Campbell Biology, 11e (Urry) Chapter 49 Nervous Systems 49.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) In the human knee-jerk reflex of a seated individual, as the calf is raised from a vertical position to a horizontal position, the muscles of the quadriceps (on the front of the thighs) and the muscles of the hamstring (on the back side of the thighs) are ________. A) both excited and contracting B) both inhibited and relaxed C) excited and inhibited, respectively D) inhibited and excited, respectively 2) The stretch sensors of the sensory neurons in the human knee-jerk reflex are located in the ________. A) cartilage of the knee B) quadriceps muscles on the front side of the thighs C) hamstring muscles on the back side of the thighs D) brain, the sensorimotor relay 3) Choose the correct match of glial cell type and function. A) astrocytes—promote blood flow and regulate ion concentrations B) oligodendrocytes—produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the peripheral nervous system C) radial glia—the source of immunoprotection against pathogens D) Schwann cells—provide nutritional support to non-myelinated neurons 1 4) The human knee-jerk reflex requires an intact ________. A) spinal cord B) corpus callosum C) cerebellum D) medulla
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5) Axons are especially abundant in the ________. A) gray matter of the brain and the white matter of the spinal cord B) white matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord C) gray matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord D) white matter in the brain and the white matter in the spinal cord 6) Cerebrospinal fluid can be described as which of the following? I) functioning in transport of nutrients and hormones through the brain II) a product of the filtration of blood in the brain III) functioning to cushion the brain IV) filling spaces between glial cells and neurons in the gray matter A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only I, II, and III D) only II, III, and IV 7) The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic, or opposing, actions are ________. A) motor and sensory systems B) sympathetic and parasympathetic systems C) presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes D) central nervous system and peripheral nervous system 8) Preparation for the fight-or-flight response includes activation of the ________ nervous system A) sympathetic B) somatic C) central D) parasympathetic
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9) Exercise and reactions to exciting stimuli include ________. A) increased activity in all parts of the peripheral nervous system B) increased activity in the sympathetic, and decreased activity in the parasympathetic divisions C) decreased activity in the sympathetic, and increased activity in the parasympathetic divisions D) increased activity in the enteric nervous system 10) Increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system leads to ________. A) decreased heart rate B) increased secretion by the pancreas C) increased contractions of the stomach D) relaxation of the airways in the lungs 11) The activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is associated with ________. A) resting and digesting B) release of epinephrine into the blood C) increased metabolic rate D) intensive aerobic exercise 12) In a cephalized invertebrate, the system that transmits "efferent" impulses from the anterior ganglion to distal segments is the ________. A) central nervous system B) peripheral nervous system C) autonomic nervous system D) parasympathetic nervous system
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13) Imagine you are resting comfortably on a sofa after dinner. This could be described as a state with ________. A) increased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems B) decreased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems C) decreased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, and increased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems D) increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, and decreased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems 14) If a doctor attempts to trigger the patellar tendon reflex and a lack of response occurs, what are potential regions where pathology might exist? I) the brain II) the knee III) the spinal cord A) only I B) only II C) only III D) only II and III 15) After narrowly escaping a mountain lion attack, which of the following reactions would your nervous system initiate? A) increased heartbeat B) constriction of airways C) constriction of pupils D) decreased heartbeat 16) After eating a large meal, which branch of your nervous system is activated? A) sensory B) somatic (motor) C) sympathetic D) enteric
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17) The central nervous system is lacking in animals that have ________. A) a complete gut B) bilateral symmetry C) radial symmetry D) a closed circulatory system 18) Cephalization, the clustering of neurons and interneurons in the anterior part of the animal, is apparent in ________. I) mammals II) cnidarians III) Planaria IV) sea stars A) I and II B) III and IV C) I and III D) II and IV 19) Which of the following structures or regions is correctly paired with its function? A) limbic system—motor control of speech B) medulla oblongata—emotional memory C) cerebellum—homeostatic control D) corpus callosum—communication between the left and right cerebral cortices 20) In humans, control of balance and coordinated movements are associated with increased activity in the ________. A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) spinal cord
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21) Central coordination of vertebrate biological rhythms in physiology and behavior reside in the ________. A) pituitary gland B) hypothalamus C) cerebrum D) thalamus 22) Biological rhythms in animals isolated from light and dark cues ________. A) continue to have cycles of exactly 24 hours' duration B) continue to have cycles of approximately 24 hours' duration; some more rapid, some slower C) synchronize activity with whatever lighting cycle is imposed on them D) cease having any rhythms 23) Bottlenose dolphins breathe air but can sleep in the ocean because ________. A) they sleep for only 30 minutes at a time, which is the maximum interval they can cease breathing B) they fill their swim bladder with air to keep their blowholes above the surface of the water while they sleep C) they move to shallow water to sleep, so they do not need to swim to keep their blowholes above the surface of the water D) they alternate which half of their brain is asleep and which half is awake 24) Emotional responses and memories are linked in which part of the brain? A) amygdala B) cerebellum C) cerebrum D) pons
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25) Increases and decreases of the heart rate result from changes in the activity of the ________. A) medulla oblongata B) thalamus C) pituitary D) cerebellum 26) Use the figure to answer the following question.
