Jmet 2006 Questions & Answers

JMET 2006 (10.12.2006)

Question Paper with Solutions

SECTION 1: VERBAL COMMUNICATION (Questions 1-40) Directions: In Questions 1 and 2, fill in the blanks with the option containing the MOST APPROPRIATE set of words. Q.l

This will require a culture of_________and should allow diversity to _________ (A) sympathy, display (B) stamina, flaunt (C) resilience, brandish (D) tolerance, flourish

Q.2

We are more likely to believe a story told by someone we consider ________ than someone we have learnt not to trust, so the reputation of the narrator ________ the story. (A) spurious, negates (B) honest, validates (C) objective, officiates (D) adorable, dominates

Solutions to Q. 1-2: 1.

The answer is (D). A culture would require tolerance for diversity, and diversity can only lead to it flourishing (expanding) and not brandishing, flaunting (showing off) or displaying. Hence only (D) can be the answer.

2.

The answer is (B). A contrast to someone we have not learnt to trust would only be someone we consider honest, and that can only lead to the narrator validating the story. Hence (B) is the answer.

Directions: Questions 3 - 6 relate to the passage given below: Visualisation is the three-dimensional, multicoloured, singing-and-dancing version of affirmations that enables the subconscious to prefigure future achievement or success. It is a basic and fundamental human attribute, and one that can literally be the difference between surviving and not surviving. When Victor Frankl, the Freudian psychologist, was examining the discriminating factors that enabled him, and many like him, to survive in the hell of the Nazi concentration camps, the key factor was the ability to visualize. All survivors had a vision of something beyond their current suffering, something more worthwhile, and something worth hanging on for. This underlines the importance of each individual having a vision of something, outside and larger than herself, that gives her life some meaning. The very existence of a mission lifts the eyes to something more meaningful and enduring — and in so doing provides something to live for — at times when quiet surrender could be an attractive option. Such a vision gives a further raison d ‘etre for integrity, by providing a purpose that binds together the core values that make up self-worth. One of the most powerful — and difficult to achieve — applications of visualization is to focus your mind daily on the person you intend to become. Create a clear mental picture of that person — and see it in full color, and add sounds and smells, if they are appropriate. The emotional values you add to the visualization are vital in making the full connection to your subconscious, which acts only on thoughts that are mixed with emotions. These techniques are, of course, widely validated in fields like sport and business, where the peak performers are nearly all visualisers. They all see, feel, and fully experience their success before they achieve it. Q.3

Which of the following statements, in the light of the above passage, is NOT correct? (A) Visualisation is the affirmation of the subconscious (B) Visualisation is three dimensional, multicoloured and auditory (C) Visualisation is a basic and fundamental quality of human mind (D) Visualisation can make a significant difference in terms of our very existence

Q.4

The above passage DOES NOT deal with (A) uses of visualization (C) techniques of visualization

Q.5

(B) quality of visualization (D) illustrations of visualization

Which of the following observations CANNOT be directly inferred from the above passage? (A) Concentration camp survivors visualized beyond their current suffering (B) Emotional values help one’s subconscious to connect to visualization (C) Visualization involves the ability to focus on the person you want to become (D) The existence of a goal beyond one’s current situation gives one a sense of purpose

Q.6 “Raison d’etre” as it is used in the above passage means (A) the most important need (B) the most important inference (C) the most important consequence (D) the most important reason

Solutions for Q. 3-6: 3.

4.

The answer is (A). All the other options can be found in the passage. However the passage does not discuss the affirmation of the subconscious. The answer is (B). The passage discusses the other three options. However quality is not discussed.

5.

The answer is (C). The passage does not talk about visualization and the ability to focus on who you want to become.

6.

The answer is (D). In the context of the passage the given word could only mean the most important reason.

Directions: In Questions 7- 9, select the pair of words that best expresses a relationship SIMILAR to the pair in CAPITAL letters. Q.7

Q.8

Q.9

PIRATE: PIROUETTE (A) Marauder: Dive (C) Convict : Spin

(B) Criminal : Tumble (D) Buccaneer: Gyrate

COMMUNE: COMMUTE (A) Converse: Interact (C) Communicate: Travel

(B) Announce: Lighten (D) Declare: Exchange

PROVINCIALISM : PAROCHIALISM (A) Dilettante: Inexpert (C) Meretricious: Sober

(B) Miscegenation: Mitigation (D) Decadent: Resplendent

Solutions for Q. 7-9: 7.

8.

The answer is (D). Pirate and buccaneer are synonyms, and pirouette and gyrate both refer to certain actions that are a part of dancing. Marauder is a raider, dive is to jump in, criminal is a rogue, tumble is to roll over, a convict is someone who has done a wrong, spin is to rotate. The answer is (C). Commune means to connect, and communicate has a similar meaning and commute means to travel. Converse is to talk, interact is to be involved with others, announce is to

proclaim, lighten is to illuminate, declare is to announce, exchange is to switch. 9.

The answer is (A). Provincialism means narrowness of mind or ignorance, and parochialism is a synonym. Similarly, a dilettante is an amateur, similar in meaning to an inexpert. Miscegenation is interbreeding of races, mitigation is reduction, meretricious is falsely attractive, sober is calm/composed, decadent is ruined, resplendent is grand.

Directions: In Questions 10 and 11, carefully read the sentences given below and identify the grammatically INCORRECT option to fill in the blank. Q.10 This strategy has proved very successful for Nike, but to keep ahead of competition they must keep ___________ new factory sites and sourcing cheap workers. (A) searching (B) exploring (C) surveying (D) scrutinizing Q.11 There are more flowers here ___________ earlier. (A) than there used to be (B) than there was (C) than there had been (D) than there were Directions: In Questions 12 and 13, choose the option that is CLOSEST in meaning to the CAPITALIZED word. Q.12 GRIT (A) Grid

(B) Grind

(C) Grin

(D) Grill

Q.13 INEXPLICABLE (A) Incomprehensible

(B) Indelible

(C) Inextricable

(D) Infallible

Directions: In Questions 14 and 15, choose the option which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the CAPITALIZED word. Q.14 STIGMA (A) Horror

(B) Humour

(C) Honour

(D) Holler

Q.15 TYRO (A) Expert

(B) Tyrannical

(C) Beginner

(D) Tycoon

Solutions for Q. 10-15: 10.

The answer is (C). To survey something means to take a general overview of something. Hence the word fits the context best. The other options involve an in depth analysis.

11.

The answer is (B), as the plural noun ‘flowers’ have to be substantiated by a plural verb, but this option uses a singular verb ‘was’. All the other options may grammatically be used.

12.

The answer is (B). There is no direct relation between the given word and the options. However, when we grind something we get grit. Grid is a maze, grin is a curt smile, and grill is a method of cooking.

13.

The answer is (A). Incomprehensible and inexplicable are synonyms, which means something which is hard to understand. Indelible is something that cannot be removed, Inextricable is something confusing, Infallible is incapable of error.

14.

The answer is (C). Stigma is a mark of disgrace. Hence the answer has to be honor. Horror is terror, humor is fun, and holler is to shout.

15.

The answer is (A). A tyro is a beginner in a field. Hence an expert is the opposite. Tyrannical is dominating, beginner is a

synonym for the given word, tycoon is a

businessman.

Directions: Questions 16 -18 relate to the passage given below: When I started working during the late 1960s and early ‘70s I was the proud owner of a slide rule. It was a low-mileage model, as I only knew how to work out percentages on it, but even that was better than struggling with long multiplication or logarithms to do the same work as some of my colleagues were wont to do. The point is that this was only three decades ago, and the pocket calculator had still not been invented. I remember, in the early 1970s, sitting in a meeting in the viewing room of the advertising agency I worked for, taking part in a discussion with our client, Procter and Gamble, on whether the commercial which had just been approved should be shot in black- and-white, or color. The discussion, as with most discussions with that client, was long and carefully articulated on both sides. The agency, of course, looked to the future, and argued strongly for color. We were finally overruled, on the grounds that there were still too few color TV sets in existence for it to be worth the extra investment in color film. At the same period, I recall the excitement of the company’s first computer being delivered. The accounts’ office window was temporarily removed, while the computer was swung into place by a crane especially hired for the purpose. The computer power was probably less than a Personal Organizer. Not only was color television a rarity, and the personal computer still some way off, other everyday objects had still to be invented, like the digital watch or the camcorder. How we existed without such basic everyday tools, I now find hard to imagine. The truth is that we and our parents and grandparents before us — and their forebears before them stretching back over the past two centuries — have seen and accommodated huge technical advances and social changes. Many of these changes have not only been big — they’ve been fast. Q.16 The MOST APPROPRIATE title for the above passage could be (A) “Changes since the 1960s” (B) “Accepting change” (C) “Change and obsolescence” (D) “The changing world” Q.17 Which of the following statements is MOST ACCURATE in terms of the passage above? (A) Colour commercial was ruled out because color photography was in its infancy (B) An office window had to be dismantled so as to put the computer inside (C) The digital camcorder had not yet been invented in the 1970s (D) Slide rules could calculate percentages, multiplication and logarithms Q.18 Which of the following inferences is the MOST APPROPRIATE as per the passage above? (A) Change is a process of struggling against existing ideas (B) The world has changed rapidly since the 1960s and ‘70s (C) Change is exciting, especially in the field of technology (D) The world has been changing significantly for a long time Solutions to Q. 16-18: 16. The answer is (D). The passage does not restrict discussion to changes only since the 60s, as in the end the author talks about “parents and grand parents before us”, thereby eliminating (A).

17. The answer is (B). The second line of the fourth paragraph reflects this. 18. The answer is (D). The passage does not talk Neither aboutdoes a struggle he discuss against acceptance change,ofnor changes is it nor onlytalks about other thi referring to changes since the 60s and 70s. It

does not talk about excitement for the changes.

Hence (A), (B) and (C) can be eliminated.

Directions: In Question 19, ONE of the options is grammatically INCORRECT Identify the INCORRECT option. Q.19 (A) They speak French in parts of Italy as well as France (B) It looks as though John is going to change his job (C) Smoking is dangerous, as well as it makes you smell bad (D) As well as birds, some mammals can fly

Directions: The direct speech in Question 20 has been rewritten as reported speech (indirect form) in the four options given below. Identify the grammatically CORRECT option. Q.20 He said, “I need to be there in person or my budget will be reduced. However, I will attend the meeting before I leave.” (A) He said that he needed to be there in person or his budget will be reduced. But he will attend the meeting before he left. (B) He said, he needed to be there in person or his budget will be reduced. However, he’ll attend the meeting before he leaves. (C) He said that he needed to be there in person or his budget would be reduced. However, he said that he would attend the meeting before he left. (D) He said he needs to be there in person, or his budget would be reduced. But he will attend the meeting before he left. Solution for Q 19: The answer is (C). The usage of “as well as” in this sentence is incorrect. Solution for Q 20: The answer is (C). Options (B) and (D) can be eliminated, because in reported speech we need to use the connector ‘that’. In option (A) the use of present tense is incorrect. Only option (C) gives us a correctly framed sentence.

