General And Earth Sci

1. What is a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances with all the characteristics of the substance? Correct Answer: an element 2. What particle(s) make up the nucleus of an atom? Correct Answer: protons and neutrons 3. The number of protons in an atom's nucleus is the __________. Correct Answer: atomic number 4. Electrons tend to occupy the __________ energy level. Correct Answer: lowest available 5. What determines the chemical behavior of an element? Correct Answer: the valence electrons 6. Isotopes have the same number of __________ but different number of __________. Correct Answer: "protons, neutrons" 7. What do the nucleus of some isotopes release during radioactive decay? Correct Answer: radiation 8. What makes an element stable? Correct Answer: if their outermost energy level is full 9. What makes an element stable? Correct Answer: if their outermost energy level is full 10. A __________ is composed of two or more atoms held together by covalent bonds. Correct Answer: molecule 11. Why does a water molecule have a bent shape? Correct Answer: it's a polar molecule 12. What is an ion? Correct Answer: a charged particle 13. What is an ion? Correct Answer: a charged particle 14. What is the attractive force between two particles of opposite charge called? Correct Answer: an ionic bond 15. What characteristic of a metal allows it to conduct electricity? Correct Answer: it's metallic bond 16. Bases produce __________ in solution. Correct Answer: hydroxide ions 17. : What is a solid that has particles arranged in regular geometric patterns? Correct Answer: a crystalline structure 18. The change of state from a solid to a gas is called __________. Correct Answer: sublimation 19. "When a gas cools, it __________ thermal energy in the process of __________." Correct Answer: "releases, condensation" 20. "A __________ is a solid that has randomly ordered, densely packed atoms." Correct Answer: glass 21. Which specialized area of Earth science is about objects beyond Earth's atmosphere? Correct Answer: astronomy 22. Which of the following is not a specialized area of Earth science. Correct Answer: biology

23. What is the study of Earth materials and processes called? Correct Answer: geology 24. What type of scientist studies ocean currents and ocean chemistry? Correct Answer: an oceanographer 25. A __________ studies groundwater and surface water. Correct Answer: hydrologist 26. What is the partially molten layer of Earth called? Correct Answer: the asthenosphere 27. What is the general composition of Earth's continental crust? Correct Answer: granite 28. : What part of Earth is thought to be composed of iron and nickel? Correct Answer: the core 29. The __________ includes organisms living on Earth and their environments. Correct Answer: biosphere 30. What is technology? Correct Answer: Technology is the application of scientific discoveries. 31. What is a hypothesis? Correct Answer: A hypothesis is a suggested explanation of an observation. 32. The __________ is the part of an experiment that is changed by the person doing the experiment. Correct Answer: independent variable 33. What part of an experiment is used to show that results are due to the condition being tested? Correct Answer: the control 34. Graphs and charts of data can be used for __________. Correct Answer: data analysis 35. What is the standard SI unit for measuring length? Correct Answer: a meter 36. What is the standard SI unit of weight? Correct Answer: a Newton 37. Which temperature scale is the standard in SI? Correct Answer: Kelvin scale 38. A __________ is a simplified version of a system. Correct Answer: model 39. What explains the behavior of natural phenomena? Correct Answer: scientific laws 40. What is an example of an SI unit of area? Correct Answer: m2 41. The equator circles Earth __________. Correct Answer: halfway between the north and south poles 42. The north pole is __________ latitude. Correct Answer: 90 º N 43. How are places on Earth located in an east or west direction? Correct Answer: lines of longitude 44. : What is 0 º longitude called? Correct Answer: the prime meridian

45. : What is the distance of 1[degree] longitude? Correct Answer: it changes from 111 km to a point 46. How many time zones are on Earth? Correct Answer: 24 47. How many time zones are in the United States? Correct Answer: 6 48. If you travel west across the International Date Line you would move your calendar __________. Correct Answer: forward one day 49. A __________ projection has parallel lines of longitude and latitude. Correct Answer: Mercator 50. What type of projection is best for mapping small areas or weather maps? Correct Answer: conic projection 51. A __________ projection is made by projecting points and lines from a globe onto a piece of paper that touches the globe at one point. Correct Answer: gnomonic 52. What type of map shows the elevation of Earth's surface? Correct Answer: topographic map 53. What is a contour line? Correct Answer: a lines that connect points of equal elevation 54. A __________ explains what the symbols of a map represent. Correct Answer: legend 55. 1:24 000 is an example of a __________. Correct Answer: fractional scale 56. The process of collecting data far above Earth's surface is called __________. Correct Answer: remote sensing 57. What is the electromagnetic spectrum? Correct Answer: the arrangement of electromagnetic radiation 58. How does a Landsat satellite differentiate between objects on Earth's surface? Correct Answer: "Features on Earth radiate warmth at different frequencies, which show up as different colors on Landsat images." 59. What does GPS stand for? Correct Answer: Global Positioning System 60. How many satellites are in the GPS? Correct Answer: 24 61. What is the name of Alfred Wegener's hypothesis about moving landmasses? Correct Answer: continental drift 62. The supercontinent from Wegener's theory of continental drift is called __________. Correct Answer: Pangaea 63. Why did Wegener think that the Antarctic continent had been closer to the equator in the geologic past? Correct Answer: existence of coal beds 64. What was one reason that Wegener's hypothesis of continental drift was rejected? Correct Answer: He could not explain what was moving the continents. 65. What type of technology do scientists use to map the topography of the ocean floor? Correct Answer: sonar

