Question_report_2479 (1).pdf

Paper Code

Form Number :

Hi n d i

(1001CMD305318064)

*1001CMD305318064*

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME (Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)

PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE PHASE : MLJ,MLK,MLQ,MAZG,MAZJ,MAZK,MAZL,MAZM

Test Pattern : NEET(UG)

Test Type : MAJOR

TEST DATE : 03 - 03 - 2019 TEST SYLLABUS : SYLLABUS-03 Important Instructions / Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

[ 1.

A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

; 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

7.

8.

;

Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720. 3? = 180 720 Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

]

;

;

Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

;

}

Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

=

,

Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful. 4 1 A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted. OMR } Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited. In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.

] Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Paper code and Your Form No. %; = Correction Paper code , Form No. 2 [email protected] mail

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2019 Corporate Of fice :

CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 +91-744-2757575

[email protected]

www.allen.ac.in .in

LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE (PHASE : MLJ,MLK,MLQ,MAZG,MAZJ,MAZK,MAZL,MAZM)

ALLEN MAJOR TEST

DATE : 03 - 03 - 2019 SYLLABUS – 03

PHYSICS

: Thermal Physics (Thermal Expansion, Calorimetry, Heat Transfer, KTG & Thermodynamics), Oscillations (SHM, Damped and Forced Oscillations & Resonance), Wave Motion and Doppler's Effect.

CHEMISTRY : Classification & Nomenclature, Isomerism, Reaction Mechanism-I, Reaction Mechanism-II, Hydrocarbons, Environmental Chemistry and Qualitative and Quantitative Analysis of Organic Compounds. BIOLOGY

: Human Physiology : (i) Digestion and Absorption (ii) Breathing and Exchange of Gases (iii) Body Fluids and circulation (iv) Excretory Products and their Elimination (v) Locomotion and Movement (vi) Neural Control and Coordination, Eye & Ear (vii) Chemical Coordination and Integration (viii) Animal Kingdom, Cockroach, Earthworm, Frog (ix) Structural Organisation in Animal (Animal tissue)

HAVE CONTROL  HAVE PATIENCE  HAVE CONFIDENCE  100% SUCCESS 1.

2.

3.

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position is :(1) T/2 (2) T/4 (3) T/8 (4) T/12 During an adiabatic process, the cube of the pressure is found to be inversely proportional to the fourth power of the volume. Then, the ratio of specific heats is :(1) 1 (2) 1.33 (3) 1.67 (4) 1.4 Figure shows graphs of pressure vs density for an ideal gas at two temperature T1 and T2 :p (1) T1 < T2 T1

(2) T1 > T2 (3) T1 = T2 4.

5.

(4) any of the three is possible

6.

(3) 4200 J/K

(1) 1.2f, 1.2 (3) f, 1.2

(2) 1.2f, 

(4) 0.8f, 0.8

(4) T/12

2.

3.

:-

(1) 1

(2) 1.33

(3) 1.67 p

(1) T1 < T2 (2) T1 > T2

(4) 1.4 T1 :-

T1

(3) T1 = T2 4.

(

T2

T2 

(4)

(1)

>

)

:-

(2) (3) 5.

(4)

30°C

0.1

6.

(2) 1260 J/K

(3) 4200 J/K 1/5



(1) 1.2f, 1.2 (2) 1.2f,  (3) f, 1.2

0.2 kg 35°C

(1) 6300 J/K

(2) 1260 J/K

An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed 1/5 th of the speed of sound. The wavelength and frequency of the sound emitted are  and f respectively. The apparent frequency and wavelength recorded by the observer are respectively :–

(2) T/4

(3) T/8



(4) None of these

T

a

(1) T/2

T2

Two identical rectangular strips, one of copper and other of steel, are rivetted, together to form a bimetallic strip (copper > steel). On heating, this strip will :(1) remain straight (2) bend with copper on outer side (3) bend with steel on outer side (4) get twised A calorimeter contains 0.2 kg of water at 30°C. 0.1 kg of water at 60°C is added to it, the mixture is well stirred and the resulting temperature is found to be 35°C. The thermal capacity of the calorimeter is : (1) 6300 J/K

1.

(4) 0.8f, 0.8

(4) f

60°C

7.

In a long cylindrical tube, the water level is adjusted and the air column above it is made to vibrate in unison with a vibrating tuning fork kept at the open end. Maximum sound is heard when the air column lengths are equal to :(1)

8.

9.

(3)

12.

