are present in Turner's syndrome and klinifelter's syndrome respectively
83.
B (1) A B (2) B A (3) A B (4) autosomes (1) 45
47
(2) 44
45
(3) 44 and 44
(3) 44
44
(4) 47 and 45
(4) 47
45
(1) 45 and 47 (2) 44 and 45
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84.
85.
86.
Which of the following floral formula belongs to family-Fabaceae ?
84.
(1) Ebr + K2 + 2C4×A2 + 4 G(2)
(1) Ebr + K2 + 2C4×A2 + 4 G(2)
(2) Br + Epi3– 7 K(5) C5A() G(2)
(2) Br + Epi3– 7 K(5) C5A( ) G(2)
(3) Br % + K(5)C1 + 2 + (2)A(9)+1 G 1
(3) Br % + K(5)C1 + 2 + (2)A(9)+1 G 1
(4) Br % + K(5)C(5)A1 G(2)
(4) Br % + K(5)C(5)A1 G(2)
A dihybrid AaBb produces 5% ab gamete, find genotype of parent
85.
parent AaBb 5% ab genotype
(1) AABB × aabb
(1) AABB × aabb
(2) AaBb × AaBb
(2) AaBb × AaBb
(3) AAbb × aaBB
(3) AAbb × aaBB
(4) AaBb × aabb
(4) AaBb × aabb
Identify given animals A and B respectively-
B.
86.
A B
A.
B.
(1) Euspongia, adamsia
(1)
(2) Spongilla, pleurobrachia
(2)
(3) Euspongia, pleurobrachia
(3)
(4) Sycon, Aurelia
(4)
A.
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87.
Select correct option w.r.t. two types of nephrons in kidneys
87.
Juxtaglomerular Cortical nephron
(1) Higher number
Lesser number
(2) Vasa recta less
Vasa recta more
developed
developed (3) Loop of Henle longer
Loop of Henle shorter
(4) No role in
88.
nephron
Maintenance of
counter current
counter current
mechanism
mechanism
Otolith organ is composed of
88.
(1) Saccule and semicircular ducts (2) Utricle and organ of corti (3) Saccule and utricle (4) Utricle and semicircular ducts 89.
90.
According to Darwin, variation are
89.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) Small, directionless and random
(1)
(2) Large, single step and directional
(2)
(3) Small, gradual and directional
(3)
(4) Large, gradual and directionless
(4)
Concentration of 'A' ion is higher in ECF of a resting neuron while concentration of 'B' ion is higher in cytoplasm of the same. Permeability of axonal membrane is higher for 'B' in the 'C' state. Identify A, B and C respectively : +
+
+
+
(1) Na , K , resting (2) Na , K , excited +
+
+
+
90.
ECF 'A' 'B' 'B' 'C' A, B C (1) Na+, K+,
(2) Na+, K+,
(3) K+, Na+,
(4) K+, Na+,
(3) K , Na , excited (4) K , Na , resting
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91.
92.
93.
One atom of an element weighs 3.32 × 10–23 g. How many number of gram atoms are there in 20 kg of the element ?
3.32 × 10–23g 20 kg
(1) 2000
(1) 2000
(2) 20
(2) 20
(3) 200
(3) 200
(4) 1000
(4) 1000
A solution containing 12.5 g of non-electrolyte substance in 250 g of water shows boiling point elevation of 0.52 K. Calculate the molar mass of the substance. (Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1)
92.
250 g 0.52 K 12.5 g
(Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1 )
(1) 43.06 g mol–1
(1) 43.06 g mol–1
(2) 25.3 g mol–1
(2) 25.3 g mol–1
(3) 16.08 g mol–1
(3) 16.08 g mol–1
(4) 50 g mol–1
(4) 50 g mol–1
Polysaccharides have .............. linkage ? (1) Glycosidic (2) Peptide (3) Anomeric (4) Polymorphic
94.
91.
CH 3–CH–CH = CH2 + HBr X(product) CH3
93.
.............. ? (1) (2) (3) (4)
94. CH 3–CH–CH = CH2 + HBr X(product)
CH3
What is the major product i.e. X in the reaction?
X
(1) CH 3 CH CH2CH2 Br | CH3
(1) CH3 CH CH2CH2 Br | CH3
(2) CH3
Br | C CH2 CH 3 | CH3
(2) CH3
Br | C CH2 CH 3 | CH3
(3) CH 3 CH CH CH3 | | CH 3 Br
(3) CH 3 CH CH CH3 | | CH 3 Br
(4) CH2 CH CH2 CH3 | | Br CH3
(4) CH2 CH CH2 CH3 | | Br CH3
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95.
96.
97.
98.
Which one is the most likely formula of CrCl3. 2 6H2O if of total chlorine of the compound is 3 ppt. by adding AgNO3 to its aqueous solution:
95.