66. A __________ is a device that can detect changes in the strength of the magnetic field. Correct Answer: magnetometer 67. What two topographic features of the ocean floor were discovered only with the use of sonar? Correct Answer: mid-ocean ridges and deep-sea trenches 68. Rocks close to mid-ocean ridges are __________ rocks far from mid-ocean ridges. Correct Answer: younger than 69. The thickness of ocean sediments that are close to a mid-ocean ridge is __________ the thickness of ocean sediments that are far from mid-ocean ridges. Correct Answer: less than 70. What is the study of Earth's magnetic record? Correct Answer: paleomagnetism 71. What is the polarity of a magnetic field that has the same polarity as the present magnetic field? Correct Answer: a normal polarity 72. Harry Hess' theory of __________ explained how ocean crust is generated and destroyed. Correct Answer: seafloor spreading 73. What causes the seafloor to spread? Correct Answer: rising molten magma 74. The __________ states that Earth's crust and ridged upper mantle are broken into plates that move at different rates and in different directions. Correct Answer: theory of plate tectonics 75. Where do tectonic plates interact? Correct Answer: at plate boundaries 76. : "When a divergent plate boundary forms on continents, a __________ forms." Correct Answer: rift valley 77. What is the process called when one plate is forced beneath another at a convergent plate boundary? Correct Answer: subduction 78. What is thought to be the driving mechanism of plate movement? Correct Answer: convection currents in the mantle 79. How are the convection currents set in motion? Correct Answer: slab push and ridge pull 80. A place where two plates slide laterally past each other is called a __________. Correct Answer: transform boundary 81. Which is not a characteristic of a mineral? Correct Answer: organic solid 82. What is the correct atomic composition of quartz? Correct Answer: two oxygen atoms and one silica atom 83. A __________ is a solid in which the atoms are arranged in repeating patterns. Correct Answer: crystal 84. What is the molten material under Earth's crust called? Correct Answer: magma 85. "When magma cools quickly __________ crystals form, and when it cools slowly, __________ crystals form." Correct Answer: "small, large"

86. How do crystals of salt form? Correct Answer: from solution 87. What are the common minerals called? Correct Answer: rock-forming minerals 88. What is the most abundant element in Earth's crust? Correct Answer: oxygen 89. Which of the following is an arrangement of silica tetrahedra? Correct Answer: sheet 90. What mineral group does gold belong to? Correct Answer: native elements 91. What is an example of an oxide? Correct Answer: magnetite 92. : What describes the way a mineral feels? Correct Answer: texture 93. What is caused by the presence of trace elements in a mineral? Correct Answer: color 94. A mineral's __________ is the color when it is powdered. Correct Answer: streak 95. __________ is the measure of how easily a mineral can be scratched. Correct Answer: Hardness 96. What is the numerical value for the hardest mineral on Mohs' hardness scale? Correct Answer: 10 97. "If a mineral breaks along distinct planes, it is said to have __________." Correct Answer: cleavage 98. What happens to calcium carbonate when it is exposed to hydrochloric acid? Correct Answer: It fizzes 99. What makes a mineral a gem? Correct Answer: its rarity and beauty 100. Why does magnetite pick up small pieces of iron? Correct Answer: It's magnetic. 101. What is the process by which rocks at Earth's surface break down and change? Correct Answer: weathering 102. The removal and transport of weathered materials is known as __________. Correct Answer: erosion 103. What type of weathering involves changes in the size or shape of the rock? Correct Answer: physical weathering 104. The repeated thawing and freezing of water in the cracks of rocks is called __________. Correct Answer: frost wedging 105. When rocks undergo chemical changes as the result of chemical reactions it is called __________. Correct Answer: chemical weathering 106. How does temperature effect chemical weathering? Correct Answer: It affects the rate of weathering.

107. The chemical reaction of oxygen with other substances is called __________. Correct Answer: oxidation 108. What human activity causes acid precipitation to form? Correct Answer: burning of fossil fuels and motor vehicle exhaust 109. What type of climate does chemical weathering readily occur in? Correct Answer: warm and wet 110. Physical weathering rates are highest in areas with __________. Correct Answer: repeated freezing and thawing 111. "The __________ the total surface area, the __________ chemical weathering that can occur." Correct Answer: "greater, more" 112. Eroded materials that are transported are finally dropped in a process called __________. Correct Answer: deposition 113. What is formed by the deposition of large amounts of sediment into a body of water by a river? Correct Answer: a delta 114. What is NOT a feature of glacial erosion? Correct Answer: a barrier island 115. What is a farming method that can reduce the effect of erosion? Correct Answer: planting wind barriers 116. __________ is the loose covering of broken rock particles and decaying organic matter that covers bedrock. Correct Answer: Soil 117. Soil that is located above its parent rock is called __________. Correct Answer: a residual soil 118. Soil that has been moved to a location away from its parent rock is called __________. Correct Answer: a transported soil 119. What soil horizon has high concentrations of organic matter and humus? Correct Answer: horizon A 120. How are soil textures classified? Correct Answer: grain size 121. All mass movement occurs __________. Correct Answer: on a slope 122. Which is NOT a variable that influences mass movement? Correct Answer: humidity 123. In what type of mass movement does material move as a block? Correct Answer: slide 124. Why does water influence mass movement? Correct Answer: It acts as a lubricant 125. "The slow, steady, downhill flow of loose material is called __________." Correct Answer: creep