Control of respiration and circulation are associated with the ________. A) A B) B C) C D) E 27) Use the figure to answer the following question.
Which of the following region(s) arose developmentally from the hindbrain? A) only A B) both A and D C) only C D) both C and E 28) Use the figure to answer the following question.
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Which part of the brain, if damaged, would lead to a decrease in the release of brain derived hormones, such as oxytocin? A) both A and D B) only B C) only E D) both B and E 29) Use the figure to answer the following question.
If a person suffered a stroke which damaged brain region B, what might be the expected outcome? A) The person would suffer an inability to perform basic physiological functions, such as breathing. B) Higher-level integration of sensory inputs and motor outputs would be impaired. C) The person would not be able to see. D) Emotional response would be impaired.
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30) Movement and balance are monitored by activity in the ________. A) cerebrum B) cerebellum C) thalamus D) medulla oblongata 31) The regulation of body temperature derives from the activity of the ________. A) cerebrum B) cerebellum C) thalamus D) hypothalamus 32) Food and water appetites are under the regulatory influence of the ________. A) cerebrum B) thalamus C) hypothalamus D) medulla oblongata 33) The suprachiasmatic nuclei are found in the ________. A) hypothalamus B) epithalamus C) amygdala D) Broca's area 34) Wakefulness is regulated by the reticular formation, which is present in the ________. A) basal nuclei B) cerebral cortex C) brainstem D) limbic system
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35) If a patient has an injury in the brainstem, which of the following would be observed? A) auditory hallucinations B) visual hallucinations C) an inability to regulate body temperature D) an inability to regulate heart function 36) The telencephalon region of the developing brain of a mammal ________. A) divides further into the metencephalon and myelencephalon B) develops from the midbrain C) is the brain region most like that of ancestral vertebrates D) gives rise to the cerebrum 37) The motor cortex is part of the ________. A) cerebrum B) cerebellum C) spinal cord D) medulla oblongata 38) In mammals, advanced cognition is usually correlated with a large and very convoluted cerebral cortex, but birds are capable of sophisticated cognition because they have ________. A) a more advanced cerebellum B) a cerebellum with several flat layers C) a pallium with neurons clustered into nuclei D) microvilli to increase the brain's surface area 39) Wernicke's and Broca's regions of the brain affect ________. A) olfaction B) vision C) speech D) hearing
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40) Which of the following shows a brain structure correctly paired with one of its primary functions? A) frontal lobe—decision making B) occipital lobe—control of skeletal muscles C) temporal lobe—visual processing D) occipital lobe—speech production 41) If you were writing an essay, the part(s) of your brain that would be actively involved in this task is/are the ________. A) frontal lobes B) parietal lobe C) Broca's area D) occipital lobe 42) Wernicke's area ________. A) is active when speech is heard and comprehended B) is active during the generation of speech C) coordinates the response to olfactory sensation D) is found on the left side of the brain 43) When Phineas Gage had a metal rod driven into his frontal lobe, or when someone had a frontal lobotomy, they would ________. A) lose their sense of balance B) lose all short-term memory C) have greatly altered emotional responses D) have greatly increased long-term memory 44) Patients with damage to Broca's area have difficulty ________. A) generating speech B) recognizing faces C) understanding language D) experiencing emotion 題意45) After suffering a stroke, a patient can see objects anywhere in front of him, but pays attention only to objects in his right field of vision. When asked to describe these objects, he has difficulty judging their size and distance. What part of the brain was likely damaged by the stroke? A) the left frontal lobe B) the right frontal lobe C) the left parietal lobe D) the right parietal lobe 46) An injury to the temporal lobe will likely impair the function of the ________. A) sense of hearing B) sense of sight C) sense of taste D) sense of touch 11 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.
