Cbt-2 Mcqs.docx

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CBT –2

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Prominent reticulocytosis is a feature of: a. Aplastic Anemia b. Aplastic Anemia c. Nutritional Anemia d. Anemia of chronic disease Freeze drying technique of fixation is used specially for a. Brain tumors b. Muscles c. Liver biopsy d. Renal biopsy CA-125 is used in the monitoring and treatment of: a. Ovarian cancer b. Colon cancer c. Breast cancer d. Pancreatic cancer Function of TNF and IL 1: a. Endothelial activation b. Fever c. Systemic phase response d. All of the above Fragile X syndrome is: a. AD b. AR c. X-linked d. Multifactorial The following feature is not common in 22q11.2 deletion syndrome a. Mental retardation b. Schizophrenia c. ADHD d. Congenital heart defects Which is most common benign tumour of esophagus: a. Fibroma b. Leiomyoma c. Hemangioma d. Neurofibroma All of the thyroid tumor arises from follicular epithelial cell except: a. Papillary carcinoma b. Follicular carcinoma c. Medullary carcinoma d. Anaplastic carcinoma Which of the following is correlated with disease severity in SLE: a. Anti ds DNA b. Anti nuclear antibodies c. Anti centromere antibody d. Anti histoneAb All of the following are prion disease except a. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease b. Gerstmann Sträussler Scheinker syndrome c. Kuru d. Parkinson’s Which organelle plays a pivotal role in cell injury and cell death? a. Mitochondria b. ER c. Golgi d. Lysosome All of the following are risk factor for breast cancer except: a. Early menarche b. Estrogen exposure c. Nullipara d. Early pregnancy Platelet aggregation is caused by? a. Nitrous oxide b. Thromboxane A2 c. Aspirin

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d. PGE2 14. Which source of water ranks next to rain water in purity:a. Impounding reservoirs b. Rivers O3: c. Tank d. Sea Water 15. In Kyasanur Forest Disease, the amplifying host is a. Pig b. Monkey c. Rat d. Cattle 16. Which of the following is not true about measles? a. High secondary attack rate b. Only one strain causes infection c. Not infectious in prodromal phase d. Infection confers life-long immunity 17. The Definitive & intermediate host of Taenia saginata respectively is: a. Cattle & Man b. Man & Cattle c. Pig & Man d. Man & pig 18. Screening for breast cancer using mammography is: a. Primordial prevention b. Primary prevention c. Secondary prevention d. Tertiary Prevention 19. Which of the following is a third-generation intrauterine device? a. Cu-7 b. TCu-200 c. T Cu-380A d. Progestasert 20. Which of the following vaccines has NOT been introduced in the Universal Immunization Programme in India? a. Pentavalent vaccine b. MMR vaccine c. Injectable polio vaccine d. Cervical cancer vaccine 21. Ability of a test to correctly identify all true positives is called a. Precision b. Predictive accuracy c. Sensitivity d. Specificity 22. In Severe mental retardation person has IQ of: a. < 20 b. 20-34 c. 35-49 d. 50-70 23. The ideal desk recommended for a school child is: a. Plus type b. Minus type c. Zero type d. Any of the above 24. Which virus among the following is least likely to cross placenta? a. Rubella b. Herpes simplex c. HIV d. HBV 25. Communicability of a disease is assessed bya. Secondary attack rate b. Generation time c. Serial interval d. Incubation period 26. According to the national health policy, one sub-centre for the hilly areas covers a population of? a. 3000

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CBT –2

The winners are decided by hard work and dedication

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b. 5000 c. 1000 d. 4000 Under ESI, a benefit which is NOT given in cash? a. Sickness benefit b. Medical benefit c. Maternity benefit d. Dependents' benefit Triage is? a. A concept in trauma b. A method of breast lump diagnosis c. An investigation for duodenum and pancreas d. Management of old age health problems Which is the method of choice for waste disposal for small camps? a. Dumping b. Manure pit c. Incineration d. Burial World health day is celebrated on? a. 7th April b. 11th April c. 5th June d. 1st December The number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age group in a year refers toa. Total fertility rate b. Gross reproductive rate c. Net reproductive rate d. General fertility rate Which one of the following is the most suitable situation for prescribing progestin only pill? a. Young patients b. Emergency contraception c. Lactating mother d. Woman with unexplained vaginal bleeding Multidrug treatment (MDT) for leprosy is contraindicated in a. Pregnancy b. HIV infection c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B The stool specimens for polio should be collected with in …….days after the onset of paralysis? a. 5 b. 14 c. 30 d. 60 The various uses of screening are all except: a. Case detection b. Control of disease c. Knowing natural history of disease d. Used as a basis for treatment Which of the following diseases is not transmitted by mosquitoes a. Filaria b. Japanese Encephalitis c. Kala Azar d. Chikungunya Fever pH of cervical mucus is: a. 3-4 b. 5-7 c. 7-8 d. 9-10 Average material weight gain in full term pregnancy is: a. 10–12 kg b. 12–14 kg c. 14–16 kg d. 6–8 kg

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39. Colostrum rich in which immunoglobulin: a. IgE b. Ig A c. IgG d. IgM 40. Infertility is defined as: a. Inability to conceive after 1 year of regular unprotected intercourse b. Inability to conceive after 1 year of marriage c. Inability to conceive after 2 years of marriage d. Inability to conceive in spite of 2 years of regular unprotected intercourse 41. Most common side effect of IUCD is: a. Menorrhagia b. Infection c. Perforation d. Ectopic pregnancy 42. IUCD having the longest lifespan is: a. Progestasert b. Cu T 380A c. Mirena d. Nova T 43. What is the degree of placenta previa in the following picture:

a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV 44. Following sonography shows which sign in twin pregnancy:

a. Twin peak sign b. Lambda sign c. T sign d. None of the above 45. In the following picture, which is the type of twin:

a. b. c. d.

Diamniotic dichorionic twin Diamniotic monochorionic twin Monoamniotic monochorionic twin Monoamniotic dichorionic twin

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The winners are decided by hard work and dedication 46. Following picture represent which obstetric grips during palpation:

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a. First Leopold b. Second Leopold c. Third Leopold d. Fourth Leopold All are causes of preterm labour except;a. Idiopathic b. Infections c. Multiple gestation d. Oligohydramnios Which amongst the following placental tumour is associated with polyhydramnios: a. Chorioangioma b. Teratoma c. Placental site trophoblastic tumours d. Placental metastases Risk of HRT are all EXCEPT: a. Endometrial carcinoma b. VTE c. Breast cancer d. Fractures Premenopausal changes in menstrual cycle are seen in all EXPECT: a. Menstrual cycle. b. Follicular phase. c. Luteal phase d. Menstrual blood loss. Most common site of endometriosis: a. Fallopian tube b. Ovaries c. Cul de sac d. Broad ligament Cause of amenorrhea before puberty is all EXPECT: a. Inadequate pituitary gonadotropins b. Inadequate estrogen levels c. Unresponsive endometrium d. None of the above All of the following are associated with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM), EXCEPT: a. Macrosomia b. Shoulder dystocia c. Malformations d. Polyhydramnios Most common cause of hypothyroidism in pregnancy. a. Hyperthyroid women on excessive amounts of antithyroid drugs b. Hashimoto thyroiditis c. Iodine deficiency d. Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis Indication for starting insulin in a pregnant diabetic mother on a diabetic diet: a. FBS > 108 mg/dl b. FBS > 140 mg/dl c. PLBS > 100 mg/dl d. Oral hypoglycemic agents are preferred.