(4)

 3 , , 4 2

 3 5 , , 4 4 4

(1) (3) 8.

The potential energy of a particle of mass 0.1kg, moving along x-axis, is given by U = 5x(x – 4)J where x is in metres. If particle is executing simple harmonic motion then its time period

9.

(4) None

(3)

11.

 3 5 , , 2 2 2

(2)

A liquid with coefficient of volume expansion L is filled in a container of a material having the coefficient of volume expansion S. If the liquid over flow on heating then :(1) L < S (2) L > S (3) L = S

(1)

10.

  3 , , 4 2 4

7.

2 sec 5  sec 5

(2) (4)

Change in temperature of the medium changes:(1) Frequency of sound waves (2) Amplitude of sound waves (3) Wavelength of sound waves (4) Loudness of sound waves

An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 6 kcal at the higher temperature. The amount of heat (in kcal) converted into work is equal to :– (1) 4.8 (2) 3.5 (3) 1.6 (4) 1.2 At antinodes :(1) Pressure is maximum and velocity is minimum (2) Pressure is minimum and velocity is maximum (3) Pressure and velocity both are maximum (4) Pressure and velocity both are minimum

  3 , , 4 2 4

(2)

 3 5 , , 2 2 2

(4) S ,

 3 , , 4 2

 3 5 , , 4 4 4 L

:-

(1) L < S (2) L > S (3) L = S (4) x-

0.1kg U = 5x(x – 4)J :-

5 sec 2 5 sec 

:-

(1) (3) 10.

2 sec 5

(2)

 sec 5

(4) :-

(1)

x

5 sec 2

5 sec 

(2) (3) 11.

(4)

227°C

(kcal ) 12.

(1) 4.8 (1) (2)

(3) (4)

:-

(2) 3.5

(3) 1.6

127°C 6 kcal

(4) 1.2

13.

14.

The temperature of an ideal gas is –68°C. To what temperature should it be heated so that the average translational KE of the molecules be doubled :(1) 547°C (2) 137°C (3) –136°C (4) 410°C Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive waves given by y 1 = 4 sin(500t) and y2= 2 sin(506t). These tuning forks are held near the ear of a person. The person will hear

13.

14.

16.

17.

(1) 2

(2) 4

(3) 1/2

(4) 1

(4) 410°C

y1= 4 sin(500t)

y2= 2 sin(506t)

4 9

(3) 6

4

(4) 6

9

15.

speed of particle becomes 8 3 cm/sec. will be -

(1) 2 3 cm (2) 3 cm (3) 1 cm (4) 2 cm Two identical piano wires, kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate together would be :(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02 (3) 0.03 (4) 0.04 The maximum energy in the thermal radiation from a hot source occurs at a wavelength of 11 × 10 –5 cm. According to Wien's law, the temperature of the source (on kelvin scale) will be n times the temperature of another source (on Kelvin scale) for which the wavelength at maximum energy is 5.5 × 10–5 cm. The value of n is :-

(3) –136°C

(2) 3

(3) 6 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 4.

The amplitude of a particle executing S.H.M. is 4 cm. At the mean position the speed of the particle is 16 cm/sec. The distance of the particle from the mean position at which the

(2) 137°C

(1) 3

(2) 3 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 9.

15.

:-

(1) 547°C

(1) 3 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 4.

(4) 6 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 9.

–68°C

16.

16 cm/sec.

8 3 cm/sec.

(1) 2 3 cm (2) 3 cm (3) 1 cm (4) 2 cm T

(piano)

(3) 0.03 11 × 10

–5

(1) 2

(3) 1/2

600 Hz :-

(2) 0.02 (4) 0.04

(hot source) n

:-

:-

6

(1) 0.01 17.

4 cm

( 5.5 × 10–5 (2) 4 (4) 1

) n

18.

19.

20.

The figure below shows a snap photograph of a simple harmonic progressive wave, progressing in the negative X-axis, at a given instant. The direction of the velocity of the particle at the stage P on the figure is :-







20 (3) 2 

2 (2) 20

 (4) 10

Figure shows the circular motion of a particle. The radius of the circle, the period, sense of revolution and the initial position are indicated on the figure. The simple harmonic motion of the x-projection of the radius vector of the rotating particle P is:y

xP

:-



(1) PA (2) PB (3) PC (4) PD A plank with a small block on top of it is under going vertical SHM. Its period is 2 sec. The minimum amplitude at which the block will separate from plank is : (g = 10 m/s2)

10 (1) 2 

18.