CrCl3. 6H2O AgNO3 2
3 :
(1) CrCl3.6H 2O
(1) CrCl3.6H 2O
(2) [CrCl2(H 2O) 4]Cl.2H 2O
(2) [CrCl2(H 2O) 4]Cl.2H 2O
(3) [CrCl(H 2O) 5]Cl 2.H 2 O
(3) [CrCl(H 2O) 5]Cl 2.H 2 O
(4) [CrCl3(H 2O) 3].3H 2O
(4) [CrCl3(H 2O) 3].3H 2O
The frequency of radiation absorbed or emitted when transition occurs between two stationary states with energies E1 (lower) and E2 (higher) is given by
96.
E1 ( ) E2 ( )
(1) =
E1 + E2 h
(1) =
E1 + E2 h
(2) =
E1 – E2 h
(2) =
E1 – E2 h
(3) =
E1 × E2 h
(3) =
E1 × E2 h
(4) =
E2 – E1 h
(4) =
E2 – E1 h
Δ r Gº for the cell with the cell reaction :
97.
Δ r Gº :
Zn (s) + Cu +2(aq) Zn 2+(aq) + Cu(s)
Zn (s) + Cu +2(aq) Zn 2+(aq) + Cu(s)
[ E°Cu+2 /Cu = 0.34V , E°Zn2+ /Zn = –0.76V ]
[ E°Cu+2 /Cu = 0.34V , E°Zn2+ /Zn = –0.76V ]
(1) 2.13 × 105 J mol–1
(1) 2.13 × 105 J mol–1
(2) – 2.12 × 105 J mol–1
(2) – 2.12 × 105 J mol–1
(3) 1.06 × 105 J mol–1
(3) 1.06 × 105 J mol–1
(4) –1.06 × 105 J mol–1
(4) –1.06 × 105 J mol–1
The monomer of teflon is :-
98.
:
(1) CF2 = CF2
(1) CF2 = CF2
(2) CFCl = CF2
(2) CFCl = CF2
(3) CCl2 = CCl2
(3) CCl2 = CCl2
(4) CFCl = CFCI
(4) CFCl = CFCI
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99.
Correct reactivity order of following compound towards alkaline hydrolysis is:CH 2 Cl
I.
99.
CH2 Cl II.
CH 2 Cl
I.
CH3O
CH2 Cl II.
CH3O
CH2 Cl III.
CH 2 Cl
CH 2 Cl
IV.
CH 2 Cl
III.
IV.
CH 3
CH 3
CH3
CH 3
(1) I > II > III > IV
(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) I > III > IV > II
(2) I > III > IV > II
(3) I > IV > III > II
(3) I > IV > III > II
(4) III > IV > II > I
(4) III > IV > II > I
100. Among the following pair of complexes, in which case the 0 value is higher for the first one than second ?
(2) [CoF6]
and [Co(NH3)6]
0 (1) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ and [Co(CN)6]33-
100.
(2) [CoF6]3-
3+
(3) [Co(H2O) 6]2+ and [Co(H2O) 6]3+ (4) [Rh(H2O)6]3+ and [Co(H2O)6]3+ 101. At 1 atmosheric pressure and 0ºC, certain mass of a gas measures 0.4 L. Keeping the pressure constant, if the temperature is increased to 273ºC, what will be its volume?
[Co(CN)6]3
[Co(NH3)6]3+
(3) [Co(H2O)6]2+
[Co(H2O)6]3+
(4) [Rh(H2O)6] 3+
[Co(H2O)6]3+
0ºC 0.4 L 273ºC ?
101. 1
(1) 0.8 L
(1) 0.8 L
(2) 22.4 L
(2) 22.4 L
(3) 54.6 L
(3) 54.6 L
(4) 0.4 L
(4) 0.4 L
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that of Y increases by 20 times, what could be the electrolytes X and Y ?
Y 500 mL X Λ m 1.5 Y Λ m 20 X Y ?
(1) X NaCl, Y KCl
(1) X NaCl, Y KCl
(2) X NaCl, Y CH3COOH
(2) X NaCl, Y CH3COOH
(3) X KOH, Y NaOH
(3) X KOH, Y NaOH
(4) X CH3COOH, Y NaCl
(4) X CH3COOH, Y NaCl
102. Two solutions of X and Y electrolytes are taken in two beakers and diluted by adding 500 mL
102. X
of water. Λ m of X increases by 1.5 times while
103. Carbyl-amine reaction is given by
NH 2
(1) (2) (3)
103.
NH 2
(1) (2)
NH
N
(3)
N H
(4)
(4)
104. Number of geometrical isomers of the given compound :
104.
CH2=CH–CH=CH–CH=CH–CH2–CH=CH 2 is :-
NH
N
N H
: CH2=CH–CH=CH–CH=CH–CH2–CH=CH 2 (1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 4
(2) 4 (3) 2
(3) 2
(4) 10
(4) 10 105. Froth floatation process used for the concentration of sulphide ore and : (1) It is based on absorbtion principle (2) It is based on adsorbtion principle (3) It is based on crystallisation method (4) It's based on concept of specific gravity
105.