126. What type of mass movement occurred as a result of the eruption of Mount St. Helens? Correct Answer: mudflow 127. What are landslides called when the material being moved downslope is snow? Correct Answer: an avalanche 128. Wind can move smaller particles by __________ and larger particles by __________. Correct Answer: "suspension, saltation" 129. "Unlike water, wind commonly can __________." Correct Answer: move sediment uphill 130. The lowering of the land surface due to wind removing particles is called __________. Correct Answer: deflation 131. What is a surface that has only large particles because the wind has removed the finer particles? Correct Answer: a desert pavement 132. What is a rock called that has been shaped by wind-blown sediments? Correct Answer: a ventifact 133. When is wind-transported material deposited? Correct Answer: when the wind slows 134. The __________ side of a dune is called the __________ side and is located on the side from which the wind blows. Correct Answer: "gentle-sloped, windward" 135. How are dunes classified? Correct Answer: shape 136. "A __________ is a large, moving mass of ice." Correct Answer: glacier 137. What type of glacier covers Antarctica? Correct Answer: a continental glacier 138. What part of an alpine glacier moves the fastest? Correct Answer: middle 139. What are scratches left in rock by a glacier called? Correct Answer: striations 140. Ridges consisting of till deposited by glaciers are called __________. Correct Answer: moraines 141. How is Earth's water supply recycled? Correct Answer: the water cycle 142. Water that flows downslope along Earth's surface is called __________. Correct Answer: runoff 143. What condition is necessary for water to soak into the ground? Correct Answer: open pore spaces 144. Soil with vegetation allows __________ water to infiltrate than soil without vegetation. Correct Answer: more

145. Which combination of characteristics allows the greatest amount of water to infiltrate into the ground? Correct Answer: "little slopes, sandy soils, and cool temperatures" 146. Small streams that flow into larger streams are called __________. Correct Answer: tributaries 147. What is the name for the land area that separates two watersheds? Correct Answer: a divide 148. How can a watershed's water quality be measured? Correct Answer: measuring the concentration of material in solution 149. The amount of material in suspension is dependent upon the __________ of the stream water. Correct Answer: volume and velocity 150. What are large particles that are rolled or pushed on the bed of the stream called? Correct Answer: bed load 151. Which is NOT a factor of a stream's discharge? Correct Answer: suspended load 152. "As the discharge of a stream increases, __________." Correct Answer: the carrying capacity increases 153. What do USGS gauging stations directly measure? Correct Answer: water levels of streams 154. What confines the water of a stream? Correct Answer: stream banks 155. Water moves at the maximum velocity in the __________ of a straight stream and the __________ of a meander. Correct Answer: "center, outside" 156. __________ are depositional features formed at the bases of slopes. Correct Answer: Alluvial fans 157. The renewed downcutting of a streambed is called __________. Correct Answer: rejuvenation 158. How did the Finger Lakes of New York and the Great Lakes of the Midwest form? Correct Answer: glacial processes 159. What process adds oxygen to a lake? Correct Answer: photosynthesis of plants 160. A __________ is an area that is covered by water for a large part of a year. Correct Answer: wetland 161. When does magma form? Correct Answer: when temperatures are hot enough to melt rock 162. "As the pressure of a rock __________, the temperature at which it melts __________." Correct Answer: "increases, increases" 163. How does water in a rock affect melting temperature? Correct Answer: water lowers melting temperature 164. Which is NOT a major type of igneous rock? Correct Answer: schist

165. __________ is the internal resistance to flow of a liquid. Correct Answer: Viscosity 166. "Rhyolitic magma has the __________ viscosity, the __________ gas content and the __________ silica content of any type of magma." Correct Answer: "highest, highest, highest" Your answer was correct. 167. Why does magma move up to and through Earth's crust? Correct Answer: It is less dense than surrounding rock. 168. What is the name for an igneous intrusion that is smaller than a batholith but similar in shape? Correct Answer: stock 169. A __________ is a mushroom-shaped pluton with a round top and flat bottom. Correct Answer: laccolith 170. A tabular pluton that cuts across preexisting rock is called a __________. Correct Answer: dike 171. What type of igneous pluton is tabular and parallel to surrounding rock layers? Correct Answer: a sill 172. What type of texture do most plutons have? Correct Answer: coarse grained 173. When magma reaches Earth's surface it is called __________. Correct Answer: lava 174. How is a volcanic crater connected to a magma chamber? Correct Answer: by a vent 175. What is the name of a large volcanic crater over 1 km in diameter? Correct Answer: a caldera 176. : Rock fragments thrown into the air during a volcanic eruption are called __________. Correct Answer: tephra 177. "What are large, angular fragments thrown from a volcano called?" Correct Answer: volcanic blocks 178. What is a pyroclastic flow? Correct Answer: "a mixture of volcanic gas, ash, and other tephra " 179. Where do most volcanoes form? Correct Answer: at plate boundaries 180. Volcanoes that form far from plate boundaries form as the result of __________. Correct Answer: hot spots 181. What is the largest freshwater supply in the world? Correct Answer: ice caps and glaciers 182. Groundwater is __________ percent of the world's water supply. Correct Answer: 0.31 183. How does water get into the atmosphere? Correct Answer: evaporation 184. Soil can hold water because of its __________. Correct Answer: porosity 185. Water can move through soil because of its __________. Correct Answer: permeability

