Faxcom-pharma March2019 (repaired).docx

FAXCOM- PHARMACOLOGY 1. Cancer cells are characterized as follows EXCEPT: a. Rapid Proliferation of cells  pertains to hyperplasia only b. Dedifferentiation and loss of function c. Invasiveness d. Metastasis 2. This type of chemotherapy is meant to decrease the tumor size and protect the surrounding tissues a. Primary Induction b. Neoadjuvant c. Adjuvant Therapy d. Supportive Therapy 3. This Cell Cycle –Specific Drugs target the S-Phase a. Fluoracil (5-FU, Pyrimidine Analog) b. Bleomycin c. Paclitaxil d. Etoposide STAGES CCS DRUGS CCNS DRUGS G1-S ETOPOSIDE PLATINUM COMPOUNDS S ANTIMETABOLITES ALKYLATING AGENTS **procarbazine G2-M BLEOMYCIN ANTHRACYCLINES ETOPOSIDE DACTINOMYCIN M VINCA ALKALOIDS MITOMYCIN TAXANES CAMPTHOTHECINS IXABEPILONE ESTRAMUSTINE

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These are Cell Cycle Non-Specific Drug EXCEPT: a. Cyclophosphamide – Alkalyting Agent, Nitrogen Mustard b. Bleomycin c. Doxorubicin- Antrhracyclines, Antitumor Antibiotics d. Cisplatin- Platinum Agent

** All hormonal agents are cell cycle non specific drugs EXCEPT Tamoxifen 5. L.M., 24 years old was diagnosed to have Breast CA. She was given an Estrogen Receptor Antagonist: a. Tamoxifen – Antiestrogen, SERM b. Leuprolide – GnRH Analog, for Advanced Prostate CA) c. Anastrazole – (Aromatase Inhibitor, for Breat Ca in Post menopausal women, neoadjuvant) d. Estrogen 6. This is the most common acute toxicities of cytotoxic anticancer drugs: a. Myelosuppression b. Emesis c. Cardiac arrhythmias d. Hypotension 7. A side effect of Cyclophosphamide due to a toxic metabolite acrolein a. Folinic Acid Deficiency b. Hemorrhagic Cystitis c. Hepatotoxicity d. Alopecia 8. Doxorubucin requires this monitoring during chemotherapy a. Chest xray b. ECG

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c. CBC/CPC d. LFT LL, male 58 years old with prostate CA. He was given an androgen antagonist known as: a. Leuprolide- GnRH Analog b. Flutamide c. Tamoxifen- for Breast CA, SERM d. Anastrazole- for Post menopausal Breast CA This combination therapy is indicated for Breast Ca: a. MOPP- Mustargen, Oncovin, Procarbazine, and Prednisone b. CMF- Cyclophosphamide, Methotraxate and 5FU c. ABVD- Adriamycin, Bleomycin, Vinblastine and Decarbazine d. CHOP R- Cyclophosphamide, Hydroxydaunorubicin, Oncovin and Prednisone- Rituximab A 38 yofemale with breast CA. Estrogen receptor assay was negative but HER2/Neu protein was positive. You would prescribe: a. Tamoxifen- SERM, Not effective cos px has no estrogen receptor b. Trastuzumab- for HER2 Neu (+) pts c. Imitinib- for CML, Gist, Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor d. Aminoglutethimide- Aromatase Inhibitor for advanced breast CA and Prostate CA This alkylating agent is lipid soluble and indicated for brain tumors a. Carmustine- Nitrosureas are highly lipid soluble and can cross BBB b. Thiotepa- Ethylenimines,for breat CA, Ovarian CA and Bladder CA, causes irrpairable DNA damage, water soluble and can cross BBB c. Melphalan- Nitrogen Mustards- DOC for Multiple Myeloma, does not cross BBB d. Busulfan- Alkyl Sulfonates, may cross BBB This alkylating related drug used in lymphoma is leukomogenic, teratogenic and mutagenic, can cause dislfiram like effect: a. Cisplatin- Platinum Agent b. Cyclophosphamide- Alkylating Agent c. Procarbazine- Alkylating Agent, for Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma, STge 3and $ Hodgkin’s Disease, classified as hydrazine together with isoniazid which can cause disulfram like reactions d. Metchlormethamine