: (1) (2) (3) (4)
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(Given heats of formation of CH4, CO2 and H2O are –75, –400 and –240 kJ mol–1 respectively)
? ( CH4, CO2 H2O –75, –400 –240 kJ mol–1 )
(1) 805.8 kJ
(1) 805.8 kJ
(2) 398.8 kJ
(2) 398.8 kJ
(3) 322 kJ
(3) 322 kJ
(4) 640.4 kJ
(4) 640.4 kJ
106. What will be the amount of heat evolved by burning 0.4 moles of methane ?
107. In a pseudo first order hydrolysis of ester in water, the following results were obtained. t/s
0
Ester/mol L
0.55
30 0.31
60 0.17
107.
t/s
90 0.085
Ester/mol L
–1
0
30
60
0.55
0.31
0.17
90 0.085
What will be the average rate of reaction between the time interval 30 to 60 seconds?
30 60
(1) 1.91 × 10–4 Ms–1
(1) 1.91 × 10–4 Ms–1
(2) 4.67 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(2) 4.67 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 1.98 × 10–3 s–1
(3) 1.98 × 10–3 s–1
(4) 2.07 × 10–2 s–1
(4) 2.07 × 10–2 s–1
H 108.
–1
106. 0.4
C
O
H
HIO4 (CHOH)4 Compound
108.
CH2OH
C
O
HIO4 (CHOH)4
CH2OH
How many mole of formic acid are formed in the given reaction?
(1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 4
(2) 4
(3) 5
(3) 5
(4) 6
(4) 6
109. Which of the following represent correct order of hydration energy ?
109.
(1) Be+2 < Li+
(1) Be+2 < Li+
(2) F- < Cl- < Br-< I-
(2) F- < Cl- < Br-< I-
(3) Li+ < K+ < Cs+
(3) Li+ < K+ < Cs+
(4) Al+3 > Mg+2 > Na+
(4) Al+3 > Mg+2 > Na+
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110. Hydrogen peroxide has a :
110.
(1) linear structure (2) pyramidal structure (3) closed book type structure (4) half open book type structure 111. At 373 K steam and water are in equilibrium and H = 39.2 kJ mol–1. What will be S for conversion of 1 mole of water into steam ?
111.
: (1) (2) (3) (4) 373 K H = 39.2 kJ mol–1, 1 S
H2O( ) H2O(g)
(1) 105 J K
–1
H2O( ) H2O(g)
–1
mol
(1) 105 J K–1 mol–1
(2) 31 J K–1 mol–1
(2) 31 J K–1 mol–1
(3) 21.98 J K–1 mol–1
(3) 21.98 J K–1 mol–1
(4) 326 J K–1 mol–1
(4) 326 J K–1 mol–1
112. For a reaction, I– + OCl – IO– + Cl – in a aqueous medium, the rate of reaction is
112.
d[I– ] = k[I – ][OCl – ] dt
d[I– ] = k[I – ][OCl – ] . The overall given by dt order of reaction is
(1) –1
(1) –1
(2) 0
(2) 0
(3) 1
(3) 1
(4) 2
(4) 2 113.
I– + OCl – IO– + Cl –
+
H3O Product, product if treated
113.
with Lucas reagent then turbidity appear (1) 5-10 minute later (2) Immediately (3) 50-60 minute after (4) After 5-10 hour 114. Which of the following is neutral oxide ?
114.
H 3O
(1) 5-10 (2) (3) 50-60 (4) 5-10 ?
(1) SnO
(1) SnO
(2) PbO
(2) PbO
(3) PbO2
(3) PbO2
(4) N 2 O
(4) N 2 O
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115. Sodium carbonate can be manufactured by Solvay's process but potassium carbonate cannot be prepared by this method because:
115.
(1) K2CO3 is more soluble (2) K2CO3 is less soluble
(1) K2CO3
(2) K2CO3
(3) KHCO 3, NaHCO3
(3) KHCO3 is more soluble than NaHCO3
(4) KHCO 3, NaHCO3
(4) KHCO3 is less soluble than NaHCO3 116. NH 4 CN is a salt of weak acid HCN (Ka = 6.2 × 10–10) and a weak base NH4OH (Kb = 1.8 × 10 –5). A one molar solution of NH4CN will be:
Na2CO3 K2CO3 :
116. NH4CN, HCN (Ka = 6.2 × 10–10) NH4OH (Kb = 1.8 × 10–5) NH4CN (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1) neutral (2) strongly acidic (3) strongly basic (4) weakly basic 117. Tyndall effect is observed only when (i)
the diameter of the dispersed particles is not much smaller than the wavelength of the light used
(ii) the refractive indices of dispersed phase and dispersion medium differ greatly in magnitude (iii) the size of the particles is generally between 10–11 and 10–9 m in diameter. (iv) the dispersed phase and dispersion medium can be seen separately in the system.
