2004-09-03_162043_set07_gmat

LSAT 逻辑阅读第七套

SECTION I Time-35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, More than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, You are to choose the best answer; that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the questions. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous. or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer; blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

1. Before the printing press, books could be purchased only in expensive manuscript copies. The printing press produced books that were significantly less expensive than the manuscript editions. The public’s demand for printed books in the first years after the invention of the printing press was many times greater than demand had been for manuscript copies. This increase demonstrates that there was a dramatic jump in the number of people who learned how to read in the years after publishers first started producing books on the printing press. Which one of the following statements, if true, casts doubt on the argument? (A) During the first years after the invention of the printing press, letter writing by people who wrote without the assistance of scribes or clerks exhibited a dramatic increase. (B) Books produced on the printing press are often found with written comments in the margins in the handwriting of the people who owned the books. (C) In the first years after the printing press was invented, printed books were purchased primarily by people who had always bought and read expensive manuscripts but could afford a greater number of printed books for the same money. (D) Books that were printed on the printing press in the first years after its invention often circulated among friends in informal reading clubs or libraries. (E) The first printed books published after the invention of the printing press would have been useless to illiterate people, since the books had virtually no illustrations. 2. Bevex, an artificial sweetener used only in soft drinks, is carcinogenic for mice, but only when it is consumed in very large quantities. To ingest an amount of Bevex equivalent to the amount fed to the mice in the relevant studies, a person would have to drink 25 cans of Bevex-sweetened soft drinks per day. For that reason, Bevex is in fact safe for people. In order for the conclusion that Bevex is safe for people to be properly drawn, which of the following must be true? (A) Cancer from carcinogenic substances develops more slowly in mice than it does in people. (B) If all food additives that are currently used in foods were tested, some would be found to be carcinogenic

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for mice. (C) People drink fewer than 25 cans of Bevex-sweetened soda per day. (D) People can obtain important health benefits by controlling their weight through the us of artificially sweetened soft drinks. (E) Some of the studies done on Bevex were not relevant to the question of whether or not Bevex is carcinogenic for people. 3. Harry: Airlines have made it possible for anyone to travel around the would in much less time than was formerly possible. Judith: That is not true. Many flights are too expensive for all but the rich. Judith’s response shows that she interprets Harry’s statement to imply that (A) the majority of people are rich (B) everyone has an equal right to experience would travel (C) world travel is only possible via routes serviced by airlines (D) most forms of world travel are not affordable for most people (E) anyone can afford to travel long distances by air 4. Nutritionists have recommended that people eat more fiber. Advertisements for a new fiber-supplement pill state only that it contains “44 percent fiber”. The advertising claim is misleading in its selection of information on which to focus if which one of the following is true? (A) There are other products on the market that are advertised as providing fiber as a dietary supplement. (B) Nutritionists base their recommendation on medical findings that dietary fiber protects against some kinds of cancer. (C) It is possible to become addicted to some kinds of advertised pills, such as sleeping pills and painkillers. (D) The label of the advertised product recommends taking 3 pills every day. (E) The recommended daily intake of fiber is 20 to 30 grams, and the pill contains one-third gram. 5. Many environmentalists have urged environmental awareness on consumers, saying that if we accept moral responsibility for our effects on the environment, then products that directly or indirectly harm the environment ought to be avoided. Unfortunately it is usually impossible for consumers to assess the environmental impact of a product, and thus impossible for them to consciously restrict their purchases to environmentally benign products. Because of this impossibility there can be no moral duty to choose products in the way these environmentalists urge, since ______. Which one of the following principles provides the most appropriate completion for the argument? (A) a moral duty to perform an action is never based solely on the effects the action will have on other people. (B) a person cannot possibly have a moral duty to do what he or she is unable to do

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(C) moral considerations should not be the sole determinants of what products are made available to consumers (D) the morally right action is always the one whose effects produce the least total harm (E) where a moral duty exists, it supersedes any legal duty and any other kind of duty 6. Advertisement: Anyone who exercises knows from firsthand experience that exercise leads to better performance of such physical organs as the heart and lungs, as well as to improvement in muscle tone. And since your brain is a physical organ, your actions can improve its performance, too. Act now. Subscribe to Stimulus: read the magazine that exercise your brain. The Advertisement employs which one of the following argumentative strategies? (A) It cites experimental evidence that subscribing to the product being advertised has desirable consequences. (B) It ridicules people who do not subscribe to Stimulus by suggesting that they do not believe that exercise will improve brain capacity. (C) It explains the process by which the product being advertised brings about the result claimed for its use. (D) It supports its recommendation by a careful analysis of the concept of exercise. (E) It implies that brains and muscle are similar in one respect because they are similar in another respect. Questions 7 – 8 Coherent solutions for the problem of reducing health-care costs cannot be found within the current piecemeal system of paying these costs. The reason is that this system gives health-care providers and insurers every incentive to shift, wherever possible, the costs of treating illness onto each other or any other party, including the patient. That clearly is the lesson of the various reforms of the 1980s; push in on one part of this pliable spending balloon and an equally expensive bulge pops up elsewhere. For example, when the government health-care insurance program for the poor cut costs by disallowing payments for some visits to physicians, patients with advanced illness later presented themselves at hospital emergency rooms in increased numbers. 7. The argument proceeds by (A) showing that shifting costs onto the patient contradicts the premise of health-care reimbursement (B) attribution without justification fraudulent intent to people (C) employing an analogy to characterize interrelationships (D) denying the possibility of a solution by disparaging each possible alternative system (E) demonstrating that cooperation is feasible by citing an instance 8. The argument provides the most support for which one of the following? (A) Under the conditions in which the current system operates, the overall volume of health-care costs could be shrunk, if at all, only by a comprehensive approach (B) Relative to the resources available for health-care funding, the income of the higher-paid health-care professionals is too high.

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(C) Health-care costs are expanding to meet additional funds that have been made available for them. (D) Advances in medical technology have raised the expected standards of medical care but have proved expensive. (E) Since unfilled hospital beds contribute to overhead charges on each patient’s bill, it would be unwise to hold unused hospital capacity in reserve for large-scale emergencies. 9. The commercial news media emphasize exceptional events such as airplane crashes at the expense of those such as automobile accidents, which occur far fore frequently and represent a far greater risk to the public. Yet the public tends to interpret the degree of emphasis the news media give to these occurrences as indicating the degree of risk they represent. If the statements above are true, which one of the following conclusions is more strongly supported by them? (A) Print media, such as newspapers and magazines, are a better source of information than are broadcast media. (B) The emphasis given in the commercial news media to major catastrophes is dictated by the public’s taste for the extraordinary. (C) Events over which people feel they have no control are generally perceived as more dangerous than those, which people feel they can avert or avoid. (D) Where commercial news media constitute the dominant source of information, public perception of risk does not reflect actual risk. (E) A massive outbreak of cholera will be covered more extensively by the news media than will the occurrence of a rarer but less serious disease. 10. A large group of hyperactive children whose regular diets included food containing large amounts of additives was observed by researchers trained to assess the presence or absence of behavior problems. The children were ten placed on a low-additive diet for several weeks, after which they were observed again. Originally nearly 60 percent of the children exhibited behavior problems; after the change in diet, only 30 percent did so. On the basis of these data, it can be concluded that food additives can contribute to behavior problems in hyperactive children. The evidence cited fails to establish the conclusion because (A) there is no evidence that the reduction in behavior problems was proportionate to the reduction in food-additive intake (B) there is no way to know what changes would have occurred without the change of diet, since only children who changed to a low-additive diet were studied (C) exactly how many children exhibited behavior problems after the change in diet cannot be determined, since the size of the group studied is not precisely given (D) there is no evidence that the behavior of some of the children was unaffected by additives (E) the evidence is consistent with the claim that some children exhibit more frequent behavior problems after being on the low-additive diet than they had exhibited when first observed