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56. Indications for classical ceserean section are all except : a. Cervical cancer b. Placenta percreta c. Large lower segment fibrioid d. Abruption 57. Area between Bregma & root of nose is : a. Face b. Vertex c. Brow d. Occiput 58. All are risk factors for shoulder dystocia except : a. Obesity b. Prematurity c. Diabetes mellitus d. Excessive weight gain 59. The best method for delivering after-coming head of breech is: a. Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit b. Burns-Marshall c. Wigard-Martin d. Piper’s forceps 60. Turtle sign is seen in : a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Shoulder dystocia c. Uterine inversion d. PPH 61. PID includes all EXPECT? a. Endometritis b. Salpingitis c. pelvic peritonitis d. Cervicits 62. A lady has a history of epilepsy. Which one of the following contraceptives should not be advised? a. OC pills b. Condoms c. IUCD d. All of the above 63. Natural family planning (NFP) methods include all except : a. Rhythm method b. Basal Body Temperature Method c. Cervical Mucus Method d. Lactational Amenorrhea Method 64. Which Structural Fetal Malformations is associated with the highest risk of Aneuploidy? a. Cleft lip b. Cystic hygroma c. A Diaphragmatic hernia d. Gastroschisis 65. Triple marker test isdoneat weeks of gestation a. 10-13 b. 11-14 c. 16-18 d. 20-22 66. Fetal karyotyping can be done by all, EXCEPT: a. Cordocentesis b. Amniocentesis c. CVS d. Fetal skin biopsy 67. Which of the following statement(s) is true concerning the histologic variants of invasive breast carcinoma? a. The presence of an in situ component with invasive ductal carcinoma adversely affects prognosis b. Medullary carcinomas, although often of large size, are associated with a better overall prognosis than common invasive ductal cancers c. Mucinous or colloid carcinoma is one of the more common variants of invasive ductal cancer

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The winners are decided by hard work and dedication d.

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Invasive lobular carcinoma is associated with a lower incidence of bilateral breast cancer Which of the following breast lesions are noninvasive malignancies? a. Intraductal carcinoma of the comedo type b. Tubular carcinoma and mucinous carcinoma c. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma and lobular carcinoma d. Medullary carcinoma, including atypical medullary lesions Surgical therapy for epilepsy should be considered in patients with: a. Seizures well controlled with antiepileptic medications b. A single epileptic focus c. Seizures arising from multiple areas of cerebral cortex d. Seizures arising within the cortical motor strip The most common complication of chronic pancreatitis is a. Pseudocysts b. Duct strictures and/or stones c. Pancreatic necrosis d. Duodenal obstruction Which of the following statement(s). is/are true concerning the diagnosis of biliary tract disease? a. Nonvisualization of the gallbladder on oral cholecystogram is diagnostic of biliary calculous disease b. Ultrasonography has a diagnostic accuracy and sensitivity for cholelithiasis in excess of 95% c. Ultrasonography is the preferred test to distinguish chronic from acute cholecystitis d. Hepatobiliary scintigraphy is not indicated to confirm the clinical diagnosis of acute cholecystitis True statements about the surgical management of patients with acute calculous cholecystitis include: a. Operation should be performed in all patients as soon as the diagnosis is made. b. Antibiotic therapy should not be initiated as soon as the diagnosis is made. c. Dissection of the gallbladder is facilitated by decompression of the organ with the use of a trocar. d. An operative cholangiogram should be done in every patient. A 28-year-old man has lenticonus and ESRD. His maternal uncle also died of similar illness. What is the diagnosis? a. ARPKD b. ADPKD c. Oxalosis d. Alport’s syndrome The following type of glomerulonephritis should not be treated with prednisolone? a. Minimal change disease b. Lipoid nephrosis c. Congenital Nephrotic Syndrome d. Post-streptococcal GN If the kidney biopsy is done in a bronchogenic carcinoma patient who presents as a case of nephrotic syndrome, which lesions will be seen most likely? a. Membranous GN b. Focal proliferative GN c. Minimal change disease d. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis Feature of Granulomatous hepatitis is? a. Jaundice is a usual feature b. Seen with sarcoidosis c. Seen with syndrome X

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Seen after jejuno-ileal bypass surgery in obese patients All are features of bile acid diarrhea except? a. Fecal bile acid excretion increased b. Mild steatorrhea c. Responds to low fat diet d. Responds to cholestyramine Brain tumor causing hypernatremia in children? a. Medulloblastoma b. Cerebellar astrocytoma c. Craniophyrangioma d. Brain stem glioma Acute hyponatremia become symptomatic at: a. <135 mEq b. <125 mEq c. <120 mEq d. <110 meq In carcinoid syndrome, the part of heart mostly affected is? a. Inflow tract of RV b. Inflow tract of LV c. Mural endocardium d. Pericardium A 65 year old lady hospitalized for cervical spondylosis was found to have serum calcium of 12.5mg%. Her haematocrit and KFT is normal with phosphate of 2.3mg/dl. Which is the first investigation to be done in the patient? a. Serum PTH b. PTH-rP levels c. Serum electrophoresis for M spike d. Vitamin D3 levels Basic defect in HbS is? a. Altered function b. Altered solubility c. Altered stability d. Altered O2 binding capacity Which of the following causes of Anemia is associated with Hypoplastic marrow? a. Fanconi’s Anemia b. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria c. Hypersplenism d. Myelofibrosis The most reliable investigation in amyloid disease is: a. Rectal biopsy b. Immunoglobulin assay c. Ultrasound d. Abdominal fat pad biopsy Sicca syndrome is associated with all except: a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Midline granulomas c. Sarcoidosis d. Chronic active hepatitis All are clinical manifestations of Felty’s syndrome except: a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Splenomegaly c. Neutropenia d. Nephropathy All of the following are features of sarcoidosis except: a. Right paratracheal lymphadenopathy b. Cardiomyopathy c. Hypercalcemia d. Malabsorption syndrome What treatment should be given to a pregnant female suffering from Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome to avoid abortion? a. IVIG b. Plasmapheresis c. Aspirin + LMW heparin d. Progesterone injections