117.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
10–11 10–9 m
(iv)
(1) (i)
(iii)
(2) (i)
(iv)
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (iv) (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (ii)
(3) (ii) (4) (i)
(iii)
(ii)
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KOH 118. HO–CH2CH 2CH 2CH 2–Br Product,
KOH 118. HO–CH2CH2CH2CH2–Br
product is
(1) HO–CH2CH 2CH 2–OH
(1) HO–CH2CH 2CH 2–OH
(2)
(2)
O
O
(3) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 OH
(3) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 OH
(4)
(4)
O
119. Which molecule has maximum dipole moment () ? {where X = –NO2}
119.
O
() ? {X = –NO2}
X
X X
X
(1)
(1)
X
X
(2)
(2) X
X
X
X
(3)
(3)
X
X
(4) All has same '' 120. Both Be and Al become passive on reaction with conc. nitric acid due to : (1) the non-reactive nature of the metal (2) the non-reactive nature of acid (3) the formation of protective oxide layer on the surface of the metals (4) none of the above
'' Be Al HNO3 : (1) (2) (3) (4) (4)
120.
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121. The solubility product of AgCl is 1.8 × 10–10. Precipitation of AgCl will occur by mixing which of the following solutions when mixed in equal volume ?
121. AgCl 1.8 × 10–10 AgCl
(1) 10–8 M Ag+ and 10–8 M Cl– ions (2) 10–3 M Ag+ and 10–3 M Cl– ions (3) 10–6 M Ag+ and 10–6 M Cl– ions (4) 10–10 M Ag+ and 10–10 M Cl– ions 122.
122. In the given reaction 'x' is :
? 10–8 M Cl– (1) 10–8 M Ag+ (2) 10–3 M Ag+ 10–3 M Cl– (3) 10–6 M Ag+ 10–6 M Cl– (4) 10–10 M Ag+ 10–10 M Cl– 'x' :
H2O/OH Excess HCl CH3 – C CH A x
H2O/OH Excess HCl CH3 – C CH A x
Cl | (1) CH 3–C–CH 3 | Cl
Cl | (1) CH 3–C–CH3 | Cl
(2) CH3–CH–CH2–Cl | Cl (3) CH 3–C–CH 3 || O (4) CH 3–CH 2–C–H || O 123. Product in the given reaction will be
(2) CH3–CH–CH2–Cl | Cl (3) CH 3–C–CH3 || O (4) CH 3–CH 2–C–H || O 123.
CH2Cl –
CH2Cl
+
O Na
+
–
–
O Na
+
+C2H5O K
+
(One mole of each)
:-
OC2H5
(1)
(1) CH 2 – OC2H5
(2)
(2)
CH2 – O
(3)
OH
(4)
+C2H5O–K+
(One mole of each)
Major Product Major Product will be :-
+
(3) (4)
OC2H5 CH 2 – OC2H5
CH2 – O OH
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124. Polarisability of halide ions increases in the order:
124.
: (1) F, I, Br, Cl
(1) F , I , Br , Cl
(2) Cl, Br, I, F
(2) Cl, Br, I, F
(3) I, Br, Cl F
(3) I, Br, Cl F
(4) F, Cl, Br, I
(4) F, Cl, Br, I 125. Which reaction does not produce ammonia?
125.
?
(1) NH4I + KOH
(1) NH4I + KOH
Δ (2) N 2 + 3H2 Fe/Mo
Δ (2) N 2 + 3H2 Fe/Mo
(3)
(3)
Δ NH4 2 Cr2O7
(4) Mg3N2 + HCl (aq)
(4) Mg3N2 + HCl (aq) 126.
126. In the reaction :
– 2– I2 + 2S2O2– 3 2I + S4 O6
I2 + 2S2O32– 2I– + S4 O62–
(1) I2
(1) I2 is reducing agent.
(2) I2 S2O32–
(2) I 2 is oxidising agent and S 2 O 3 2– is reducing agent.
(3) S2O32–
(3) S2O32– is oxidising agent.
(4) I2 S2O32–
(4) I 2 is reducing agent and S 2 O 3 2– is oxidising agent. 127. In the given reaction 'A' is :-
Δ NH4 2 Cr2O7
127.
'A' :
HNO Reduction B C2 H5OH A
HNO Reduction B C2 H5OH A
(1) CH 3CN
(1) CH 3CN
(2) CH 3NC
(2) CH 3NC
(3) C 2H 5CN
(3) C 2H 5CN
(4) CH 3NO 2
(4) CH 3NO 2
2
2
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Cl
Cl CH2I
128.
CH3SH/NaOH Major Product
Major Product is :-
(1)
CH2I
128.
Major Product is :-
SCH3 CH2I
(1)
OH
Cl CH2SCH3
CH2SCH3
(3)
Cl
Cl CH2OH
(4)
CH2I
(2)
Cl
(3)
SCH3 CH2I
OH CH2I
(2)
CH3SH/NaOH Major Product
(4)
129. The correct order of bond length is :-
129.
CH2OH
:
(1) F2 < F2+< F2
(1) F2 < F2+< F2
(2) F2+< F2< F2
(2) F2+< F2< F2
(3) F2+< F2 < F2
(3) F2+< F2 < F2
(4) F2< F2+< F2
(4) F2< F2+< F2
130. Conc. H2SO4 cannot be used to prepare HBr from NaBr because it :
130.