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11. In 1990 major engine repairs were performed on 10 percent of the cars that had been built by the National Motor Company in the 1970s and that were still registered. However, the corresponding figure for the cars that the National Motor Company had manufactured in the 1960s was only five percent. Which of the following, if true, most helps to explain the discrepancy? (A) Government motor vehicle regulations generally require all cars, whether old or new, to be inspected for emission levels prior to registration. (B) Owners of new cars tend to drive their cars more carefully than do owners of old cars. (C) The older a car is, the more likely it is to be discarded for scrap rather than repaired when major engine work is needed to keep the car in operation. (D) The cars that the National Motor Company built in the 1970s incorporated simplified engine designs that made the engines less complicated than those of earlier models. (E) Many of the repairs that were performed on the cars that the National Motor Company built in the 1960s could have been avoided if periodic routine maintenance had been performed. 12. No mathematician today would flatly refuse to accept the results of an enormous computation as an adequate demonstration of the truth of a theorem. In 1976, however, this was not the case. Some mathematicians at that time refused to accept the results of a complex computer demonstration of a very simple mapping theorem. Although some mathematicians still hold a strong belief that a simple theorem ought to have a short, simple proof, in fact, some simple theorems have required enormous proofs. If all of the statements in the passage are true, which one of the following must also be true? (A) Today, some mathematicians who believe that a simple theorem ought to have a simple proof would consider accepting the results of an enormous computation as a demonstration of the truth of a theorem. (B) Some individuals who believe that a simple theorem ought to have a simple proof are not mathematicians. (C) Today, some individuals who refuse to accept the results of an enormous computation as a demonstration of the truth of a theorem believe that a simple theorem ought to have a simple proof. (D) Some individuals who do not believe that a simple theorem ought to have a simple proof would not be willing to accept the results of an enormous computation as proof of a complex theorem. (E) Some nonmathematicians do not believe that a simple theorem ought to have a simple proof. 13. If you climb mountains, you will not live to a ripe old age. But you will be bored unless you climb mountains. Therefore, if you live to a ripe old age you will have been bored. Which of the following most closely parallels the reasoning in the arguments above? (A) If you do not try to swim, you will not learn how to swim. But you will not be safe in boats if you do not learn how to swim. Therefore, you must try to swim. (B) If you do not play golf, you will not enjoy the weekend. But you will be tired next week unless you relax during the weekend. Therefore, to enjoy the weekend, you will have to relax by playing golf.

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(C) If you work for your candidate, you will not improve your guitar playing. But you will neglect your civic duty unless you work for your candidate. Therefore, if you improve your guitar playing, you will have neglected your civic duty. (D) If you do not train, you will not be a good athlete. But you will become exhausted easily unless you train. Therefore, if you train, you will not have become exhausted easily. (E) If you spend all of your money, you will not become wealthy. But you will become hungry unless you spend all of your money. Therefore, if you become wealthy, you will not become hungry. 14. Marine biologists had hypothesized that lobsters kept together in lobster traps eat one another in response to hunger. Periodic checking of lobster traps, however, has revealed instances of lobsters sharing traps together for weeks. Eight lobsters even shared one trap together for two months without eating one another. The marine biologists’ hypothesis, therefore, is clearly wrong. The argument against the marine biologists’ hypothesis is based on which one of the following assumptions? (A) Lobsters not caught in lobster traps have been observed eating one another. (B) Two months is the longest known period during which eight or more lobsters have been trapped together. (C) It is unusual to find as many as eight lobsters caught together in one single trap. (D) Members of other marine species sometimes eat their own kind when no other food sources are available. (E) Any food that the eight lobsters in the trap might have obtained was not enough to ward off hunger. 15. Eight years ago hunting was banned in Greenfield County on the grounds that hunting endangers public safety. Now the deer population in the county is six times what it was before the ban. Deer are invading residential areas. Damaging property and causing motor vehicle accidents that result in serious injury to motorists. Since there were never any hunting=related injuries in the county, clearly the ban was not only unnecessary but has created a danger to public safety that would not otherwise exist. Which one of the following, if true, provides the strongest additional support for the conclusion above? (A) In surrounding counties, where hunting is permitted, the size of the deer population has not increased in the last eight years. (B) Motor vehicle accidents involving deer often result in damage to the vehicle, injury to the motorist, or both. (C) When deer populations increase beyond optimal size, disease and malnutrition become more widespread among the deer herds. (D) In residential areas in the county, many residents provide food and salt for deer. (E) Deer can cause extensive damage to ornamental shrubs and trees by chewing on twigs and saplings. 16. Comets do not give off their own light but reflect light from other sources, such as the Sun. Scientists estimate the mass of comets by their brightness by their brightness: the greater a comet’s mass, the more light that comet will reflect. A satellite probe, however, has revealed that the material of which Halley’s comet is composed reflects 60 times less light per unit of mass than had been previously thought.

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The statements above, if true, give the most support to which one of the following? (A) Some comets are composed of material that reflects 60 times more light per unit of mass than the material of which Halley’s comet is composed. (B) Previous estimates of the mass of Halley’s comet which were base on its brightness were too low. (C) The total amount of light reflected from Halley’s comet is less than scientists had previously thought. (D) The reflective properties of the material of which comets are composed vary considerably from comet to comet. (E) Scientists need more information before they can make a good estimate of the mass of Halley’s comet. 17.Office manager: I will not order recycled paper for this office. Our letters to clients must make a good impression, so we cannot print them on inferior paper. Stationery supplier: recycled paper is not necessarily inferior. In fact, from the beginning, the finest paper has been made of recycled material. It was only in the 1850s that paper began to be made from wood fiber, and then only because there were no longer enough rags to meet the demand for paper. In which of the following ways does the stationer’s response fail to address the office manager’s objection to recycled paper? (A) It does not recognize that the office manager’s prejudice against recycled paper stems from ignorance. (B) It uses irrelevant facts to justify a claim about the quality of the disputed product. (C) It assumes that the office manager is concerned about environmental issues. (D) It presupposes that the office manager understands the basic technology of paper manufacturing. (E) It ignores the office manager’s legitimate concern about quality. Question 18 – 19 When Alicia Green borrowed a neighbor’s car without permission, the police merely gave her a warning. However, when Peter Foster did the same thing, he was charged with automobile theft. Peter came to the attention of the police because the car he was driving was hit by a speeding taxi. Alicia was stopped because the car she was driving had defective taillights. It is true that the car Peter took got damaged and the car Alicia took did not, but since it was the taxi that caused the damage this difference was not due to any difference in the blameworthiness of their behavior. Therefore, Alicia should also have been charged with automobile theft. 18. The statement that the car Peter took got damaged and the car Alicia took did not plays which one of the following roles in the argument? (A) It presents a reason that directly supports the conclusion. (B) It justifies the difference in the actual outcome in the two cases. (C) It demonstrates awareness of a fact on which a possible objection might be based. (D) It illustrates a general principle on which the argument relies. (E) It summarizes a position against which the argument is directed.

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19. If all of the claims offered in support of the conclusion are accurate, each of the following could be true EXCEPT: (A) The interests of justice would have been better served if the police had released Peter Foster with a warning. (B) Alicia Green had never before driven a car belonging to someone else without first securing the owner’s permission. (C) Peter Foster was hit by the taxi while he was running a red light, whereas Alicia Green drove with extra care to avoid drawing the attention of the police to the car she had taken. (D) Alicia Green barely missed hitting a pedestrian when she sped through a red light ten minutes before she was stopped by the police for driving a car that had defective taillights. (E) Peter Foster had been cited for speeding twice in the preceding month, whereas Alicia Green had never been cited for a traffic violation. 20. According to sources who can be expected to know, Dr. Maria Esposito is going to run in the mayoral election. But if Dr. Esposito runs, Jerome Krasman will certainly not run against her. Therefore Dr. Esposito will be the only candidate in the election. The flawed reasoning in the argument above most closely parallels that in which one of the following? (A) According to its management, Brown’s Stores will move next year. Without Brown’s being present, no new large store can be attracted to the downtown area. Therefore the downtown area will no longer be viable as a shopping district. (B) The press release says that the rock group Rollercoaster is playing a concert on Saturday. It won’t be playing on Friday if it plays on Saturday. So Saturday will be the only day this week on which Rollercoaster will perform. (C) Joshua says the interviewing panel was impressed by Marilyn. But if they were impressed by Marilyn, they probably thought less of Sven. Joshua is probably right, and so Sven will probably not get the job. (D) An informant says that Rustimann was involved in the bank robbery, If Rustimann was involved, Jones was certainly not involved. Since these two are the only people who could have been involved. Rustimann is the only person the police need to arrest. (E) The review said that this book is the best one for beginners at programming. If this book is the best, that other one can’t be as good. So this one is the book we should buy. 21. The initial causes of serious accidents at nuclear power plants have not so far been flaws in the advanced-technology portion of the plants. Rather, the initial causes have been attributed to human error, as when a worker at the Browns Mills reactor in the United States dropped a candle and started a fire, or to flaws in the plumbing, exemplified in a recent incident in Japan. Such everyday events cannot be thought unlikely to occur over the long run. Which of the following is most strongly supported by the statements above? (A) Now that nuclear power generation has become a part of everyday life, an ever-increasing yearly incidence of serious accidents at plants can be expected.