186. The depth of the water table below the surface of land __________. Correct Answer: varies depending on local conditions 187. What type of rock has the lowest permeability? Correct Answer: shale 188. "If you were going to make a pond in your backyard, which material would you choose to line the bottom?" Correct Answer: clay 189. Groundwater flow takes place through layers called __________. Correct Answer: aquifers 190. Why does groundwater dissolve limestone? Correct Answer: Groundwater is slightly acidic. 191. How are caves formed? Correct Answer: dissolution and precipitation of limestone 192. "What is water called when it has a high concentration of iron, magnesium, or calcium?" Correct Answer: hard 193. When does water deposit calcium carbonate? Correct Answer: when it loses carbon dioxide or evaporates 194. When does groundwater become surface water? Correct Answer: when the water table intersects Earth's surface 195. A __________ occurs where groundwater is discharged at Earth's surface at the contact between an aquifer and an aquiclude. Correct Answer: spring 196. How is the water of a hot spring heated? Correct Answer: It flows close to an area of recent igneous activity 197. The process of water being added to the water table from precipitation is called __________. Correct Answer: recharge 198. Which of the following uses the most water in the United States? Correct Answer: agriculture 199. What is one possible consequence of excessive withdrawal of groundwater? Correct Answer: subsidence 200. Artesian aquifers __________. Correct Answer: contain water under pressure 201. What two elements make up the majority of Earth's atmosphere? Correct Answer: nitrogen and oxygen 202. Why is the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere important? Correct Answer: it helps regulate the amount of energy the atmosphere absorbs 203. What type of solid particles play a role in cloud formation? Correct Answer: dust and salt particles 204. What layer of the atmosphere contains most of the water vapor? Correct Answer: troposphere 205. What layer are light gases such as helium and hydrogen found in? Correct Answer: exosphere 206. __________ is the transfer of energy through space by electromagnetic waves. Correct Answer: Radiation

207. What percent of incoming radiation from the Sun is absorbed by Earth's surface? Correct Answer: 50 208. __________ is the transfer of energy that occurs when molecules collide. Correct Answer: Conduction 209. __________ is a measurement of how fast or slow molecules move. Correct Answer: Temperature 210. "__________ is the transfer of energy that fuels atmospheric processes, while __________ is used to measure and interpret that energy." Correct Answer: "Heat, temperature" 211. The change of state of matter from a gas to a liquid is called __________. Correct Answer: condensation 212. Why does the temperature of air decrease in the lower atmosphere with the increase of elevation? Correct Answer: The air is farther from heat source. 213. Atmospheric pressure __________ with __________ altitude. Correct Answer: "decreases, increased " 214. Wind can be thought of as air moving from an area of __________ to an area of __________. Correct Answer: "high pressure, low pressure" 215. The ratio of water vapor in a volume of air relative to how much water vapor that volume of air is capable of holding is called __________. Correct Answer: relative humidity 216. Dust and sea salt are examples of __________ that aid in the formation of cloud droplets. Correct Answer: condensation nuclei 217. "When condensation takes place, __________ is released and __________ the air." Correct Answer: "latent heat, warms" 218. Clouds are classified by __________. Correct Answer: The altitude of the cloud formation and its shape 219. What is the process by which cloud droplets collide and form larger droplets? Correct Answer: coalescence 220. Visible or audible forms of atmospheric electricity are called __________. Correct Answer: electrometeors 221. What is the current state of the atmosphere called? Correct Answer: weather 222. Long-term variations in weather for a particular area is __________. Correct Answer: climate 223. The exchange of heat or moisture between an air mass and the underlying surface is called __________. Correct Answer: air mass modification 224. What causes the Coriolis effect? Correct Answer: Earth's rotation 225. What wind system occurs at 30 degrees north and south of the equator? Correct Answer: the trade winds

226. What is the convergence of the trade winds from both hemispheres called? Correct Answer: the intertropical convergence zone 227. "Narrow bands of fast, high-altitude westerly winds are called __________." Correct Answer: jet streams 228. A __________ is a narrow region that separates two air masses of different densities. Correct Answer: front 229. "In __________, warm air displaces cold air and it develops a gradual frontal slope." Correct Answer: a warm front 230. "In the northern hemisphere, in a surface __________ system, air __________ and rotates in a __________ direction." 231. High-pressure systems are usually associated with __________ and low-pressure systems are associated with __________. 232. A __________ is used to measure pressure. Correct Answer: barometer 233. What type of instrument is used to measure wind speed? Correct Answer: an anemometer 234. What is the network of weather stations located across the United States called? Correct Answer: Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS) 235. A __________ is a record of weather data for a particular location and time. Correct Answer: station model 236. What do isopleths represent? Correct Answer: lines of equal or constant values 237. A forecast that relies on numerical data is called __________. Correct Answer: a digital forecast 238. A forecast that involves comparing current weather patterns to past weather patterns is called __________. Correct Answer: an analog forecast 239. What are four to seven day forecasts are based on? Correct Answer: circulation patterns of the troposphere 240. What type of clouds produce thunderstorms? Correct Answer: cumulonimbus 241. What is the first step of thunderstorm formation? Correct Answer: an abundant source of moisture in the lower atmosphere 242. How are thunderstorms classified? Correct Answer: by the mechanism that caused the air to rise 243. What type of thunderstorm is caused by advancing cold and warm fronts? Correct Answer: frontal thunderstorms 244. Which is NOT a stage of a thunderstorm? Correct Answer: condensing stage 245. What happens in the developing or cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? Correct Answer: Air rises vertically. 246. "As the instability of the air __________, the strength of the thunderstorm's updrafts and downdrafts __________." Correct Answer: "increases, increase"