19.



(1) PA

(g = 10

20.

10 (1) 2 

O

x



(3) PC

(4) PD 2s

?

m/s2)

2 (2) 20

(3)

20 2

(4)

P

x-

:-

y

P (t = 0) T = 30s B





(2) PB

P (t = 0) T = 30s

O

B

 2t  (1) x(t)  Bsin    30 

 2t  (1) x(t)  Bsin    30 

 t  (2) x(t)  Bcos    15 

 t  (2) x(t)  Bcos    15 

 t   (3) x(t)  Bsin     15 2 

 t   (3) x(t)  Bsin     15 2 

 t   (4) x(t)  Bcos     15 2 

 t   (4) x(t)  Bcos     15 2 

x

 10

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

The equation of state for 5g of oxygen at a pressure P and temperature T, when occupying a volume V, will be :– (1) PV = 5 RT (2) PV = (5/2) RT (3) PV = (5/16) RT (4) PV = (5/32)RT where R is the gas constant. A body cools from 60°C to 50°C in 10 minutes. If the room temperature is 25°C and assuming Newton's law of cooling to hold good, the temperature of the body at the end of the next 10 minutes will be :-

21.

Ideal monoatomic gas is taken through a process dQ = 2dU. The heat capacity of 1 mole for the process is :-(where dQ is heat supplied and dU is change in internal energy) :(1) 5R (2) 3R (3) R (4) 2R The bob of a simple pendulum executes simple harmonic motion in water with a period t, while the period of oscillation of the bob is t0 in air. Neglecting frictional force of water and given that the density of the bob is (4/3) × 1000 kg/m3. What relationship between t and t0 is true? (1) t = t0 (2) t = t0/2 (3) t = 2t0 (4) t = 4t0 A particle is executing S.H.M. Its potential energy is displacement graph is given by

23.

(1) 38.5°C (2) 40°C

PE

–2,0

26.

(3) 42.85°C (4) 45°C

5 (1) PV = 5 RT R

22.

(1) 5R

(1) t = t0 25.

Two particles A and B of equal masses are suspended from two massless springs of spring constants k 1 and k 2 , respectively. If the maximum velocities, during oscillations are equal, the ratio of amplitudes of A and B is-

(3)

k 2 / k1

(4) k2/k1 Key Filling

10

(3) 42.85°C (4) 45°C

dU

1

dQ = 2dU

(3) R

:) :-

(4) 2R t

(4/3) × 1000 kg/m3 ? (2) t = t0/2

(3) t = 2t0

(4) t = 4t0

S.H.M. PE

26.

50°C :-

24,0

–2,0

The value of restoring force constant is :(1) 12 N/m (2) 24 N/m (3) 6 N /m (4) 48 N/m

(2) k1/k2

(2) 3R

t0

+2,0

k1 / k 2

60°C 25°C

dQ

V

(4) PV = (5/32)RT

(1) 38.5°C (2) 40°C

( 24.

10

:–

T

(2) PV = (5/2) RT

(3) PV = (5/16) RT

24,0

(1)

P,

(1) 12 N/m (3) 6 N /m

+2,0

A

(2) 24 N/m (4) 48 N/m B, k1

k2

A (1)

k1 / k 2

(2) k1/k2

(3)

k 2 / k1

(4) k2/k1

B

27.

28.

Calculate the surface temperature of the planet, if the energy radiated by unit area in unit time is 5.67 × 104 watt : (Planet may be assumed to black body) (1) 1273°C (3) 727°C

(2) 1000°C (4) 727 K

A wave pulse on a string has the dimension shown in figure. The waves speed is v = 1 cm/s. If point O is a free end. The shape of wave at time t = 3 s is :

27.

5.67 × 104

(

(1) 1273°C 28.

30.

31.

(2) 1000°C

(3) 727°C

(4) 727 K

v = 1 cm/s t=3s

O

2cm

2cm

29.

)

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Two thermometers X and Y have ice points marked at 15° and 25° and steam points marked as 75° and 125° respectively. When thermometer X measures the temperature of a bath as 60° on it, what would thermometer Y read when it is used to measure the temperature of the same bath ? (1) 60° (2) 75° (3) 100° (4) 90° The transverse displacement of a string (clamped at its both ends) is given by

 2  y(x, t) = 0.6 sin  x  cos (120 t)  3  where x and y are in metre and t in second. The length of the string is 1.5 m and its mass is 3.0 × 10–2 kg the tension in the string will be :(1) 648 N (2) 1248 N (3) 324 N (4) 162 N A wave travels on a light string.The equation of the wave is Y = A sin (kx – t + 30°).It is reflected from a heavy string tied to an end of the light string at x = 0. If 64% of the incident energy is reflected the equation of the reflected wave is (1) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx – t + 30° + 180°) (2) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx + t + 30° + 180°) (3) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx + t – 30°) (4) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx + t + 30°)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29.