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(B) If nuclear power plants continue in operation, a serious accident at such a plant is not improbable. (C) The likelihood of human error at the operating consoles of nuclear power generators cannot be lessened by thoughtful design of dials, switches, and displays. (D) The design of nuclear power plants attempts to compensate for possible failures of the materials used in their construction. (E) No serious accident will be caused in the future by some flaw in the advanced-technology portion of a nuclear power plant. 22. There is a widespread belief that people can predict impending earthquakes from unusual animal behavior. Skeptics claim that this belief is based on selective coincidence: people whose dogs behaved oddly just before an earthquake will be especially likely to remember that fact. At any given time, the skeptics say, some of the world’s dogs will be behaving oddly. Clarification of which one of the following issues would be most important to an evaluation of the skeptics’ position? (A) Which is larger, the number of skeptics or the number of people who believe that animal behavior can foreshadow earthquakes? (B) Are there means other than the observation of animal behavior that nonscientists can use to predict earthquakes? (C) Are there animals about whose behavior people know too little to be able to distinguish unusual from everyday behavior? (D) Are the sorts of behavior supposedly predictive of earthquakes as pronounced in dogs as they are in other animals? (E) Is the animal behavior supposedly predictive of earthquakes specific to impending earthquakes or can it be any kind of unusual behavior? 23. Defendants who can afford expensive private defense lawyers have a lower conviction rate than those who rely on court-appointed public defenders. This explains why criminals who commit lucrative crimes like embezzlement or insider trading are more successful at avoiding conviction than are street criminals. The explanation offered above would be more persuasive if which one of the following were true? (A) Many street crimes, such as drug dealing, are extremely lucrative and those committing them can afford expensive private lawyers. (B) Most prosecutors are not competent to handle cases involving highly technical financial evidence and have more success in prosecuting cases of robbery or simple assault. (C) The number of criminals convicted of street crimes is far greater than the number of criminals convicted of embezzlement or insider trading. (D) The percentage of defendants who actually committed the crimes of which they are accused is no greater fro publicly defended than for privately defended defendants. (E) Juries, out of sympathy for the victims of crimes, are much more likely to convict defendants accused of violent crimes than they are to convict defendants accused of “victimless” crimes or crimes against property.

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24. Many major scientific discoveries of the past were the product of serendipity, the chances discovery of valuable findings that investigators had not purposely sought. Now, however, scientific research tends to be so costly that investigators are heavily dependent on large grants to fund their research. Because such grants require investigators to provide the grant sponsors with clear projections of the outcome of the proposed research, investigators ignore anything that does not directly bear on the funded research. Therefore, under the prevailing circumstances, serendipity can no longer play a role in scientific discovery. Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? (A) Only findings that an investigator purposely seeks can directly bear on that investigator’s research. (B) In the past few scientific investigators attempted to make clear predictions of the outcome of their research. (C) Dependence on large grants is preventing investigators from conducting the type of scientific research that those investigators would personally prefer. (D) All scientific investigators who provide grant sponsors with clear projections of the outcome of their research receive at least some of the grants for which they apply. (E) In general the most valuable scientific discoveries are the product of serendipity. 25. Police statistics have shown that automobile antitheft devices reduce the risk of car theft, but a statistical study of automobile theft by the automobile insurance industry claims that cars equipped with antitheft devices are, paradoxically, more likely to be stolen than cars that are not so equipped. Which one of the following, if true, does the most to resolve the apparent paradox? (A) Owners of stolen cars almost invariably report the theft immediately to the police but tend to delay notifying their insurance company, in the hope that the vehicle will be recovered. (B) Most cars that are stolen are not equipped with antitheft devices, and most cars that are equipped with antitheft devices are not stolen. (C) The most common automobile antitheft devices are audible alarms, which typically produce ten false alarms for every actual attempted theft. (D) Automobile owners who have particularly theft-prone cars and live in areas of greatest incidence of car theft are those who are most likely to have antitheft devices installed. (E) Most automobile thefts are the work of professional thieves against whose efforts antitheft devices offer scant protection.

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SECTION III Time-35 minutes 27 Questions Directions: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

The labor force is often organized as if workers had no family responsibilities. Preschool-age children need full-time care: children in primary school need care after school and during school vacations. Although day-care services can resolve some scheduling conflicts between home and office, workers cannot always find or afford suitable care. Even when they obtain such care, parents must still cope with emergencies, such as illnesses, that keep children at home. Moreover, children need more than tending; they also need meaningful time with their parents. Conventional full-time workdays, especially when combined with unavoidable household duties, are too inflexible for parents with primary child-care responsibility. Although a small but increasing number of working men are single parents, those barriers against successful participation in the labor market that are related to primary child-care responsibilities mainly disadvantage women. Even in families where both parents work, cultural pressures are traditionally much greater on mothers than on fathers to bear the primary child-rearing responsibilities. In reconciling child-rearing responsibilities with participation in the labor market, many working mothers are forced to make compromises. For example, approximately one-third of all working mothers are employed only part-time, even though part-time jobs are dramatically underpaid and often less desirable in comparison to full-time employment. Even though part-time work is usually available only in occupations offering minimal employee responsibility and little opportunity for advancement or self-enrichment, such employment does allow many women the time and flexibility to fulfill their family duties, but only at the expense of the advantages associated with full-time employment. Moreover, even mothers with full-time employment must compromise opportunities in order to adjust to barriers against parents in the labor market. Many choose jobs entailing little challenge or responsibility or those offering flexible scheduling, often available only in poorly paid positions, while other working mothers, although willing and able to assume as much responsibility as people without children, find that their need to spend regular and predictable time with their children inevitably causes them to lose career opportunities to those without such demands. Thus, women in education are more likely to become teachers than school administrators, whose more conventional full-time work schedules do not correspond to the schedules of school-age children, while female lawyers are more likely to practice law in trusts and estates, where they can control their work schedules, than in litigation, where they cannot. Nonprofessional women are concentrated in secretarial work and department store sales, where their absences can be covered easily by

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substitutes and where they can enter and leave the work force with little loss, since the jobs offer so little personal gain. Indeed, as long as the labor market remains hostile to parents, and family roles continue to be allocated on the basis of gender, women will be seriously disadvantaged in that labor market. 1. Which one of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage? (A). Current trends in the labor force indicate that working parents, especially women, may not always need to choose between occupational and child-care responsibilities. (B). In order for mothers to have an equal opportunity for advancement in the labor force, traditional family roles have to be reexamined and revised. (C). Although single parents who work have to balance parental and career demands, single mothers suffer resulting employment disadvantages that single fathers can almost always avoid. (D). Although child-care responsibilities disadvantage many women in the labor force, professional women (such as teachers and lawyers) are better able to overcome this problem than are nonprofessional women. (E). Traditional work schedules are too inflexible to accommodate the child-care responsibilities of many parents, a fact that severely disadvantages women in the labor force. 2. Which one of the following statements about part-time work can be inferred from the information presented in the passage? (A). One-third of all part-time workers are working mothers. (B). Part-time work generally offers fewer opportunities for advancement to working mothers than to women generally. (C). Part-time work, in addition to having relatively poor wages, often requires that employees work during holidays, when their children are out of school. (D). Part-time employment, despite its disadvantages, provides working mothers with an opportunity to address some of the demands of caring for children. (E). Many mothers with primary child-care responsibility choose part-time jobs in order to better exploit full-time career opportunities after their children are grown. 3. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about working fathers in two-parent families? (A). They are equally burdened by the employment disadvantages placed upon all parents—male and female—in the labor market. (B). They are so absorbed in their jobs that they often do not see the injustice going on around them. (C). They are shielded by the traditional allocation of family roles from many of the pressures associated with child-rearing responsibilities. (D). They help compound the inequities in the labor market by keeping women form competing with men for career opportunities. (E). They are responsible for many of the problems of working mothers because of their insistence on traditional roles in the family. 4. Of the following, which one would the author most likely say is the most troublesome barrier facing