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The winners are decided by hard work and dedication 89. A 67-year-old man is admitted emergently to the hospital because of severe chest pain. A Swan-Ganz catheter is floated into the pulmonary artery, the balloon is inflated, and the pulmonary wedge pressure is measured. The pulmonary wedge pressure is used clinically to monitor which pressure? a. Left atrial pressure b. Left ventricular pressure c. Pulmonary artery diastolic pressure d. Pulmonary artery systolic pressure 90. The apex of the upright human lung compared with the base has: a. A higher PO2 b. A higher ventilation c. A lower pH in end-capillary blood d. A higher blood flow 91. Duret hemorrhages are seen in? a. Brain b. Adrenal gland c. Lungs d. Liver 92. During a demonstration for medical students, a neurologist uses magnetic cortical stimulation to trigger firing of the ulnar nerve in a volunteer. At relatively low-amplitude stimulation, action potentials are recorded only from muscle fibers in the index finger. As the amplitude of the stimulation is increased, actionpotentials are recorded from muscle fibers in both the index finger and the biceps muscle. What is the fundamental principle underlying this amplitudedependent response? a. Large motor neurons that innervate large motor units require a larger depolarizing stimulus b. Recruitment of multiple motor units requires a larger depolarizing stimulus c. The biceps muscle is innervated by more motor neurons d. The motor units in the biceps are smaller than those in the muscles of the fingers 93. “Donald Duck” voice is heard in? a. Devic’s disease b. Pseudobulbar palsy c. Progressive supra-nuclear gaze palsy d. Palatal myoclonus 94. CT scan Head should be done before Lumbar puncture in all of the following except? a. Hypertension b. Immunocompromised state c. KernohanWoltman sign d. Low GCS score 95. H reflex is used for? a. S1 radiculopathy b. L5 radiculopathy c. L4 radiculopathy d. L3 radiculopathy 96. The dissociative sensory loss is seen in all except? a. Anterior spinal artery occlusion b. Leprosy c. Multiple system atrophy d. Hydromyelia 97. What is the diagnosis of this patient?

a. Myasthenia gravis b. Congenital myopathy c. Inclusion body myositis d. Muscular dystrophy 98. What is not seen in tuberous sclerosis? a. Giant Cell Astrocytoma b. White matter migration lines c. Sub-ependymal nodules d. Ependymoma 99. What is incorrect about Brugada Syndrome? a. SCN5A defect b. Asymptomatic ST-segment elevation c. Sudden death d. Pacemaker is treatment of choice 100. What is incorrect about chronic aortic regurgitation? a. Chest pain b. Wide pulse pressure c. Quincke’s sign d. Late systolic murmur 101. A 50 year man presents with a ‘grey spot’ in his vision. He had recurrent fevers and weight loss for the past 3 months. He had a history of mitral valve disease. Vision is 6/6. Given below is the picture of his fundus. Choose the FALSE statement?

a.

Occur in several conditions including less severe virulent infections of a metastatic nature b. They are Roth spots c. They are characteristically associated with severe general reaction of the surrounding retina d. These findings can also occur in anemia, leukemia 102. Cardiomyopathy does not develop in? a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. Alkaptonuria c. Pompe disease d. Fabry’s disease 103. Which is correct about the ECG shown below?

a. First Degree Heart Block b. Second degree heart Block, Wenckebach c. 2: 1 Block d. Third degree heart Block 104. A 50 year old man develops an excruciating headache. On examination he has nuchal rigidity. NCCT performed after 4 hours shows blood in the Sylvain fissure. What does the ECG show?

a. b. c. d. 5|Page

T-wave inversion Artifact Premature ventricular complexes Prominent U wave

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The winners are decided by hard work and dedication 105. An apparently healthy 15-year-old boy dies during a minor surgical procedure while under general anesthesia. The boy’s grandfather had also died during a surgical procedure. A clinical assessment team determines that the child had malignant hyperthermia (MH), which is most likely to be associated with which of the following? a. Decreased anaerobic metabolism b. Decreased CO2 production by muscles c. Decreased lactic acid production by muscles d. Defective ryanodine receptors 106. During pregnancy , lesser volume of drug is required to achieve the same level of block in spinal anaesthesia due to? a. Increased sensitivity to local anaesthetic agents b. Increased lumbar lordosis c. Increased cardiac output d. None of above 107. Specific treatment for local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) is? a. Beta blockers b. Lipid emulsion c. Epinephrine d. None of above 108. Main problem associated with use of Xenon in anaesthesia? a. Side effects b. Prolonged recovery c. Delayed induction d. Poor availability 109. An experimental drug is being tested as a potential therapeutic treatment for asthma. Preclinical studies have shown that this drug induces the relaxation of cultured porcine tracheal smooth muscle cells precontracted with acetylcholine. Which of the following mechanisms of action is most likely to induce this effect? a. Decreased plasma membrane K permeability b. Increased plasma membrane Na permeability c. Inhibition of the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca - ATPase d. Stimulation of adenylate cyclise 110. Which one of the following statements regarding the above burn patient is correct? a. High-dose penicillin should be administered prophylactically b. Tetanus prophylaxis is not necessary if the patient has been immunized in the previous 3 years c. This burn can be estimated at 60% total body surface area using the “rule of nines” d. This patient should undergo immediate intubation for airway protection and oxygen administration 111. Benzodiazepine of choice in neuroanaesthesia is? a. Diazepam b. Lorazepam c. Midazolam d. Tolazolam 112. The tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by: a. Sensing of K+ concentration in the macula densa b. Sensing of H+ concentration in macula densa c. Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa d. Opening up of voltage gated Na+ channels in afferent arteriole 113. Contraindication for putting a nasopharyngeal airway: a. Oral trauma b. Basal skull fracture c. COPD d. All 114. Bennett’s fracture is fracture dislocation of base of metacarpal? a. 4th b. 3rd c. 2nd 6|Page

d. 1st 115. Characteristics of the hypermetabolic response to burn injury include: a. Elevation of core temperature, skin temperature, and core-to-skin heat transfer b. Ambient temperature dependency of metabolic rate. c. A marked decrease of blood flow to the burn wound. d. A curvilinear relationship to the extent of burn 116. Spermatogenesis is regulated by a negative feedback control system in which FSH stimulates the steps in sperm cell formation. Which negative feedback signal associated with sperm cell production inhibits pituitary formation of FSH? a. Testosterone b. Inhibin c. Estrogen d. LH 117. Release of which hormone is an example of neuroendocrine secretion? a. GH b. Cortisol c. Oxytocin d. Prolactin 118. Which of the following is not associated with xerostomia? a. Dehydration b. Sjögren’s syndrome c. Radiotherapy to the head and neck d. Cholinergic medications 119. Which of the following conditions is associated with ascending bacterial sialadenitis? a. Dental abscess b. Oral thrush c. Dehydration d. Otitis media 120. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched a. Gastrin – G cells b. CCK- C cells c. Motilin – M cells d. Somatostatin – D cells 121. Which of the following approaches is best suited for performing Triple Arthodesis at the ankle? a. Ollier’s approach b. Gatellier and chastang’s approach c. Posterior approach to the ankle d. Colonna’s approach 122. Which of the following is transported in intestinal epithelial cells by a Na+-dependent cotransport process? a. Fatty acids b. Triglycerides c. Fructose d. Alanine 123. Which of the following is not a complication of radiotherapy for head and neck cancer? a. Trismus b. Visual impairment c. Osteoradionecrosis of the mandible d. Renal toxicity 124. A 29-year-old woman develops difficulty in swallowing. Examination reveals acute pharyngitis. Which organism is most likely to be isolated? a. Viral b. Treponema c. Anaerobic d. Staphylococcus aureus 125. The sweat glands and piloerector muscles of hairy skin are innervated by which type of fibers? a. Cholinergic postganglionic parasympathetic

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The winners are decided by hard work and dedication b. Cholinergic postganglionic sympathetic c. Adrenergic preganglionic parasympathetic d. Adrenergic postganglionic sympathetic 126. Initial resuscitation of a trauma patient is best done by administration of which of the following? a. D5W b. D5W and 0.45% normal saline c. Ringer’s lactate solution d. 5% plasma protein solution 127. Disability of hands is maximum with a lesion of: a. Median nerve at elbow b. Median nerve at wrist c. Ulnar nerve at elbow d. Ulnar nerve at wrist 128. A classical expansile lytic lesion in the transverse process of the vertebra is seen in a. Osteosarcoma b. Osteoblastoma c. Aneurysmal bone cyst d. Metastasis 129. When size of osteoclastoma exceeds the size of metaphysis a. Tumor will be covered by fibrous capsule b. Tumor will be covered by a thin layer of bone c. It is covered by periosteum d. All of the above 130. Metabolic complications of subtotal gastrectomy with Billroth I or Billroth II reconstruction include: a. Anemia b. Reactive hypoglycemia c. Dumping syndrome d. All of the above 131. The phenomenon of decerebrate rigidity can be explained, at least in part, by which of the following? a. Stimulation of type 1b sensory neurons b. Loss of cerebellar inputs to the red nucleus c. Overactivity of the medullary reticular nuclei involved in motor control d. Unopposed activity of the pontine reticular nuclei 132. Which of the following risk factors have been shown to increase significantly the incidence of gastrointestinal bleeding from stress gastritis in intensive care unit (ICU) patients? a. Glucocorticoid administration b. Coagulopathy c. Organ transplantation d. Jaundice 133. Spongiform pustule of Kogoj is a feature of: a. Lichen planus b. Psoriasis c. Impetigo contagiosa d. Carbuncle 134. If the S-A node discharges at 0.00 seconds, when will the action potential normally arrive at the A-V node? a. 0.03 second b. 0.09 second c. 0.12 second d. 0.16 second 135. Air-borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by a. Skin biopsy b. Patch test c. Prick test d. Estimation of serum IgE levels 136. Which of the following statements about gastric polyps is true? a. Like their colonic counterparts, gastric epithelial polyps are common tumors b. They are analogous to colorectal polyps in natural history 7|Page

c.

Endoscopy can uniformly predict the histology of a polyp based on location and appearance d. Gastric adenomatous polyps greater than 2 cm. in diameter should be excised because of the risk of malignant transformation 137. A 57-year-old woman presents with scattered lightbrown macules on her dorsal hands and face, which have increased in number in recent years. They do not bleed and are otherwise unchanged. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Actinic keratoses b. Seborrheic keratoses c. Melanoma d. Solar lentigines 138. Carbon dioxide (CO2) regulates blood flow to which one of the following organs? a. Heart b. Skin c. Brain d. Kidney 139. Melasma : a. Acquired asymmetric brown hyperpigmentation b. Involves the face and neck in genetically predisposed women c. The dermal type readily responds to depigmenting agents d. Treatment includes topical steroids 140. Which of the following would be expected to occur during a Cushing reaction caused by brain ischemia? a. Increase in parasympathetic activity b. Decrease in arterial pressure c. Decrease in heart rate d. Increase in sympathetic activity 141. The nail affection shown in the following picture is most likely suggestive of?

a. Chronic bacterial paronychia b. Pachyonychia congenital c. Tinea unguium d. Nail psoriasis 142. Deviating from reminders is related to which of the following categories, while diagnosing Acute stress disorder? a. Arousal b. Negative mood state c. Avoidance d. Intrusion 143. Which of the following is responsible for the antiparasitic action of eosinophils? a. Major Basic Protein b. Superoxide c. Hydrolases d. Peroxidases 144. A person is noticed to perceive burning sensation in the brain. This experience can be explained by: a. Migraine

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The winners are decided by hard work and dedication b. Tactile hallucination c. Cenesthetic hallucination d. Multiple sclerosis 145. Important stimulants of gastrin release from endocrine cells in the antrum include a. Acidification of the antral lumen b. Small peptide fragments and amino acids from luminal proteolysis c. Locally released somatostatin d. Dietary fats 146. Somatosensory amplification is seen in: a. Mania b. Somatoform disorder c. Learning disability d. Mental retardation 147. Reduced impulse to act and indifference to consequences is seen in: a. Abulia b. Avolition c. Apathy d. Alogia 148. A 2-day-old infant starts having brief tonic–clonic seizures throughout the day. His neurological function in between seizures is normal, and he has no other medical or neurological problems. The history reveals no readily apparent causes for the seizures, though the mother recalled that her first baby also developed seizures shortly after birth that only lasted for 2 weeks, with no subsequent episodes or developmental problems. Genetic analysis revealed a mutation of voltage-gated K+ channels consistent with a diagnosis of benign familial neonatal seizures. Which of the following would cause an immediate reduction in the amount of potassium leaking out of a cell? a. Decreasing the extracellular potassium concentration b. Decreasing the extracellular sodium concentration c. Hyperpolarizing the membrane potential d. Increasing the permeability of the membrane to potassium 149. All of the following measures have been recommended for control of acid secretion in patients with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: a. Antrectomy b. Highly selective vagotomy c. Total gastrectomy d. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty 150. Which of the following feature(s) is not part of depressive personality? a. Optimism b. Chronic unhappiness c. Self-doubts d. Duty Bound 151. A woman with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis has neutropenia on routine labs and splenomegaly is noted on physical examination. Which is the most likely diagnosis? a. Thalassemia b. Hereditary spherocytosis c. Sickle cell disease d. Felty’s syndrome 152. The delivery system shown in image is

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a. Nanotechnology b. Insulin pump c. Transbuccal delivery d. Iontophoretic transdermal system 153. Highest rate of drug failure is seen in following phase of trial a. Phase 1 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 4 154. Structure passing Posterior to Hilum of lung a. Phrenic and vagus nerve b. Vagus Nerve only c. Phrenic Nerve only d. Pericardiophrenic vessels 155. Specific antidote for sulfonylurea-induced hypoglycemia: a. Glucagon b. Hydrocortisone c. Octreotide d. Adrenaline 156. Which of the following is incorrect about pramlintide? a. Most common adverse effect is nausea b. Administered as a subcutaneous injection prior to meals c. Pramlintide can be given in patients with gastroparesis d. Approved for treatment of types 1 and 2 diabetes 157. Injury to ulnar nerve at wrist causes paralysis of a. Apposition of thumb b. Abduction at carpometacarpal joint of thumb c. Adduction at thumb d. Flexion of metacarpophalangeal joint of middle finger 158. Hemodialysis is advised following acute overdose of lithium, if lithium has following blood concentration a. 0.5-0.8 meq/L b. 2.0 -3.0 meq/L c. 3.0-3.5 meq/L d. > 4 meq/L 159. Most patients with lymphedema can be managed by: a. Pedicle transfer of lymphatic-bearing tissue into the affected area b. Elevation, elastic support garments, and massage therapy or mechanical pneumatic compression c. Lymphatic bypass using an autogenous vein graft d. Excision of hypertrophic scarred fibrotic skin and subcutaneous tissue down to muscle fascia and coverage with split-thickness skin grafts 160. Following are available as Long Acting Injectable antipsychotics except a. Fluphenazine b. Haloperidol

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The winners are decided by hard work and dedication c. Paliperidone d. Clozapine 161. Which of the following part of basal ganglia involved in hemiballismus a. Caudate nucleus b. Lentiform nucleus c. Subthalamus d. Substantia nigra 162. Splenic injury is best detected by: a. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage b. CT c. Ultrasonography d. Isotope scan 163. Statin of choice in severe renal dysfunction patient is? a. Rosuvastatin b. Simvastatin c. Atorvastatin d. Lovastatin 164. Different gaps between pharyngeal muscles are marked. Identify the space which transmit glosso pharyngeal nerve

a. A b. B c. C d. D 165. A 71 year old woman often visits an emergency department with swallowing difficulties & subsequent choking while eating food. Which of the following Pairs of muscles is most instrumental in preventing food from entering the larynx & trachea during swallowing? a. Sternohyoid & sternothyroid muscles b. Oblique arytenoid and aryepiglottic muscles c. Inferior pharyngeal constrictor and thyrohyoid muscles d. Levator veli palatini and tensor veli palatini muscles 166. Which of the following Beta blocker is both class II and class III anti arrhythmic drugs as per Vaughan- Williams classification? a. Propranolol b. Esmolol c. Sotalol d. Atenolol 167. Mixed inhibitor of endothelin converting enzyme and neprilysin is a. Daglutril b. Sacubitril c. Omapatrilat d. Nesiritide 168. Which of the following statement is correct? a. Beta 2 stimulation causes glycogenolysis leading to hyperglycemia b. Beta 2 has no action on insulin release but it increases glucagon release leading to hyperglycemia c. Alpha 2 stimulation inhibits insulin release leading to hyperglycemia d. All of the above

9|Page

169. Which primary malignancy of the small intestine is most common? a. Adenocarcinoma of the duodenum b. Carcinoid tumor of the ileum c. Lymphoma of the jejunum d. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) of the duodenum 170. What does the “enterohepatic circulation” refer to? a. The superior mesenteric-portal venous circuit b. The secretion of cholesterol in the bile and its reabsorption in the distal ileum. c. The secretion of bile acids by the liver and their reabsorption in the distal ileum. d. The secretion of cholecystokinin by the jejunum and its stimulation of bile flow. 171. A 28 year old woman with complains of difficulty in swallowing. Further examination reveals that she has no taste sensation of the anterior two-third of her tongue and lack of secretion of the sub mandibular gland. Which of the following would most likely cause this condition? a. Fracture of the mandibular canal b. Section of the zygomatic nerve c. Glossopharyngeal nerve injury d. Facial nerve injury 172. A pocket- or sock-like outpouching on the anti-mesenteric side of the distal ileum, called a Meckel diverticulum, is caused by a. Excessive traction on the intestine during childbirth. b. Increased intraluminal pressure. c. A persistent vitelline duct. d. A mutation of the c-Mec gene. 173. Following structures have only adrenergic receptors for the actions shown, but no sympathetic innervations except a. Adipocytes for lipolysis b. Liver cells for gluconeogenesis c. Skeletal muscles for glycogenolysis d. Blood vessels for contraction 174. Dura is supplied by all cranial nerves except a. 12 b. 10 c. 5 d. 4 175. Which of the following points is/are true concerning the diagnosis of Crohn’s disease? a. In 10% of cases, Crohn’s disease cannot be distinguished from chronic ulcerative colitis based on clinical, radiologic, and pathologic criteria b. Although no specific laboratory tests exist for Crohn’s disease, the erythrocyte sedimentation rate has evolved as a useful measure of disease activity c. Specific endoscopic features encountered in Crohn’s disease which allow differentiation from ulcerative colitis include aphthous ulcers, cobblestoning, and skip areas d. All of the above 176. The following drug has activity on herpes viruses also : a. Emtricitabine b. Lamivudine c. Tenofovir d. Indinavir 177. Paromomycin is used in following conditions except a. Cryptosporidiosis b. Giardiasis c. Melidiosis d. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 178. A high school basketball player experiences a sudden difficulty in breathing and is brought to an emergency department. When a low tracheotomy is performed below the isthmus of the thyroid, Which of the following vessels may be

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The winners are decided by hard work and dedication encountered? a. Inferior thyroid artery b. Inferior thyroid vein c. Costocervical trunk d. Superior thyroid artery 179. Which of the following is a substrate of CYP3A4 a. Rifabutin b. Rifampicin c. Rifapentine d. None 180. Different layers of deep cervical fascia is marked in the cross section. Which of the following statement is true

a. Carotid sheath contributed by B and c b. Parotid sheath and thyroid sheath from C c. Axillary sheath from A d. Contribute to trapezius and sternocleidomastoid 181. Newer monoclonal antibody approved for Locally advanced or metastatic urothelial carcinoma a. Durvalumab b. Pembrolizumab c. Nivolumab d. Sarilumab 182. Which of the following is true statement : a. Osteoblasts give rise to osteocytes b. Growth of bone is maximum at diaphysi c. Epiphysis is present between metaphysis and diaphysis d. Interphalangeal joint is a saddle joint 183. Which of the following is a naked monoclonal antibody a. Alemtuzumab b. Blinatumomab c. Ibritumomab d. Muromonab 184. Which of the following is incorrect about Estramustine? a. Is a combination of estradiol coupled to normustine b. Estramustine functions in vivo as an alkylating agent and destroys DNA of cancer cells c. Used only for the treatment of metastatic or locally advanced hormone-refractory prostate cancer d. It binds to β tubulin 185. All the following are derivatives of foregut except: a. Bile canaliculi b. Bronchi c. Liver parenchyma d. Sinusoids 186. Which part of the ear has origin from all the three layers of germ layer? a. Auricle b. Tympanic membrane c. Ossicles d. Middle ear cavity 187. Supports of the uterus are all except a. Utero sacral ligament b. Broad ligament c. Mackenrodts ligament d. Levator ani 188. Which of these statements about the digestion of fat are true? a. Micellar solution provides an optimal environment for the action of pancreatic lipase. 10 | P a g e

b.

Decreasing the pH below 5.5 increases the effectiveness of pancreatic lipase in hydrolyzing fat. c. Co-lipase blocks triglyceride hydrolysis. d. Fatty acid and 2-monoglyceride enter the intestinal cell by active transport. 189. Waldeyer’s fascia true statement: a. In front of the bladder b. Behind the rectum c. Contains middle rectal vessels d. Condensation of pelvic peritoneum 190. A 65-year-old female requires emergency surgery for a strangulated inguinal hernia. Which of the following is correct? a. The sac is formed by an unobliterated processus vaginalis. b. The hernia is direct rather than indirect. c. Such herniae never contain small intestine. d. Strangulation never results in bowel ischemia and gangrene requiring resection. 191. A new drug is to be evaluated for its therapeutic effect. The best study design will be a. Cross sectional survey b. Case control design c. Natural experiment d. Randomized controlled trial 192. Live attenuated vaccine can be given to a. Children under 8 years b. Symptomatic HIV patients c. Patients on steroids d. Patients on radiation therapy 193. Anti-inflammatory cytokines are a. TGF-β & IL-10 b. INF-γ & TGF-β c. INF-γ & IL-10 d. TNF-α & IL-10 194. Hyper IgM syndrome is due to defect in a. CD 40 ligand b. CD 28 c. CD 16 d. CD 4 195. Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome-1 (Whitaker syndrome) is due to mutation of a. BCL-2 b. FOXP3 c. AIRE d. CTLA4 196. Which one of the following genes, when mutated, is implicated in breast and ovarian cancer? a. BRCA-1 b. MLH-1 c. Ataxia telangiectasia (AT) d. p53 197. Monoclonal Antibodies may act as Anticancer agents because they a. Inhibit angiogenesis b. Are Antagonistic to growth factors c. Increase the vulnerability of cancer cells to immune attack d. All of these 198. In ethanol metabolism, the conversion of ethanol to acetaldehyde is carried out by a. Cytochrome P450 b. Aldehyde dehydrogenase c. Alcohol dehydrogenase d. Both 1 and 2 199. CYP450 system is an example for: a. Dehydrogenase b. Monooxygenase c. Dioxygenase

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The winners are decided by hard work and dedication d. Oxidase 200. Which of the following is used as the specific antidote for acetaminophen poisoning? a. N-Acetyl cysteine b. Cysteine c. Protamine sulfate d. Vitamin K 201. Active form of Vitamin D is: a. Cholecalciferol b. 24,25(OH)2 vit-D c. 1,25(OH)2 vit-D d. 25-OH vit-D 202. Which vitamin is synthesized in the body? a. Thiamine b. Vitamin B3 c. Vitamin B6 d. Riboflavin 203. The most common cause of a deficient LES is a. Inadequate overall length b. Mean resting pressure >6 mm Hg c. Inadequate intra-abdominal length d. Failure of receptive relaxation 204. All of the following are true about Xanthine oxidase,EXCEPT: a. Contains iron b. Contains molybdenum c. Flavoprotein d. Produces H2O 205. Which of the following is the substrate for the enzyme ribonucleotide reductase? a. Nucleoside monophosphate b. Nucleoside diphosphate c. Nucleoside triphosphate d. All of the above 206. All of these are parts of the human antireflux mechanism EXCEPT a. Adequate gastric reservoir b. Mechanically functioning lower esophageal sphincter (LES) c. Mucus secreting cells of the distal esophagus d. Efficient esophageal clearance 207. The cervical esophagus receives its blood supply primarily from the a. Internal carotid artery b. Inferior thyroid artery c. Superior thyroid artery d. Inferior cervical artery 208. Which of the following statements about esophageal motility is true? a. The act of swallowing initiates LES relaxation, which persists until the bolus of food passes the LES b. The primary peristaltic wave normally propels the swallowed bolus through the esophagus in 15 to 20 seconds c. Normally, a progressive peristaltic contraction (primary wave) follows 50% of all swallows, the remainder being secondary or tertiary contraction d. Secondary peristalsis is initiated when the entire swallowed bolus of food fails to empty from the esophagus into the stomach 209. Edema in nephrotic syndrome is due to: a. Na and water restriction b. Increased venous pressure c. Hypoalbuminemia d. Hyperlipidemia 210. To which of the following amino acid, heme iron is linked? a. Leucine b. Histidine c. Isoleucine 11 | P a g e

d. Valine 211. Following are true about Portal vein except: a. Formed behind neck of pancreas b. Common bile duct is to right and anterior c. Gastroduodenal artery is to left and anterior d. Ascends behind second part of duodenum 212. Not true about structures dividing the other structures a. Pectoralis minor divide the axillary artery into three parts b. Scalenus anterior divide the subclavian artery into three parts c. Lateral pterygoid divide the maxillary artery into three parts d. Hyoglossus divide the facial artery into three parts 213. The term eye of the hand applies to nerve a. Median b. Radial c. Ulnar d. Axillary 214. Which among the following parameters in spirometry more sensitive indicator of airway obstruction in asthma? a. FEV25-75 b. PEFR c. FEV1 d. FVC 215. Ann arbor staging is used for: a. AML b. Hodgkin lymphoma c. Non- Hodgkin lymphoma d. ALL 216. FIRES is a term related to which of the following conditions? a. Burns b. Seizures c. Alopecia d. All of above 217. Alanine is similar to serine in the same way that:a. Val is similar to Thr b. Phe is similar to Tyr c. Phe is similar to Trp d. Ser is similar to Thr 218. All children with nephrotic syndrome should receive immunization against infection? a. Pneumococci b. E.coli c. Diphtheria d. Tetanus 219. Pertussis infection during early infancy is characterized by all of the following except: a. Paroxysms of cough followed by whoop b. Apnea c. Convulsions d. Cyanosis 220. This absorption spectrum belongs to

a. b. c. d.

NADH Tryptophan DNA Porphyrin

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CBT –2

The winners are decided by hard work and dedication 221. Deficiency of which of the following enzyme will result in similar condition?

a. Ornithine transcarbamoylas b. Argininosuccinate synthase c. Argininosuccinate lyase d. Arginase 222. Treatment of choice for angiofibroma: a. Surgery b. Radiotherapy c. Both d. Chemotherapy 223. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma presents as: a. Epistaxis b. Mass in neck c. Headache d. Nasal stuffiness 224. Most common cause of singers nodule is : a. Infection b. Vocal abuse c. Allergy d. Carcinoma 225. Which of the following muscle is not supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve: a. Post cricoarytenoid b. Thyroarytenoid c. Lateral cricoarytenoid d. Cricothyroid 226. In Glanzmann thrombasthenia there is defect of: a. GpΙb-ΙΙa b. GpΙΙb-ΙΙΙa c. GpΙb-ΙX d. GpΙΙb-ΙX 227. Which of the following statements about colonic motility is/are true? a. Mass contractions involve only the rectum. b. “Antiperistaltic” contractions occur in the descending colon. c. The rectum can accommodate stool by receptive relaxation. d. Stool in the colon is propelled by continues contractions. 228. Most common congenital anomaly of larynx: a. Laryngeal web b. Laryngomalacia c. Laryngeal stenosis d. Vocal cord palsy 229. Most common fractured bone in the face is: a. Nasal b. Maxillary c. Zygomatic d. Temporal 230. CSF rhinorrhoea is diagnosed by: a. Beta 2 microglobulin b. Beta 2 transferrin c. Thyroglobulin d. Transthyretin

12 | P a g e

231. All are true regarding acute diarrheal disease in children except: a. Usually caused by rotavirus and other non-invasive bacteria b. ORS and continued feeding of the child is only needed for most of the cases c. According to plan-B, child should be administered IV ringer lactate d. Usually no investigation is needed for planning treatment for acute diarrhea 232. Most common organic cause of central precocious puberty? a. Prolactinoma b. Craniopharyngioma c. Hypothalamic hamartoma d. Meningioma 233. Which of the following is a contraindication for operative closure of VSD? a. Large VSD b. Early onset of congestive cardiac failure c. Qp:Qs ratio > 2 d. Development of Eisenmenger’s syndrome 234. Which of the following is not an attribute of human milk? a. High lactose content b. Presence of a bifidus factor c. Antibody content d. High mineral content 235. Which of the following is not a true statement about Ponderal index? a. Calculated using weight and length of the baby b. Indicates how well-proportioned the infant is overall c. Value is more than 2 in normal growth babies d. Value is more than 2 in asymmetric IUGR 236. Massive aminoaciduria without a corresponding increase in plasma amino acid level is characterstic of which one of the following disease? a. Homocystinuria b. Hartnup disease c. Tyrosinemia d. Maple syrup urine disease 237. A child can ride a bicycle , copy a circle and knows age, sex by the age of a. 30 months b. 42 months c. 36 months d. 48 months 238. Identify the pattern of inheritance from this pedigree?

a. Autosomal dominant b. X linked dominant c. Autosomal recessive d. Mitochondrial 239. A 2 year old child with diarrhea had severe dehydration. After 3 hours of i.v fluid therapy with Ringer lactate, child was assessed. Hydration and general condition of the child improved, but some dehydration was still present. What should be the next course of action? a. Continue i.v fluids at lesser rate of infusion b. Continue i.v fluids at faster rate of infusion c. Start ORS d. Change over to colloid solution like 5% albumin 240. Investigation of choice for blunt trauma abdomen is

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CBT –2

The winners are decided by hard work and dedication a. X-ray standing abdomen b. Ultrasound abdomen c. DPL d. CT scan abdomen 241. Recurrent epistaxis in a 15 year old female the probable cause is: a. Juvenile nasopharyngeal fibroma b. Rhinosporidiosis c. Foreign body d. Haematological disorder 242. What is the mainstay treatment for Bell’s palsy: a. Prednisolone b. Facial nerve decompression c. Eye drops d. Electric stimulation 243. True about mammography EXCEPT: a. X-ray energy used is < 30 kV. b. Standard views in mamography include Craniocaudal and Mediolateral oblique views. c. “Target material” or anode in mammography X-ray tubes is made up tungsten d. Firm compression is essential during mammography 244. Dryness of eye is caused by injury to facial nerve at: a. Chorda tympani b. Vertical segment c. Tympanic segment d. Geniculate ganglion 245. "Swiss cheese" nephrogram is a feature of : a. Acute ureteral obstruction b. Severe hydronephrosis c. Polycystic Kidney Disease d. Medullary cystic disease of kidney 246. Simple mastoidectomy is done in: a. Acute mastoiditis b. Cholesteatoma c. Safe CSOM d. Localized chronic otitis media 247. ‘Gloved-tree’ appearance in chest X-ray is seen in a. Pneumoconiosis b. Histoplasmosis c. Bronchiectasis d. Interstitial lung disease 248. This axial CT chest remarkably demonstrates –

a. Rasmussen’s aneurysm b. Air crescent sign c. Cyst in cyst sign d. Mc Connel’s sign 249. Contrast enhanced MR brain showing lesion in left temporal lobe with typical "bag of worms" appearance is highly suggestive of?

a. 13 | P a g e

Cavernous angioma

b. Capillary telangiectasia c. AVM d. Venous angioma 250. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the abnormality seen in the following wrist X-ray?

a. It leads to AVN if untreated b. It almost never leads to non-union c. It most commonly involved waist d. CT is diagnostic in doubtful cases 251. In radiography regarding scattered radiation, which of the following is true? a. Improves image contrast b. Improves image resolution c. Reduces image contras d. Reduces patient radiation dose 252. The curie is a measure of: a. Number of disintegrations per second of a radioactive substance. b. Total energy absorbed by an object exposed to a radioactive source c. Lethal threshold for radiation exposure d. Number of alpha particles emitted by exactly one gram of a radioactive substance 253. The “R”s of radiobiology include the following except: a. Repair b. Reoxygenation c. Repopulation d. Reexcitation 254. BAHA is used for the conductive hearing loss with the following: a. Cochlear malformation b. SNHL c. B/L acoustic neuroma d. Atresia of external ear 255. The marked structure in the Waldeyer’s ring is:

a.

Nasopharyngeal tonsil

b. Lingual tonsil c. Faucial tonsil d. Tubal tonsil 256. A two year old child with a long history of purulent nasal discharge now presents with fever and right sided conjunctival congestion and edema for the past 3 days, see picture below. His fever is 103 degree F and WBC count is 12000/µL. The culture of eye discharge was negative. X-ray

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The winners are decided by hard work and dedication show opacification of ethmoid sinus. Which of the following should be the next step in evaluating this patient:

a. CT Scan b. FESS c. Blood culture d. Repeat culture of eye discharge 257. Not True regarding the given condition

a. Most common cause of stridor in newborn b. Inspiratory stridor c. Requires immediate surgery d. Stridor worsens on lying in supine position 258. Investigation of choice for Intra ocular foreign body is a. High Resolution CT b. MRI c. Water’s view d. ERG 259. NGO eye hospital make which stage of NPCB a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Not included 260. Economic blindness is defined as a. Vision < 6/60 to 3/60 b. Vision < 3/60 to 1/60 c. Vision < 1/60 to Finger counting d. No PL 261. Which of the following parameter is taken to measure vitamin A deficiency? a. Serum retinol b. Bitot spot c. Night Blindness d. Keratomalacia 262. Most common developmental tumor in eye is a. Rhabdomyosarcoma b. Dermoid c. Glioma d. Metastasis 263. Aesthesiometer measures a. Corneal epithelium b. Corneal sensations c. Corneal endothelium d. Corneal thickness 264. Surfer’s eye is another name for a. Trachoma b. Pinguecula c. Pterygium d. Photokeratitis 265. Which of the following is not a treatment strategy for conjunctivitis a. Topical antibiotis b. Irrigation of sac c. Atropine d. Dark goggles

14 | P a g e

266. Leber cells are most commonly seen in a. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis b. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis c. Ophthalmianeonatorum d. Trachoma 267. Which of the following is not a common cause of optic atrophy? a. Tobacco b. Paracetamol c. Ethyl alcohol d. Methyl alcohol 268. Not a risk factor for ocular surface squamous neoplasia (OSSN) a. UV radiation b. Keratoconus c. Cigarette smoking d. XerodermaPigmentosa 269. Which of the following is not true regarding herpes zoster ophthalmicus: a. Frontal nerve is most common nerve involved b. Dendritic ulcers are seen c. Can involve all parts of eye except sclera d. Cranial nerves can also be involved 270. Which of the following is not a sign of corneal graft failure: a. Kayes dots b. Khordaust’s line c. Neovascularization d. Epithelial defect 271. Identify the given image

a. Boston Keratoprosthesis b. Ahmad Glaucoma Valve c. Corectopia d. Laser iridotomy 272. Increased episcleral venous pressure can: a. Increase IOP b. Decrease IOP c. No effect on IOP d. Initially increases then decreases IOP 273. Tetany is caused by which poisoning:a. Oxalic acid b. Carbolic acid c. Sulphuric acid d. Nitric acid 274. Best test for seminal stains is: a. Barberio’s test b. Acid Phosphatase test c. Florence test d. Detecting the sperm itself in microscope 275. The WHO definition of health includes all of the following dimensions except? a. Social b. Spiritual c. Physical d. Economic 276. The Childhood deaths from TB are usually caused by a. Meningitis b. Pulmonary TB c. Lymph node TB d. Gastrointestinal TB 277. STI Clinics have been rebranded as?

Dr. Marwah’s Test Series WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3

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The winners are decided by hard work and dedication a. Guptraog Clinic b. Sambandh Clinic c. Suraksha Clinic d. Suvidha Clinic 278. Use of a volunteer sample is generally to be avoided because: a. Volunteers are hard to get b. They are unlikely to be representative of the intended population c. They are difficult to stratify d. Replication is difficult 279. Not true for Criminal negligence a. No specific violation of law need to be proved b. Punishment is imprisonment c. Gross negligence leading to death is criminal negligence d. Guilt should be proved beyond reasonable doubt in court 280. False +ve hydrostatic test in live born fetus is fora. Atelectasis b. Artificial Respiration c. Putrefaction d. Both 1 and 2 281. According to BMW rules 2016 the biomedical waste has been classified into how many categories? a. 10 b. 5 c. 4 d. 1 282. Washburn’s Index is with respect to which bone? a. Clavicle b. Sternum c. Pelvis d. Skull 283. Judicial hanging causes : a. C2 - 3 fracture dislocation b. C4 - 5 fracture dislocation c. C6 - 7 fracture dislocation d. None of the above 284. All are true regarding NK cells except: a. CD16 positive b. CD56 positive c. Secrete complement-like substance d. None 285. Not true about scrub typhus: a. Chigger borne b. Vector is mite c. Caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi d. Chlamydial disease 286. Hanging is defined as : a. Suspension of body a ligature, body weight acting as constricting force b. Suspension of body by ligature, after death c. Obliteration of air passages by external compression d. Mechanical interference to respiration 287. True about Hepatitis C virusa. DNA virus b. Does not cause liver cancer c. Most common cause of liver transplantation d. Does not cause coinfection with Hepatitis B virus 288. Chickenpox is a. Foodborne disease b. Airborne disease c. Contact disease d. Waterborne disease 289. Hydrocution is : a. Electrocution in water b. Dry Drowning c. Drowning in cold water 15 | P a g e

d. Postmortem immersion 290. The infective form for man in case of Schistosoma infection isa. Metacercaria b. Cercaria c. Coracidium d. Operculated egg 291. Gettler test detects: a. Diatoms in drowning b. Chloride content of blood in drowning c. Weight of lungs in drowning d. Magnesium content of blood in drowning 292. Characteristic feature of antemortem drowning is? a. Emphysema aquosum b. Paltauf's hemorrhage c. Water in stomach d. Cutis anserine 293. False about filariasis is: a. Man is intermediate host b. Adult worms are found in lymphatics of man c. Culex is a vector d. Life span of microfilaria is not exactly known 294. In vivo, Candida albicans producesa. Yeast cells b. Hyphae c. Yeast cells and pseudohyphae d. Yeast cells, pseudohyphae and chlamydospores 295. In India, Rhinosporidosis is prevalent in: a. Assam b. Tamil Nadu c. Punjab d. Gujarat 296. Coomb’s test is: a. Precipitation test b. Agglutination test c. CFT d. Neutralization test 297. MHC class II molecules are found on: a. Virtually all cells in the body. b. B cells, dendritic cells and macrophages. c. Only gamma-interferon activated cells. d. Virtually all nucleated cells in the body. 298. Which of the following tests can you use for differentiating Staphylococcus and Streptococcus a. Gram staining b. Hemolysis on blood agar c. Catalase test d. Coagulase test 299. The toxigenicity of C.diphtheriae is due to a. Beta phage b. Lambda page c. Gamma phage d. Delta phage 300. Irradiation can be used to sterilize all except a. Bone graft b. Suture c. Artificial tissue graft d. Bronchoscope