X

Y

X (1) 60° 30.

125° Y

?

25° 60°

(2) 75°

(3) 100°

(4) 90°

 2  y(x, t) = 0.6 sin  x  cos (120 t)  3  x y t sec. 1.5 m

31.

75°

15°

:-

3.0 × 10–2 kg

(1) 648 N (2) 1248 N (3) 324 N (4) 162 N Y = A sin (kx – t + 30°) (x = 0 ) 64% (1) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx – t + 30° + 180°) (2) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx + t + 30° + 180°) (3) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx + t – 30°) (4) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx + t + 30°)

32.

Two rods of same material have same length and area. The heat Q flows through them for 12 minutes when they are jointed in series. If now both the rods are joined in parallel, then the same amount of heat Q will flow in :(1) 24 min

33.

34.

(4) 6 min

The relation that converts temperature in celsius scale to temperature in fahrenheit scale is :-

(3) toF =

(3) toF =

9 o (t C + 32o) 5

T

(2)

35.

36.

T

T

(1)

9 o t C + 32 5

(4)

(3) 

(2) 64°C

(4) 100°C

9 o (t C + 32o) 5

(4) toF =

?

T

(2)

T





T

Two sitar strings A and B playing the note 'Ga' are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. The tension in the string A is slightly reduced and the beat frequency is found to reduce to 3 Hz. If the original frequency of A is 324 Hz, what is the frequency of B :(1) 324 Hz (2) 360 Hz (3) 330Hz (4) 318 Hz A ball of thermal capacity 10 cal/°C is heated to the temperature of furnace. It is then transferred into a vessel containing water. The water equivalent of vessel and the contents is 200 gm. The temperature of the vessel and its contents rises from 10°C to 40°C. What is the temperature of furnace? (3) 600°C

5 o 5 o (t C – 32o) (2) toF = t C + 32 9 9





(1) 640°C

34.

(2) 3 (4) 6 :-

(4) toF =



(3)

(1) 24 (3) 12

(1) toF =

Variation of time period of a simple pendulum with its length is :(1)

33.

Q

:-

5 o 5 o (t C – 32o) (2) toF = t C + 32 9 9

9 o t C + 32 5

12

Q

(2) 3 min

(3) 12 min

(1) toF =

32.

T

35.

(4) 

A A :-

B

A

(3) 330Hz 10



" "

6 Hz

3 Hz

324 Hz

(1) 324 Hz 36.

T

/°C 200

10°C ?

(1) 640°C (3) 600°C

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

B

(2) 360 Hz (4) 318 Hz (contents) 40°C (2) 64°C

(4) 100°C

37.

A wave equation is y = 10–4 sin (60 t + 2x) Where x and y are in metres and t is in sec. Which of the following statements is correct ?

37.

x

(1) Frequency of wave is 50  hertz

(3) Wavelength of the waves is  metre. 38.

A gas mixture consists of 3 moles of oxygen and 5 moles of argon at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is :-

38.

40.

(4) 11 RT

A loaded spring vibrate with a peirod T. The spring is divided into nine equal parts and the same load is suspended from one of these part. The new period is :-

39.

(2) 3T

(4) T/9

A train, standing in a station-yard, blows a whistle of frequency 400 Hz in still air. The wind starts blowing in the direction from the yard to the station with a speed of 10 ms–1 then value of frequency and speed of sound for observer will be

40.

T

5 :-

Four identical copper cylinders are painted. If they are all heated to the same temperature and left in vacuum, which will cool most rapidly ?

T

:-

(2) 3T

(3) T/3

(4) T/9

400 Hz

(1) 400 Hz, 340 m/sec

(2) > 400 Hz, 340 m/sec (3) 400 Hz, 350 m/sec

(3) 400 Hz, 350 m/sec

(4) < 400 Hz, 330 m/sec

(4) 11 RT

340 ms–1

(2) > 400 Hz, 340 m/sec

41.