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working parents with primary child-care responsibility? (A). the lack of full-time jobs open to women (B). the inflexibility of work schedules (C). the low wages of part-time employment (D). the limited advancement opportunities for nonprofessional employees (E). the practice of allocating responsibilities in the workplace on the basis of gender 5. The passage suggests that day care is at best a limited solution to the pressures associated with child rearing for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: (A). Even the best day care available cannot guarantee that children will have meaningful time with their parents. (B). Some parents cannot afford day-care services (C). Working parents sometimes have difficulty finding suitable day care for their children. (D). Parents who send their children to day care still need to provide care for their children during vacations. (E). Even children who are in day care may have to stay home when they are sick. 6. According to the passage, many working parents may be forced to make any of the following types of career decisions EXCEPT (A). declining professional positions for nonprofessional ones, which typically have less conventional work schedules (B). accepting part-time employment rather than full-time employment (C). taking jobs with limited responsibility, and thus more limited career opportunities, in order to have a more flexible schedule (D). pursuing career specializations that allow them to control their work schedules instead of pursuing a more desirable specialization in the same field (E). limiting the career potential of one parent, often the mother, who assumes greater child-care responsibility 7. Which one of the following statements would most appropriately continue the discussion at the end of the passage? (A). At the same time, most men will remain better able to enjoy the career and salary opportunities offered by the labor market. (B). Of course, men who are married to working mothers know of these employment barriers but seem unwilling to do anything about them. (C). On the other hand, salary levels may become more equitable between men and women even if the other career opportunities remain more accessible to men than to women. (D). On the contrary, men with primary child-rearing responsibilities will continue to enjoy more advantages in the workplace than their female counterparts. (E).Thus, institutions in society that favor men over women will continue to widen the gap between the career opportunities available for men and for women.

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Critics have long been puzzled by the inner contradictions of major characters in John Webster’s tragedies. In his The Duchess of Malfi, for instance, the Duchess is “good” in demonstrating the obvious tenderness and sincerity of her love for Antonio, but “bad” in ignoring the wishes and welfare of her family and in making religion a “cloak” hiding worldly self-indulgence. Bosola is “bad” in serving Ferdinand, “good” in turning the Duchess’ thoughts toward heaven and in planning to avenge her murder. The ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle implied that such contradictions are virtually essential to the tragic personality, and yet critics keep coming back to this element of inconsistency as though it were an eccentric feature of Webster’s own tragic vision. The problem is that, as an Elizabethan playwright, Webster has become a prisoner of our critical presuppositions. We have, in recent years, been dazzled by the way the earlier Renaissance and medieval theater, particularly the morality play, illuminates Elizabethan drama. We now understand how the habit of mind that saw the world as a battleground between good and evil produced the morality play. Morality plays allegorized that conflict by presenting characters whose actions were defined as the embodiment of good or evil. This model of reality lived on, overlaid by different conventions, in the most sophisticated Elizabethan works of the following age. Yet Webster seems not to have been as heavily influenced by the morality play’s model of reality as were his Elizabethan contemporaries; he was apparently more sensitive to the more morally complicated Italian drama than to these English sources. Consequently, his characters cannot be evaluated according to reductive formulas of good and evil, which is precisely what modern critics have tried to do. They choose what seem to be the most promising of the contradictor values that are dramatized in the play, and treat those values as if they were the only basis for analyzing the moral development of the play’s major characters, attributing the inconsistencies in a character’s behavior to artistic incompetence on Webster’s part. The lack of consistency in Webster’s characters can be better understood if we recognize that the ambiguity at the heart of his tragic vision lies not in the external world but in the duality of human nature. Webster establishes tension in his plays by setting up conflicting systems of value that appear immoral only when one value system is viewed exclusively from the perspective of the other. He presents us not only with characters that we condemn intellectually or ethically and at the same time impulsively approve of, but also with judgments we must accept as logically sound and yet find emotionally repulsive. The dilemma is not only dramatic: it is tragic, because the conflict is irreconcilable, and because it is ours as much as that of the characters. 8. The primary purpose of the passage is to (A). clarify an ambiguous assertion (B). provide evidence in support of a commonly held view (C). analyze an unresolved question and propose an answer (D). offer an alternative to a flawed interpretation (E). describe and categorize opposing viewpoints 9. The author suggests which one of the following about the dramatic works that most influenced Webster’s tragedies?

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(A). They were not concerned with dramatizing the conflict between good and evil that was presented in morality plays. (B). They were not as sophisticated as the Italian sources from which other Elizabethan tragedies were derived. (C). They have never been adequately understood by critics. (D). They have only recently been used to illuminate the conventions of Elizabethan drama. (E). They have been considered by many critics to be the reason for Webster’s apparent artistic incompetence. 10. The author’s allusion to Aristotle’s view of tragedy in lines 11-13 serves which one of the following functions in the passage? (A). It introduces a commonly held view of Webster’s tragedies that the author plans to defend. (B). It supports the author’s suggestion that Webster’s conception of tragedy is not idiosyncratic. (C). It provides an example of an approach to Webster’s tragedies that the author criticizes. (D). It establishes the similarity between classical and modern approaches to tragedy. (E). It supports the author’s assertion that Elizabethan tragedy cannot be fully understood without the help of recent scholarship. 11. It can be inferred from the passage that modern critics’ interpretations of Webster’s tragedies would be more valid if (A). the ambiguity inherent in Webster’s tragic vision resulted from the duality of human nature (B). Webster’s conception of the tragic personality were similar to that of Aristotle (C). Webster had been heavily influenced by the morality play (D). Elizabethan dramatists had been more sensitive to Italian sources of influence (E). the inner conflicts exhibited by Webster’s characters were similar to those of modern audiences 12. With which one of the following statements regarding Elizabethan drama would the author be most likely to agree? (A). The skill of Elizabethan dramatists has in recent years been overestimated. (B). The conventions that shaped Elizabethan drama are best exemplified by Webster’s drama. (C). Elizabethan drama, for the most part, can be viewed as being heavily influenced by the morality play. (D). Only by carefully examining the work of his Elizabethan contemporaries can Webster’s achievement as a dramatist be accurately measured. (E). Elizabethan drama can best be described as influenced by a composite of Italian and classical sources. 13. It can be inferred from the passage that most modern critics assume which one of the following in their interpretation of Webster’s tragedies? (A). Webster’s play tended to allegorize the conflict between good and evil more than did those of his contemporaries. (B). Webster’s plays were derived more from Italian than from English sources. (C). The artistic flaws in Webster’s tragedies were largely the result of his ignorance of the classical definition

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of tragedy. (D). Webster’s tragedies provide no relevant basis for analyzing the moral development of their characters. (E). In writing his tragedies, Webster was influenced by the same sources as his contemporaries. 14. the author implies that Webster’s conception of tragedy was (A). artistically flawed (B). highly conventional (C). largely derived from the morality play (D). somewhat different from the conventional Elizabethan conception of tragedy (E). uninfluenced by the classical conception of tragedy