Directions: Questions 21 - 23 refer to the passage below: To make effective decisions, all we have to do is to out-think our opponent. Our decision needs to be better than his, that’s all. There is no need to be perfect. The mistake we make is to think through our intellect. If we ask any successful business leader or CEO these days about what has made them so successful, again and again they claim that their success came from something beyond their intellect; something beyond logic and facts; something that gave them the intelligence and guts to take effective decisions. It is simply the intuitive power within them that has helped them make these effective decisions. We can tune into intuition as part of our regular life. The question therefore is not whether intuition is an inborn quality, but whether we can make ourselves intuitive. When we step into the present, we step out of time-bound awareness. We step beyond tension. Our body stops producing adrenaline. Time-bound awareness is mass, which is solid. Non time-bound awareness is pure energy, liquid, dynamic, bubbling and creative. We step out of our boundaries. We become free. We become intuitive. When our thoughts stop, our present vision extends into the past and the future. We become free of time and space constraints. When we meditate deeply, we become intuitive, and can reach cosmic intelligence or enlightenment. Q.21 Which of the following statements CANNOT be directly inferred from the above passage? (A) Effective decisions are not necessarily perfect decisions (B) Successful CEOs have intuitive powers (C) To be intuitive, we have to step out of our time-boundaries (D) Meditation helps us take effective decisions Q.22 The MOST APPROPRIATE title for the passage might be (A) “Beyond intuitive boundaries” (B) “Intuition, the key to effective decisions” (C) “Intuitive leadership” (D) “Intuitive reasoning” Q.23 According to the passage, a successful business leader (A) relies mostly on logic and facts (B) is more intelligent than his / her opponents (C) takes effective decisions (D) is free of time and space constraints Solutions for Q. 21-23: 21. The answer is (D). All the other options can be inferred from the passage. However no direct correlation between meditation and decision making is shown in the passages. 22. The answer is (B). The passage does not talk about transcending intuitive boundaries nor does it

discuss intuition with relation to leadership or reasoning. However (B) reflects the intent of the passage. 23. The answer is (C) and is reflected in the beginning of the passage.

Directions: Read the paragraph below and answer Questions 24 - 26 which follow: Confusion is internal and/or external chaos. Faulty implications, cognitive distortions, interpersonal disruptions, and complex signs of confusion and conflict promote a spirit or atmosphere of misinformation, misinterpretation and miscommunication. Where there is considerable friction in the mix of expressive freedom and interpretative response, an atmosphere of uncertainty and commotion will prevail. Q.24 The MOST APPROPRIATE meaning of “commotion,” as used in the passage, would be (A) a state of agitation and disturbance (B) a mental condition that leads to emotional breakdown (C) a state of uncertainty leading to depression (D) a condition of confusion and faulty implication Q.25 The passage implies that (A) misinterpretation and miscommunication are promoted to some extent because of confusion (B) cognitive distortion and interpersonal disruption cause confusion (C) confusion is a result of misinformation, miscommunication and non-expressive freedom (D) considerable friction and cognitive distortion necessarily lead to commotion Q.26 Which of the following, according to you, is the MOST APPROPRIATE title for the passage? (A) “Causes of uncertainty” (B) “Misinterpretation and commotion” (C) “Defining confusion” (D) “Uncertainty — the cause of commotion” Solutions to Q. 24-26: 24. The answer is (A).The passage does not indicate any of the other options as being the meanings of commotion. 25.

The answer is (A). It can be seen in the third line of the passage.

26.

The answer is (C). The passage does not give us the causes of uncertainty, nor does it discuss misinterpretation and commotion. Also the passage does talk about uncertainty as the cause of commotion. Hence only “defining confusion” reflects the main idea of the passage.

Directions: In Questions 27 - 29, select the set of words that best expresses a relationship SIMILAR to the set in CAPITALS. Q.27 PRINTER: INK: PAPER (A) Electric Power: Desktop: Monitor (B) Vending Machine: Water: Ground Coffee (C) Car: Brake Oil: Petrol (D) Tree: Clear Polish: Timber Wood Q.28 TV : VISION : MOVIES (A) Mirror: Reflection: Eye (B) Air Conditioner: Feel: Air (C) Oven: Food: Smell (D) Perfume: Fragrance: Flower Q.29 SKY: BIRD: THUNDER (A) Movie: Theatre: Actor (B) Night: Stars: Music (C) Office: Conversation: Employees (D) Paper : Text: Watermark Solutions to Q. 27-29: 27. The answer is (B).If a printer has ink and one puts in paper, one get get the paper back in a printed form. Similarly, if a vending machine has water, and one puts in ground coffee, one can get the coffee in a drinkable form. 28.

The answer is (B). One needs vision to be able to enjoy movies on TV. Similarly, one needs to be able to feel, to enjoy the air from an air conditioner.

29.

The answer is (D). A bird flies in the sky and thunder bolts in the sky and both can happen simultaneously. Similarly, on can have text and watermark on paper together.

Directions: In Questions 30 -32, identify the grammatically CORRECT option. Q.30 (A) Music — Classical music, was one of her strong points (B) Beside art, she also loved Chamber music (C) The romantic number, in spite of the rain, was still audible (D) The room was empty except the music album Q.31 (A) The train may be late, as it happened yesterday (B) Some people are interested, but the majority doesn’t care (C) My father, whom we hope will be out of hospital soon, will come (D) She works hardest when she’s working for her family Q.32 (A) If you didn’t study English at school, you won’t understand this paper (B) If you don’t study English at school, you wouldn’t understand this paper Y (C) If you didn’t study English at school, you wouldn’t understand this paper (D) If you haven’t studied English at school, you wouldn’t understand this paper Solutions for Q. 30-32: 30. The answer is (A). In (B) the word ‘beside’ should be replaced with ‘besides’. In option (C), two contrasting words, ‘in spite”, and “still “are used. Option (D) is merely a fragment. 31.

The answer is (B). In option (A), the correct usage would be “as it was yesterday”. In (C) the incorrect objective pronoun ‘whom’ is used. In (D) the superlative degree “hardest” should be used with the article “the”.

32.

The answer is (C). All the other options express the sentence with a wrong tense.

Directions: Questions 33 - 35 relate to the following article: Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) played a crucial role in the development of India during the past 50 years. This sector constitutes about 95% of industrial units, and about 40% of total industrial output. Its direct and indirect exports potential stand at about 38%. With about 3.6 million SSI (Small Scale Industries) registered units employing close to two crore people, its employment potential is next only to the agriculture sector. Thus the performance of SMEs is important for the economic and social development of the country. One of the ways by which this sector can be made to grow fast is by tapping both domestic as well as international markets through business linkages between Multinational Corporations (MNC5) and SMEs. Many OECD (Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development) countries and some Asian ones have specific policies for developing business linkages between SMEs and MNCs. So, the SME sector in these countries have witnessed favorable growth and helped boost their countries’ exports in a very competitive way. For example, Thailand ensured that the state provided industry with physical infrastructure and technological resources. Other Asian governments (Republic of Korea, Malaysia, Province of Taiwan, China) have included various incentives in the form of tax breaks, preference in public contracts and soft credit lines for both Transnational Corporations (TNCs) and SMEs to intensify relations and technology transfer. India, however, has no specific policy guidelines to develop linkages between SMEs and MNCs. Consequently, the vast majority of SMEs that cannot meet the requirements set by MNCs remain totally delinked. In business linkages between SMEs and MNCs, outsourcing and value chain management started to play a key role, since MNCs could not become competitive without a competitive supplier base. Thus, to create a capable supplier base, a three-pronged approach to developing supplier linkages is needed. There is a need to develop a technology programme to support research, development and innovation in SMEs by accelerating their rate of technology acquisition through realization of R & D projects. The government must promote and strengthen the knowledge base and competencies in SMEs in terms of quality, productivity and cost. Hence, there is an urgent need to strengthen the National Entrepreneurship Development Board (NEDB) and formulate a suitable plan for promoting rural entrepreneurship. Substantial investments and physical infrastructure development are needed all over the country. In this regard, a public-private partnership needs to be developed for implementing and reviewing the supportive measures at frequent intervals. Q.33 As per the passage, only ONE of the following statements is correct. Identify the correct statement. (A) The government should take the lead in facilitating SME-MNC linkages (B) The only way to facilitate growth of SME sector is through business linkages with MNCs (C) The government should help SMEs in improving their knowledgebase and competencies (D) SMEs currently export 38% of total industrial output Q.34 The article DOES NOT talk about (A) role of business associations in fostering SME-MNC linkages (B) role of developing countries in fostering SME-MNC linkages (C) role of the government in fostering SME-MNC linkages (D) role of MNCs in developing the SME sector Q.35 According to the article, the Indian government can help facilitate the SME-MNC linkage by (A) selecting potential local firms as suppliers to MNCs (B) providing technological resources through investments in R & D (C) providing soft credit lines for MNCs

(D) training SMEs in outsourcing and value chain management Solutions for Q. 33-35: 33. The answer is (C). The 6th line of the last paragraph reflects this idea. 34.

The answer is (A). All other options are discussed in the passage. However the passage does not talk of business associations fostering SME-MNC linkages.

35.

The answer is (B). The idea is reflected in the end of the last paragraph.

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the Questions 36 - 39 which follow. Although broad generalizations always oversimplify complex realities, we find numerous truths in the contrast between hierarchical, industrial manufacturing firms that dominated most of the twentieth century and today’s service-based and knowledge-sensitive organizations. When industry meant repeatedly carrying out standard, well-defined tasks and workers were seen metaphorically (and sometimes literally) as parts of a machine, progress could still be made when the social networks and relationships of individual employees were ignored or discouraged. In fact, those firms strongly depended on social capital and sometimes suffered from lack of it. Without some level of trust, respect, and generalized reciprocity, coordinated work of any kind is hard to accomplish. Still, as Henry Ford has commented, a certain rough logic lies behind treating people like cogs in a machine when you only expect and want them to do machine-like work. But very little of the work of today’s knowledge firm is repetitive or mechanical. It requires responsiveness, inventiveness, collaboration and attention. Judgment, persuasiveness, shared decisions, the pooling of knowledge, and the creative sparks people strike off one another depend on engagement with the work and one another, on the commitment that makes one genuinely a member of an organization rather than simply an “employee”. Although we ourselves sometimes fall into the trap of talking about “employers” and “employees” - the user and the used - those terms really belong to the industrial-age model and are inappropriate to the kind of work and working relationships we consider here. Today’s most economically productive work is largely voluntary, in the sense that doing it well calls for a willing engagement of the whole self in the task. “Going through the motions” is insufficient when the motions are not prescribed but change as you go along. In our view, the firm is neither a machine with each cog firmly in place performing its clearly defined task nor an unorganized (or se flock of opportunistic entrepreneurs pursuing their individual destinies. It is - it should be - a social organization of people willingly engaged in a joint enterprise. Q.36 The above passage implies that (A) service-based, knowledge-intensive organizations dominate in today’s business scenario (B) employees carry out standard, well-defined tasks (C) a voluntary worker is likely to be an engaged worker (D) industrial firms cannot be economically productive Q.37 Based on your reading of the above passage, identify the INCORRECT option. (A) A knowledge firm requires participation and collaboration (B) A knowledge firm encourages trust and reciprocity (C) A knowledge firm does not have employees (D) A knowledge firm has flexible work descriptions Q.38 In the light of your reading of the passage above identify the option that contains the set of words CLOSEST in meaning to the set of words in CAPITAL letters METAPHORICALLY: STANDARD : COG : ENGAGEMENT (A) Allegorically: Bench-mark : Small Part : Obligation (B) Figuratively: Average : Small wheel : Appointment (C) Illustratively: Criterion : Small teeth : Undertaking (D) Symbolically: Routine: Small Component: Commitment

Q.39 The central idea of the passage relates to (A) the key difference between industrial and knowledge-intensive firms (B) the key difference between an “employee” and a “member” in an organization (C) “Mechanical” vs. “Voluntary” organizations (D) importance of social capital in creating engaged organizations. Solutions to Q. 36-39: 36.

The answer is (C). It can be seen in the 9th and 10th line of the last paragraph.

37.

The answer is (C). All the other options are seen in the passage. However nothing in the passage suggests that a knowledge firm does not have employees.

38.

The answer is (B). Metaphorically means figuratively. One of the meanings of standard is average. A cog is a tiny wheel that’s a component of machinery. And an engagement could also refer to an appointment.