14. Of the following this has the least bone marrow suppressive effect but neurotoxic: a. Vinblastine b. Metyhotreexate c. Vincristine d. 5-FU 15. This is an inhibitor of tyrosine kinase domain of BCR-ABL oncogenes and prevent phosphorylation of the kinase sunbstrate by ATP useful in leukemia: a. Imitinib- Tyrosine Kinaswe Inhibitor; DOC for CM and GIST b. Vinblastine- Vinca Alkaloids c. Trastazumab- Monoclonal Antibody d. Cytarabine- Antimetabolite, Pyrimidine Analog 16. This is indicated in Hodgkin Lymphoma a. MOPP- FOR Hodgkin’s Disease b. PEB- - for Extragonadal Germ Cell Tumor, Ovarian Germ Cell tumor and Testicular Germ cell tumor. Bleomycinb, Etoposide and Platinol(Cisplatin) c. CMF- for breast CA

d. CAF- for advanced breast CA, Cyclophosphamide, oral Adriamycin and 5FU 17. Inhibits finding of VEFR to VEGFR leading to inhibition of VEGF signaling; inhibits tumor vascular permeability but enhances tumor blood flow and drug delivery; for Colorectal CA, Breast CA and NSCL CA: a. Cisplatin- Platinum Agent b. Bevacizumab- MAB, inhibits biologic activity of VEGF

c. Etoposide- Antineoplastic d. Prednisone 18. A combination of these plus other agents is currently used to induce Acute Lymphocytic type of leukemia: a. Vincristine and prednisone (induction phase of AML) b. Adriamycin and 5FU c. Cyclophosphamide+Methotrexate d. Melphalan+Prednisone (Melphalan is for Multiple Myeloma) Induction Vincristine Prednisone/ Dexamethasone Andriamycin/ Daunorubicin Consolidatioon Higher dose of Drugs in the Induction pHase Stem Cell Transplant can be suggested Maintenance Methotrexate+ 6-Mercaptopurine w/ or w/o Vincristine OR Prednisone 19. This folic acid antagonist can be given alone in choriocarcinoma a. Methotrexate- DOC for Choriocarcinoma b. Asparaginase c. Leuprolide d. Panitunib 20. A 50 year old patient is treated for lung cancer with procarbazine. This should not be given to this patient: a. Alcohol- will cause disulfiram like reaction b. Cytrabine c. Amoxicillin d. Vinblastine 21. GJ is being treated for leukemia with vincristine. This drug: a. Causes alkylation- Alkylating Agent b. Subvert enzymatic pathways- Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor c. Causes spindle poisons- Vinca alkaloids, Taxanes, Ixabepilone, Erbulin Mesylate and Estramustine d. Blocks topoisomerase- Camptothecins, Epipodophyllotoxins(Etoposide),

Anthracyclines 22. Almost all cytotoxic agents causes this effect after one or two cycles of treatment a. Nausea and Vomiting b. BM Suppression- except VINCRISTINE c. Hemorrhagic Cystitis d. Pulmonary Dysfunction 23. This Armoatase Inhibitor is given as a follow up therapy in patient with Estrogen Receptor Assay (+): a. 5FU- Antimetabolite b. Tamoxifen- SERM c. Etheylestradiol- Hormone

d. Anastrazole- Aromatase Inhibitor 24. For Small Cell Lung Cancer, thios combination is initially recommended a. Cisplatin/Vincristine/Bleomycin- BOPSquamous Cell Carcinoma b. Cyclophosphamide/Vincristine/Prednisone- CVPfor low grade Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma c. Cyclophophamide/Methotrexate/5FU- CMF for breast CA d. Thalidomide/Dexamethasone-Thal-Dex  induction therapy before autologous peripheral blood stem cell (PBSC) transplantation in patients with newly diagnosed multiple myeloma

e. Cisplatin/Etoposide- EP Initial treatment for Lung CA 25. The regimen ABVD in Hodgkins Lymphoma has the following component EXCEPT: a. Doxorubicin ABVDb. Vinblastine Adriamycin/Doxorubicin c. Altretamine Bleomycin d. Dacarbazine Vinblastine e. Bleomycin Dacarbazine 26. This hormone is produced in the peripheral tissue when T4 is administered: a. Tetraiiodothyrodine b. Triiodothyrodine c. Iodine d. Calcitonin 27. Drug that produces a permanent reduction in thyroid activity