Cultivation of a single crop on a given tract of land leads eventually to decreased yields. One reason for this is that harmful bacterial phytopathogens, organisms parasitic on plant hosts, increase in the soil surrounding plant roots. The problem can be cured by crop rotation, denying the pathogens a suitable host for a period of time. However, even if crops are not rotated, the severity of diseases brought on by such phytopathogens often decreases after a number of years as the microbial population of the soil changes and the soil becomes “suppressive” to those diseases. While there may be many reasons for this phenomenon, it is clear that levels of certain bacteria, such as Pseudomonas fluorescens, a bacterium antagonistic to a number of harmful phytopathogens, are greater in suppressive than in nonsuppressive soil. This suggests that the presence of such bacteria suppresses phytopathogens. There is now considerable experimental support for this view. Wheat yield increases of 27 percent have been obtained in field trials by treatment of wheat seeds with fluorescent pseudomonads. Similar treatment of sugar beets, cotton, and potatoes has had similar results. These improvements in crop yields through the application of Pseudomonas fluorescens suggest that agriculture could benefit from the use of bacteria genetically altered for specific purposes. For example, a form of phytopathogen altered to remove its harmful properties could be released into the environment in quantities favorable to its competing with and eventually excluding the harmful normal strain. Some experiments suggest that deliberately releasing altered nonpathogenic Pseudomonas syringae could crowd out the nonaltered variety that causes frost damage. Opponents of such research have objected that the deliberate and large-scale release of genetically altered bacteria might have deleterious results. Proponents, on the other hand, argue that this particular strain is altered only by the removal of the gene responsible for the strain’s propensity to cause frost damage, thereby rendering it safer than the phytopathogen from which it was derived. Some proponents have gone further and suggest that genetic alteration techniques could create organisms with totally new combinations of desirable traits not found in nature. For example, genes responsible for production of insecticidal compounds have been transposed from other bacteria into pseudomonads that colonize corn roots. Experiments of this kind are difficult and require great care: such bacteria are developed in highly artificial environments and may not compete well with natural soil bacteria. Nevertheless,

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proponents contend that the prospects for improved agriculture through such methods seem excellent. These prospects lead many to hope that current efforts to assess the risks of deliberate release of altered microorganisms will successfully answer the concerns of opponents and create a climate in which such research can go forward without undue impediment. 15. Which one of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage? (A). Recent field experiments with genetically altered Pseudomonas bacteria have shown that releasing genetically altered bacteria into the environment would not involve any significant danger. (B). Encouraged by current research, advocates of agricultural use of genetically altered bacteria are optimistic that such use will eventually result in improved agriculture, though opponents remain wary. (C). Current research indicates that adding genetically altered Pseudomonas syringae bacteria to the soil surrounding crop plant roots will have many beneficial effects, such as the prevention of frost damage in certain crops. (D). Genetic alteration of a number of harmful phytopathogens has been advocated by many researchers who contend that these techniques will eventually replace such outdated methods as crop rotation. (E). Genetic alteration of bacteria has been successful in highly artificial laboratory conditions, but opponents of such research have argued that these techniques are unlikely to produce organisms that are able to survive in natural environments. 16. The author discusses naturally occurring Pseudomonas fluorescens bacteria in the first paragraph primarily in order to do which one of the following? (A). prove that increases in the level of such bacteria in the soil are the sole cause of soil suppressivity (B). explain why yields increased after wheat fields were sprayed with altered Pseudomonas fluorescens bacteria (C). detail the chemical processes that such bacteria use to suppress organisms parasitic to crop plants, such as wheat, sugar beets, and potatoes (D). provide background information to support the argument that research into the agricultural use of genetically altered bacteria would be fruitful (E). argue that crop rotation is unnecessary, since diseases brought on by phytopathogens diminish in severity and eventually disappear on their own 17. It can be inferred from the author’s discussion of Pseudomonas fluorescens bacteria that which one of the following would be true of crops impervious to parasitical organisms? (A). Pseudomonas fluorescens bacteria would be absent from the soil surrounding their roots. (B). They would crowd out and eventually exclude other crop plants if their growth were not carefully regulated. (C). Their yield would not be likely to be improved by adding Pseudomonas fluorescens bacteria to the soil. (D). They would mature more quickly than crop plants that were susceptible to parasitical organisms. (E). Levels of phytopathogenic bacteria in the soil surrounding their roots would be higher compared with other crop plants.

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18. It can be inferred from the passage that crop rotation can increase yields in part because (A). moving crop plants around makes them hardier and more resistant to disease (B). the number of Pseudomonas fluorescens bacteria in the soil usually increases when crops are rotated (C). the roots of many crop plants produce compounds that are antagonistic to phytopathogens harmful to other crop plants (D). the presence of phytopathogenic bacteria is responsible for the majority of plant diseases (E). phytopathogens typically attack some plant species but find other species to be unsuitable hosts 19. According to the passage, proponents of the use of genetically altered bacteria in agriculture argue that which one of the following is true of the altered bacteria used in the frost-damage experiments? (A). The altered bacteria had a genetic constitution differing from that of the normal strain only in that the altered variety had one less gene. (B). Although the altered bacteria competed effectively with the nonaltered strain in the laboratory, they were not as viable in natural environments. (C). The altered bacteria were much safer and more effective than the naturally occurring Pseudomonas fluorescens bacteria used in earlier experiments. (D). The altered bacteria were antagonistic to several types of naturally occurring phytopathogens in the soil surrounding the roots of frost-damaged crops. (E). The altered bacteria were released into the environment in numbers sufficient to guarantee the validity of experimental results. 20. Which one of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the proponents’ argument regarding the safety of using altered Pseudomonas syringae bacteria to control frost damage? (A). Pseudomonas syringae bacteria are primitive and have a simple genetic constitution. (B). The altered bacteria are derived from a strain that is parasitic to plants and can cause damage to crops. (C). Current genetic-engineering techniques permit the large-scale commercial production of such bacteria. (D). Often genes whose presence is responsible for one harmful characteristic must be present in order to prevent other harmful characteristics. (E). The frost-damage experiments with Pseudomonas syringae bacteria indicate that the altered variety would only replace the normal strain if released in sufficient numbers.

In 1887 the Dawes Act legislated wide-scale private ownership of reservation lands in the United States for Native Americans. The act allotted plots of 80 acres to each Native American adult. However, the Native Americans were not granted outright title to their lands. The act defined each grant as a “trust patent,” meaning that the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA), the governmental agency in charge of administering policy regarding Native Americans, would hold the allotted land in trust for 25 years, during which time the Native American owners could use, but not alienate (sell) the land. After the 25-year period, the Native American allottee would receive a “fee patent” awarding full legal ownership of the land. Two main reasons were advanced for the restriction on the Native Americans’ ability to sell their lands. First,

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it was claimed that free alienability would lead to immediate transfer of large amounts of former reservation land to non-Native Americans, consequently threatening the traditional way of life on those reservations. A second objection to free alienation was that Native Americans were unaccustomed to, and did not desire, a system of private landownership. Their custom, it was said, favored communal use of land. However, both of these arguments bear only on the transfer of Native American lands to non-Native Americans: neither offers a reason for prohibiting Native Americans from transferring land among themselves. Selling land to each other would not threaten the Native American culture. Additionally, if communal land use remained preferable to Native Americans after allotment, free alienability would have allowed allottees to sell their lands back to the tribe. When stated rationales for government policies prove empty, using an interest-group model often provides an explanation. While neither Native Americans nor the potential non-Native American purchasers benefited from the restraint on alienation contained in the Dawes Act, one clearly defined group did benefit: the BIA bureaucrats. It has been convincingly demonstrated that bureaucrats seek to maximize the size of their staffs and their budgets in order to compensate for the lack of other sources of fulfillment, such as power and prestige. Additionally, politicians tend to favor the growth of governmental bureaucracy because such growth provides increased opportunity for the exercise of political patronage. The restraint on alienation vastly increased the amount of work, and hence the budgets, necessary to implement the statute. Until allotment was ended in 1934, granting fee patents and leasing Native American lands were among the principal activities of the United States government. One hypothesis, then, for the temporary restriction on alienation in the Dawes Act is that it reflected a compromise between non-Native Americans favoring immediate alienability so they could purchase land and the BIA bureaucrats who administered the privatization system. 21. Which one of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage? (A). United States government policy toward Native Americans has tended to disregard their needs and consider instead the needs of non-Native American purchasers of land. (B). In order to preserve the unique way of life on Native American reservations, use of Native American lands must be communal rather than individual. (C). The Dawes Act’s restriction on the right of Native Americans to sell their land may have been implemented primarily to serve the interests of politicians and bureaucrats. (D). The clause restricting free alienability in the Dawes Act greatly expanded United States governmental activity in the area of land administration. (E). Since passage of the Dawes Act in 1887, Native Americans have not been able to sell or transfer their former reservation land freely. 22. Which one of the following statements concerning the reason for the end of allotment, if true, would provide the most support for the author’s view of politicians? (A). Politicians realized that allotment was damaging the Native American way of life. (B). Politicians decided that allotment would be more congruent with the Native American custom of communal land use.