39.

The answer is (A) and is clarified in the beginning of the passage in the 1st and 2nd lines.

Directions: Question 40 consists of four groups of jumbled phrases, only ONE of which is grammatically correct. Identify the CORRECT option. Q.40 (A) matured, venture capital has undergone still another redefinition, returning / at least in part to its early roots in funding mature / now as the technology business has I businesses, in technology and in other segments as well (B) energy and financial services / areas and has been leading in information technology, media / the firm has invested across many industry / and communications, telecommunications, healthcare, (C) in the area of new ventures that, I might one day return to help put /1 left the Gaeltacht convinced that the way to / in place the very infrastructures needed to create a sustainable and thriving economy / save this island of Irish tradition is to work (D) the consequence of that - in part — is / companies with good people that are just farther along / that have gone public in the past that are still good, / that there are a lot of orphans out there among companies Solution for Q. 40: The answer is (B). “The firm has invested across many industry areas and has been leading in information technology, media and communications, telecommunications, healthcare, energy and financial services.” None of the other options arrange the sentences correctly.

SECTION 2: LOGICAL REASONING (Questions 41-80) Directions for Questions 41 - 43: Answer Questions 41 - 43 based upon the following passage. Any additional information provided with a particular question pertains to that individual question only Eight entrepreneurs (J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q) are selected for excellence awards for their outstanding contributions to business. Besides nurturing their own industries, two of these entrepreneurs, viz., J and L, also patronize the telecom industry while two others, viz., M and P, also patronize the computer industry. In arranging the seats, it was decided that the entrepreneurs who patronize other industries in addition to their own should not be seated together. Q.41. Which one of the following combinations is possible in the seating arrangements? (A) KMLNJ (B) JPQOL (C) JKLNM (D) JOLPQ Q.42. In order to ensure a proper seating arrangement, M should sit between (A) N and O (B) K and J (C) L and N

(D) O and P

Q.43. Which one of the following can be seated next to O? (A) J only (B) Q only (C) K only (D) Any of the above Solution for the question 41-43: 41.

According to the data given J, L, M and P should not seat together. In all the answer options except (C) this condition contradicts. Hence the answer option is (C).

42.

M can seat between the members who do not patronize any other company. So, M should seat between N and O. Hence the answer option is (A).

43.

There are no conditions given for O so he/she can seat next to any of the other member. Hence the answer option is (D).

Directions for Question 44: The following question has a set of five statements. Each statement has three sentences. Choose the alternative where the third sentence can be logically deduced, using both the preceding two, but not just from one of them. Q.44 i. Mild inflation is good for the economy. It encourages economic growth. Higher economic growth rate leads to higher level of inflation. ii. X and Y are friends. X is the enemy of Z. Y is the enemy of Z. iii. Outsourcing of certain jobs improves the focus of the firm in the core area. It also raises productivity and cost efficiency. Firms which outsource experience an increase in their productivity. iv. Global trade is expanding very fast. It is for the benefit of developed countries to expand their trade faster with the developing countries rather than among themselves. Most of such trade is largely concentrated among developed countries. v. Forgiveness is a great virtue. Great virtues are rare. Forgiveness is rare. (A) Only i (B) i and ii (C) iii and v (D) iv and v

Solution for the question 44: In the (iv) combination, the first sentence tells us that global trade is expanding fast. The second sentence suggests that expansion of such trade with developing countries would be more beneficial. Hence one can infer that most of such trade is concentrated among developing countries. In the (v) combination, forgiveness is a subset of great virtues and great virtues is a sub set of rare things. Hence it can be inferred that forgiveness is rare. Hence the answer option is (D).

Q.45 Harry is younger than Latif. Mahesh is of the same age as Latif. Randeep is exactly five years older than Mahesh, and Sonam is younger than Randeep but older than Harry by at the most four years. What is the minimum difference between the ages of Randeep and Harry? Assume that ages of all persons in this question are integer values. (A) four years (B) five years (C) six years (D) eight years Q.46 All practicing lawyers have LLB degree. All MBBS degree holders are doctors. No doctors have LLB degree. From the above statement, which one of the options can be logically deduced? (A) Every individual is either a practicing lawyer or does not have a MBBS degree (B) Every individual is either not a practicing lawyer or does no have a MBBS degree (C) Every individual is either not a practicing lawyer or has a MBBS degree (D) Every individual is either a practicing lawyer or has a MBBS degree Q.47. A family comprises seven members namely M, N, 0, P, Q, R, and S. Among them four are adults and three are children. Of the three children, only R and S are girls. M and P are brothers and M is a pilot. Q is an airhostess married to one of the brothers and has two children. N is married to P and S is their child. Who is O? (A) M’s son (B) R’s father (C) Q’s daughter (D) P’s son Q.48. If C $ D means C is the brother of D, C * D means C is the mother of D, and C # D means C is the sister of D, which of the following would mean ‘M is the uncle of N’? (A) M $ C # N (B) N # M $ C (C) M $ C * N (D) M # C * N Q.49. If the code for the word ‘QUESTION’ is SWGUVKQP, identify the option which gives the correct code for the word ‘RECEPTIONIST’? (A) TGEGRKVQPKUV (B) TGEGRVQKPKUV (C) TGEGRVKQPKUV (D) TGEGRVKQKPUV Q.50. The Chinese are shorter than the Italians; the Americans are taller than the French; the French are taller than the Chinese. From the information given above, which one of the following statement can be logically inferred? (A) The Italians are shorter than the Chinese (B) The French are taller than the Americans (C) The Chinese are taller than the French (D) The Americans are taller than the Chinese

Solutions for questions 45 to 50 45.

46.

47.

As Harry is younger than Latif and Mahesh, who is younger than Randeep by 5 years. So the minimum difference between Harry and Randeep is 6years. Hence the answer option is (C). All the other options are inconclusive. Here lawyers are a subset of LLB, and MBBS is a subset of doctors. However doctors and LLB are disjoint sets. Hence if an individual is a part of one he cannot be a part of the other. Hence the answer option is (D). The family diagram according to the data given is as given below:

Adults Childs

N +P S(Girl)

Brothers

M+Q

O (Boy)

RGirl)

Note: “+” between two members represents they are married. From the figure we can say that, O is M’s son. Hence the correct option is (A)

48.

Go with the answer options. Hence the answer option is (C).

49.

Each letter in the word is represented by the 2nd letter on the right as per the English alphabets. Hence the answer option is (C).

50.

According to the data given the Americans are taller than the French and the French are taller than the Chinese So, the Americans are taller than the Chinese. Hence the answer option is (D).

Directions for Questions 51 and 52: Read the given passage and answer the questions: Nine shops in a multiplex are connected by corridors. Anyone visiting these shops must begin at the reception which is part of shop number 1. From there, the other shops may be visited via different corridors connecting them. The details of the corridors connecting various shops are as under: (i) Corridors connect the reception to shops, 2, 3 and 6. (ii) A corridor connects the reception to shop 2 and then to shop 4. (iii) Corridors connect shops 2 and 3 to shop 7. (iv) Shop 6 is connected to shops 3, 5, and 9. (v) Shop 7 is connected to shop 9. (vi) Shops 7 and 9 are connected to shop 8. Q.51. Without visiting any shop more than once, what is the MAXIMUM number of shops a person can visit? (A)5 (B)6 (C) 7 (D)8 Q.52. If a visitor wants to travel to shops 4 and 5, which one of the following must be FALSE? (A) The visitor will go to every shop except shop 3 (B) The visitor will go to shop 2 only once (C) The visitor will not visit any shop more than once (D) The visitor will visit at least six different shops. Solution for the question 51 and 52: The data given can be represented as follows

8 3 4

2

1

7

9 6

5

51.

Observing the diagram we can say that the maximum number of shops a person can visit without visiting any shop more than once is 8. Hence the answer option is (D).

52.

Observing the diagram we can say that the statement (C) must be false. Hence the answer option is (C).

Directions for Questions 53 - 55: Read the given passage and answer the questions: Six products, namely U, V, W, X, Y, and Z are to be placed in the display windows of a shop. There are six display windows numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 from left to right in such a way that one product is showcased in one window only. However, U cannot be placed adjacent to V. W must be immediately to the left of X and Z cannot be in window number 6. Note: The direction (left or right) should be determined with respect to the observer/shopper Q.53. Which of the following products CANNOT be placed in window number 1? (A)U (B) V (C) W (D) X Q.54. If X is placed in window number 3, in which window can W be placed? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C)4

(D)5

Q.55. If U is placed in window number 5, which of the following products must be placed in window number 6? (A)V (B)W (C) Y (D)X Solution for the question 53-55: 53.

As in any of the arrangement W must seat left to X so, X can not be placed in window number 1. Hence the answer option is (D).

54.

If X is placed in window number 3 and W has to be immediately left to X. So W must be placed in shop number 2. Hence the answer option is (B).

55.

If U is placed in window number 5, none of the W or X can be placed in window 6 because they must be placed next to each other and also V can not be placed adjacent to U. Hence the answer option is (C).

Directions for Questions 56 - 59: Answer Questions 56 - 59 based upon the following passage. Any additional information provided with a particular question pertains to that individual question only. The placement office of a management school has to schedule seven companies denoted by P to V for the placement week (the week starts on a Sunday) but not necessarily in that order. This group of seven companies is divided into three categories, namely, finance, manufacturing and sales. The number of companies in these three categories are three, two and two respectively. The placement schedule is such that the same category companies have to be scheduled consecutively. It has also been decided that: (i) Company S, a manufacturing company, cannot be scheduled on the sixth day of the week. (ii) Companies Q and U are scheduled consecutively but not necessarily in that order. (iii) Company T can be scheduled on any day of the week except on Saturday. (iv) Company R, which is a similar category company as Q and U, has to be scheduled on the third day of the week. Q.56. The total number of schedules, the placement office can have, is (A) 36 (B) 48 (C) 56

(D) 64

Q.57. If P is scheduled on Wednesday, which of the following has to be TRUE? (A) U has to be scheduled on Thursday (B) V has to be scheduled either on Friday or Saturday (C) T has to be scheduled on either Thursday or Friday (D) S is always scheduled on some day of the week before Q is scheduled Q.58. If S is scheduled on Monday, which one of the following options is definitely FALSE? (A) P and T are sales companies (B) The maximum number of days in between the schedules of T and U is three (C) R is always scheduled before Q (D) The number of schedules when P is slotted on Sunday is three Q.59 If T is a sales company and S is scheduled on Saturday, which of the following schedules are possible? (i) U-Q-R-T-P-V-S (ii) P-T-R-U-Q-V-S (iii) T-V-R-Q-U-P-S (iv) Q-U-R-P-V-T-S (A) (i)-(iii)-(iv) (B) (ii)-(iii)-(iv) (C) (i)-(ii)-(iv) (D) (i)-(ii)-(iii)

Solution for the question 56-59: Information we are having from the question:Q, U and R are from finance companies Now 1st day is Sunday and 7th would be Saturday S is a manufacturing company R scheduled on 3rd day of the week S can' t scheduled on 6th day of the week T can be scheduled on any day of the week except Saturday 56.