247. "Thunderstorms that have intense, rotating updrafts are called __________." Correct Answer: supercells 248. What causes lightning? Correct Answer: friction between updrafts and downdrafts in a cumulonimbus cloud 249. How hot is the air heated by lightning? Correct Answer: 30 000[superscript degrees] C 250. What causes thunder? Correct Answer: the expansion and contraction of the air heated by lightning 251. Violent downdrafts from a thunderstorm that are concentrated in a local area are called __________. Correct Answer: downbursts 252. What atmospheric condition increases the likeliness of a flood? Correct Answer: "weak, upper-atmospheric current that moves storms slowly" 253. What type of thunderstorms are tornadoes associated with? Correct Answer: supercells 254. "Large, rotating, low-pressure storms are called __________." Correct Answer: tropical cyclones 255. : What causes the air of a tropical storm to rotate? Correct Answer: the Coriolis effect 256. Where do the disturbances that cause tropical storms originate? Correct Answer: the ITCZ or from tropical waves 257. : What is the calm center of a hurricane called? Correct Answer: eye 258. A __________ is a mound of water that is pushed landward by the winds of a hurricane. Correct Answer: storm surge 259. What is the wind chill factor? Correct Answer: the phenomenon of heat loss from human skin due to wind and temperature 260. How is climate different than weather? Correct Answer: Climate describes the long term weather patterns. Your answer was correct. 261. What type of study shows extreme fluctuation of weather variables? Correct Answer: climatologic 262. What region are meteorlogical normals correctly describing? Correct Answer: Only the specific place where the meteorologic data were collected. 263. The area of the globe that receives the most solar radiation year round is called the __________? Correct Answer: tropics 264. The climates of coastal zones are affected by __________. Correct Answer: topographic effects 265. Deserts are commonly found on the leeward sides of mountains because of __________. Correct Answer: orogenic lifting

266. "What is the Koeppen [insert two dots over ""o""]classification system based on?" Correct Answer: "mean monthly values of temperature and precipitation, and vegetation" 267. What characterizes tropical climates of Koeppen's [insert two dots over ""o""]classification?" Correct Answer: constant high temperatures 268. In what climate do evaporation rates exceed precipitation rates? Correct Answer: dry climates 269. A steppe is a subtype of __________ climates. Correct Answer: dry 270. What type of climate is common along the western coast of the United States? Correct Answer: "dry-summer, subtropical" 271. What type of climate is common in the southeastern United States? Correct Answer: humid subtropical 272. What is an example of a phenomenon that occurs in a microclimate? Correct Answer: lake-effect snow 273. What is a heat island? Correct Answer: an area where climate is warmer due to concrete and asphalt 274. Approximately how long is a sun-spot cycle? Correct Answer: 11 years 275. What can block solar radiation and have a short-term effect on climate? Correct Answer: the ashes in the atmosphere from a volcanic eruption 276. The natural heating of Earth's surface by the atmosphere is called __________. Correct Answer: the greenhouse effect 277. The increase in temperature caused by an increase of greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere is called __________. Correct Answer: global warming 278. Most scientists agree that __________. Correct Answer: global warming is occurring 279. When did the first modern oceanographic expedition occur? Correct Answer: late 1800s 280. What type of technology is used to map the ocean floor? Correct Answer: sonar 281. The velocity of sound in water is __________. Correct Answer: 1454 m/s 282. "What type of technology is used to study ocean surface temperatures, currents, and wave conditions?" Correct Answer: satellites 283. What geologic process released large amounts of water vapor into Earth's early atmosphere? Correct Answer: volcanic eruptions 284. "Today, water vapor that is added to Earth's atmosphere is destroyed by __________." Correct Answer: ultraviolet radiation Your answer was correct.

285. "During relatively warm times of Earth's geologic history, the volume of glacial ice is __________ and sea level is __________." Correct Answer: "low, high" 286. What is the average salinity of ocean water? Correct Answer: 35 ppt 287. Why are salinities lower than average in some areas close to the equator? Correct Answer: abundant precipitation 288. The salinity of seawater is __________ over geologic time. Correct Answer: constant 289. The density of seawater is dependents on __________. Correct Answer: salinity and temperature 290. What is the thermocline? Correct Answer: a transitional layer in the ocean where temperature decreases rapidly with depth 291. What is the cause of ocean layering? Correct Answer: density differences 292. What is the source of cold water of Earth's oceans? Correct Answer: polar seas 293. What is the densest and coldest water mass of all Earth's oceans? Correct Answer: Antarctic bottom water 294. Waves move ocean water __________. Correct Answer: in a circular pattern 295. What determines the speed of waves in deep water? Correct Answer: wavelength 296. What is the difference between low and high tide called? Correct Answer: tidal range 297. "When the Moon, Earth, and the Sun are aligned, large tidal ranges called __________ occur." Correct Answer: spring tides 298. What are wind-driven currents called? Correct Answer: surface currents 299. __________ are points of land sticking out into the ocean. Correct Answer: Rocky headlands 300. Waves move at __________ velocity in deep water than in shallow water. Correct Answer: a faster 301. Straight wave crests bend toward headlands because of a process called __________. Correct Answer: wave refraction 302. What flat erosion surface is formed as a headland is worn away? Correct Answer: wave-cut platform 303. What determines the composition of sediment particles on a beach? Correct Answer: sediment source 304. Why is water in an estuary commonly brackish? Correct Answer: It's a mixture of freshwater and salt water. 305. Water movement parallel to shore is called __________. Correct Answer: longshore current