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a. I311- PERMANENTLY destroy the gland from within b. PTU- Thyroid Peroxidase Inhibitors- inhibits the formation of new thyroid hormones c. Methimazole- Thyroid Peroxidase Inhibitors d. Amiodarone- inhibits conversion of t4 to t3 together with Propanolol and PTU Antiarrythmic drug that inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 a. Verapamilb. Lidocaine c. Amiodarone d. Diltiazem A protein synthesized in the liver that transport thyroid hormone in the blood a. Thyroglobulin b. Peroxidase c. TBG d. TRH TRUE regarding tetraiodothyronin, EXCEPT: a. 1/2Life = 7days b. 99% bound c. Volume of distribution=40% d. Extrathyroid pool= 800mcg Which of the following is a sign or symptom that would be expected to occur in the event of chronic overdose with exogenous T4 a. Dry, Puffy skin b. Lethargy, sleepiness c. Large tongue and drooping eyelids d. Wt. loss In Graves disease, the cause of the hyperthyroidism is the production of an antibody that does which of the following? a. Activates TRH receptor and stimulates TSH release b. Activates TSH and stimulates TH Synthesis and Release c. Activates TH receptors in peripheral tissues d. Binds ti TBG and displaces bound T3 and T4 A 60year old woman presented in the Ed with tachycardia, SOB and chest pain. She had SOB and diarrhea for the last 2 days and was sweating and anxious. A relative reported that the pt had ran out of methimazole 2 weeks earlier. A TSH measurement revealed a value of <0..01

mIU/L(N: 0.4-4.0 mIU/L). The diagnosis of thyroid storm was made. Which of the ff is a drug that is useful adjuvant in the tx of thyroid storm? a. Amiodarone b. Epinephrine c. Bethamethasone d. Propanolol

34. A serious toxicity associated with the thionamides is which of the following: a. Agranulocytosis b. Myopathy c. SLE-Like Syndrome d. TTP 35. A 65 year old man with multinodular goiter is scheduled for a near total thyroidectomy. Which of the following drugs will be administered for 10-14days before surgery to reduce the vascularity of the thyroid gland? a. Levothyroxine- T4, for Hypothyroidism, preferred for all indications b. Lugol’s Solution- Inhibit the relases to T3 abd T4; Fastest acting ahti-thyroid drugs, Iodides make thyroid shrink and decrease it vascularity c. Liothyronine- T3, only indication is Myxedema Coma d. Prednisone 36. LD, 24 year pld female was seen in OPD clinic because of a mass in the anterior aspect of the neck. Work up dose and showed elevated serum T3 and T4 with va low TSh. This patient may have the following manifestation EXCEPT: (hyperthyroidism) a. Pale, Puffy Skin b. Increased Appetite c. Increase frequency of bowel movements d. Weakness and fatigue 37. AS, 27 year old woman underwent near total thyroidectomy. She was started on levothyroxine. What hormone is produced in the peripheral tissues when levothyroxine is administered? a. Methimazole b. T3 c. T4 d. TSH 38. Lb, 65 years old with DM was prescribed this long acting insulin w/ a ½ life of 36h aboiut 2 years ago: a. Insulin Aspart b. Insulin Degludec c. NPH Insulin d. Regular Insulin

39. Insulin can cause wither these side effects: a. Hypoglycemia, edema, lipodystrophy

b. GI symptoms, Lactic acidosis c. Bone fractures in women, fluid retention, edema, macular ededma d. Wt. loss, pancreatitis 40. Insulin is usually given through this route of administration a. Oralk b. SubQ c. IM d. Intradermal 41. This amylin analog is given by parenteral route and can be given in combination with Insuline for DM1 and DM2. a. Pramlintide

b. Biguinide c. Canagliflozin d. Glipizide 42. A 50 year old was diagnosed with DM2. Initially you can start with this drug: a. Pramlintide

b. Biguanide- Metformin is the 1st Line Therapy for DM2 c. Canagliflozin d. Glipizide 43. A 56 year old male with DM2 is being treated with this drug. But he complains of constant upper respiratory infection. He is possibly receiving this drug: a. Insulin b. Thiazolidinediones- Wt. gain, Edma, Increase fracture risk in women, anemia c. Biguanides- Lactic Acidosis and megaloblastic anemia d. DPP-4 Inhibitors