1(sun)2 3 4 5 6(×S) 7(sat)(×T) Q/U U/Q R R Q/U U/Q th a) If S is on 7 position then possible arrangements are 1(sun)2 3 4 5 6(×S) 7(sat)(×T) Q/U U/Q R S P, S and T arrange among three places from 4 to 6 in 3! Ways i.e. 6 ways From here 12 ways are possible----(1) 1(sun)2

3 4 5 6(×S) 7(sat)(×T) R Q/U U/Q S P, S and T arrange among three places 1, 2 and 6 in 3! Ways i.e. 6 ways From here 12 ways are possible----(2)

In all 24 ways when S is at 7th position

i)

ii)

b) If S is not on 7th position then 1(sun)2 3 4 5 6(×S) 7(sat)(×T) Q/U U/Q R Now look for 7th position, we have assumed that S cannot be at 7th position Therefore 7th position can be filled in 2 ways either by P or V Now 6th position can be filled in 2 ways either V or P which is left and T 5th position can be filled in 2 ways and for 4th we are left with 1 only so no. of ways possible is 1×2×2×2 = 8 ways In all 16 ways possible from this arrangement considering the arrangement of 1st and 2nd position 1(sun)2

3 4 5 6(×S) 7(sat)(×T) R Q/U U/Q Now look for 7th position, we have assumed that S cannot be at 7th position Therefore 7th position can be filled in 2 ways either by P or V Now 6th position can be filled in 2 ways either V or P which is left and T Now 2nd position filled in 2 ways and 1st in one way

Therefore no. of arrangements possible are 1×2×2×2 = 8 ways In all 16 ways are possible from this arrangement considering arrangements of U and Q in 4th and 5th position. In all therefore 24 + 16 + 16 = 56 ways are possible Hence the answer option is (C). 57.

if P is scheduled on Wednesday and R is on third day of the week then possible arrangements are 1(sun) 2(mon) 3 4 5 6 7(sat) a) Q/U U/Q R P S T V b) Q/U

U/Q

R

P

T/V

V/T

S

Now look at the answer options. The condition which has to be true is T has to be scheduled on either Thursday or Friday. Hence the answer option is (C). 58.

If S is scheduled on Monday then arrangements possible are 1(sun)2 3 4 5 6(×S) 7(sat)( ×T) P/V S R Q/U U/Q T V/P T S R Q/U U/Q P/V V/P Now look at the answer options to be definitely false a) P and T can be sales company when V and S are manufacturing company and Q, U and are finance companies so it is not false b) Maximum number of days in between schedules of T and U is 3 also possible when U is at 5th day and T is at 1st day so this case also not definitely false c) R is always scheduled before is definitely true arrangements can be either RUQ or RQU

d) The statement ‘Number of schedules when P is slotted on Sunday is 3’ is false as only 2 cases are possible. Possible arrangements are 1(sun)2 3 4 5 6(×S) 7(sat)( ×T) P S R Q/U U/Q T V i.e. 2 only Hence the answer option is (D). 59.

Look at the option number (iv) T is a sales company and S is a manufacturing company it cannot be together as same category company ha to be scheduled consecutively so except (iv) all the combinations are possible . Hence the answer option is (D).

Q.60 Not only do major diseases afflict the elderly in particular-of which there are more -they are generally very expensive diseases to treat. Which one of the following options, if true, MOST STRENGTHENS this statement? (A) Studies reveal that 60% of elderly people suffer from cataract (B) A dentist’s major income comes from fixing artificial teeth for elderly patients (C) Insurance companies do not cover Parkinson’s disease because of the expenses involved (D) Private nursing homes have reported that cancer accounts for 50% of prolonged hospitalization of the elderly

Q.61. Ram, Qadir, Sorabji, Charles and Gurdeep all roll the same unbiased dice one after the other and note down their respective numbers. Ram gets an even number; Qadir gets a number greater than that of Gurdeep; Sorabji gets the same number as Charles and the addition of Charles’ and Ram’s numbers is odd. If Qadir’s number is 4, what is the maximum of the addition of the numbers obtained by all five? (A) 22 (B) 23 (C) 25 (D) 27 Solution for the question 60: It discusses Parkinson’s disease which is something that afflicts the elderly. It also mentions that there are major expenses involved. Hence it strengthens the argument in the statement. Hence the correct answer option is (C). Solution for the question 61: To have the total sum to be maximum in such a way that no one statement should contradict, Ram Should get 6, both of the Sorabji and Charles get 5, Quadir gets 4 and Gurudeep gets 3. Hence the total sum must be 23. Hence the answer option is (B).

Directions for Questions 62- 65: Answer Questions 62 -65 based upon the following passage. U, V, X, Y and Z collected CDs of yesteryears’ melodious songs. They collected a total of 100 CDs. None of them have collected less than 10 CDs. No two among them collected the same number of CDs. Also, (i) U collected the same number of CDs as V and X put together. (ii) X collected 3 more CDs than the cube of an integer. (iii) The number of CDs collected by U was the square of an integer. (iv) The number of CDs collected by V was either the square or the cube of an integer. (v) The number of CDs collected by Y and Z are in the ratio 4:3. Q.62. What was the number of CDs collected by U? (A) 19 (B) 36

(C) 52

(D) 64

Q.63. What was the number of CDs collected by V? (A) 16 (B) 25

(C) 46

(D) 64

Q.64. What was the difference in the number of CDs collected by X and Y? (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 9

(D) 11

Q.65. How many of the individual collection(s) of CDs was / were prime numbers? (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 Solution for the question 62-65: We have U + V + X + Y + Z = 100 and U, V, W, X, Z 10 U = V + X and 3Y = 4Z Now, X = 8 + 3 = 11 or X = 27 + 3 = 30 and U = 16, 25, 36, 49 and V = 16, 25, 27, 36 Now observing the values of U, V and X We can easily say that X(11) + V(25) = U(36) So, X = 11, V = 25 and U = 36 Now, Y + Z = 100 – (U + V + X) = 100 – (11 + 36 +25) = 28. Now put Y = 4/3 Z in the above equation we will get Z = 12 and then Y = 16. 62.

The answer option is (B).

63. The answer option is (B).

64.

The answer option is (A).

65. The answer option is (B).

Directions for Questions 66 - 68: Read the following information and answer the questions. Any additional information provided with a particular question pertains to that individual question only. The production, marketing, human resource, finance, and management information system managers of a particular company meet for a round table meeting to discuss the strategy of the company. Out of the five, three are men and the other two are women. The following restrictions apply to their seating arrangement (i) The two women will not be seated next to each other. (ii) The production manager, a man, will always be seated as far as possible from the marketing manager. (iii) The finance manager will always be seated next to a woman. Q.66. If the human resource manager is a man, which of the following is definitely NOT true? (A) The marketing manager is sitting in between the two women (B) The marketing manager is sitting in between two men (C) The finance manager is a man (D) The marketing manager is a woman Q.67. If the finance manager always has a woman to his right, in how many different arrangements can the marketing manager be a woman? (A) 2 (B)3 (C) 4 (D) 5 Q.68. If the management information system manager is sitting just to the right of the production manager, which of the following statement(s) is/are definitely TRUE? (i) The marketing manager and the finance manager sit next to each other five times. (ii) The human resource manager has to be a woman. (iii) The management information system manager has to be a man. (A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iii)

Solution for the questions 66 to 68: Five categories managers are : 1) Production (P) 2) Marketing (MK) 3) Human (H) 4) Finance (Fin) 5) Management information system(MIS) Number of men – 3

Number of women - 2

Fin manager will always sit next to woman hence it is a man. Production manager is a man. 66.

If H is a man: Male- H, Fin, P Female- MK, MIS As marketing manager itself a woman so it cannot sit between the two women. Statement in option (a) is definitely not true Hence the answer option is (A).

67. Case 1

1P

5

2 (X fin)

Case I 4(MK)

3(MK)

When finance manager is at the 5th position and 4th is occupied by marketing manager which is female because it is at the right of finance manager. Therefore, 2nd is occupied by female and 3rd is occupied by male. So this is 2nd way. Case 4 1 P(male)

Look at the above figure finance cannot be at the second position as he always has a woman to his right whereas P i.e. production manager is a man Case 2

5(Fin,male)

Case IV

2 (female)

1 P(male) 4(female)

5(female)

2 (male)

Case II

4(Fin, male)

3(MK, female)

Consider Finance manager is at 4th position now marketing should be at the 3rd position because production manager should be seated as far as possible from the marketing manager. Now marketing is female as it is at the right of finance manager. So 2nd position occupied by male as females cannot sit together. So 5th position occupied by female. So this is one way. Case 3

1 P(male)

5(Fin,male)

4(MK,female)

Case III

2 (female)

3(male)

3(MK)

N ot possible

Case 5 1 P(male)

5(female/male) )

2 (female)

Case V

4(MK, male/female)

3(Fin, male)

When Finance manager is at the third position 2nd is occupied by female Now 4th position is occupied by marketing manager but it can be male/female. But we can take 1 case from here in which marketing manager is female in that case 5th position is occupied by male. So this is the 3rd arrangement. In all 3 arrangements are possible which is satisfying the given condition.

Hence the answer option is (B).

68.

Here we can solve by negating the answer option

1 P(male) 5(MIS,female) 2 (H,female)

4(MK, male)

3(Fin, male)

If MIS is female and MK is at the 4th position then 3rd position can be occupied by Finance manager who is male and 2nd is occupied by human resource manager who can be female. So the condition 3 1 P(male) 5(MIS,female) 2 (H, male)

4(Fin, male)

3(MK, female )

negated that MIS has to be man. Now let us see another case when human resource manager is male so 2nd option also negated that human resource manager has to be woman. There fore the answer is (i) only. Hence the answer option is (A).

Q.69. Starting from his office, Fernandez drives his car towards the North for 40 km. He then takes a right turn and travels for 30 km to reach ‘VXL Petrol Pump’ from there, he again drives North-West for a distance of 50 km, before traveling North for another 40 km. Finally he turns and travels towards South-West for 50 km and stops. What is his direction now with respect to the starting point? (A) South-West (B) North-East (C) North-West (D) South-East Solution for the question 69: His direction with respect to the starting point is North-West. Hence the answer option is (C). Finishing point

Starting point

Q.70. A group comprising five persons namely M, N, O, P, and Q includes one professor of civil engineering and one of mechanical engineering. In the group, M and P are unmarried women. No woman is either a chemical or a mechanical or a civil engineer. There is just one married couple in the group with Q as the husband. N is the brother of O and is neither a chemical engineer nor a mechanical engineer. What is the profession of Q? (A) Civil Engineer (B) Chemical Engineer (C) Mechanical Engineer (D) Cannot be determined Solution for the question 70: M, N, O, P, Q 1 professor civil, 1 professor mechanical engineering No women is either mechanical, chemical or civil engineering 1 married couple in which Q is husband and thus male M and P are unmarried women N is the brother of O thus male and is neither a chemical or mechanical engineer Conclusion:M (female, unmarried) N (male) O P (female, unmarried) Q (male, married) So only O is left should be wife of Q because 1 married couple is amongst them Also N is civil engineer. Therefore Q is mechanical engineer.

Hence the answer option is (C).

Directions for Questions 71-72: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions. (i) In a newly constructed municipality market in Nagpur, six shops on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to U, V, W, X, Y and Z, not necessarily in that order. The number of shops on both the rows are equal in number. (ii) V gets a North-facing shop and is not next to X. (iii) X and Z get diagonally opposite shops. (iv) W which is next to Z gets a South-facing shop and Y gets a North-facing shop. Q.71. Whose shop is between V and X? (A) Z (B) Y

(C) W

(D) U

Q.72. The shops of which of the other pairs, apart from X and Z are diagonally opposite to each other? (A) U and Y (B) V and U (C) V and W (D) Y and X

Solution for the questions 71 and 72: 6 shops U, V, W, X, Y and Z are arranged in 2 rows such that number of shops on both rows are equal in number it is given that 1) V is north facing shop not next to X 2) X and Z get diagonally opposite shops 3) W next to Z get south facing shop & Y get a North facing shop North facing shop- X, Y V South facing shop – W, Z, U Possible arrangements are: 1.

2. 3. 4.