(4) < 400 Hz, 330 m/sec

(1)

(2) Painted rough black

(2)

(4) Painted rough white

(4)

(3) Painted shiny black

3

10 ms –1

(1) 400 Hz, 340 m/sec

(1) Painted shiny white



(3) (4)

(1) T

(the speed of sound in still air is 340 ms–1) :-

41.

x

(3) 9 RT

(3) 9 RT

(3) T/3

300 m/s

50 

(2) 15 RT

(2) 15 RT

(1) T

t

(1) 4 RT

(1) 4 RT

39.

y

(1) (2)

(2) The wave travels with a velocity 300 m/s in the negative direction of x-axis. (4) All of the above

y = 10–4 sin (60 t + 2x)

(3)

?

:-

42.

A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength 1 is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is 2. The ratio 2/1 is :(1)

43.

44.

42. 1

m1 m2

2

(1)

m1 m2

(2)

m1  m 2 m2

(2)

m1  m 2 m2

(3)

m2 m1

(3)

m2 m1

(4)

m1  m 2 m1

(4)

m1  m 2 m1

A taut string at both ends vibrates in its n th overtone. The distance between adjacent Node and Antinode is found to be 'd'. If the length of the string is L, then (1) L = 2d (n + 1) (2) L = d (n + 1) (3) L = 2dn (4) L = 2d (n – 1)

10 gm of ice at –20°C is added to 10 gm of water at 50°C. Specific heat of water = 1 cal/ gm-°C, specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/gm-°C. Latent heat of ice = 80 cal/gm. Then resulting temperature is :

43.

44.

10 gm

L

10 gm = 1 cal/gm-°C, = 0.5 cal/gm-°C = 80 cal/gm. :

(1) –20°C (2) 15°C

(2) 15°C

(3) 0°C

(3) 0°C

(4) 50°C Two waves coming from two coherent sources, having different intensities interfere their ratio of maximum intensity to the minimum intensity is 25. The intensities of the sources are in the ratio? (1) 25 : 1 (2) 25 : 16 (3) 9 : 4 (4) 5 : 1

–20°C

45.

(4) 50°C

25

(1) 25 : 1

(2) 25 : 16 (3) 9 : 4

(4) 5 : 1

m2

n

:(1) L = 2d (n + 1) (2) L = d (n + 1) (3) L = 2dn (4) L = 2d (n – 1)

m1

2/1

d

(1) –20°C

45.

L

50°C

46.

47.

48.

Which of the following method is used to separated the aniline from aniline-water mixture :(1) Simple distillation (2) Distillation at reduced pressure (3) Steam distillation (4) Fractional distillation CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO and CH 3–CH–CH3 are :-

CHO

(1) Position isomer (3) Chain isomer

(2) Metamer (4) None

Which of the following is most reactive towards SN1.

(1) (2) (3) 47.

(1)

48.

(3)

NO2

In which of the following addition of HBr in presence of peroxide does not occur according to anti markovnikov's rule ?

(4) All of these 50.

H–CC–H

CH3

(3)

CH3

Reagent

reagent will be :-

O

H

CH3

CH2–Cl

CH2–Cl

(4) NO2

CH3 CH3

C=C

CH3

CH3

(4)

Cl H–C–CH Cl

50.

H–CC–H

Reagent

:-

(1) Baeyer's reagent

(1) Baeyer's reagent

(3) CCl3–C–H

(3) CCl3–C–H

(2) HOCl

O

(4) Cl2/CCl4

?

(2) Ph–CH=CH–Ph

(2) Ph–CH=CH–Ph C=C

(2)

(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

CH3

CH2–Cl

OCH3

49.

CHO

(4)

(3)

(4) OCH3

(2)

(1)

CH2–Cl

CH2–Cl

CH 3–CH–CH3

(3) SN1

CH3

H

(3)

CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO

CH2–Cl

(2)

CH3

(4)

(1)

CH2–Cl

CH2–Cl

49.

46.

(2) HOCl

O

(4) Cl2/CCl4

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

O

H–C–CH

Cl Cl

:-

51.

52.

Which of the following compound gives red precipitate on treatment with Ammonical cuprous chloride solution :(1) Ethylene (2) Acetylene (3) Benzene (4) But-2-yne In the following compounds OH

OH

OH

2 NO

OH

NO2 (I)

53.

(II)

(III)

(x)

N H

,

(1) x > y > z

(y)

O

,

(z)

52.

53.

N

(4)

OH

OH

(1) III > IV > I > II (3) II > I > III > IV x, y z

NH

(y)

O

,

(z)

N

54.