44. True regarding Biguanides: a. Inhibits SGLT2 causing glycosuria and lowers glucose levels in DM2 pts b. Mimics incretin effect or prolong incretin action c. Lowers glucose level by their actions on the liver, muscle and adipose tissues d. Principally slow the intestinal absorption of glucose nd 45. A 2 generation sulgonylurea, can cause hypoglycemia a. Glyburide- aka glibenclamide, 2nd generation sulfonylureas b. Repanglinide- Meglintinides c. Tolbutamide- 1st gen dulfonylureas d. Pioglitazone- Thiazolidinediones 46. This alpha glucosidase inhibitor causes diarrhea and flatulence a. Pioglitazone- Thiazolidinediones b. Bromocriptine- D2 agonist c. Acarbosed. Colesevelam- Bile binding resins 47. In a patient taking this SGLT Inhibitor, a routine analysis should be monitored a. Exanatide b. Metformin c. Canagliflozin d. Glyburide 48. A 55 year old male with DM2 and CHF, this is the least of the antiDM drug you would prescribe a. Glimepride b. Metformin c. Pioglitazone- Glitazones can cause wt gain, edema and plasma volume expansion and should be avoided in CHF patients d. Vildagliptin 49. This short actiung insulin can be given through IV: a. Lispro b. Reg. Insulin

c. MPH Insulin d. Insulin 50. This is useful in severe hypoglycemia and beta blocker overdose: a. Pramlintide b. Exenatide c. Sitagliptin d. Glucagon

51. Anatomic sites of BP regulation include the ff EXCEPT: a. Resistant arterioles b. Capacitance venules c. Liver d. Heart 52. Which of the ff is true regarding Angiotensin II production? a. Vasoconstriction of capacitance venules b. Direct inhibition of ADH production c. Stimulation of aldosterone secretion in adrenal medulla d. Vasoconstriction of resistance arterioles 53. Blood pressure is increased by all of the ff conditions EXCEPT: a. Bradycardia b. Increased stroke volume c. Atheroma d. Coarctation of Aorta 54. A pt with uncontyrolled hypertension maintained on Vlasartan 320mg OD complaines of recurrent nape pain and headache. Which of the following diuretic is suitable for combination therapy a. Furosemide b. Thiazide c. Bumentanide d. Spironoloactone 55. During hypertensive emergency which of the ff diuretics can help lower down bp? a. Furosemide- High ceiling loop diuretics b. Thiazide c. Indapamide d. Spirinolactone 56. Uncontrolled HPN with 1st line antiHPN agencts can be controlled by a combination of the primary drug and with one of the ff agents: a. Furosemide b. AAldactone c. Mannitol d. Thiazide 57. Which of the ff etiologies of HPN is not related to Primary HPN a. Abnormal cardiac and peripheral hemodynamics b. Renovascular HPN (2ndary HPN) c. Impaired pressure natriiuresis d. Baroreceptor resetting 58. Genetic influences in combination with environmental factors lead to HPN through which of the ff mechanisms? a. Defects in vascular smooth mm and structure b. Pheochromocytoma c. Altered excretory function of the kidney d. Hyperparathyroidism 59. Which of the ff factors DOES NOT regulate BP? a. Intravascular colume b. Baroreflexees c. RAS d. Histamine 60. What is the principle of anti-HPN therapy in a patient with sustained uncontrolled HPN? a. Wt reduction w/o medication b. Dietary regulation w/o medication c. AntiHPN agents alone d. Lifestyle modification and pharmacologic tx 61. Which of the ff CCB is administered IV only? a. Nicardipine

b. Clevidipine- ultrashort acting DHP recently approved for HPN emergencies c. Verapamil d. Diltiazem 62. Which of the vasodilators should be avoided in pts with increase IOP? a. Diazoxide- Hypersensitovity to thiazides b. Nifedipine- CI for those taking Rifampicin and should not be used in cases of cardiogenic shock, Hypotension c. Amlodopine- CI for Unstable angina, Aortic Stenosis and Cardiogenic shock d. Fenoldepam- CI in pt with glaucoma 63. Which of the ff antiHPN agents is/are asoociate with withdrawal syndrome a. Clonidine- abrupt discontinuation can cause rebound HPN b. Propanolol c. Both d. Neither 64. B1 Selective blocker with vasodilating properties due to an increase in endothelial release of NO? a. Nebivolol- B1 selective b. Carvedilol- 3rd Gen Nonselective, antgioxidant and anti mitogenic useful in CHF c. Labetalol- 3rd Gen Nonselective d. Esmolol -1st Gen Non Selective