Z

W

_ ↓ (south facing shop)

_

_

_ _ _ _ W _

W _ Z _ Z _

_ ↑ (north facing shop) Z _ W _ _ _

W X

_ _

Also Z is diagonally opposite to X Let us see in the 1st case Z _

If X is in the middle then V can be either left or right of X as it is a North facing shop but V is not next to X so this case not possible Similarly, is the second case Now in third case two cases are possible _ X

Z _

W _

_ _

Z _

W X

U X

Z Y

W V

U V

Z Y

W X

Z _

_ _

W X

Z _

_ _

W _

Z _

_ X

Z Y

U V

Or,

After filling rest of the shops we get

Or,

Now let us see the fourth case W _ Again two arrangements are possible

Or,

On filling all the shops we get W X

Or, W V

Z Y

U X

Therefore, final 4 arrangements are possible. They are

U X

Z Y

W V

U V

Z Y

U X

W X

Z Y

U V

W V

Z Y

U X

Or,

Or,

Or,

71.

Shop between V and X is Y. Hence the answer option is (B).

72.

Shops other than X and Z are diagonally opposite to each other are U and Y. Hence the answer option is (A).

Directions for Questions 73 - 74: Each question contains six statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related. Q.73. (i) Reena and Meena are sisters (ii) Sisters are ofien known to quarrel (iii) Reena and Meena do not quarrel (iv) All those who quarrel are sisters (v) Reena and Meena quarrel often (vi) Reena and Meena cannot be sisters (A) (ii)-(iv)-(v) (B) (i)-(iv)-(vi)

(C) (iii)-(iv)-(v)

(D) (i)-(ii)-(v)

Q.74. (i) All crows are birds (ii) All birds are not crows (iii) All birds are warm blooded (iv) All crows lay eggs (v) All birds lay eggs (vi) Crows are warm blooded (A) (i)-(iv)-(v) (B) (ii)-(v)-(iv)

(C) (i)-(ii)-(v)

(D) (i)-(ii)-(vi)

Solutions for Q. 73-74: 73.

Statement I is a UA, and statement ii is a PA, which should conclude in a UA or a PA. Statement vi is a PA. Hence that is the answer. Also, Reena and Meena are a sub set of sisters, and sisters and people who quarrel are intersecting sets. Hence it is possible that the set of Reena and Meena intersect with people who quarrel. Hence the answer option is (D).

74.

The answer is (D). Crows are a subset of birds, and birds are a subset of warm blooded. Hence crows are a subset of warm blooded.

Directions for Questions 75 - 76: The statements in questions 75 - 76, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Select the most logical order of the sentences in each case. Q.75. (i) This is in large part due to the dominance of a view within the leadership literature, popular management theory and the media that there is something special about leadership; (ii) Leadership as a phenomenon, we are often told, transcends the everyday, the mundane and the ordinary; (iii) Yet few studies have ventured into the everyday doing of leadership-particularly within an educational setting; (iv) The need to conduct more detailed studies of leadership-in-practice has long been recognized in both leadership studies and educational research; (A) (iv)-(i)-(ii)-(iii) (B) (iv)-(iii)-(i)-(ii) (C) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i) (D) (ii)-(iv)-(iii)-(i) Q.76. (i) Studies of successful marriages indicate that periods of fighting and turmoil require a lot of love and passion as compensation for subversive episodes; (ii) Closely related is solid evidence that marital satisfaction is positively related to reliance on constructive problem solving strategies, mainly negotiation and compromise; (iii) A solid and substantial sense of connection with other people requires a healthy balance between positive and negative feelings; (iv) In effect, more positive than negative energy is required to sustain intimate relations over time; (A) (iii)-(i)-(ii)-(iv) (B) (iii)-(ii)-(iv)-(i) (C) (ii)-(i)-(iv)-(iii) (D) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i)

Solution for the question 75-76: 75.

Statement iv says that there is a need to conduct detailed studies of leader-in practice, and statement iii says “yet few studies have ventured into everyday doing of leadership…”. Hence it’s obvious that statement iii has to be preceded by iv. Only options (B) and (D) give us this combination. However one cannot begin the passage with statement iv, and ii is a more logical beginning, which is offered by option (D). Hence the answer option is (D).

76.

Statement iii is the most logical way to begin the passage, which is possible in option (A) and (B). However iii cannot be followed by ii, but i is a logical continuation. Hence the answer is (A).

Directions for Questions 77-78: Each of the problems in this section contains a question and two statements which are labeled as (1) and (2). Use the information provided in statement (1) and (2) and the corresponding question to decide whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question. For each problem, determine which of the following is the CORRECT alternative: Q.77. Can we find out the value of the eleventh number in a set of eleven numbers, if (1) the average of the first ten numbers in the set is given (2) the average of all the eleven numbers is given (A) (1) and (2) together are not sufficient (B) (1) and (2) taken together are sufficient, but neither (1) alone, nor (2) alone is sufficient (C) (1) alone is sufficient, but (2) alone is not sufficient (D) (2) alone is sufficient, but (1) alone is not sufficient Q.78. Can we find the relative speed of two trains with respect to each other, if (1) the speed of the first train is 120% more than the speed of the second train (2) the speed of the second train is 80 km/hr (A) (1) and (2) together are not sufficient (B) (1) and (2) taken together are sufficient, but neither (1) alone, nor (2) alone is sufficient (C) (1) alone is sufficient, but (2) alone is not sufficient (D) (2) alone is sufficient, but (1) alone is not sufficient Solution for the question 77-78: 77.

From 1st alone:

x1 + x 2 + x3 + ........x10 = a(say ) . Value of the 11th number is indeterminable. 10

from 2nd alone:

x1 + x 2 + x3 + ......... + x11 = a1( say ) . Value of the 11th number is indeterminable. 11

On combining both the statements: If we subtract the equation obtained from 1st statement from 2nd statement. We get x11 = 11a1- 10 a So 1 and 2 together are sufficient. Hence the answer option is (B). 78.

From 1st statement alone speed of second train = x and speed of first train = 1.2x No information regarding direction and exact values given so insufficient alone from 2nd statement alone no information regarding speed of first train and direction given On combining two statements Also we wont be able to find as direction is not given

So, both the statements together are insufficient. Hence the answer option is (A).

Q.79 In a meeting of board of directors of a company ridden with financial crisis, one of the directors said, “I firmly believe that the only way to tide over the current financial crisis, due to heavy erosion in profit, is to bring out a new series of product versions. Such actions on the part of the company will meet the requirements of various market segments, thus raising the sales volume and profit. I challenge anyone who disagrees with my opinion to prove why this suggestion should not help the company to overcome the crisis.” The MOST EVIDENT logical flaw in the director’s statement is that (A) It fails to provide any statistical evidence in support of his contention (B) It shifts the onus of proof to those who could object to his opinion (C) It does not talk about employee dissatisfaction that might have put the company in the current financial mess (D) It works on the assumption that the only reason for erosion in profits is lack of large number of product versions Solution for the question 79: The director believes that the erosion in profits can be rectified by introducing a new series of product versions. However, nothing in his arguments suggests that the lack of product version was the cause for the sales to plummet. Only option (D) brings out this flaw. Hence the answer option is (D). Q.80. A study reveals that software firms that do not make investments in training their employees report high attrition rates and low employee productivity. Which one of the following options, if true, would MOST WEAKEN this statement? (A) Studies regarding employee turnover rates in manufacturing organizations have reported similar findings (B) Employee-friendly policies in organizations help to improve commitment levels of employees (C) A high correlation has been found between high salary levels and high employee productivity (D) Organizations regularly lose their highly trained and productive employees to their competitors Solution for the question 80: The options (A), (B), (C) are totally irrelevant to the give argument. Option (D) says that companies even lose highly trained and productive employees, hence neglecting the premise that companies lose employees if they do not train them well. Hence the answer option is (D).

SECTION 3: QUANTITATIVE ABILITY (Questions 81-120) Q.81 A textile manufacturing firm employs 50 looms. It makes fabrics for a branded company. The aggregate sales value of the output of the 50 looms is Rs. 5,00,000 and the monthly manufacturing expenses is Rs. 1,50,000. Assume that each loom contributes equally to the sales and the manufacturing expenses are evenly spread over the number of looms. Monthly establishment charges are Rs. 75,000. If one loom breaks down and remains idle for one month, the decrease in profit is (A) Rs. 13000 (B) Rs. 10000 (C) 7000 (D) Rs. 5500 Solution 81 : Monthly establishment expenses is a fixed expenses and it would occur even if any loom is not functioning. So the profit when all looms are working will be calculated as follows Profit = Sales – Expenses Profit = 5, 00, 000 – (150000 +75000) Profit = 275000 Now when 1 loom breaks down Profit

= 500000 ×

49 49 − (150000 × + 75000) 50 50

Profit = 490000 – (222000) Profit = 268000 So decrease in profit = 275000 – 268000= 7000 Hence the answer option is (C) Q.82 Two straight lines can divide a circular disk into a maximum of 4 parts. Likewise, into how many maximum parts can four straight lines divide a circular disk? (A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 1 Solution 82 : In a circle when we use first straight line to divide the circle we can divide maximum 1 segment, when we use 2nd line we can divide maximum 2 segments , when we use 3rd line we can divide maximum 3 segments and when we use 4th line we can divide maximum 4 segments. So every time the number of segments increases by 1, 2, 3 and 4 continuously, i.e. total 10 extra segments will be made. Initially there is one segment so 4 (four) straight lines can divide the circular disk in 1+10=11 parts. The diagram given is an illustrated example. Q.83 The currencies in countries X and Y are denoted by Xs. and Ys respectively. The exchange rate in 1990 was 1 Xs. = 0.6 Ys. The price level in 2006 in X and Y are 150 and 400 respectively with 1990 as a base of 100. The exchange rate in 2006, based solely on this purchasing power parity consideration, is 1 Xs. = (A) 0.225 Ys. (B) 0.625 Ys. (C) 1.6 Ys. (D) 3.6 Ys. Solution 83: Hint: The exchange rate in 2006 based one solely on this purchasing power parity consideration. It means if in 1990 the price of a commodity was 100 Xs. The same commodity is now priced 150 Xs. So the value of currencies decreased.

Now, The value of 1X in 2006 with respect to that of 1990 is 1 ×

100 2 = 150 3

The value of 1Y in 2006 with respect to that of 1990 is 0.6 × So now

100 3 = 400 20

2 3 X= Y 3 20

1 Xs. = 0.225 Ys. Hence the answer option is (A) Q.84 In a family of husband, wife and a daughter, the sum of the husband’s age, twice the wife’s age, and thrice the daughter’s age is 85; while the sum of twice the husband’s age, four times the wife’s age, and six times the daughter’s age is 170. It is also given that the sum of five times the husband’s age, ten times the wife’s age and fifteen times the daughter’s age equals 450. The number of possible solutions, in terms of the ages of the husband, wife and the daughter, to this problem is (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) infinitely many Solution 84: Let the ages of husband, wife and daughter be x, y and z respectively. Now as per question x+2y+3z = 85…(i) 2x+4y+6z = 425 …(ii) 5x+10y+15z = 450…(iii) We take equation (i) and (ii) Here a1=1,b1=2,c1= 3 and d1 = 85 And a2 = 5, b2 = 10, c3 = 15 and d2 = 450 Now

=

Here

=

,

=

=

=

≠

,

=

=

,

=

=

so the number of possible solution is 0.

Hence the answer option is (A).