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(C). Politicians believed that allotment’s continuation would not enhance their opportunities to exercise patronage. (D). Politicians felt that the staff and budgets of the BIA had grown too large. (E). Politicians were concerned that too much Native American land was falling into the hands of non-Native Americans. 23. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage? (A). The passage of a law is analyzed in detail, the benefits and drawbacks of one of its clauses are studied, and a final assessment of the law is offered. (B). The history of a law is narrated, the effects of one of its clauses on various populations are studied, and repeal of the law is advocated (C). A law is examined, the political and social backgrounds of one of its clauses are characterized, and the permanent effects of the law are studied. (D). A law is described, the rationale put forward for one of its clauses is outlined and dismissed, and a different rationale for the clause is presented. (E). The legal status of an ethnic group is examined with respect to issues of landownership and commercial autonomy, and the benefits to rival groups due to that status are explained. 24. The author’s attitude toward the reasons advanced for the restriction on alienability in the Dawes Act at the time of its passage can best be described as (A). completely credulous (B). partially approving (C). basically indecisive (D). mildly questioning (E). highly skeptical 25. It can be inferred from the passage that which one of the following was true of Native American life immediately before passage of the Dawes Act? (A). Most Native Americans supported themselves through farming. (B). Not many Native Americans personally owned the land on which they lived. (C). The land on which most Native Americans lived had been bought from their tribes. (D). Few Native Americans had much contact with their non-Native American neighbors. (E). Few Native Americans were willing to sell their land to non-Native Americans. 26. According to the passage, the type of landownership initially obtainable by Native Americans under the Dawes Act differed from the type of ownership obtainable after a 25-year period in that only the latter allowed (A). owners of land to farm it (B). owners of land to sell it (C). government some control over how owners disposed of land (D). owners of land to build on it with relatively minor governmental restrictions

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(E). government to charge owners a fee for developing their land 27. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s argument regarding the true motivation for the passage of the Dawes Act? (A). The legislators who voted in favor of the Dawes Act owned land adjacent to Native American reservations. (B). The majority of Native Americans who were granted fee patents did not sell their land back to their tribes. (C). Native Americans managed to preserve their traditional culture even when they were geographically dispersed. (D). The legislators who voted in favor of the Dawes Act were heavily influenced by BIA bureaucrats. (E). Non-Native Americans who purchased the majority of Native American lands consolidated them into larger farm holdings.

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SECTION IV Time-35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, More than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, You are to choose the best answer; that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the questions. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous. or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer; blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

1. In 1974 the speed limit on highways in the United States was reduced to 55 miles per hour in order to save fuel. In the first 12 months after the change, the rate of highway fatalities dropped 15 percent, the sharpest one-year drop in history. Over the next 10 years, the fatality rate declined by another 25 percent. It follows that the 1974 reduction in the speed limit saved many lives. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument? (A) The 1974 fuel shortage cut driving sharply for more than a year. (B) There was no decline in the rate of highway fatalities during the twelfth year following the reduction in the speed limit. (C) Since 1974 automobile manufacturers have been required by law to install lifesaving equipment, such as seat belts, in all new cars. (D) The fatality rate in highway accidents involving motorists driving faster than 55 miles per hour in much higher than in highway accidents that do not involve motorists driving at such speeds. (E) Motorists are more likely to avoid accidents by matching their speed to that of the surrounding highway traffic than by driving at faster or slower speeds. 2. Some legislators refuse to commit public funds for new scientific research if they cannot be assured that the research will contribute to the public welfare. Such a position ignores the lessons of experience. Many important contributions to the public welfare that resulted from scientific research were never predicted as potential outcomes of that research. Suppose that a scientist in the early twentieth century had applied for public funds to study molds: who would have predicted that such research would lead to the discovery of antibiotics – one of the greatest contributions ever made to the public welfare? Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the argument? (A) The committal of public funds for new scientific research will ensure that the public welfare will be enhanced. (B) If it were possible to predict the general outcome of a new scientific research effort, then legislators would not refuse to commit public funds for that effort. (C) Scientific discoveries that have contributed to the public welfare would have occurred sooner if public

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funds had been committed to the research that generated those discoveries. (D) In order to ensure that scientific research is directed toward contributing to the public welfare, legislators must commit public funds to new scientific research. (E) Lack of guarantees that new scientific research will contribute to the public welfare is not sufficient reason for legislators to refuse to commit public funds to new scientific research. 3. When workers do not find their assignments challenging, they become bored and so achieve less than their abilities would allow. On the other hand, when workers find their assignments too difficult, they give up and so again achieve less than what they are capable of achieving. It is, therefore, clear that no worker’s full potential will ever be realized. Which one of the following is an error of reasoning contained in the argument? (A) mistakenly equating what is actual and what is merely possible (B) assuming without warrant that a situation allows only two possibilities (C) relying on subjective rather than objective evidence (D) confusing the coincidence of two events with a causal relation between the two (E) depending on the ambiguous use of a key term 4. Our tomato soup provides good nutrition: for instance, a warm bowl of it contains more units of vitamin C than does a serving of apricots or fresh carrots! The advertisement is misleading if which one of the following is true? (A) Few people depend exclusively on apricots and carrots to supply vitamin C to their diets. (B) A liquid can lose vitamins if it stands in contact with the air for a protracted period of time. (C) Tomato soup contains important nutrients other than vitamin C. (D) The amount of vitamin C provided by a serving of the advertised soup is less than the amount furnished by a serving of fresh strawberries. (E) Apricots and fresh carrots are widely known to be nutritious, but their contribution consists primarily in providing a large amount of vitamin A, not a large amount of vitamin C. Questions 5-6 The government provides insurance for individuals’ band deposits, but requires the banks to pay the premiums for the insurance. Since it is depositors who primarily benefit from the security this insurance provides, the government should take steps to ensure that depositors who want this security bear the cost of it and thus should make depositors pay the premiums for insuring their own accounts. 5. Which one of the following principles, if established, would do most to justify drawing the conclusion of the argument on the basis of the reasons offered in its support? (A) The people who stand to benefit from an economic service should always be made to bear the costs of that service. (B) Any rational system of insurance must base the size of premiums on the degree of risk involved.

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(C) Government-backed security for investors, such as bank depositors, should be provided only when it does not reduce incentives for investors to make responsible investments. (D) The choice of not accepting and offered service should always be available, even if there is no charge for the service. (E) The government should avoid any actions that might alter the behavior of corporations and individuals in the market. 6. Which of the following is assumed by the argument? (A) Banks are not insured by the government against default on the loans the banks make. (B) Private insurance companies do not have the resources to provide banks or individual with deposit insurance. (C) Banks do not always cover the cost of the deposit-insurance premiums by paying depositors lower interest rates on insured deposits than the banks would on uninsured deposits. (D) The government limits the insurance protection it provides by insuring accounts up to a certain legally defined amount only. (E) The government does not allow banks to offer some kinds of accounts in which deposits are not insured. 7. When individual students are all treated equally in that they have identical exposure to curriculum material, the rate, quality, and quantity of learning will vary from student to student. If all students are to master a given curriculum, some of them need different types of help than others, as any experienced teacher knows. If the statements above are both true, which one of the following conclusions can be drawn on the basis of them? (A) Unequal treatment, in a sense, of individual students is required in order to ensure equality with respect to the educational tasks they master. (B) The rate and quality of learning, with learning understood as the acquiring of the ability to solve problems within a given curriculum area, depend on the quality of teaching an individual student receives in any given curriculum. (C) The more experienced the teacher is, the more the students will learn. (D) All students should have identical exposure to learn the material being taught in any given curriculum. (E) Teachers should help each of their students to learn as much as possible. 8. George: Some scientists say that global warming will occur because people are releasing large amounts of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere by burning trees and fossil fuels. We can see, though, that the predicted warming is occurring already. In the middle of last winter, we had a month of springlike weather in our area, and this fall, because of unusually mild temperatures, the leaves on our town’s trees were three weeks late in turning color. Which one of the following would it be most relevant to investigate in evaluating the conclusion of George’s argument?