(4) y > z > x ?

(1) Styrene

(3) Cyclohexene

(3) Cyclohexene

(2) Cyclopropane

HBr Peroxide

(1) CH3–CH–CH–CH 3

CH3 Br

(3) CH2–C=CH–CH3

CH3

(2) I > IV > III > II (4) IV > II > III > I

(3) y > x > z

(1) Styrene

Br

:

NO2 (IV)

(2) x > z > y

Which of the following does not decolourise reddish brown solution of Br2/CCl 4 ?

CH3

OH

(III)

N H

,

(1) x > y > z

(4) y > z > x

CH3–C=CH–CH3

-2

OH

2 NO

(II)

(x)

(2) Cyclopropane

55.

(3)

(I)

(3) y > x > z

(4) Cyclohexane

(2)

NO2

(2) x > z > y

54.

:-

(1)

NO2 (IV)

The order of acidity is : (1) III > IV > I > II (2) I > IV > III > II (3) II > I > III > IV (4) IV > II > III > I The correct order of decreasing basic strengths of x, y and z is

NH

51.

(4) Cyclohexane A (Major) 'A' is:

Br

(2) CH3–C–CH2–CH3

CH3

Br

(4) CH3–C—CH–CH 3

CH3 Br

55.

CH3–C=CH–CH3 CH3

HBr Peroxide

(1) CH3–CH–CH–CH 3

CH3 Br

(3) CH2–C=CH–CH3

Br

CH3

A (

) 'A'

:

Br

(2) CH3–C–CH2–CH3

CH3

Br

(4) CH3–C—CH–CH 3

CH3 Br

56. 57.

Photochemical smog is related to the pollution of :(1) Soil (2) Water (3) Noise (4) Air Which statement is correct for following species :(I)

N

H

56. 57.

58.

Arrange the following in correct increasing order of boiling point :(a)

H

(2)I

58.

CH3 CH–CH2–Br CH3

(3)

(II)

H

II II

(3)I

(4) I

II

II

:(a)

CH3 CH3

CH–CH2–Br

(b) CH3–CH2–CH2 CH2

(b) CH3–CH2–CH2 CH2

CH3

CH3

Br

(c) CH 3–C–CH3

(c) CH 3–C–CH3

(1) b < a < c (2) a < b < c (3) c < a < b (4) c < b < a What is the final rearranged carbocation of given species

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Br

59.

N

(1)I

(1)I & II are aromatic (2)I & II are antiaromatic

(3)I is aromatic and II is antiaromatic (4) I is non-aromatic and II is anti-aromatic

(1)

(I)

(II)

H

:(2)

59.

 (1) CH3–C–CH2–CH2–CH3 CH3

 (2) CH3–CH–CH–CH 2–CH 3 CH3

Br


 CH3–CH–CH2–CH–CH 3

 CH3–CH–CH2–CH–CH 3 CH3

b a c c

Br

CH3

 (1) CH3–C–CH2–CH2–CH3 CH3

 (2) CH3–CH–CH–CH 2–CH 3 CH3

 (3) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–CH2

 (3) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–CH2

(4) No rearrangement is possible

(4)

CH3

CH3

(4)

CH3

60. H

(1)

(3) 61.

62.

63.

(i) BH 3,THF

(ii) H 2O 2, OH CH3

CH3 OH

OH

H

CH3 A Product 'A' is :-

(2)

CH3 H

H

OH

(1) (2) (3) (4)

NaOH +CaO

2,2-Dimethyl butane. A is :-

3,3-Dimethyl pentanoic acid 4,4-Dimethyl pentanoic acid 2,3,3-Trimethyl butanoic acid All of above

The distillation technique most suited for separating glycerol from spent-lye in the soap industry is : (1) Distillation under reduced pressure (2) Simple distillation (3) Fractional distillation (4) Steam distillation

HBr A (Major) A is :CCl4

64. (1)

Br

(2) (3) (4)

Br Br

(1)

(4) Both (1) & (2)

The molecular formula of 3rd member of ester homologous series will be :(1) C3H6O2 (2) C4H8O2 (3) C4H10O (4) C5H9O2 A

60.

(3) 61. 62.

63.

(ii) H 2O 2, OH CH3

CH3 OH

(1) C3H6O2 (3) C4H10O

A

NaOH +CaO

OH

H

A

'A'

CH3 H

(2)

(4) (1)

(2) C4H8O2 (4) C5H9O2

2,2-Dimethyl butane. A

(4)

:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

HBr A ( CCl4

64.