1 + x1 x1 x1 x1 1 + x2 x2 x2 x2 Q.85 The determinant equals x3 x3 1 + x3 x3 x4 x4 x4 1 + x4 (A) 1+x1+x2+x3+x4

(B) x1+x2+x3+x4

(C) x1x2x3x4

(D) 1+x1x2x3x4

1 + x1 x1 x1 x1 x2 1 + x2 x2 x2 x3 x3 1 + x3 x3 x4 x4 x4 1 + x4

Solution 85 :

1 + x1 + x 2 + x3 + x 4 1 + x1 + x 2 + x3 + x 4 1 + x1 + x 2 + x3 + x 4 1 + x1 + x 2 + x3 + x 4 x2

1 + x2

x2

x2

x3 x4

x3 x4

1 + x3 x4

x3 1 + x4

1 1 1 1 x 1 + x2 x2 x2 (1 + x1 + x 2 + x3 + x 4 ) 2 x3 x3 1 + x3 x3 x4 x4 x4 1 + x4 !"

#

# $#

0 1 1 1 1 1 + x2 x2 x2 (1 + x1 + x 2 + x3 + x 4 ) 0 x3 1 + x3 x3 0 x4 x4 1 + x4

1 1 1 (1 + x1 + x 2 + x3 + x 4 ) x3 1 + x3 x3 x4 x4 1 + x4 !"

#

# $#

0 1 1 (1 + x1 + x 2 + x3 + x 4 ) 1 1 + x3 x3 0 x4 1 + x4

(1 + x1 + x 2 + x3 + x 4 )[1 × (1 + x 4 − x 4 )] (1 + x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 )

%

"

"

"

&'()

Q.86 Ms. Rao paid equated monthly installments (EMI of Rs. 25,000 each in January and February towards her home loan, whose outstanding principal amount was Rs. 10,00,000 in December. Each EMI consists of interest on outstanding loan amount for the month and part payment of the loan amount. If the interest on the loan is 12% per annum (interest is paid monthly on the diminishing outstanding loan), the total amount of interest that was paid by Ms. Rao in January and February was (A) Rs. 30,150 (B) Rs. 20,000 (C) 19,850 (D) Rs. 19,700 Solution 86 : *

+" ,

-

"

&*(

)

& ( 0

. ) ) +" ,

2" 2" 2"

& (

"

"+ "+ " "- "+ " " +" 4 "

2"

+" 4

5

-

-

%

)

"-

" &( "

1 $

3 &(

$

985000 × 12 × 1 100 × 12

6) "

/

1000000 × 12 × 1 100 × 12

PRT 100

-

"

3& (

& ( &#()

Q.87 log (log 3) + log (log 4) + + log (log 1024) equals (A) 10 (B) e (C) 1 Solution 87: "

&"

(

"

&"

(

3333)

"

(D) 0

&"

(

log 3 log 4 log 1024 + log10 + ............ + log10 log 2 log 3 log 1023

log10

log 3 log 4 log 1024 × × ......... × log 2 log 3 log 1023

log10

log10

log 1024 log 2

log10

log 210 log 2

log10

10 log 2 log 2

log10 10 %

"

"

"

&#()

Q.88 The angles of a convex hexagon in degrees are integers and in arithmetic progression. Let M denote the largest of these 6 angles. Then the maximum value that M can take is (A) 125° (B) 150° (C) 175° (D) 179° Solution 88 : 7 °1 " " ++ " ° ) 2

& 8

&

+& − ( ( + &8 − ( (

& ×

9

( &

(

:

"

-

"+

°;

4"

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6-

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+

-

"+

-

++

-

"+

"%

"

"

& ) " &#()

6-

"+ )

"

"

"+ "

" "

)( °)

Q.89 The smallest positive value of x for which the fractions x + 2 x + 13 x + 26 x + 41 x + 1913 x + 2002 , , , ,… , 10 11 12 13 49 50

(A) 47

, are in their simplest form is

(B) 49

Solution 89: 0+

- :

0+

- :

0+

- :

5+"

-

(C 51

:+

+

:+ 8

+

:+

+

: "

)%

(D) 53

"+ " "

+ &#()

"

+

"

Q.90 Two barrels contain a mixture of ethanol and gasoline. The content of ethanol is 60% in the first barrel and 30% in the second barrel. In what ratio must the mixtures from the first and the second barrels be taken to form a mixture containing 50% ethanol? (A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) 2:3 (D) 3:2 Solution 90: 7 " "+ 6"+ + " :< 5 '

" = 8

<

< 2" %

"

"-

< "

"

&5(

Q.91 If the price of sugar is raised by 25%, by how much should a household reduce its consumption of sugar so as not to increase expenditure on sugar? (A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 30% (D) 35% Solution 91: 7 "+ ) /> ) " " :> ) 2" !" 7

"

: "

-

" "

"+ -

) ) .

:) . "+

x 1− 1−

y 100

: 4 5

y 100

%

"

"

&'(

Q. 92 The age of Mr. Chetan in 2002 was (A) 30

1 90

his birth year. What is his age in 2006?

(B) 28

Solution 92: 7

(C) 26

"+ ? ) # 6-

"

x+

(D) 22

:

x = 2002 90

: 2" %

8

"+ ? ) # " " &#(

8$

8

)

Q.93 x2 - 2x + y2 - 4y + 5 = 0 on the xy -plane represents (A) a point (B) a circle (C) an ellipse Solution 93: 6:

: %

"

6" "+ +

"

6"

"

) 5"

" - "+

" "

(D) a hyperbola

"+

"

"

"

)

+" " "

6-

" "+ "

)

&'()

Questions 94 and 95 are based on the following: The cost of fuel for running the engine of an army tank is proportional to the square of the speed and Rs. 64 per hour for a speed of 16 kmph. Other costs amount to Rs. 400 per hour. The tank has to make a journey of 400 km at a constant speed. Q.94 The most economical speed for this journey is (A) 20 kmph (B) 30 kmph

(C) 35 kmph

(D) 40 kmph

Q.95 The total cost for the journey at this most economical speed is (A) Rs. 6000 (B) Rs. 8000 (C) Rs. 10000

(D) Rs. 11000

Solution 94 and 95: 4

+ 8 & 8(

"

" "

"

#"

"+ +-

=

"+ +-

/ "+ 6-

"+

)

6-

"+

2"

"

&(

>

& ( & ( & ( !"

> > >

"+ +-

"-

+" "

1 (20) 2 = 100 4

8) >

"

"

+"

@"-

":

(

"-

&"

"

(

400 &'( (100 + 400) = 10000 20

&5(

400 (225 + 400) = 8333 &' 30

&#(

400 (306.25 + 400) = 8071 &' 35

&A(

400 (400 + 400) = 8000 40

% % &

" "

(4" ) )B %

"

" " " "

":

(

+"

" + ) ) " " &5(

>

@"-

>

&A( "

"

+"

@"-

"

" "

Question 96 and 97 are based on the following: A bucket is in the shape of an inverted truncated right-circular cone with a base radius of 20 cm and height 35 cm. The base angles, of a vertical cross section through the centre of the base, are 135° each. It contains water whose height is 10 cm. A solid iron ball of radius 53 74 cm is dropped into the bucket. Q.96 The amount of water in the bucket (in cc) is (A) 7000

π

(B) 8000

3

π

(C) 19000

3

π

(D) 27000

3

π 3

Q.97 After the ball is dropped into the bucket, the height of the water in the bucket becomes (A) 35cm (B) 30 cm (C) 25 cm (D) 20 cm

Solution 96 and 97: & 8(

C A4 1 4% 1 4C ) 0 A4C= ∠=A4 1 ∠A4C ∠4C= 9C4⊥A41 A4 DD =C; 2" ∠C=A ∠4AE 0 ∆4AE

H

C

T

U X D

135° F

4E

2

)

9

1

;

V

G

4E 4E = A4

4E

B

E

W A

0 ∆C=E + =C

CE = =C =C

=C 2" "

) "-

"+

- >

1 [(30) 2 30 − ( 20) 2 20] 3

π

(27000 − 8000)

π

% &

(

"

4

"

&#(

"+

"-

"+

F" -

"+

&2

(

4 G 3

F" -

"+

&2

(

4 G& 3

)

F" -

"+

&2

(

4 G& 3

× 74)

F" -

"+

&2

(

37000 G 3

2" " F" -

""+ "

G&

"+

" - CH

(

8

F" -

F "+

E 5

G

G

"

"+ 8

G& (

8

G& (

"

-

F

E

G G

8 2" 4 4 4 %

E E $ 4E $ " " "-

- >

"

-

" -

&A() "

"

" "+

"+ )

"

"

-

"-

" )

Q.98 The function f(x) = mx + sin x will have an inverse if and only if (A) - 1≤ m ≤ 1 (B) m < -1 (C) m > 1

(D) |m| > 1

"+ "+

Q.99 P and Q start running in opposite directions (towards each other) on a circular track starting at diametrically opposite points. They first meet after P has run for 75 meters and then they next meet after Q has run 100 meters after their first meeting. Assume that both of them are running at a constant speed. The length of the track (in meters) is) (A) 70 (B) 175 (C) 250 (D) 350 Solution 99 : 7 " "+ > ) 0 H !" H & $

* * -

I "+ +" 1I - & $ : I " & J ( * " ( & J (

) ( "

" &

J

"+ "

(

> ) )

)

$ 2" %

"

"

&#()

Q.100 For non-zero real numbers a,b and c the set of possible values the quantity (A) {0} (B) {-4, 0, 4} (C) {-4, -2, 2, 2, 4} Solution 100: H > 0+ 1 1 " 0+ " " " "+ 0+ "+ % "

-

+"

1 1 6-

"

/ 6"

"

" " > 6-

>

" ) > - J )

(D) {-4,-2, 0, 2, 4} 6-

" )

&5()

Q.101 Ramesh has two examinations on Wednesday — Engineering Mathematics in the morning and Engineering Drawing in the afternoon. He has a fixed amount of time to read the textbooks of both these subjects on Tuesday. During this time he can read 80 pages of Engineering Mathematics and 100 pages of Engineering Drawing. Alternatively, he can also read 50 pages of Engineering Mathematics and 250 pages of Engineering Drawing. Assume that the amount of time it takes to read one page of the textbook of either subject is constant. Ramesh is confident about Engineering Drawing and wants to devote full time to reading Engineering Mathematics. The number of Engineering Mathematics text book pages he can read on Tuesday is (A) 35 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 100 (D) 60 Solution 101: 7 : " " "+ E ? ) " " "+ E 2"

A " : : : :

x 150 = y 30 x 5 = y 1

" " K K :

K "

" 6-

+" "

-

)

> >

"

:

"

"

"+ E

"

A

"+ E

?

1 "+

)

K

x 5

: :

:

K

K K

:

2" %

"+ E 1 "

"

"

?