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(A) whether carbon dioxide is the only cause of global warming (B) when leaves on the trees in the town usually change color (C) what proportion of global emissions of carbon dioxide is due to the burning of trees by humans (D) whether air pollution is causing some trees in the are to lose their leaves (E) whether unusually warm weather is occurring elsewhere on the globe more frequently than before 9. Student representative: Our university, in expelling a student who verbally harassed his roommate, has erred by penalizing the student for doing what he surely has a right to do: speak his mind! Dean of students: but what you’re saying is that our university should endorse verbal harassment. Yet surely if we did that, we would threaten the free flow of ideas that is the essence of university life. Which one of the following is a questionable technique that the dean of students uses in attempting to refute the student representative? (A) challenging the student representative’s knowledge of the process by which the student was expelled (B) invoking a fallacious distinction between speech and other sorts of behavior (C) misdescribing the student representative’s position, thereby making it easier to challenge (D) questioning the motives of the student representative rather than offering reasons for the conclusion defended (E) relying on a position of power to silence the opposing viewpoint with a threat 10. Famous personalities found guilty of many types of crimes in well-publicized trials are increasingly sentenced to the performance of community service, though unknown defendants convicted of similar crimes almost always serve prison sentences. However, the principle of equality before the law rules out using fame and publicity as relevant considerations in the sentencing of convicted criminals. The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following conclusions? (A) The principle of equality before the law if rigorously applied in only a few types of criminal trials. (B) The number of convicted celebrities sentenced to community service should equal the number of convicted unknown defendants sentenced to community service. (C) The principle of equality before the law can properly be overridden by other principles in some cases. (D) The sentencing of celebrities to community service instead of prison constitutes a violation of the principle of equality before the law in many cases. (E) The principle of equality before the law does not allow for leniency in sentencing. 11. Scientific research at a certain university was supported in part by an annual grant from a major foundation. When the university’s physics department embarked on weapons-related research, the foundation, which has a purely humanitarian mission, threatened to cancel its grant. The university then promised that none of the foundation’s money would be used for the weapons research, whereupon the foundation withdrew its threat, concluding that the weapons research would not benefit from the foundation‘s grants.

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Which one of the following describes a flaw in the reasoning underlying the foundation’s conclusion? (A) It overlooks the possibility that the availability of the foundation’s money for humanitarian uses will allow the university to redirect other funds from humanitarian uses to weapons research. (B) It overlooks the possibility that the physics department’s weapons research is not he only one of the university’s research activities with other than purely humanitarian purposes. (C) It overlooks the possibility that the university made its promise specifically in order to induce the foundation to withdraw its threat. (D) It confuses the intention of not using a sum of money for a particular purpose with the intention of not using that sum of money at all. (E) It assumes that if the means to achieve an objective are humanitarian in character, then the objective is also humanitarian in character. 12. To suit the needs of corporate clients, advertising agencies have successfully modified a strategy originally developed for political campaigns. This strategy aims to provide clients with free publicity and air time by designing an advertising campaign that is controversial, thus drawing prime-time media coverage and evoking public comment by officials. The Statements above, if true, most seriously undermine which one of the following assertions? (A) The usefulness of an advertising campaign is based solely on the degree to which the campaign’s advertisements persuade their audiences. (B) Only a small percentage of eligible voters admit to being influenced by advertising campaigns in deciding how to vote. (C) Campaign managers have transformed political campaigns by making increasing use of strategies borrowed from corporate advertising campaigns. (D) Corporations are typically more concerned with maintaining public recognition of the corporate name than with enhancing goodwill toward the corporation. (E) Advertising agencies that specialize in campaigns for corporate clients are not usually chosen for political campaigns. 13. The National Association of Fire Fighters says that 45 percent of homes now have smoke detectors, whereas only 30 percent of homes had them 10 years ago. This makes early detection of house fires no more likely, however, because over half of the domestic smoke detectors are either without batteries or else inoperative for some other reason. In order for the conclusion above to be properly drawn, which one of the following assumptions would have to be made? (A) Fifteen percent of domestic smoke detectors were installed less than 10 years ago. (B) The number of fires per year in homes with smoke detectors has increased. (C) Not all of the smoke detectors in homes are battery operated. (D) The proportion of domestic smoke detectors that are inoperative has increased in the past ten years. (E) Unlike automatic water sprinklers, a properly functioning smoke detector cannot by itself increase fire

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safety in a home. 14. Advertisement: HomeGlo Paints, Inc., has won the prestigious Golden Paintbrush Award – given to the one paint manufacturer in the country that has increased the environmental safety of its product most over the past three years – for HomeGlo Exterior Enamel. The Golden Paintbrush is awarded only on the basis of thorough tests by independent testing laboratories. So when you choose HomeGlo Exterior Enamel, you will know that you have chosen the most environmentally safe brand of paint manufactured in this country today. The flawed reasoning in the advertisement most closely parallels that in which one of the following? (A) The ZXC audio system received the overall top ranking for looks, performance, durability, and value in Listeners’ Report magazine’s ratings of currently produced systems. Therefore, the ZXC must have better sound quality than any other currently produced sound system. (B) Morning Sunshine breakfast cereal contains, ounce for ounce, more of the nutrients needed for a healthy diet than any other breakfast cereal on the market today. Thus, when you eat Morning Sunshine, you will know you are eating the most nutritious food now on the market. (C) The number of consumer visits increased more at Countryside Market last year than at any other market in the region. Therefore, Countryside’s profits must also have increased more last year than those of any other market in the region. (D) Jerrold’s teachers recognize him as the student who has shown more academic improvement than any other student in the junior class this year. Therefore, if Jerrold and his classmates are ranked according to their current academic performance, Jerrold must hold the highest ranking. (E) Margaret Durring’s short story “The Power Lunch” won three separate awards for best short fiction of the year. Therefore, any of Margaret Durring’s earlier stories certainly has enough literary merit to be included in an anthology of the best recent short fiction. 15. The consistency of ice cream is adversely affected by even slight temperature changes in the freezer. To counteract his problem, manufacturers add stabilizers to ice cream. Unfortunately, stabilizers, though inexpensive, adversely affect flavor. Stabilizers are less needed if storage temperatures are very low. However, since energy costs are constantly going up, those costs constitute a strong incentive in favor of relatively high storage temperatures. Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the passage? (A) Even slight deviations from the proper consistency for ice cream sharply impair its flavor. (B) Cost considerations favor sacrificing consistency over sacrificing flavor. (C) It would not be cost effective to develop a new device to maintain the constancy of freezer temperatures. (D) Stabilizers function well only at very low freezer temperatures. (E) Very low, stable freezer temperatures allow for the best possible consistency and flavor of ice cream. 16. Edwina: True appreciation of Mozart’s music demands that you hear it exactly as he intended it to be heard; that is, exactly as he heard it. Since he heard it on eighteenth-century instruments, it follows that so should we.