47) Short-term and long-term memory are related but have important differences. Short-term memory ________. A) involves temporary links formed in the cerebral cortex while long-term memory involves permanent connections within the hippocampus B) and long-term memory store information in the cerebellum but use different neurotransmitters C) is essential for acquiring and retaining long-term memories D) occurs within the hippocampus and is essential for acquiring new long-term memories within the cerebral cortex 48) One of the fundamental processes by which memories are stored and learning takes place ________. A) is related to changes in the degree of myelination of axons B) results in an increase in the diameter of axons C) results in a shift from aerobic to anaerobic respiration in neurons D) involves changing the responsiveness of postsynaptic neurons to neurotransmitter
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49) The point of connection between two communicating neurons is called the ________. A) axon hillock B) dendrite C) synapse D) glia 50) Short-term memory information processing usually causes changes in the ________. A) brainstem B) medulla C) hypothalamus D) hippocampus 51) Forming new long-term memories is strikingly disrupted after damage to the ________. A) thalamus B) cerebral cortex C) somatosensory cortex D) primary motor cortex 52) In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are released by ________. A) the dendritic membrane B) the presynaptic membrane C) axon hillocks D) cell bodies 53) In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are received by ________. A) the postsynaptic membrane B) the presynaptic membrane C) axon hillocks D) cell bodies
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54) For long-term potentiation to occur in the hippocampus, ________. A) a presynaptic neuron must release more acetylcholine neurotransmitter into the synapse B) NMDA receptors must be unblocked so that they can respond to glutamate C) the postsynaptic cell responds to glutamate by opening AMPA receptors D) the presynaptic cell must grow more axon terminals to synapse with the dendrites of the postsynaptic cell. 55) Our understanding of mental illness has been most advanced by discoveries involving the ________. A) degree of convolutions in the brain's surface B) sequence of developmental specialization C) chemicals involved in brain communications D) nature of the blood-brain barrier 56) Bipolar disorder differs from schizophrenia in that ________. A) schizophrenia typically involves hallucinations B) schizophrenia typically involves manic and depressive states C) bipolar disorder involves both genes and environment D) bipolar disorder increases biogenic amines 57) One of the complications of Alzheimer's disease is an interference with learning and memory. This disease would most likely involve ________. A) changes in the concentration of ions in the extracellular fluid surrounding neurons B) changes in myelination of axons C) molecular and structural changes at synapses D) structural changes to ion channels in axons
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58) Stem cell transplants may someday be used to treat Parkinson's disease. Researchers are hopeful that these cells would alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's disease by ________. A) preventing temporal lobe seizures B) repairing sites of traumatic brain injury C) replenishing missing ion channels D) secreting the neurotransmitter dopamine 59) The brain reward system ________. A) represents an emergent brain property that has arisen independent of natural selection B) is a reflex of the peripheral nervous primarily under autonomic control C) is housed in the thalamus and primarily regulates the enteric division of the autonomic nervous system D) utilizes the neurotransmitter dopamine and is affected by drug addiction 1) Activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system A) increases heart rate. B) enhances digestion. C) triggers release of epinephrine. D) causes conversion of glycogen to glucose. 2) Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function? A) limbic system—motor control of speech B) medulla oblongata—homeostatic control C) cerebellum—coordination of movement and balance D) amygdala—emotional memory 3) Patients with damage to Wernicke's area have difficulty A) coordinating limb movement. B) generating speech. C) recognizing faces. D) understanding language.
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4) The cerebral cortex does not play a major role in A) short-term memory. B) long-term memory. C) circadian rhythm. D) breath holding. 5) After suffering a stroke, a patient can see objects anywhere in front of him but pays attention only to objects in his right field of vision. When asked to describe these objects, he has difficulty judging their size and distance. What part of the brain was likely damaged by the stroke? A) the left frontal lobe B) the right frontal lobe C) the right parietal lobe D) the corpus callosum 6) Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt A) regulation of body temperature. B) short-term memory. C) executive functions, such as decision making. D) sorting of sensory information.
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