Br

(2) (3) (4)

Br Br

Br

)A

:-

OH

(2)

(1) 3,3-Dimethyl pentanoic acid (2) 4,4-Dimethyl pentanoic acid (3) 2,3,3-Trimethyl butanoic acid

(1) Br

(i) BH 3,THF

:-

:-

:-

CC–H

65. 'B' is :-

2+

OH

(1)

C–CH3 CN

(3) 66.

Hg H2SO4

(i) NaCN (ii) HCl B

A

CH–CH3

CN name of

the

compound

A

(i) NaCN (ii) HCl B O

(2)

C–CH3 CN

OH

CH–CH3

CH2–C–H (4)

CN I.U.P.A.C. O C

O

C O (1) Benzoic anhydride

C O (1) Benzoic anhydride

(3) Hexane 1,2 dicarboxylic anhydride

(3) Hexane 1,2 dicarboxylic anhydride

(2) Cyclohexane 1,2 dioic anhydride

(4) Cyclohexane 1,2 dicarboxylic anhydride

O

O

NH2–NH2/OH 

OH product is :(1)

(3)

NH2

OH

67.

?

O

69.

CN

66.

(4) Cyclohexane 1,2 dicarboxylic anhydride

68.

C–CH3

(3)

O

Hg2+ H2SO4

OH

CN

OH

(2) Cyclohexane 1,2 dioic anhydride

67.

:-

(1)

C–CH3

CH2–C–H (4)

I.U.P.A.C. O C

'B'

O

(2)

CC–H

65.

(2)

Which of the following does not give white crystal with NaHSO3 ? (3) Acetophenone

(1)

(2) Benzaldehyde

(4) Acetone

NH2

(3)

(4)

Total number of stereoisomer of compound CH3–CH=CH–CH2 –CH=CH–CH3 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 8

(1) Acetaldehyde

O

O

68. 69.

OH :-

NH2–NH2/OH 

OH

?

(2)

O

(4)

CH3–CH=CH–CH2 –CH=CH–CH3

(1) 2 ?

(1) (3)

(2) 3

NaHSO3

(3) 6 (2) (4)

(4) 8

70.

Major product of the following reaction CH3 H

(1)

(3) 71.

CH3

Br2 H2O

CH 3 H OH

CH 3

A (Major)

(2)

Br

CH 3 H Br

CH 3

70.

'A' is :CH 3 H OH

CH 3

(1)

Br

(4) None

OH Which of the following compound has correct IUPAC numbering :–

(3) 71.

1 2 3 4 5 (1) CH3 – CH – CH – CH – CH3 Et

Me

(1) (2)

O

OCH2–CH3

OCH2–CH3

O

O

(4) None of these

CH 3

(2)

Br

CH 3 H Br

CH 3

Br

(4)

OH

(IUPAC

Me

1 2 3 4 5 (4) CH3 – CH – CH – CH – CH3 Br

72.

product

CH3–CH2 –OH/H

O

(1) (2)

O

O

(3) (4)

O

Cl



OCH2–CH3

OCH2–CH3

O–CH2–CH3

:-

CH 3 H OH

1 2 3 4 5 (1) CH3 – CH – CH – CH – CH3

O–CH2–CH3

(3)

CH 3

CH3

1 2 3 4 5 (4) CH3 – CH – CH – CH – CH3

O

(eq[; mRikn)

3 2 1 (3) CH3 – CH – CH – NH2

CH3



CH 3 H OH

'A'

A

CHO

3 2 1 (3) CH3 – CH – CH – NH2

CH3 –CH2–OH/H

Br2 H2 O

4 3 2 1 (2) CH3 – CH 2 – CH – CH 3

CHO

Br Cl The major product of following reaction will be

CH3

Et

4 3 2 1 (2) CH3 – CH 2 – CH – CH3

72.

CH3 H

:-

:-

:–

73.

Compound which never exist diastereomeric pair :–

(1)

(2)

(3) (4) 74.

Me

H

Cl

Me Me

H H

Me

CH3

Me H

Cl H

OH

(2)

OH

C=C=C

Me H

Me H

(3) (4)

The correct order of acid strength in the following OH

(I)

Me

(II)

OH

(III)

Me

Me

(IV)

NO2

Me

OH

OH

Me

Me

H

Cl

Me Me

H H

Me

CH3

Me

74.