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Alberto: But what makes you think that Mozart ever heard his music played as he had intended it to be played? After all, Mozart was writing at a time when the performer was expected, as a matter of course, not just to interpret but to modify the written score. Alberto adopts which one of the following strategies in criticizing Edwina’s position? (A) He appeals to an academic authority in order to challenge the factual basis of her conclusion. (B) He attacks her judgment by suggesting that she does not recognize the importance of the performer’s creativity to the audience’s appreciation of a musical composition. (C) He defends a competing view of musical authenticity. (D) He attacks the logic of her argument by suggesting that the conclusion she draws does not follow from the premises she sets forth. (E) He offers a reason to believe that one of the premises of her argument is false. 17. Since the introduction of the Impanian National Health Scheme, Impanians (or their private insurance companies) have had to pay only for the more unusual and sophisticated medical procedures. When the scheme was introduced, it was hoped that private insurance to pay for these procedures would be available at modest cost, since the insurers would no longer be paying for the bulk of health care costs, as they had done previously. Paradoxically, however, the cost of private health insurance did not decrease but has instead increased dramatically in the years since the scheme’s introduction. Which one of the following, if true, does most to explain the apparently paradoxical outcome? (A) The National Health scheme has greatly reduced the number of medical claims handled annually by Impania’s private insurers, enabling these firms to reduce overhead costs substantially. (B) Before the National Health scheme was introduced, more than 80 percent of all Impanian medical costs were associated with procedures that are now covered by the scheme. (C) Impanians who previously were unable to afford regular medical treatment now use the National Health scheme, but the number of Impanians with private health insurance has not increased. (D) Impanians now buy private medical insurance only at times when they expect that they will need care of kinds not available in the National Health scheme. (E) The proportion of total expenditures within Impania that is spent on health care has declined since the introduction of the National Health scheme. 18. In clinical trials of new medicines, half of the subjects receive the drug being tested and half receive a physiologically inert substance – a placebo. Trials are designed with the intention that neither subjects nor experimenters will find out which subjects are actually being given the drug being tested. However, this intention is frequently frustrated because ____. Which one of the following, if true, most appropriately completes the explanation? (A) often the subjects who receive the drug being tested develop symptoms that the experimenters recognize as side effects of the physiologically active drug (B) subjects who believe they are receiving the drug being tested often display improvements in their

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conditions regardless of whether what is administered to them is physiologically active or not (C) in general, when the trial is intended to establish the experimental drug’s safety rather than its effectiveness, all of the subjects are healthy (D) when a trial runs a long time, few of the experimenters will work on it from inception to conclusion (E) the people who are subjects for clinical trials must, by law, be volunteers and must be informed of the possibility that they will receive a placebo 19. It takes 365.25 days for the Earth to make one complete revolution around the sun. Long – standing convention makes a year 365 days long, with an extra day added every fourth year, and the year is divided into 52 seven-day weeks. But since 52 times 7 is only 364, anniversaries do not fall on the same day of the week each year. Many scheduling problems could be avoided if the last day of each year and an additional day every fourth year belonged to no week, so that January 1 would be a Sunday every year. The proposal above, once put into effect, would be most likely to result in continued scheduling conflicts for which one of the following groups? (A) people who have birthdays or other anniversaries on December 30 or 31 (B) employed people whose strict religious observances require that they refrain from working every seventh day (C) school systems that require students to attend classes a specific number of days each year (D) employed people who have three-day breaks from work when holidays are celebrated on Mondays or Fridays (E) people who have to plan events several years before those events occur 20. Graphologists claim that it is possible to detect permanent character traits by examining people’s handwriting. For example, a strong cross on the “t” is supposed to denote enthusiasm. Obviously, however, with practice and perseverance people can alter their handwriting to include this feature. So it seems that graphologists must hold that permanent character traits can be changed. The argument against graphology proceeds by (A) citing apparently incontestable evidence that leads to absurd consequences when conjoined with the view in question (B) demonstrating that an apparently controversial and interesting claim is really just a platitude (C) arguing that a particular technique of analysis can never be effective when the people analyzed know that it is being used (D) showing that proponents of the view have no theoretical justification for the view (E) attacking a technique by arguing that what the technique is supposed to detect can be detected quite readily without it Question 21 – 22 Historian: There is no direct evidence that timber was traded between the ancient nations of Poran and Nayal, but the fact that a law setting tariffs on timber imports from Poran was enacted during the third Nayalese

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dynasty does suggest that during that period a timber trade was co9nducted. Critic: Your reasoning is flawed. During its third dynasty, Nayal may well have imported timber from Poran, but certainly on today’s statute books there remain many laws regulating activities that were once common but in which people no longer engage. 21. The critic’s response to the historian’s reasoning does which one of the following? (A) It implies an analogy between the present and the past. (B) It identifies a general principle that the historian’s reasoning violates. (C) It distinguishes between what has been established as a certainty and what has been established as a possibility. (D) It establishes explicit criteria that must be used in evaluating indirect evidence. (E) It points out the dissimilar roles that law plays in societies that are distinct from one another. 22. The critic’s response to the historian is flawed because it (A) produces evidence that is consistent with there not having been any timber trade between Poran and Nayal during the third Nayalese dynasty (B) cites current laws without indicating whether the laws cited are relevant to the timber trade (C) fails to recognize that the historian’s conclusion was based on indirect evidence rather than direct evidence (D) takes no account of the difference between a law’s enactment at a particular time and a law’s existence as part of a legal code at a particular time (E) accepts without question that assumption about the purpose of laws that underlies the historian’s argument 23. The workers at Bell Manufacturing will shortly go on strike unless the management increases their wages. As Bell’s president is well aware, however, in order to increase the worker’s wages, Bell would have to sell off some of its subsidiaries. So, some of Bell’s subsidiaries will be sold. The conclusion above is properly drawn if which one of the following is assumed? (A) Bell Manufacturing will begin to suffer increased losses. (B) Bell’s management will refuse to increase its worker’s wages. (C) The workers at Bell Manufacturing will not be going on strike. (D) Bell’s president has the authority to offer the workers their desired wage increase. (E) Bell’s workers will not accept a package of improved benefits in place of their desired wage increase. 24. One sure way you can tell how quickly a new idea – for example, the idea of “privatization” – is taking hold among the population is to monitor how fast the word or words expressing that particular idea are passing into common usage. Professional opinions of whether or not words can indeed be said to have passed into common usage are available from dictionary editors, who are vitally concerned with this question.

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The method described above for determining how quickly a new idea is taking hold relies on which one of the following assumptions? (A) Dictionary editors are not professionally interested in words that are only rarely used. (B) Dictionary editors have exact numerical criteria for telling when a word has passed into common usage. (C) For a new idea to take hold, dictionary editors have to include the relevant word or words in their dictionaries. (D) As a word passes into common usages, its meaning does not undergo any severe distortions in the process. (E) Words denoting new ideas tend to be used before the ideas denoted are understood. 25. Because migrant workers are typically not hired by any one employer for longer than a single season, migrant workers can legally be paid less than the minimum hourly wage that the government requires employers to pay all their permanent employees. Yet most migrant workers work long hours each day for eleven or twelve months a year and thus are as much full-time workers as are people hired on a year-round basis. Therefore, the law should require that migrant workers be paid the same minimum hourly wage that other full-time workers must be paid. The pattern of reasoning displayed above most closely parallels that displayed in which one of the following arguments? (A) Because day-care facilities are now regulated at the local level, the quality of care available to children in two different cities can differ widely. Since such differences in treatment clearly are unfair, day care should be federally rather than locally regulated. (B) Because many rural areas have few restrictions on development, housing estates in such areas have been built where no adequate supply of safe drinking water could be ensured. Thus, rural areas should adopt building codes more like those large cities have. (C) Because some countries regulate gun sales more strictly than do other countries, some people can readily purchase a gun, whereas others cannot. Therefore, all countries should cooperate in developing a uniform international policy regarding gun sales. (D) Because it is a democratic principle that laws should have the consent of those affected by them, liquor5 laws should be formulated not by politicians but by club and restaurant owners, since such laws directly affect the profitability of their businesses. (E) Because food additives are not considered drugs, they have not had to meet the safety standards the government applies to drugs. But food additives can be as dangerous as drugs. Therefore, food additives should also be subject to safety regulations as stringent as those covering drugs.

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