306. What is a narrow bank of sand that projects into the ocean called? Correct Answer: a spit 307. What is a barrier island? Correct Answer: a long ridge of sand that is separate from the mainland 308. What is at each end of a tombolo? Correct Answer: the mainland and an island 309. Which is NOT a method of building coastal landforms above sea level? Correct Answer: upwelling of sediments 310. What is the purpose of a breakwater? Correct Answer: protect the beach from storm waves 311. What is the purpose of a breakwater? Correct Answer: protect the beach from storm waves 312. "How much lower was sea level 10,000 years ago?" Correct Answer: 130 m 313. Why is sea level still rising? Correct Answer: global warming 314. What is causing relative sea level to drop along the West Coast of the United States? Correct Answer: tectonic forces 315. Submerged parts of continents are called __________. Correct Answer: continental margins 316. What is the shallowest part of the continental margin called? Correct Answer: the continental shelf 317. How are submarine canyons formed? Correct Answer: turbidity currents 318. What breaks mid-ocean ridges into smaller sections? Correct Answer: fracture zones 319. __________ are submerged basaltic volcanoes more than 1 km high. Correct Answer: Seamounts 320. Which in NOT a type of stress? Correct Answer: strain 321. Which type of stress pulls a material apart? Correct Answer: tension 322. What does the straight part of a stress-strain graph portray? Correct Answer: elastic deformation 323. __________ causes permanent strain. Correct Answer: Ductile deformation 324. A __________ is a fracture in rock, along which movement has occurred." Correct Answer: fault 325. __________ push and pull rocks in the same direction along which the waves are traveling. Correct Answer: Primary waves

326. Which waves are called body waves? Correct Answer: P-waves and S-waves 327. Which waves are called body waves? Correct Answer: P-waves and S-waves 328. What is the study of earthquakes called? Correct Answer: seismology 329. What type of instrument can measure the vibrations of an earthquake? Correct Answer: seismometer 330. Which wave arrives at a seismic facility first? Correct Answer: P-wave 331. How can a scientist determine the distance from a seismic facility to the epicenter? Correct Answer: using the time between P-waves and S-waves 332. Why does knowledge of Earth's interior come from seismic waves? Correct Answer: They change speed and direction when they encounter different materials. 333. What is the crustal part of the lithosphere primarily composed of? Correct Answer: igneous rocks 334. What is a rating for an earthquake from the modified Mercalli scale based on? Correct Answer: amount of damage 335. What is a rating from the Richter scale based on? Correct Answer: size of the largest wave 336. How many times larger is a magnitude 3 than a magnitude 1 earthquake on the Richter scale? Correct Answer: 100 times 337. "What are shallow, intermediate, and deep earthquake classifications based on?" Correct Answer: the depth of the focus 338. What are most earthquakes associated with? Correct Answer: plate boundaries 339. What is the probability of earthquake occurrence based on? Correct Answer: reoccurrence rates of earthquakes in an area and the rate of strain buildup 340. What are two main elevation modes on Earth? Correct Answer: 0 km to 1 km above sea level and 4 km to 5 km below sea level 341. Continental crust is made mostly of __________ and oceanic crust is made mostly of __________. Correct Answer: "granite, basalt" 342. What is isostacy? Correct Answer: "Continental and oceanic crust displace the mantle, so they are in equilibrium." 343. Why do mountains have roots? Correct Answer: The roots provide buoyancy to support the large mass of the mountains. 344. What is orogeny? Correct Answer: the process of formation of all mountain ranges 345. What types of igneous rocks are associated with island arc complexes? Correct Answer: basalt and andesite

346. What features do oceanic-continent and oceanic-oceanic convergences have in common? Correct Answer: subduction zones and trenches 347. What type of igneous rocks are associated with oceanic-continental convergences? Correct Answer: granite and andesite 348. Mount Pinatubo is an example of a mountain formed from __________. Correct Answer: an oceanic-oceanic convergence 349. Mount St. Helens is a volcano that is located in the state of Washington. It is an example of a mountain formed from __________. Correct Answer: an oceanic-continental convergence 350. The tallest mountains on Earth are formed by __________. Correct Answer: continental-continental convergence 351. What happens when two continental crusts converge? Correct Answer: Both plates are deformed and pushed upward. 352. Which is not a region of the Appalachian Mountain belt? Correct Answer: the Adirondack Mountains 353. The Appalachian Mountains are an example of mountains that formed at __________. Correct Answer: convergent boundaries 354. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge mountains are an example of mountains forming at __________. Correct Answer: divergent boundaries 355. Magma that pushes through the seafloor to form igneous rocks are called __________. Correct Answer: pillow basalts 356. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is __________. Correct Answer: "a long, continuous chain" 357. Why does the lithosphere bulge at divergent boundaries? Correct Answer: It is warmer and less dense than surrounding oceanic crust. 358. Which is not a boundary mountain? Correct Answer: some volcanoes 359. The Hawaiian Islands are made of volcanoes that formed due to __________. Correct Answer: hot spot activity 360. __________ is a common term for electromagnetic radiation. Correct Answer: Light 361. How is electromagnetic radiation arranged on the electromagnetic spectrum? Correct Answer: by wavelength and frequency 362. What determines the light-collecting power of a microscope? Correct Answer: the area of the opening 363. What type of telescope uses mirrors to bring visible light to a focus? Correct Answer: reflecting 364. A __________ telescope uses lenses to bring visible light to a focus. Correct Answer: refracting 365. The Very Large Array is an example of __________. Correct Answer: interferometry