(1) reacts slowly with NaBr (2) oxidises HBr into Br2 (3) reduces HBr (4) disproportionates HBr 131. A metal X crystallises in a face-centred cubic arrangement with the edge length 862 pm. What is the shortest separation of any two nuclei of the atom ?
131.
H2SO4 NaBr HBr (1) NaBr (2) HBr Br2 (3) HBr (4) HBr X 862 pm ?
(1) 406 pm
(1) 406 pm
(2) 707 pm
(2) 707 pm
(3) 862 pm
(3) 862 pm
(4) 609.6 pm
(4) 609.6 pm
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132. Ofloxacin is :-
132.
:-
(1) Analgesic
(1)
(2) Tranquilizer
(2)
(3) Antimalarials
(3)
(4) Antibiotic
(4)
O3 (P) OH (Q) Zn,H2O
133.
O3 (P) OH (Q) Zn,H2O
133.
(Q) :-
Product (Q) is :-
(1)
O
(1)
O
(2)
O
(2)
O
(3)
CHO
(3)
CHO
(4)
CHO
(4)
CHO
134. The IUPAC name for the complex [Co(NO2)(NH3)5]Cl2 is :
134.
[Co(NO2)(NH3)5]Cl2 IUPAC :
(1) Nitro-N-pentaamminecobalt(III) chloride
(1)
-N- (III)
(2) Nitro-N-pentaamminecobalt(II) chloride
(2)
-N- (II)
(3) Pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt(II) chloride
(3)
-N- (II)
(4) Pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt(III) chloride
(4)
-N- (III)
135. Select the diamagnetic coloured compound:-
135.
:-
(1) AgI
(1) AgI
(2) KMnO 4
(2) KMnO 4
(3) I 2
(3) I 2
(4) All of these
(4)
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136. A projectile has the same range R for two angles of projections. If T 1 and T 2 be the times of flight in the two cases, then
136.
R T T 2 1
(1) T1T2 = R
(1) T1T2 = R
(2) T1T2 R2
(2) T1T2 R2
T1
T1
= tan θ
(3)
T2
(4)
T1 = tan 2q T2
137. A ball of 0.4kg mass and a speed of 3 m/s has a head-on, completely elastic collision with a 0.6-kg mass initially at rest. Find the speeds of both balls after the collision:
137.
= tan θ
(3)
T2
(4)
T1 = tan 2q T2
3 m/s 0.4 kg 0.6 kg (1) 0.6 m/s, 2.4 m/s
(1) 0.6 m/s, 2.4 m/s (2) 0.3 m/s, 1.2 m/s
(2) 0.3 m/s, 1.2 m/s
(3) 0.2 m/s, 1.2 m/s
(3) 0.2 m/s, 1.2 m/s
(4) 2.8 m/s, 3.4 m/s
(4) 2.8 m/s, 3.4 m/s 138. Water rises to a height of 2 cm in a capillary tube. If the tube is tilted 60 from the vertical, water will rise in the tube to a length
138.
2 cm 60
(1) 4.0 cm
(1) 4.0 cm
(2) 2.0 cm
(2) 2.0 cm
(3) 1.0 cm
(3) 1.0 cm
(4) water will not rise at all
(4) water will not rise at all
139. The sensitivity of a galvanometer of resistance 406 ohm is increased by 30 times. The shunt used is
139.
406 30 (1) 88
(1) 88 (2) 14 (3) 6 (4) 16
(2) 14 (3) 6 (4) 16
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140. In Young’s double slit experiment the light emited from source has = 6.5 × 10–7 m and the distance between the two slits is 1 mm. Distance between the screen and slit is 1 metre. Distance between third dark and fifth bright fringe will be
= 6.5 × 10–7 m 140. YDSE 1 mm 1 m
(1) 3.2 mm
(1) 3.2 mm
(2) 1.63 mm
(2) 1.63 mm (3) 0.585 mm (3) 0.585 mm (4) 2.31 mm
(4) 2.31 mm 141. A man is running with constant speed along a circular path of radius 22m. He completes 1 round in 10 second. Find instantaneous speed at 2.5 sec.
141.
22m 10 2.5
(1)
(1)
2 m/s 5
2 m/s 5
(2)
2 2 m/s 5
(2)
2 2 m/s 5
(3)
2 3 m/s 5
(3)
2 3 m/s 5
(4)
5 2 m/s 2
(4)
5 2 m/s 2
142. A particle undergoes uniform circular motion. About which point on the plane of the circle, will the angular momentum of the particle remain conserved ?
142.
? (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1) Centre of the circle (2) On the circumference of the circle (3) Inside the circle (4) Outside the circle
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143. A flat horizontal board moves up and down in SHM of amplitude . Then the shortest permissible time period of the vibration such that an object placed on the board may not lose contact with the board is
143.
g (1) 2
(1) 2
g
(2) 2 g
(2) 2
g
(3) 2 g ×
(3) 2 g ×
(4)
1 g 2
(4)
144. A copper wire of diameter 1.02 mm carries a current of 1.7 amp. Find the drift velocity (vd) of electrons in the wire.
144.
Given n, number density of electrons in copper = 8.5 1027 /m3.
1 g 2
1.02 mm 1.7 amp e– n = 8.5 1027 /m3 (1) 1.75 mm/sec
(1) 1.75 mm/sec (2) 1.25 mm/sec (2) 1.25 mm/sec (3) 0.15 mm/sec
(3) 0.15 mm/sec
(4) 1.5 mm/sec
(4) 1.5 mm/sec 145. If velocity of a galaxy relative to earth is 1.2 × 106 ms–1 then % increase in wavelength of light from galaxy as compared to the similar source on earth will be (1) 0.3 %
145.
1.2×106 ms–1 (1) 0.3 % (2) 0.4 %
(2) 0.4 % (3) 0.5 % (3) 0.5 % (4) 0.6 %
(4) 0.6 %
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146. If w, x, y and z are mass, length, time and current
146.
2
x2 w y3z
x w respectively, then has dimensional y3 z formula same as
(1) electric potential (2) capacitance (3) electric field (4) permittivity 147. An inclined plane makes an angle of 30 with the horizontal. A solid sphere rolling down this inclined plane from rest without slipping has a linear acceleration equal to
w, x, y z
147.
(1) (2) (3) (4) 30 (1)
(1)
g 3
g 3
(2)
2g 3
(2)
2g 3
(3)
5g 7
(3)
5g 7
(4)
5g 14
(4)
5g 14
148. Let T 1 and T 2 be the time periods of two springs A and B when a mass m is suspended from them separately. Now both the springs are connected in parallel and same mass m is suspended with them. Now let T be the time period in this position. Then (1) T = T1+ T2 (2) T =
T1T2 T1 + T2
148.
T2 A B T1 m m T (1) T = T1+ T2
T1T2 (2) T = T + T 1 2 (3) T 2 T12 T22
(3) T 2 T12 T22 (4)
1 1 1 = + T2 T12 T22
(4)
1 1 1 = 2+ 2 2 T T1 T2
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149. A current i is flowing in a conductor of
149.
length l. When it is bent in the form of a circular loop then its magnetic moment will
l i
be-
li 4
(1)
l 2i 4
l2 (2) 4
(2)
l2 4
4 l 2i
(3)
4 l 2i
2
(1)
(3)
(4) 4 l2i.
(4) 4l2i. 150. White light is used to illuminate two slits in Young’s double slit experiment. Separation between the slits is b and the screen is at a distance d (>>b) from the slits. Then wavelengths missing at a point on the screen
150.
YDSE b d (>>b)
directly in front of one of the slit are (1)
b2 b2 , d 3d
(2)
b2 b2 , d 4d
2
(3)
b b , 2d 3d
(3)
b2 b2 , 2d 3d
(4)
b2 b2 , 2d 4d
(4)
b2 b2 , 2d 4d
(1)
(2)
b2 b2 , d 3d
b2 b2 , d 4d
2
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151. In the figure, the tension in the horizontal cord is 30N. Find the weight of the body B.
Cord 2
151.
30N B
45°
Cord 2
P
45° P
30
30
Cord 1
Cord 1 B
B
(1) 30 2N
(1) 30 2N
(2) 30N
(2) 30N
(3) 15N
(3) 15N
(4) 60N
(4) 60N
152. The moment of inertia of a ring about one of its diameters is I. What will be its moment of inertia about a tangent parallel to the diameter ?
152.
I (1) 4I
(1) 4I
(2) 2I
(2) 2I (3)
(3)
3 I 2
3 I 2
(4) 3I
(4) 3I 153. A piano string 1.5m long is made of steel of density 7.7103 kg/m3 and Young’s modulus 210 11 N/m2. It is maintained at a tension which produces an elastic strain of 1% in the string. The fundamental frequency of transverse vibrations of string is
153.
1.5 m 3 3 7.710 kg/m 210 11 N/m 2 1% (1) 85Hz
(1) 85Hz (2) 170Hz (3) 340Hz (4) 310Hz
(2) 170Hz (3) 340Hz (4) 310Hz
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154. A rod of ferromagnetic material with
154.
dimensions 10 cm×0.5 cm×0.2 cm is placed in a magnetic field of strength 0.5×104 amp/m as a result of which a magnetic moment of 5 amp-m2 is produced in the rod. The value of total magnetic induction will be-
10 cm×0.5 cm×0.2 cm 0.5×104 amp/m 5 amp-m2 (1) 0.54 Tesla
(1) 0.54 Tesla
(2) 0.358 Tesla
(2) 0.358 Tesla (3) 2.519 Tesla
(3) 2.519 Tesla
(4) 6.28 Tesla.
(4) 6.28 Tesla.
to the mirror each second will be:
6W/m2 40 cm2 ( ) :
(1) 6.4 10–7 kg–m/s
(1) 6.4 10–7 kg–m/s
(2) 4.8 10–8 kg–m/s
(2) 4.8 10–8 kg–m/s
(3) 3.2 10–9 kg–m/s
(3) 3.2 10–9 kg–m/s
(4) 1.6 10–10 kg–m/s
(4) 1.6 10–10 kg–m/s
155. A plane electromagnetic wave of wave
155.
intensity 6W/m2 strikes a small mirror of area 40 cm2, held perpendicular to the approaching wave. The momentum transferred by the wave
body after 2sec is:
30N 2
(1) 7.5 kg-m/s
(1) 7.5 kg-m/s
(2) 30 kg-m/s
(2) 30 kg-m/s
(3) 120 kg-m/s
(3) 120 kg-m/s
(4) 60 kg-m/s
(4) 60 kg-m/s
156. A body is accelerated by applying a force of 30N. The change in the momentum of the
156.
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157. The rotation of the earth having R radius about its axis speeds up to a value such that a man at latitude angle 60o feels weightlessness. The duration of the day in such a case is.
157.
60 o (1) 2
(1) 2
R g
(2)
R g
(2)
(3) 2
g R
R (4) 4 g
158. During an experiment an ideal gas is found
158.
to obey an additional law VP2 = constant. The gas is initially at temperature T and volume V. What will be the temperature of the gas when it expands to a volume 2V?
R g
R g
(3) 2
g R
(4) 4
R g
VP2 = T V 2V (1) T = 4 T
(1) T = 4 T (2) T = 2 T
(2) T = 2 T
(3) T = 5 T
(3) T = 5 T
(4) T = 6 T
(4) T = 6 T 159. A capacitor of 4F is connected to a 15 V supply through 1 mega ohm resistance. The time taken by the capacitor to charge upto 63.2 % of its final charge will be
159.
4F 1 M 15 63.2 %
(1) 2 s
(1) 2 s
(2) 3 s
(2) 3 s
(3) 4 s
(3) 4 s
(4) 5 s
(4) 5 s
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160. An electron with energy 880 eV enters a uniform magnetic field of induction 2.5 × 10–3T. The radius of path of the circle will approximately be :
160.
880 eV 2.5 × 10–3T :
(1) 4 km
(1) 4 km
(2) 4 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 4 cm
(3) 4 cm
(4) 4 mm
(4) 4 mm
161. A cube is resting on an inclined plane. What must be the value of coefficient of friction between cube and plane so that cube topples before sliding
161.
(1) =
1 (1) = 2
1 2
(2) < 1
(2) < 1
(3) > 1
(3) > 1 (4) >
1 2
(4) >
162. Imagine a light planet revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with a period of revolution T. If the gravitational force of attraction between the planet and the star is proportional to R-5/2, then,
162.
1 2
R T R–5/2
(1) T2 R2
(1) T2 R2
(2) T2 R7/2
(2) T2 R7/2
(3) T2 R3/2
(3) T2 R3/2
(4) T2 R3.75
(4) T2 R3.75
163. The latent heat of vaporization of water is 2240 J/gm. If the work done in the process of vaporization of 1 gm is 168 J, then increase in internal energy is (1) 2408 J (2) 2240 J
163.
2240 J/gm 1 gm 168 J (1) 2408 J (2) 2240 J
(3) 2072 J
(3) 2072 J
(4) 1904 J
(4) 1904 J
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164. The magnetic flux through a coil perpendicular to its plane and directed into paper is varying
164.
according to relation = 5t2 + 10t + 5 milli weber. The e.m.f. induced in the loop after 5 sec is
( ) = 5t2 + 10t + 5 mWb 5 (1) 0.03 volt
(1) 0.03 volt (2) 0.06 volt
(2) 0.06 volt
(3) 0.08 volt
(3) 0.08 volt
(4) 0.02 volt
(4) 0.02 volt
165. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron emission from this substance is approximately
165.
4.0 eV (1) 540 nm
(1) 540 nm
(2) 400 nm
(2) 400 nm (3) 310 nm
(3) 310 nm
(4) 220nm
(4) 220nm
166. A block of mass 10 kg accelerates uniformly from rest to a speed of 2 m/s in 20 sec. The average power developed in time interval of 0 to 20 sec is
166.
2 m/s 10 kg 20 sec. 0 20 (1) 10W
(1) 10W (2) 1W
(2) 1W
(3) 20W
(3) 20W
(4) 2W
(4) 2W
167. Two soap bubbles of radii R and r come in contact. R is more than r. Radius of curvature of common surface is
167.
R r (1)
(1)
R–r Rr
R–r Rr
(2)
(2)
Rr R–r
Rr R–r
(3)
R+r Rr
(3)
R+r Rr
(4)
Rr R+r
(4)
Rr R+r
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168. Potential in the x-y plane is given as V = 5(x2 + xy) volts. The electric field at the point (1, 2) will be
V = 5(x2 + xy) (1, 2)
168. x-y
(1) 3j V/m
(1) 3j V/m
(2) 5j V/m
(2) 5j V/m
(3) 5j V/m
(3) 5j V/m
(4) 3j V/m
(4) 3j V/m
169. A train is moving with a speed of 30 m s–1 in north-south direction on the rails separated by 2 m. If the vertical component of earth’s field is 8 x 10–5 T, the e.m.f. is
169.
30 m s –1 NS 2 m 8 x 10–5 T
(1) 0.0048 V
(1) 0.0048 V
(2) 0.048 V
(2) 0.048 V
(3) 0.48 V
(3) 0.48 V
(4) 4.8 V
(4) 4.8 V
170. Half-life of a substance is 20 minutes. What is the time between 33% decay and 67% decay?
170.
20 33% ?
67%
(1) 40 minutes
(1) 40 minutes
(2) 20 minutes
(2) 20 minutes
(3) 30 minutes
(3) 30 minutes
(4) 25 minutes
(4) 25 minutes
171. Power applied to a particle varies with time as P = (4t 3 – 5t + 2)watt, where t is in second. Find the change is its K.E. between time t = 2 and t = 4 sec.
171.
P = (4t3 – 5t + 2)watt t t = 2 t = 4
(1) 212 J
(1) 212 J
(2) 213 J
(2) 213 J
(3) 214 J
(3) 214 J
(4) 215 J
(4) 215 J
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172. When a certain weight is suspended from a long uniform wire, its length increases by one cm. If the same weight is suspended from
172.
another wire of the same material and length but having a diameter half of the first one, the increase in length will be
1 cm (1) 0.5 cm
(1) 0.5 cm
(2) 2 cm
(2) 2 cm (3) 4 cm
(3) 4 cm
(4) 8 cm
(4) 8 cm
173. The conducting spherical shells shown in the figure are connected by a conductor. The
173.
capacitance of the system is
b
b a
a
(1) 4 0
ab b–a
(1) 4 0
ab b–a
(2) 4 0 a
(2) 4 0 a
(3) 4 0 b
(3) 4 0 b
(4) 4 0
a2 b–a
(4) 4 0
a2 b–a
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174. A convex lens forming a real image of magnification m 1 on a screen is moved through a distance x. A new image of magnification m 2 is again formed on the screen. The focal length of the lens is:
174.
x
x
(1)
(1)
m2 – m1
(2)
m1 + m2
m1 + m2
x
x
(3)
m2 – m1
x
x
(2)
m1 x m2
(3)
m1m2
(4) None of these
m1m2
(4) None of these
175. In a transistor amplifier, = 62, RL = 5000 and internal resistance of the transistor is 500 . The voltage amplification of the amplifier will be:
175.
= 62, RL = 5000 500 : (1) 500
(1) 500
(2) 620
(2) 620 (3) 780
(3) 780
(4) 950
(4) 950
the work done by air friction?
‘H’ 1.1 gH
(1) 0.395 mgH
(1) 0.395 mgH
(2) 0.395 mgH
(2) 0.395 mgH
(3) 0.400 mgH
(3) 0.400 mgH
(4) 0.400 mgH
(4) 0.400 mgH
176. A body dropped from height ‘H’ reaches the ground with a speed of 1.1 gH . Calculate
176.
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177. Given : is the compressibility of water, is the density of water and K is the bulk modulus of water. What is the energy density of water at the bottom of a lake ‘h’ metre deep ?
177.
K (bulk) ‘h’ ? (1)
(1)
1 σ(hg)2 2
1 σ(hg)2 2
(2)
1 σ(hg) 2
(2)
1 σ(hg) 2
(3)
1 hg 2 σ
(3)
1 hg 2 σ
(4)
hg σ
(4)
hg σ
178. A particle of mass 100 gm and charge 2 C is released from a distance of 50 cm from a fixed charge of 5C. Find the speed of the particle when its distance from the fixed charge becomes 3 m. Neglect any other force.
178.
5C 50 cm 2C 100 gm 2C 5C ( ) 3 m
(1) –1.73 m/s
(1) –1.73 m/s
(2) 2.73 m/s
(2) 2.73 m/s
(3) –2.73 m/s
(3) –2.73 m/s
(4) 1.73 m/s.
(4) 1.73 m/s.
179. A layer of oil 3cm thick is floating on a layer of coloured water 5cm thick. Refractive index of coloured water is 5/3 and the apparent depth of the two liquids appears to be 36/7cm. Find the refractive index of oil. (1) 1.6
179.
3 cm 5 cm 5/3 36/7cm (1) 1.6 (2) 1.4
(2) 1.4
(3) 1.9
(3) 1.9
(4) 0.9
(4) 0.9 180. The logic behind ‘NOR’ gate is that it gives
180. ‘NOR’
(1) High output when both the inputs are low
(1)
(2) Low output when both the inputs are low
(2)
(3) High output when both the inputs are high
(3)
(4) None of these
(4)
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: 1. 2. 3.
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