)

& ()

Q.102

1 1 1 1 1 + + + + + .... 1 3 6 10 15

(A) 2 Solution 102 : H

(B) 3

equals (D) ∞

(C) 5 -

"

+" "

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 + − − + − + − + .......... + − 1 2 2 3 3 4 n −1 n n n +1

2"

-

Sn =

2 2 − 1 n +1

Sn = '

"+

2n n +1

+"

S ∞ = Lim

n→ ∞

2L %

2n n +1

"

"

"

&'()

Q.103 A circular table is pushed to the corner of a room touching two perpendicular walls. If a point on the edge of the table facing the corner is 8 and 9 cm from the two walls then the radius of the table (in cm) is (A) 29 (B) 17 (C) 5 (D) undeterminable from above Solution 103 : 0 + 7 '5 5' : "O 0 ∆ 'OM 'M 'O OM &J ( &J ( J $ $ & 5%

1 ( '5 "

-

1 'A O ⊥ M N)

1 M' MN

&

- ( C

B

D

A

8 J 8 Z

&α1β( 'A "

− ±

−

" "

&'(

Y

O

Q.104 When 4101 + 6101 is divided by 25, the remainder is (A) 20 (B) 10 (C) 5 Solution 104 : C +

:

8×8

+ (

+

8 × &8 (

×&

(

×&

− (

× &− (

×

+

+8

"

8

×

×&

(D) 0

+

+

8 ×&

+

8(

8 ×&

+ (

8 ×& (

9Θ

;

8×

+8

%

Q.105 If

"

"

"

1 1 1 1 + + + =0, x z x− y z− y

&5(

which of the following statements is TRUE? y 2

(A) x, y, z are in HP or x, ,z are in AP (B) x, y, z are in AP or x,

y 2

,z are in HP

(C) x,

y 2

, z are in HP or x, y, z are in GP

(D) x,

y 2

, z are in GP or x,y,z are in AP

Solution 105 : 4

- :1 1 K 1 1 8

" " " 1 18 %*) %

6-

"

"

"

" " 6- " " &'()

"

"

1 " +

1

Q.106 Area (in sq units) bounded by the line y = x and the parabola y = x(x – 2) is (A)

19 6

(B)

Solution 106 : 4" ' : '

1 :

" " 1

:

1

9 2

(A) ""

35 6

"+

(A) "

43 6

> "

2" 2" '

"

"+

" "+ " '

"

" " $'

-

& 1 ( +" "

-

& 1 (

"

"

: − &: − :( :

'

& :−: ( :

:

−

:

−

%

"

"

"

&5()

Q.107 A filter paper of the form of a right circular cone of base radius 20 cm and altitude 40 cm is placed with its axis vertical and the vertex downwards. Water flows out at the rate of 22.5 cc. The rate at which the level of the water falls when the depth of the water is 30 cm is 1 10π

(A)

(B)

Solution 107; ' 1 π 3

F

1 100π

(C)

10 π

(D)

100 π

> " 1%

1

F1

F" -

1

-

"+

" F 2"1

1 h3 π 3 4 dV 1 3h 2 dh = π dt 3 4 dt

dh dV 4 = × dt dt πh 2 dh 22.5 × 4 1 = = dt π × 30 × 30 10π

2" %

"+ "

"

"

+

=

G

&'()

Q.108 An antenna stands in the middle of a square tower. A man on the ground, opposite the middle of the face of the tower and at a distance of 100 m from its foot, just sees the top of the antenna; on receding another 100 m, the tangents of elevation of the top of the tower and the antenna are found to be 1 and respectively. The ground being horizontal, the height of the antenna (in meters) is (neglect the height of the person for computations) (A)

1000 9

Solution 108 : C φ

(B) 25

(C) 50

(D)

550 9

θ

A

P Q

B

φ

D R C

100

θ 100 M

N

0 ∆ 5#? 5# #?

θ

5#

' 5# #? 2" ∠5?# P % ∠*5I P 2" 0 ∆ *5I *I I 5 ' # *I I 51 !" ∆* !

"

"

"-

"+ "

"+

PR 5 = tan φ = RN 9 PQ + 100 5 = PQ + 200 9

*I %

1 " 1 "

"

"+ "

) &5()

Q.109 An aeroplane flying horizontally 1 km above the ground is observed by a person on his right side at an elevation of 600. If after 10 seconds the elevation is observed to be, from the same point and in the same direction, 30°, the uniform speed per hour (in km) of the aeroplane is (neglect the height of the person for computations) (A) 360√3

(B)

720

(C) 720

3

Solution 109: 0 ∆ 'AE AE 8 ° =

AE 'E 'E

'E = 0 ∆ 'AE #5 ° =

9Θ#5DDAE; #5 '5 '5

'5 = 1000 3 !"

#A

E5

−

'5 $ 'E

#A 2"

"

&

(

=

"

×

=

>

(D) 720√3

%

"

"

&5()

Q.110 A certain sum of money is invested at an interest rate of 5% per annum and a second sum, twice as large as the first, is invested at 5.5% per annum. The total amount of interest earned from the two investments together is Rs. 1000 per year and the interest is withdrawn every year. The second sum invested is (A) Rs. 6250 (B) Rs. 10500 (C) Rs. 12500 (D) Rs. 15000 + ) =1 " " "=) Solution 110: 7 C

. ) )1 ) 6-

!" *

+

=• •

*

=

=•

•

"

=

• =

8 "

2" %

/ . ) )1

=

+

=+

) ."

=

"

""

8 "

× &#(

)

Questions 111 and 112 are based on the following: Two men are walking towards each other alongside a railway track. A freight train overtakes one of them in 20 seconds and exactly 10 minutes later meets the other man coming from the opposite direction. The train passes this man in 18 seconds. Assume the velocities are constant throughout. Q.111 How long after the train has passed the second man will the two men meet? (A) 89.7 minutes (B) 90 minutes (C) 90.3 minutes (D) cannot be determined from above Q.112 The ratio of the velocities of the first man to the second man is (A) -10: 9 (B) 9:10 (C) -9: 10 (D) undeterminable from above Solution 111 & 112 ; 7 ' '

"+ "+ "

+ −

" )

"

"

"

=

$ "

' +

1+ QR

&( "

"

=

& ( 4"

6$

" &(

& (

1

)

& ( & − +

8

!" !"

-

(

-

- "+ + +

8

&

8

× & + +

8 "

5-

(112) F - "+ 1

−

(

(

"

"

)

"

1

%

"

""

"+ "

"

"

)

"

"

)

&A(

Q:113 Laila drives to the station each day to pick up her husband Majnu, who usually arrives on a train at 6 o’clock. Last Monday, Majnu finished work earlier, caught an earlier train and arrived at the station at 5 o’clock. He started to walk home and eventually met Laila who drove him the rest of the way, getting home 20 minutes earlier than usual. On Tuesday, he again finished early and found himself at the station at 5:30. Again he began to walk home, again he met Laila on the way, and she drove him home the rest of the way. Assume constant speed throughout with no wasted time for waiting, backing of the car etc. How much earlier than the usual time were they home on Tuesday? (A) 6 minutes (B) 8 minutes (C) 10 minutes (D) 12 minutes Solution 113 : A

' 2-

#

" "

0 -

' " &H ? @ " # " " 7 ? @ "? @ - " '# ) &H ? @ -

'

"

A " R " >( - > R " #1 " "+

"

)

"

"

<

" "+ <

"

" #' +" #' '#) +" 8R " >1 ) ) "+ 7 R #

< ? @ -

(6 : 00 − 5 : 30) ×

#) " +" #

5 30 × 5 = = 25 5 +1 6

"

) 2" %

""

" &#()

"

-

Q.114 What is the digit in the units place of 10251? (A) 2 (B) 4 Solution 114: C : " & ( 4

+

"

"+

-

<

> "

( +

0

'

5

"

- -

(C) 6

)

(D) 8

)

5' '5 "

<

8

H 2" 2" %

8 "

+" -

"

"+ )

"

"

"

&A(

Q. 115 In ∆ PQR, m ∠QPR=45°, m ∠PQR=60° and PR =15 QS is a median and T is the mid-point of QS. PT extended meets QR at U. Then QU equals (A) 5 cm (B) 6 cm

(C) 7.5 cm

Q.116 The number of distinct real number x for which (A) 3 Solution 116: 0 '

8

" 1

"

-

is a positive integer is

4x − x2

(B) 4 6-

(D) 10cm

(C) 5

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(D) 8

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4x − x 2

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Q.117 The minimum attainable value of the function f(x, y) =

x 2 + 1 + ( x − y ) 2 + 4 + (12 − y ) 2 + 4

(A) 12

is

(B) 13

(C) 3 + 148

(D) 4 + 145

Q.118 In a right-angled triangle LIPQR with PQ ≠ QR , M is a point on its hypotenuse PR. L and N are feet of the perpendiculars from M on PQ and QR respectively. LN will be minimized when (A) ∆ PQM and ∆ PQR are similar (B) M is the mid-point of PR (C) m ∠ PQM = m ∠MQR = 45°

(D) PM : MR = PQ : QR

Q.119 In ∆ PQR, QR = QR and m ∠QPR=20°. S is a point on PR such that m ∠SQR = 60° and T is a point on PQ such that m∠TRQ = 50°. Then m ∠STR equals (A) 60° (B) 70° (C) 80°

(D) 90°

Q.120 The number of ordered triplets (x, y, z) such that x, y, z are primes and xy +1 = z is (A) (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) infinitely many Solution 120: 6- " : K :1 K ) " !"

K > " -

Q

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SECTION 4: DATA INTERPRETATION (Questions 121 - 150) Directions: Questions 121 -126 are based on the following bar chart of trends in sales of motorcycles in India and the table of Trends in sates for Bajaj. Trends in Motorcycle Sales, Rs. Crore 12000 10000

LML TVS Bajaj Hero Honda

8000 6000 4000 2000 0 2000-01

2001-02

2002-03

Trends in Sales (Rs. In Crores) for Bajaj Product 2000-01 Motorcycles 1277 Scooters 998 Three wheelers 880

2003-04

2001-02 1893 1037 975

2002-03 2608 750 1154

2003-04 3185 527 1443

Q.121 Which company had experienced minimum percentage growth rate in motorcycle sales from 2001-02 to 2003-04? (A) Bajaj (B) LML (C) TVS (D) Hero Honda Q.122 In which year, the percentage growth compared to the previous year in total sales for motorcycles was the maximum? (A) 2000-01 (B) 2001 -02 (C) 2002-03 (D) 2003-04 Q.123 What was the approximate ratio of growth of sales of motorcycles for Hero Honda to that of Bajaj from the year 2001-02 to 2002-03? (A) 1:2 (B) 6:7 (C) 5:4 (D) 7:6 Q.124 What was the approximate share of three wheelers in the three products manufactured by Bajaj in the year during which the company experienced maximum rise in the sales of motor cycles compared to the previous year? (A) 40% (B) 35% (C) 26% (D) 20%

Q.125 For Bajaj, in which year, the motorcycle sales overtook the combined sales of scooters and three wheelers? (A) 2001-02 (B) 2002-03 (C) 2003-04 (D) None Q.126 If motorcycle, scooter and three wheeler markets grew by 20, 0 and 40% respectively in 2004-05 compared to 2003-04 uniformly for all players, what was the approximate ratio of total sales of Hero Honda to Bajaj in 2004-05? (Assume that Hero Honda does not manufacture scooters and three wheelers) (A) 2:1 (B) 1.5: 1 (C) 1:1 (D) 1: 1.5 Solutions for 121 to 126: 121. It can be clearly observed that the minimum percentage growth rate in motor cycle sales from 2001-02 to 2003-04 is experienced by Hero Honda. Hence the correct option is (D). 122. Percentage growth compared to the previous year in total ales for motorcycles, can not be determined for year 2000-01 as no data is given about the same for year 1999-00. By observation, it can be said that the required percentage growth could be maximum in year 2001-02 or 2002-03.

7500 − 5500 = 36.36% 5500 10000 − 7500 For year 2002-03 it is, = 33.33% 7500

For year 2001-02 it is,

Hence the correct option is (B). 123. From year 2001-02 to 2002-03, Growth of sales of motorcycles for Hero Honda is approximately, 4850 - 4250 = 600 Growth of sales of motorcycles for Bajaj is approximately, 2608 - 1893 ≈ 700 The required ratio is, 6:7 Hence the correct option is (B). 124. Bajaj experienced maximum rise in the sales of motorcycles for year 2001-02 which is 48%. Hence for that year share of three wheelers in the three products manufactured by Bajaj is (975 / 3905) × 100 ≈ 25% . Hence the correct option is (C). 125. For Bajaj the motorcycle sales overtook the combined sales of scooters and three 03. Hence the correct option is (B).

wheelers in 2002-

126. Sales of Bajaj for the year 2004-05 would be = (3185 × 1.2) + 527 + (1443 × 1.4) = 6369 Sales of Hero Honda for the year 2004-05 would be = (5800 × 1.2) = 6960 Therefore approximate ratio of total sales of Hero Honda to Bajaj will be = 1:1

Hence the correct option is (C).