65. AntiHPN agents that can be used in BPH? a. ACEI b. BBlockers c. A1 Blockers- Prazosin d. Vasodilators 66. A 65 year old mael with BP 160/100 belongs to what stage of HPN a. Normal b. PreHPN c. Stage 1

d. Stage 2

67. Responsible for moment to moment regulation of BP: a. Parasympathetic NS b. Baroreceptor c. Renin d. Aldosterone 68. This provides long term control of BP by increasing blood volume a. RAS b. Baroreceptor c. Sympathetic NS d. Parasympathetic NS 69. Inhibits the binding of angiotensin II to the receptor a. Candesartan- ARBs b. Hydralazine c. Amlodopine d. Thiazide 70. Which of the ff agents will give a (+) ANA in the blood? a. Prazosin- sa test paper ito yun sagot b. Hydralazine- has high possibility to cause Drug Induced Lupus which will case (=0 ANA in the blood (Please Double check) c. Amlodopine d. Thiazide 71. Amantadine is considered as an option during fluctuations in response to leveodopa. All of the ff should be considered before giving the drug, EXCEPT: a. Neck Vein Engorgement b. Elevated Cardiac Enzymes c. Tonic clonic Seizure d. OA 72. Which of the ff is the MOA of amantadine? a. Prevents extracerbral degradation of dopamine b. Promotes reuptake of dopamine c. Promotes synthesis and release of dopamine to the receptor sites d. Promotes degradation of dopamine

73. A patient taking Levodopa should be instructed to take drug: a. During meals b. After fatty meal c. Before meal d. High protein diets 74. Promotes an increase in the CNS concentration of dopamine by inhibiting central and peripheral metabolism of dopamine: a. Amantadine b. Levodopa c. COMT Inhibitors d. MAO Inhibitors

75. Drug that improves tremor and rigidity in parkinsonism a. Dopamine agonsits b. MAOIs c. COMT Inhibitors d. ACH Blocking agent 76. It is more potent MAO-B inhibitor in preventing MPTP-Induced Parkinsonism: a. Selegiline- Ito yun sagot sa samplex b. Rasagiline c. Phenelzine d. Tranylcypromine Rasagiline is more potent than selegiline- Textbook New and Emerging Therapies for Parkinson Disease. | Clinical ... https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jamaneurology/.../775164 Rasagiline (TVP-1012), a selective, irreversible MAO type B inhibitor, which is 5 times more potentthan selegiline in preventing MPTP-induced parkinsonism Journal

77. It prolongs that action of Levodopa by diminishing its peripheral metabolism: a. Tolcapone- Inhibits COMT in periphery as well as in the brain b. Entacapone- Acts only in the periphery c. Amantadine d. Biperiden 78. It is a potent Nonergoline Dopamine agonist that interacts with post synaptic D2 receptors in the caudate nucleus and putamen: a. Tolcapone b. Entacopone c. Apomorphine d. Biperiden ERGOLIONE DERIVATIVES Bromocriptine Pergolide Cabergoline Lisuride

NON ERGOLINE DERIVATIVES Pramipexole Ropinirole Rotigotine Piribedil Apomorphine

79. It potentiates the synthesis, release or reuptake of dopamine a. Trihexyphenidyl b. Apomorphine c. Amantdine d. Ropinrole Amantadine is an antiviral drug that is also useful in Parkinsonism. It increases synaptic dopamine level by increasing presynaptic release and decreasing its reuptake. It also possesses anticholinergic and antiglutaminergic (NMDA blocking) activity. Adverse effects of this drug include nausea, insomnia, ankle edema and livedo reticularis. It ameliorates dyskinesia associated with chronic levo-dopa therapy. 80. A 51 y/o patient with parkisnosonism is being maintained on Levodopa-Carbidopa with adjunctive use of low doses of entacapone but continues to have off perior of akinesia. The most appropriate drug to use for immediate but temporary relief is: a. Apomorphine b. Benztropine c. Carbidopa d. Selegilene Apomorphine can be given subcutaneously for temporary relief of off-periods