366. The Earth Moon is __________ in size and has a orbit_________ to its planet relative to other moons in the solar system. Correct Answer: "larger, farther" 367. What is albedo? Correct Answer: the amount of sunlight a surface reflects 368. Why is there no erosion on the Moon? Correct Answer: There is no atmosphere. 369. "The __________ of the Moon are light in color, mountainous, and heavily covered by craters." Correct Answer: highlands 370. What are the long trails of ejecta that radiate outward from craters called? Correct Answer: rays 371. What are the highlands on the Moon made of? Correct Answer: lunar breccias 372. "The loose, ground-up rock on the surface of the Moon is called __________." Correct Answer: regolith 373. Why do no maria exist on the far side of the Moon? Correct Answer: The crust is twice as thick on the far side. 374. What theory of formation is most widely accepted for Earth's moon? Correct Answer: the impact theory 375. What instrument can be used to demonstrate that Earth is rotating? Correct Answer: a Foucault pendulum 376. The plane of Earth's orbit around the Sun is called __________. Correct Answer: the ecliptic 377. "On the summer solstice, the Sun is directly above the __________, and the number of daylight hours for the northern hemisphere is __________." Correct Answer: "tropic of Cancer, at a maximum" 378. "When the Moon is aligned with and between the Sun and Earth, the Moon is at the __________ stage." Correct Answer: new moon 379. "When the Sun and Moon are aligned the tides are __________, which is called a __________." Correct Answer: "greater than normal, spring tide" 380. The __________ of a planet is its apparent backwards movement of as seen from Earth's sky. Correct Answer: retrograde motion 381. What shape describes the orbits of the planets? Correct Answer: an ellipse 382. When a planet is closest to the Sun it is at __________. Correct Answer: perihelion 383. The eccentricity of a perfect circle is __________ and a very elongated ellipse is __________. Correct Answer: "zero, nearly one" 384. The inner four planets of our solar system are called the __________ planets and the next four are called the __________ planets. Correct Answer: "terrestrial, gas giant"

385. Why can't astronomers directly observe the surface of Venus without landing probes on the surface? Correct Answer: The surface is covered by thick clouds. 386. "Why is Venus the hottest planet, even though it isn't the closest to the Sun?" Correct Answer: it's greenhouse effect 387. The wobble in Earth's axis is called __________. Correct Answer: precession 388. What is Olympus Mons? Correct Answer: a large shield volcano on Mars 389. What characteristics do the gas giants have in common? Correct Answer: all of the answers are correct 390. Why does Jupiter have a banded appearance? Correct Answer: flow patterns in its atmosphere 391. What are Jupiter's moons composed of? Correct Answer: rock and ice 392. Where did Saturn's rings most likely come from? Correct Answer: leftover debris from a moon that was destroyed 393. What causes Uranus' blue appearance? Correct Answer: the methane in its atmosphere 394. Neptune's atmosphere had a persistent storm called __________. Correct Answer: the Great Dark Spot 395. Why is Pluto NOT classified as a terrestrial planet? Correct Answer: it's low density and small size 396. Pluto and Charon are __________. Correct Answer: in synchronous rotation 397. The objects that eventually formed planets by colliding and merging are called __________. Correct Answer: planetesimals 398. Where are most asteroids located? Correct Answer: between Mars and Jupiter 399. Comets are bodies that are __________ that orbit __________. Correct Answer: "ice and rock, the Sun" 400. Why do astronomers rely on computer models for an explanation of the Sun's interior? Correct Answer: The interior can't be directly observed 401. The Sun contains __________ percent of all the mass in our solar system. Correct Answer: 99 402. What is the Sun's average density similar to? Correct Answer: the density of the gas giant planets 403. What layer of the Sun's atmosphere is above the chromosphere? Correct Answer: corona 404. Gas flows outward from the corona and forms the __________. Correct Answer: solar wind 405. What are dark spots on the Sun's photosphere called? Correct Answer: sunspots

406. "__________ is the combining of light weight nuclei into heavier nuclei, which gives off energy that fuels the Sun." Correct Answer: Fusion 407. What is a spectrum that comes from noncompressed gas called? Correct Answer: an emission spectrum 408. What two elements make up 98.4 percent of the Sun's composition? Correct Answer: hydrogen and helium 409. "Groups of stars named after mythological characters, animals, or everyday objects are called __________." Correct Answer: constellations 410. Constellations that can be seen all year long from a certain location are __________. Correct Answer: circumpolar 411. What are two stars that orbit a common center of mass called? Correct Answer: a binary 412. : "From Earth, stars appear to shift in position, which is called __________." Correct Answer: parallax 413. Why doesn't apparent magnitude actually measure the brightness of the star? Correct Answer: It doesn't account for distance. 414. What is the disadvantage of absolute magnitude? Correct Answer: It can only be calculated if a stars distance is known. 415. Energy output from the surface of a star is called __________. Correct Answer: luminosity 416. What causes the wavelength of a star's spectral lines to shift? Correct Answer: motion between the star and the observer 417. "Mass, luminosity, temperature, and diameter of stars can be demonstrated on a __________." Correct Answer: Hertzsprung-Russell diagram 418. From what does a star form? Correct Answer: a nebula 419. How is the composition of a white dwarf determined? Correct Answer: by how many reaction phases it went through 420. : What is the overall shape of the Milky Way? Correct Answer: disk 421. Why do variable stars pulsate in brightness? Correct Answer: expansion and contraction of their outer layers 422. What do astronomers use to map the shape of the Milky Way? Correct Answer: radio waves 423. How many stars are in the disk of the Milky Way? Correct Answer: 100 billion 424. What is located at the center of the Milky Way? Correct Answer: a supermassive black hole 425. What are the oldest-known objects in the Milky Way? Correct Answer: globular clusters 426. The Sun is __________. Correct Answer: a Population 1 star

427. Where are the oldest stars in the galaxy located? Correct Answer: halo and bulge 428. How did Hubble categorize galaxies? Correct Answer: shapes 429. Which galaxy shape is not a part of Hubble's classification system? Correct Answer: spherical 430. The smallest galaxies are called __________ and the largest are called __________. Correct Answer: "dwarf ellipticals, giant ellipticals" 431. What is the name of the cluster that the Milky Way belongs to? Correct Answer: the Local Group 432. Most of the mass in cluster galaxies is __________. Correct Answer: invisible 433. Galaxies are organized into large groups called __________. Correct Answer: superclusters 434. Which of the following did Hubble discover? Correct Answer: Earth's universe is expanding. 435. Galaxies that are extremely bright are called __________. Correct Answer: radio galaxies 436. The redshift of quasars measures __________. Correct Answer: their distance from Earth 437. What theory suggests that the universe does not change with time? Correct Answer: the steady-state theory 438. "In the Big Bang theory, what balances the momentum of the expansion of the universe?" Correct Answer: the inward force of gravity 439. Is the rate of the universe expansion speeding up or slowing down? Correct Answer: "It was slowing down, but now it is speeding up." Your answer was correct. 440. What are natural resources? Correct Answer: the resources that Earth provides 441. Which is a renewable resource? Correct Answer: carbon 442. How long does it take to renew a forest used for paper? Correct Answer: 10 to 20 years 443. Which is a nonrenewable resource? Correct Answer: copper 444. When a nonrenewable resource is used by humans __________. Correct Answer: it is being used faster than it was formed 445. What percent of the world usage of crude oil is used by the United States? Correct Answer: 27 percent 446. "What is the solid, unweathered rock under the soil called?" Correct Answer: bedrock 447. What is a source of aggregate? Correct Answer: glacial deposits

448. Concrete and mortar used in construction are made using __________. Correct Answer: aggregates 449. : Iron ores are commonly formed by __________. Correct Answer: chemical precipitation in layers of sedimentary rocks 450. What is an ore? Correct Answer: a natural resource that can be mined at a profit 451. Oxygen makes up __________ percent of Earth's air. Correct Answer: 21 452. Oxygen __________. Correct Answer: has not always been a part of Earth's atmosphere 453. How is oxygen released into Earth's atmosphere? Correct Answer: photosynthetic plants 454. What compounds cause acid precipitation? Correct Answer: nitrogen oxides and sulfur dioxides 455. What is an example of natural air pollution? Correct Answer: smoke from forest fires 456. The formaldehyde from fabrics is an example of __________. Correct Answer: an indoor air pollutant 457. The formaldehyde from fabrics is an example of __________. Correct Answer: an indoor air pollutant 458. What number of the world's countries experience chronic water shortages? Correct Answer: 25 459. How can freshwater runoff be controlled? Correct Answer: dams 460. What are fuels? Correct Answer: materials burned to produce heat or power 461. What slows the decomposition of organic matter in a bog? Correct Answer: acidic waters and low oxygen levels 462. "Many different types of fossil fuels exist, but they all originated from __________." Correct Answer: organic matter trapped in sedimentary rocks 463. How can coal be classified? Correct Answer: amount of pressure and time for formation 464. What type of coal burns the most efficiently? Correct Answer: anthracite 465. What type of compounds make up crude oil? Correct Answer: hydrogen and carbon 466. What type of compounds make up crude oil? Correct Answer: hydrogen and carbon 467. What type of bacteria can partially break down organic matter in low-oxygen environments? Correct Answer: anaerobic bacteria 468. Why do scientists interpret crude oil to have originated from once-living organisms? Correct Answer: all of the above

471.

469. Which is an example of a renewable resource? Correct Answer: wood 470. Which is an example of an alternative source of energy? Correct Answer: solar A parabolic cooker is an example of a devise that uses __________ source of energy. Correct Answer: an alternative 472. Energy produced by water pushing against turbines is called __________. Correct Answer: hydroelectric 473. What is one source of energy that could be better developed in the United States? Correct Answer: geothermal 474. What is one negative effect of using energy generated by ocean waves? Correct Answer: It can disrupt marine ecosystems. 475. "__________ is the process in which a heavy nucleus divides to form smaller nuclei, one or two neutrons, and a large amount of energy." Correct Answer: Nuclear fission 476. How is biogas produced? Correct Answer: conversion of plant and animal waste in a digester 477. What compound can be added to gasoline to make it burn more cleanly? Correct Answer: ethanol 478. __________ is the use of energy resources in the most productive way. Correct Answer: Energy efficiency 479. __________ is the production of two usable forms of energy at the same time from the same process. Correct Answer: Cogeneration 480. What is an example of a way to conserve energy in a home? Correct Answer: replacing old windows with new ones

a.