Directions: Questions 127 - 134 are based on the following tables and line graph about G1NP and trade for select countries: Trends in National Product and Trade for Large Countries GNP per Capita in US $ 2001 2002 1,000 1,100 24,000 23,030 460 470 35,670 33,640 34,800 35,230

Countries China Germany India Japan U.S.A.

2000 930 25,510 450 35,140 34,400

2003 1,270 25,700 540 33,860 37,780

Countries China Germany India Japan U.S.A.

Merchandise Trade as % of GNP 2000 2001 2002 2003 40 38 43 52 55 56 55 56 21 20 21 21 18 18 19 20 21 19 18 19

2004 1,500 25,500 620 37,050 41,440

2004 60 59 25 20 20

Hi-tech Exports as % of Merchandise Export 40 China

30

Germany

20

India Japan

10

U.S.A.

0 2000

2001

2002

2003

2004

Q.127 In which year did all countries show growth in terms of increase in GNP per capita compared to the previous year? (A) 2001 (B) 2002 (C) 2003 (D) 2004 Q.128 Which of the following two countries have shown consistent growth in GNP per capita during 2000 to 2004? (A) China and Germany (B) China and Japan (C) Germany and Japan (D) India and U.S.A. Q.129 What was the approximate percentage increase in GNP per capita from 2000 to 2004 for the country that achieved the maximum percentage jump in GNP per capita in any year? (A) 40 (B) 50 (C) 65 (D) 80

Q.130 What was the approximate ratio in 2004 of total GNP for India to the country with the lowest average merchandize trade as percentage of GNP, if ratio of population between the two countries in 2004 was 10:1? (A) 1:2 (B) 1:4 (C) 1:6 (D) 1:8 Q.131 If India’s GNP was about Rs. 28,00,000 crore in 2004, what was approximate value of India’s merchandize trade in US $ billion in the same year (assume US 1$ = Rs. 50)? (A) 130 (B) 140 (C) 150 (D) 160 Q.132 What was the ratio of exports to imports in merchandize trade for India in 2004, if exports were about US $ 60 billion, given that India’s GNP was about Rs. 28,00,000 crore? (Assume US 1$ = Rs. 50) (A) 1:2 (B) 3:4 (C) 5:6 (D) 1:1 Q.133 What was the approximate difference in dollar value of high-tech exports between China and India in 2004, if their exports of merchandize products were US $ 500 billion and US $ 60 billion respectively? (A) 130 (B) 137 (C) 140 (D) 145 Q.134 Which of the following is TRUE? (A) U.S.A. has consistently shown decline in the merchandise trade as percentage of GNP (B) Japan has consistently shown growth in GNP per capita (C) Germany has consistently shown growth in high-tech exports as percentage of merchandise exports (D) China has consistently shown growth in high-tech exports as % of merchandise trade and GNP per capita Solutions for 127 to 134: 127. By simple observation in the year 2003 all countries show growth in GNP per capita over previous year. Hence correct option is (C). 128. Countries China, India and USA have shown consistent growth in GNP per capita during 2004. Hence correct option is (D). 129. China achieved maximum % jump in GNP per capita in the year 2004, Hence its % GNP per capita from 2000 to 2004 is,

2000

to

increase

in

1500 − 930 × 100 = 61.3% 930

Hence correct option is (C). 130. The approximate ratio in 2004, of total GNP for India and Japan (with lowest average merchandise trade as percentage of GNP as 19) is, 620 × 10 1 = 37050 × 1 6

Hence the correct option is (C) 131. India' s GNP in 2004 is Rs. 28,00,000 Crore So merchandise trade in Rs = 28,00,000 ×

25 crore 100

= Rs. 7,00,000 crore So in 2004, India' s merchandise trade in US $ billion is, =

Rs.7,00,000 × 10 6 US$50 × 10 9

= US $ 140 billion.

Hence the correct option is (B) 132. In the previous question for the same data, we have calculated India' s total merchandise trade in US $ billion which is 140. The exports in Us $ billion were 60 hence imports must be (140 - 60) = US $ 80 billion. So the ratio of exports to imports is 60:80 = 3:4. Hence the correct option is (B) 133. In 2004, China' s merchandise products were US $ 500 billion. From line graph, High-tech exports were 30% of the merchandise product i.e.

30 × 500 = 150 (in US $ billion) 100

India' s merchandise products were US $ 60 billion. From line graph, High-tech exports were 5% of the merchandise product i.e.

5 × 60 = 3 (in US $ billion) 100

The required difference is, 150 - 3 = 147 (in US $ billion) So the approximate answer is option (D) i.e. 145. 134. By simple observation only statement (D) is correct. Hence correct option is (D).

Directions: Questions 135 - 140 are based on the following bar chart showing trends of the per capita net domestic product in some states and union territories (UTs) of India:

21,433

23,476

39,774

40,947

37,696

26,032

27,851

25,625

28,414

26,113

24,052

24,802

21,853

20,315

20000

19,803

30000

17,932 18,820 20,757

40000

29,963

50000

26,974

60000

24,851

47,680

51,341

70000

57,621

Per Capita Net Domestic Product in Rs.

10000 0 . rh na A.P iga rya Ha a nd h C

Ke

rala asht ra ha r Ma

b u rry nja na d che i Pu mi l d n a o T P

States and Union Territories 2002-03

2003-04

2004-05

Q.135 The average of values of per capita net domestic product for the states / UTs in 2002-03 lies between Rs. (A) 20,000-25,000 (B) 25,000-30,000 (C) 30,000-35,000 (D) 35,000-40,000 Q.136 For which state / UT was the per capita net domestic product farthest from the average of values of per capita net domestic product of the states / UTs in 2002-03? (A) Chandigarh (B) A.P. (C) Kerala (D) Pondicherry Q.137 Which of the following states / UTs had the highest growth rate in per capita net domestic product between 2002-03 and 2004-05? (A) Kerala (B) Haryana (C) Chandigarh (D) A.P. Q.138 The number of states / UTs with more than Rs. 2000 rise in per capita net domestic product in any year over the previous year was (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8 Q.139 Which of the states/UTs had less than half the per capita net domestic product of Chandigarh in each of the three years? (A) A.P., Kerala and Punjab (B) A.P., Kerala and Tamilnadu

(C) A.P., Kerala and Haryana

(D) A.P., Haryana and Tamilnadu

Q.140 The ratio of per capita net domestic product of a large developed (G7 member) Asian country with per capita net product of US $ 40000, to per capita net domestic product of the richest state / UT among the given eight in 2004-05 (assuming US 1$ = Rs. 40) is in the range of (A) 15-20 (B) 20-25 (C) 25-30 (D) 30-35 Solutions for 135 to 140: 135.

17932 + 47680 + 24851 + 19803 + 24052 + 25625 + 37696 + 20315 = 27244 8

Hence correct option is (B). 136. The lowest is 17932 which differs by average per capita net domestic product by 9312 and highest is 47680 which differs by average per capita net domestic product Hence correct answer is Chandigarh. Hence correct option is (A).

by

20436.

137. The required values are Kerla =

24802 − 19803 × 100 = 25.25% 19803

Haryana =

29963 − 24851 × 100 = 20.57% 24851

Chandigarh = A.P. =

57621 − 47680 × 100 = 20.85% 47680

20757 − 17932 × 100 = 15.75% 17932

Hence correct option is (A). 138. A.P. and Punjab only does not show Rs. 2000 rise per capita for any year over previous year. All other 6 states / UTs show Rs 2000 rise for at least one of the given year. Hence correct option is (B). 139. The states A.P., Kerala and Tamilnadu had less than half the per capita net Chandigarh in each of the three years. Hence correct option is (B). 140. The required ratio is

40000 × 40 = 27.77 57621

Hence correct option is (C).

domestic

product

of

Directions: Questions 141 - 146 are based on the following line graph displaying growth rates of exports of key manufacturing commodities from India:

Growth Rate of Exports

Chemicals

40 30 20 10 0 -10 -20 200

Engineering

1 0-0

02 01200

2200

03

4 3-0 200

Textiles (exc.RMG) Ready made Garments Other

5 4-0 200

Q.141 Overall export growth for all commodities was the lowest during (A) 2001-02 (B) 2002-03 (C) 2003-04

(D) 2004-05

Q.142 Which commodity reported rising growth rate of exports for two consecutive years? (A) Engineering (B) Readymade Garments (C) Textiles (D) Other Q.143 Which commodity has shown alternating (rising and falling) pattern of growth rate of exports from 2000-2001 to 2004-2005? (A) Chemicals (B) Engineering (C) Textiles (D) Other Q.144 Which commodity has shown the highest fluctuation in the growth rate of exports? (A) Engineering (B) Chemicals (C) Textiles (D) Other Q.145 Which commodities reported decline in the growth rate of exports for two consecutive years? (A) Readymade Garments and Chemicals (B) Engineering and Textiles (C) Textiles and Chemicals (D) Textiles and Readymade Garments Q.146 Which commodity has shown maximum improvement in the growth rate from 2000-2001 to 2004-2005? (A) Readymade Garments (B) Engineering (C) Textiles (D) Other

Solutions for 121 to 126: 141. In the year 2001-02 all commodities show decline in growth rate of exports. Hence correct option is (A). 142. Only Engineering reported rising growth for two consecutive years i.e. 2002-03 and 2003-04. Hence correct option is (A). 143. Observing the graph carefully the only commodity which has shown alternating pattern of growth is ‘Others’. Hence correct option is (D). 144. As we have been asked highest fluctuation it should be taken over previous year hence highest fluctuation recorded for Engineering in the year 2001-02. Hence correct option is (A). 145. By simple observation it is clear that for Textiles and Readymade Garments shown decline in growth rate for two consecutive years i.e. in the years 2003-04 and 2004-05. Hence correct option is (D). 146. The commodity which has shown maximum improvement in the growth rate from 2000-01 to 200405 is ‘Others’. Hence correct option is (D).

Directions: Questions 147 - 150 are based on the following radar chart displaying benchmarking scores on various parameters related to business excellence being pursued by a plant X of company V for tivo years (2004 and 2005). For this purpose assume that the Company V’s chart is the benchmark X is striving to achieve.

Leadership 70 60 50 40

Customer Results

People

30 20 10 0

Strategy

Processes

Partnerships X-2004

X-2005

Company y

Q. 147 On which of the two parameters there exists comparatively less gap between X-2004 and Company Y? (A) People and Leadership (B) People and Strategy (C) Strategy and Leadership (D) People and Customer Results Q.148 Beyond 2005, to achieve the Company Y benchmark X should focus on (A)Customer Results (B) People (C)Leadership (D) Partnerships Q.149 The maximum improvement achieved by X in 2005 compared to 2004 was in (A)Customer Results (B) Strategy (C)Leadership (D) Partnerships Q.150 The only parameter in which X could reach the closest to the Company Y’s benchmark in 2004 was (A)People (B) Strategy (C)Customer Results (D) Processes

Solutions for 127 to 130: 147. For parameters People and Leadership the gap between X-2004 and Company Y is 5 and 25 respectively for all other parameters the gap is more than 25. Hence correct option is (A). 148. In Partnerships the gap between X-2005 and company Y is more hence X-2005 should focus on Partnerships. Hence correct option is (D). 149. The maximum improvement by X-2005 over X-2004 was observed in Leadership. Hence correct option is (C). 150. By simple observation the answer is People. Hence correct option is (A).

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER