Paper I
Bank of Maharashtra
Bank Probationary Officers Exam May 2008 Question Paper (Fully Solved) REASONING 1. How many such digits are there in the number 5236978 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 2. In a certain code COMPUTER is written as LNBVQSFU. How is BULKHEAD written in that code ? (1) MVCILEBF (2) KTAILEBF (3) MTAGJEBF (4) KTAGJEBF (5) None of these 3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters IDET using each letter only once in each word ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) HK (2) BD (3) FI (4) MP (5) SV 5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) Tomato (2) Brinjal (3) Radish (4) Pumpkin (5) Gourd 6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word IMPORTANCE, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) Dog (2) Horse (3) Wolf (4) Jackal (5) Cat 8. In a certain code FIRE is written as #%@$ and DEAL is written as ©$↑. How is FAIL written in that code ? COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, AUGUST 2008
(1) #%↑ (2) #$%↑ (3) #@$ (4) #©↑ (5) None of these 9. In a certain code language, ‘come again’ is written as ‘ho na’; ‘come over here’ is written as ‘pa na ta’ and ‘over and above’ is written as ‘ki ta ja’. How is ‘here’ written in that code language ? (1) pa (2) na (3) ta (4) ja (5) None of these 10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) 84 (2) 120 (3) 72 (4) 108 (5) 98 Directions (Qs. 11-15) : In these questions, symbols @, #, %, $ and © are used with different meanings as follows : ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’. ‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’. ‘A % B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’. ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’. ‘A © B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’. 11. Statements : J # H, H © T, T $ R, R % F Conclusions : I. J # R II. R # F III. J # T (1) Only I is true (2) Only I & II are true (3) Only III is true (4) All are true (5) None of these 12. Statements : E $ P, P % H, H @ I, I # K Conclusions : I. P © I II. I % E III. H % K (1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only III is true (4) Only I and II are true (5) None is true
13. Statements : L @ K, K # R, R $ H, H % N Conclusions : I. L # R II. N # R III. L © N (1) Only I and II are true (2) Only either I or II is true (3) Only II and III are true (4) Only III is true (5) None of these 14. Statements : T $ V, V % K, K © L, L % H Conclusions : I. V % H II. T $ L III. T $ H (1) Only I and II are true (2) Only II and III are true (3) Only I and III are true (4) All are true (5) None of these 15. Statements : V @ W, W # D, D $ M, M % F Conclusions : I. V # D II. F # D III. V © F (1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only either I or II is true (4) Both I and II are true (5) None of these Directions (Qs. 16 - 20) : In each of these questions are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II & III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 16. Statements : Some plates are spoons. All spoons are forks. All forks are bowls. Some bowls are utensils. Conclusions : I. Some plates are bowls. II. All spoons are bowls. III. Some forks are utensils. 145
Paper I
Union Public Service Commission
Combined Defence Services Exam September 2008 Question Paper (Fully Solved) GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 1. The Treaty of Amritsar was concluded between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and who among the following ? (a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Dalhousie (c) Lord Hastings (d) Lord Minto 2. Consider the following statements : 1. The Ministries/Departments of the Union Government are created by the Prime Minister. 2. The Cabinet Secretary is the exofficio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. With respect to Article 371 A of the Constitution of India, the Governor of which one of the following States has special responsibility with respect to law and order of the State ? (a) Assam (b) Manipur (c) Nagaland (d) Andhra Pradesh 4. Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag) comes under which one of the following Ministries ? (a) Ministry of Culture (b) Ministry of Home Affairs (c) Ministry of Human Resource Development (d) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting 5. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development is also known as (a) Credit Bank (b) Exim Bank (c) World Bank (d) Asian Bank 6. Consider the following statements : 1. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are appointed by the President. 2. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are eligible for further employment under the Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 7. The Bombay High Court does not have a bench at which one of the following places ? COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, MARCH 2009
(a) Nagpur (b) Panaji (c) Pune(d) Aurangabad 8. Consider the following statements : 1. Article 46 of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. 2. Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides for equality before law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Organisation Headquarters (a) International : Geneva Labour Organisation (b) International : London Maritime Organisation (c) International : Washington Monetary D.C. Fund (d) International : New York Atomic Energy Agency 10. In which one of the following States is Kakrapar nuclear power station located ? (a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat 11. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (a) All meridians run in a true northsouth direction (b) Meridians are spaced farthest apart at the Equator and converge to common points at the Poles (c) All meridians are always parallel to one another (d) An indefinite number of meridians may be drawn on a globe 12. The hill station of Coonoor is located in which one of the following States ? (a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu 13. Which one of the following places is famous for production of railway coaches ? (a) Nashik (b) Kapurthala (c) Kanpur (d) Kochi
14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Slate 1. Igneous rock B. Lignite 2. Metamorphic rock C. Bauxite 3. Non-ferrous mineral D. Granite 4. Sedimentary rock Code : A B C D (a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 4 3 2 15. Which one of the following is correct ? Setting of Plaster of Paris is (a) dehydration. (b) oxidation with atmospheric oxygen. (c) hydration leading to another hydrate. (d) combination with atmospheric CO2. 16. Which one of the following rivers flows into the Arabian Sea ? (a) Indravati (b) Godavari (c) Kaveri (d) Narmada 17. The island of Honshu is located in which one of the following countries ? (a) Indonesia (b) Malaysia (c) Japan (d) South Korea 18. In which one of the following countries is the volcano Guallatiri located? (a) Peru (b) Chile (c) Tanzania (d) Ecuador 19. For which one of the following is Sualkuchi famous ? (a) Bird sanctuary (b) Temple city (c) Silk centre (d) Hill station 20. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Aurangabad 1. Auroville B. Guwahati 2. Sarnath C. Puducherry 3. Ellora temples D. Varanasi 4. Nilachal hills Code : A B C D (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3 131
Paper I
Union Public Service Commission
Combined Defence Services Exam February 2008 Question Paper (Fully Solved) GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 1. Who among the following is the Chairman of the 13th Finance Commission ? (a) Vijay Tendulkar (b) M. Damodaran (c) Vijay Kelkar (d) Y. V. Reddy 2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (Folk Dance) (State) A. Bhavai 1. Mizoram B. Thabal Chongba 2. Assam C. Cheraw 3. Manipur D. Bhortal Nritya 4. Rajasthan Code : A B C D (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 3 1 4 3. Two Greenfield airport projects in India are being implemented on Build Own Operate Transfer (BOOT) basis. One is at Bengaluru. Where is the other one located ? (a) Hyderabad (b) Chennai (c) Kolkata (d) Mumbai 4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (Institute of Indian (Location) Systems of Medicine) A. National Institute 1. Kolkata of Unani Medicines B. National Institute 2. Jaipur of Homoeopathy C. National Institute 3. Chennai of Ayurveda D. National Institute 4. Bengaluru of Siddha Code : A B C D (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 3 1 2 4 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 2 1 4 5. Consider the following statements : 1. Currently three waterways have been declared as the National Waterways of India. COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, JUNE 2008
2. The Sadiya-Dhubri stretch of river Brahmaputra is the longest National Waterway. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 6. Consider the following statements : 1. BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) is visualised as a bridging link between ASEAN and SAARC. 2. It was formerly known as the Bangkok Agreement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 7. Who is the Chairman of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission ? (a) Bimal Jalan (b) Dr. Karan Singh (c) M. Veerappa Moily (d) Ahmed Patel 8. Which one of the following is not a member of ASEAN ? (a) Cambodia (b) Malaysia (c) Singapore (d) South Korea 9. Dr. C. Rangarajan Committee is associated with which one of the following ? (a) Pricing and Taxation of Petroleum Products (b) Estimation of National Income (c) Tax Structure (d) Estimation of Money Supply 10. Where is the International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials (ARCI) located ? (a) Bengaluru (b) Hyderabad (c) Coimbatore (d) Machilipatnam 11. What is ‘Super 301’ ? (a) A name of modern computer (b) A new variety of wheat (c) American Trade Law (d) A new vaccine for AIDS 12. Who is the Managing Director of IMF ? (a) Rodrigo Rato (b) Dominique Strauss-Kahn (c) Daniel Vasella (d) Alberto Foutana
13. Which one of the following sites of the Indus Valley Civilisation had an ancient dockyard ? (a) Kalibangan (b) Lothal (c) Rangpur (d) Harappa 14. How many hours of daylight does the equator experience on September equinox ? (a) 8 hours (b) 9 hours (c) 10 hours (d) 12 hours 15. What is the period covered by the recommendations of the 12th Finance Commission ? (a) Year 2004-2009 (b) Year 2005-2010 (c) Year 2006-2011 (d) Year 2007-2012 16. Which one of the following is not identified by Central Pollution Control Board as heavily polluting industry ? (a) Pulp and Paper (b) Sugar (c) Tea (d) Fertiliser 17. Consider the following statements : 1. The Golden Quadrilateral connects the four major cities of Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. 2. The North-South Corridor will pass through Hyderabad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 18. Among the following, which Mughal Emperor introduced the policy of Sulh-i-kul ? (a) Babar (b) Humayun (c) Akbar (d) Shahjahan 19. Who built the Ibadatkhana at Fatehpur Sikri ? (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb 20. Malik Kafur was whose General ? (a) Balban (b) Ala-ud-din Khilji (c) Muhammad-bin Tughluq (d) Firoz Shah Tughluq 21. Among the following, who is given the credit of carrying Jainism in South India ? (a) Sudharmana (b) Indrabhuti (c) Bhadrabahu (d) Sthulabhadra 139
Paper I General Insurance Corporation Of India (GIC)
Assistant Managers Recruitment Exam August 2008 Question Papers (Fully Solved) TEST I : REASONING ABILITY 1. In a class of 60 students number of boys and girls participating in the annual sports is in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. The number of girls from the class not participating in the sports is 5 more than the boys from the class who are not participating in the sports. If the number of boys participating in the sports is 15, how many girls are there in the class ? (1) Data inadequate (2) 20 (3) 25 (4) 30 (5) None of these Directions (Qs. 2 to 5) : Read the following information and answer these questions : (i) P, Q, R, S and T finished the work, working from Monday to Saturday, one of the days being holiday, each working overtime only on one of the days. (ii) R and T did not work overtime on the first day. (iii) Q worked overtime the next day after the holiday. (iv) The overtime work done on the previous day of the holiday was by R. (v) There was a two-day gap between the days on which P and Q worked overtime. (vi) P worked overtime the next day of the overtime day of S. 2. When did T work overtime ? (1) On the day previous to that on which S worked overtime. (2) On the next day of the day on which Q worked overtime. (3) Two days after the day on which S worked overtime (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 3. How many days’ gap was there between the days on which P & T worked overtime ? (1) Three (2) Two (3) One (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 4. On what day did R work overtime ? (1) Monday (2) Tuesday (3) Thursday (4) Friday (5) None of these COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, JANUARY 2009
5. Which of the following is the correct statement ? (1) P worked overtime, last among them (2) P worked overtime earlier than S (3) The holiday was on Friday (4) S worked overtime earlier than Q (5) None of these 6. In a certain code ‘acquisition or construction should be completed within three years’ is written as ‘three be or within should years construction completed acquisition’. How will ‘interest paid on loan will be allowed for deduction’ be written in the code ? (1) for will paid allowed loan on deduction be interest (2) for will allowed paid loan deduction on be interest (3) for will paid allowed loan deduction on be interest (4) for will paid allowed loan deduction be on interest (5) None of these 7. Which of the following will be the changed form of the word OBLIQUE when the word is written again by substituting each vowel by the 2nd letter following it in the English alphabet and each consonant is substituted by the 3rd letter following it in the English alphabet ? (1) MEDGTSD (2) RDNLSXH (3) QEOKTXG (4) QEOKTWG (5) None of these 8. If a meaningful word can be formed using the five letters NWROD, each only once, then the fourth letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed then Y is your answer and if no such word can be formed then ‘Z’ is your answer. (1) D (2) W (3) R (4) Y (5) Z 9. Pointing towards a girl in the picture Sunita said, “She is the mother of Renu whose father is my son.” How Sunita is related to that girl in the picture. (1) Mother (2) Aunt (3) Cousin (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
10. P’s father is Q’s son. M is the paternal uncle of P and N is the brother of Q. How is N related to M ? (1) Brother (2) Nephew (3) Cousin (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these Directions (Qs. 11 to 15) : Read the following information and answer these questions : (i) A, B, C, D, E, F & G are sitting along a circle facing at the centre and are playing cards. (ii) E is neighbour of A & D. (iii) G is not between F and C. (iv) F is to the immediate right of A. 11. Who are the neighbours of B ? (1) C and D (2) F and C (3) A and F (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 12. Which pair given below has the second person sitting immediately to the right of the first ? (1) CB (2) DG (3) EA (4) AB (5) None of these 13. Which of the following has the persons sitting adjacent to each other from left to right in order as given ? (1) CDG (2) EDG (3) BGC (4) FBC (5) None of these 14. What is the position of F ? (1) To the immediate left of A (2) To the immediate right of B (3) 2nd to the right of C (4) 3rd to the left of D (5) None of these 15. Which of the following does not have the pair sitting adjacent to each other ? (1) BA (2) CB (3) DE (4) GD (5) All are sitting adjacent to each other Directions (Qs. 16 to 20) : To answer these questions study the following arrangement : J Y 2 = S £ δ E G M 7 $ H P9KLβ@WQ13#CD© 16. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which 115
Paper I
Union Bank Of India
Bank Probationary Officers Exam September 2008 Question Papers (Fully Solved) REASONING ABILITY 1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) 19 (2) 17 (3) 23 (4) 29 (5) 27 3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each letter only once in each word ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE written in that code ? (1) 5427 (2) 5247 (3) 5847 (4) 5237 (5) None of these 5. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related to (1) JM (2) IL (3) JL (4) IK (5) None of these 6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 7. In a certain code BREAK-DOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in that code ? (1) PSHBMCDRH (2) BHSPMCDRH (3) BHSPOCDRH (4) BHSPNHRDC (5) None of these 8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da na ja’ means ‘you may come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in that code language ? (1) da (2) ja (3) na (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, JANUARY 2009
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) Copper (2) Iron (3) Aluminium (4) Zinc (5) Steel 10. What should come next in the following number series ? 98 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 59 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1 (5) None of these 11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following five numbers ? 254 319 963 842 697 (1) 5 (2) 1 (3) 6 (4) 4 (5) 9 12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday ? (1) 10th (2) 11th (3) 10th or 11th (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many students are there between M and H ? (1) 22 (2) 23 (3) 24 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who among them scored least marks ? (1) A (2) C (3) B (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) BDF (2) VXZ (3) FIK (4) MOQ (5) LNP Directions (Qs. 16 to 22) : In each of the following questions below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer— (1) if only conclusion I follows. (2) if only conclusion II follows. (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. (5) if both conclusions I and II follow. 16. Statements : Some desks are tents. Some tents are rivers. All rivers are ponds. Conclusions : I. Some ponds are tents. II. Some ponds are desks. 17. Statements : All chairs are pens. Some pens are knives. All knives are rats. Conclusions : l. Some rats are chairs. II. Some rats are pens. 18. Statements : Some forests are huts. Some huts are walls. Some walls are nets. Conclusions : I. Some nets are forests. II. Some nets are huts. 19. Statements : All tables are windows. All windows are rooms. All rooms are buses. Conclusions : I. Some buses are tables. II. Some rooms are tables. 105
Railway Recruitment Board Exam Technical & Non-Technical Categories
Model Question Papers/Practice Tests 1. The thread angle of Whitworth thread form is (A) 55° (B) 60° (C) 90° (D)None of these 2. Which of the following processes will produce the best surface finish ? (A) Turning (B) Lapping (C) Grinding (D)Filing 3. In the turning operation, RPM of the spindle depends on (A) Length of the job (B) Diameter of the job (C) Both of the above (D)None of the above 4. The term BTU stands for (A) Basic Thermal Unit (B) British Thermal Unit (C) Briler Temperature Unit (D)None of these 5. Absolute pressure is equal to (A) Gauge pressure (B) Gauge pressure – Atmospheric pressure (C) Gauge Pressure + Atmospheric pressure (D)Atmospheric pressure 6. One ton refrigeration is equivalent to (A) 12,000 Btuh (B) 10,000 Btuh (C) 250 Btu per min (D) 1,000 Btuh 7. Pyrometer is used to measure GENERAL KNOWLEDGE TODAY, APRIL 2008
(A)Intensity of light (B) High Temperatures (C) High Voltage (D)Low Temperatures 8. For underground cables, the depth of the trench is approximately (A)30 cm (B) 60 cm (C) 200 cm (D)120 cm 9. During which test of the induction motor, the reduced voltage is applied ? (A)No load test (B) Blocked rotor test (C) Insulation test (D)Resistance test 10. The range of a voltmeter can be increased by connecting (A)High resistance in series (B) Low resistance in series (C) High resistance in parallel (D)Depends on the range of the existing voltmeter 11. International ohm is defined as the resistance of (A)A column of mercury (B) A cube of copper (C) A cylinder of silver (D)A wire of nichrome 12. The laminations of a transformer are made from (A)Copper (B) Mild steel (C) Nickel alloy steel (D) Zinc-copper alloy 109
State Bank Of India Clerical Staff Recruitment Exam January 2008 Question Paper (Fully Solved) GENERAL AWARENESS 1. Who amongst the following is the Head of the RBI at present ? (1) Mr. K.V. Kamath (2) Dr. Y.V. Reddy (3) Mr. Y.R. Narayanamurthy (4) Mr. O.P. Bhatt (5) None of these 2. India has different categories of Commercial banks. Which of the following is not one such category? (1) Private Banks (2) Commodity Banks (3) Nationalised Banks (4) Co-operative Banks (5) Foreign Banks 3. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently imposed a restriction on money flow in equity through ‘P-Notes’. What is the full form of ‘P-Notes’ ? (1) Permanent Notes (2) Purchase Notes (3) Participatory Notes (4) Private Notes (5) None of these 4. Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian cricket team which won the Twenty20 World Cup2007 ? (1) Yuvraj Singh (2) M.S. Dhoni (3) Rahul Dravid (4) Sourav Ganguly (5) None of these GENERAL KNOWLEDGE TODAY, APRIL 2008
5. The money which Government of India spends on the development of infrastructure in country comes from which of the following sources ? [Pick up the correct statement(s)] (A) Loan from World Bank/ADB, etc. (B) Taxes collected from the people. (C) Loan from the RBI. (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Both A & B (5) All A, B & C 6. Which of the following organisations/agencies has established a fund known as “Investor Protection Fund” ? (1) SEBI (2) NABARD (3) Bombay Stock Exchange (4) Ministry of Health (5) None of these 7. Which of the following departments of the Government of India is helping banks in disbursement of rural credit by the banks ? (1) Railways (2) State Road Transports (3) Posts & Telegraph (4) Ministry of Health (5) None of these 8. Which of the following types of banks are allowed to operate foreign currency accounts ? (A) Foreign Banks 23
Paper I
State Bank Probationary Officers’ Exam October 2008 Question Papers (Fully Solved) GENERAL AWARENESS/COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE 1. Which of the following is/are true about the National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) which was in news recently ? (A) The NRAA was set up in 1955 at the initiative of the then Prime Minister J. L. Nehru. (B) NRAA was established to coordinate the work of five Ministries associated with the development of rainfed areas. (C) NRAA is now converted into a Corporation of the same name. (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) All A, B & C (5) None of these 2. The final results of the last economic census conducted in India in the year 2005 were published recently. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are true about the economic census ? (A) Economic Census is basically the data pertaining to growth in employment opportunities. (B) Economic Census is conducted every fifth year by the Ministry of Home Affairs. (C) Only non-agricultural establishments are covered in economic census. (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) All A, B & C (5) None of these 3. The Government of India is in the process of bringing some changes and amendments in the existing Money Laundering Act. What are the changes suggested in the law ? (A) Some payment gateways like Master and Visa Cards are required to be discontinued with immediate effect. (B) Money Transfer Services like Western Union should be brought under the purview of the Act. (C) A New Financial Intelligence Unit will be set up to keep a check on huge cash transactions. (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) All A, B & C (5) None of these 4. Balmiki Prasad Singh has taken over as the Governor of COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, MARCH 2009
(1) Goa (2) Bihar (3) Meghalaya (4) Sikkim (5) None of these 5. The New Capital Adequacy Framework prescribed for the banks is commonly known as (1) Credit Policy (2) Monetary Policy (3) KYC Norms (4) Basel Accord (5) None of these 6. The Paralympic Games in September 2008 were held at (1) Tokyo (2) New York (3) Madrid (4) Stockholm (5) Beijing 7. The recent report on Global Development Finance released by the World Bank has projected India’s GDP growth rate at which of the following levels ? (1) 5% (2) 6% (3) 7% (4) 8% (5) 9% 8. Daiichi Sankyo has recently taken over which of the following Companies/ Corporations of Indian base ? (1) Jet Airways (2) Ranbaxy (3) Bhilai Steel Plant (4) National Textiles Corporation (5) None of these 9. The sudden turn of events in the economic environment globally, in the last four to five months have resulted in slowing down of India’s economic growth. Which of the following is/are the event(s) which has/have put their impact on Indian economy ? (A) Turmoil in US Credit market. (B) Large scale increase in the prices of crude oil and foodgrains. (C) Adoption of Basel II norms by the banks. (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Both A & B only (5) All A, B & C 10. Which of the following cities is placed at the top of the list of cities found suitable for “Global Commerce” compiled by the Master Cards ? (Results of the survey were published recently in various financial newspapers.) (1) London (2) New York
(3) Tokyo (4) Beijing (5) Mumbai 11. As we all know Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the percentage of the deposit banks keep in reserve with them. This ratio is also known as (1) Repo Rate (2) Reverse Repo Rate (3) SLR (4) Liquidity Ratio (5) None of these 12. Ghulam Nabi Azad was in the news recently as he has resigned from the post of the (1) Governor, Jammu & Kashmir (2) Chief Minister, Jammu & Kashmir (3) Governor, Jharkhand (4) Chief Minister, Jharkhand (5) Governor, Manipur 13. Which of the following is India’s Tax to GDP ratio ? (1) 5% (2) 15% (3) 25% (4) 30% (5) None of these 14. The next Non-Aligned Movement Summit 2009 is scheduled to be held in (1) India (2) Egypt (3) Brazil (4) South Africa (5) None of these 15. When an agent asks a customer to invest in a Mutual Fund product without telling him/her about the risks involved in the investment, the process is termed as (1) Mis-selling (2) Undertaking (3) Misappropriation of funds (4) Cross-selling (5) None of these 16. When a corporate entity wishes to raise money from the market it can do that by issuing (1) Treasury Bills (2) Memorandum of Association (3) Kisan Vikas Patra (4) National Savings Certificate (5) Commercial Papers 17. Which of the following countries has offered an aid of Rs. 1200 crores for the second phase of India’s Universal Elementary Education Scheme popularly known as “Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan” ? (1) USA (2) France (3) Italy (4) Russia (5) United Kingdom 123