81. A selective irreversible inhibitor of MAO B at normal doses a. Rasagilene b. Selegilene c. Ropinrole d. Pramipexole 82. A 68 yo patient is diagnosed with Alzheimers disease but can do daily activities of daily living. Which of the ff drugs is the best choice for this stage of the disease a. Donezepil- New Generation Cholinesterase Inhibitors, administered 1x/day b. Targacept- Drug Company c. Memantine- NMDA antagonist for the treatment of ADVANCED AD d. Vit. E 83. A 72 yo patient with parkinsonism presents with swollen feet. They are red, tender and very painful. These symptoms would ablate within a few days if the patient stopped taking|: a. Amantadine b. Benztropine c. Bromcriptine- Together with Pergolide ( Dopamine Agonist) can cause digital vasospasm d. Selegiline 84. The physician who is prescribing levodopa will or should know that the drug: a. Causes less severe behavioral side effects if given with levodopa b. Fluctuates in its effectiveness with increasing frequency as treatment continues c. Prevents EPS of antipsychotic drugs d. Protect against cancer in pts with melanoma 85. The main reason why carbidopa is of value in parkinsonism is that the compound: a. Crosses BBB b. Inhibits Mao-A c. Inhibits aromatic L-AA decarboxylase d. Inhibits MAO-B 86. A patient with schizophrenia maintained in haloperidol exhibits with akathisia, dystonia, rigidity and tremors. The mechanism involve on these manifestations is related to: a. Cholinoreceptor blockade b. Dopamine receptor blockade c. A-Adrenoreceptor blockade d. 5H-HT1 blockade

87. All of the ff agents has increase EPS SE but decrease tendency to produce sedation EXCEPT: a. Fluphenazine b. Perphenazine c. Trifluoperazine d. Thioridazine Ito yun sagot sa paper…again please double check… Ang nakita ko: High potency drugs are more likely to cause EPS (Maximum with Haloperidol) whereas it is least common with thioridazine; Low potency drugs (Chlorpromazine are highly sedative whereas high potency drugs cause less sedation **Alpha1 Receptor Affinity dictates sedative effects and Orthostatic Hypotension w/ Reflex Tachycardia

88. Which of the ff is NOT a MOA of neuroleptic agents in the brain? a. Block dopamine receptors b. Block Beta receptors – See table Above c. Block serotonin receptors d. Block Cholinergic receptors 89. A pt maintained in neuroleptic agent developed agranulocytosis. Which of the ff agent is taken by the patient? a. Haloperidol b. Fluphenazine c. Clozapine d. Chlorpromazine Clozapine induced convulsions are dose-dependent adverse effect whereas agranulocytosisis independent of dose. 90. Intractable vomiting can be controlled by which of the ff neuroleptic agents? a. Prochlorperazine- Intractable Vomiting=Persistent Vomiting; Prochlorperazine b. Clozapine

c. Olanzapine- Olanzapine is an atypical antipsychotic and acts on multiple receptors and may help in treating vomiting in a patient with advanced malignancy d. Thiothixene 91. Renal Clearance of lithium is reduced by 25% with: a. BBlockers b. Paracetamol c. NSAID -- together with diuretics reduces lithium clearance d. Antihistamine 92. SE of Lithium carbonate that present with polyuria and polydipsia: a. DM b. Hyperprolactinemia c. Nephrogenic DI d. Addisons Dse 93. Toxic dose of lithium? a. 0.02mg b. 2mg c. .02mEq d. 2 mEq/L 94. All of the ff are hypotheses/theories of depression EXCEPT: a. Neurotrophic Hypothesis b. Monoamine Hypothesis c. Neuroendocrine d. Dopamine Hypothesis

95. Antidepressant agent indicated for PANIC disorder: a. Imipramine- TCA, Antidepressant Ito din yun asa paper.. pwede naman kaya lang di sya yun First line or DOC for panic D/O b. Fluoxetine- SSRI, 1st Line for patients with Panic Disorder c. TCA d. Sertraline Two recent meta-analyses9,10 found that selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are equally effective in reducing panic severity and the number of attacks Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and venlafaxine are currently considered as first-line agents for patients with panic disorder (PD)