H

Me

(VI) Me

NO2

H

OH OH

C=C=C

OH

(I)

Me

Me H

Me H

(II)

OH

Me

(III)

NO2

Cl

C=C=C=C

H

Me

Me

(IV)

NO2

OH

OH (V)

:–

(1)

C=C=C=C

H

73.

(V)

Me

Me

(VI) Me

(1) III rel="nofollow"> IV > VI > V > II > I

(1) III > IV > VI > V > II > I

(3) III > IV > V > VI > I > II

(3) III > IV > V > VI > I > II

(2) III > IV > VI > V > I > II (4) IV > III > VI > V > I > II

OH

Me

Me

NO2 OH

OH Me

OH

(2) III > IV > VI > V > I > II (4) IV > III > VI > V > I > II

NO2

Me

75.

CH3–CC–CH3

(i) BH 3,THF (ii) CH 3COOH

A

(i) Ag2O  (ii) H3O

B

75.

A

A & B are respectively :H & H

(1)

H & H

(2)

&

(3)

(4) 76.

&

H

HO

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

OH OH

OH HO + H H

CH3 O

Find the product "X" :-

&

(3)

OH

CH3

(4) 76.

&

"X"

(1)

(1)

Cl

Cl

(2) Br

Br

Br

Br

(3)

(3)

Cl

Cl Br

HO

CH3 CH3 CH3

(4)

Br

B

OH OH

OH OH

CH3

OH HO + H H

CH3 O

:-

Cl

Cl

H

CH3

(i) Ag2O  (ii) H3O

Anhy. AlCl3 + Br–Cl  "X"

Anhy. AlCl

(4)

H & H

CH3

H

A

:H & H

(2)

3 + Br–Cl  "X"

(2)

(i) BH3,THF (ii) CH 3COOH

B

(1)

OH OH

CH3

CH3–CC–CH3

CH3

H

OH

CH3

18  (i) CH3COO OH

 X

77.

78.

 X

77.

(ii) H3O

(ii) H3O

The probable structure of ‘X’ is

‘X’

(1)

(1)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(4)

(4)

Which is most stable conformers of succinic acid in basic medium :-

78.

(1) Anti

(1)

(3) Partially eclipsed

(3)

(2) Gauche

(4) Fully eclipsed 79.

18  (i) CH3COO OH

CH3–CN

'B' is :-

(2) (4) O

(i) CH3MgBr NH2–C–NH–NH2 A + (ii) H /H2O pH=4.5

O (1) CH 3–C–CH3

O

(2) CH3–C=N–NH–C–NH2 CH3

O

:-

B

79.

CH3–CN

'B'

:-

O

(i) CH3MgBr NH2–C–NH–NH2 A (ii) H+/H2O pH=4.5

O (1) CH 3–C–CH3

O

(2) CH3–C=N–NH–C–NH2 CH3

O

(3) CH3–C=N–C–NH–NH2

(3) CH3–C=N–C–NH–NH2

(4) CH3–C–NH–NH 2 O

(4) CH3–C–NH–NH 2 O

CH3

CH3

B

80.

(i) CH3

CH3

'A' is (1)

(2)

Cl

CO3H

A (Major)

(ii) H /H2O +

80.

OH OH

(1)

(2)

CH3

CH 3 H CH3 H

Which is the correct order of rate of nitration?

H

H (A)

H

D

H

D

(1) A > B > C (3) A = B = C 82.

CH3

CH3 H OH CH3

CH3

OH OH

CH3

NBS / h

D

D (B)

D

T

D

T

T

T (C)

81.

T

H

T

H

Br

82.

(2)

H

H (A)

H

D

H

D

(1) A > B > C (3) A = B = C

(2) A < B < C (4) B > A > C Products

?

CH3

(1)

D

D (B)

D

T

D

T

Br

(4)

T

T (C)

(2) A < B < C (4) B > A > C

NBS / h

Br

(2)

Br (3)

)

CH 3 H CH3 H

Which product will not formed in reaction (1)

+

(4)

(4)

H

A (

(ii) H /H2O

CH 3 OHCH3 OH

CH 3 OHCH3 OH

H

CO3H

(3)

(3)

81.

CH3

CH3

'A'

CH3 H OH CH3

CH3

(i)

Cl

Br Br

(3)

Br

(4)

Br

T T

83.

Which of the following compound is chiral ?

(1)

COOH

H

83.

OH

H

?

(1)

OH COOH Cl

H

OH

H

OH COOH

Br

Cl

(2)

(3) Br

COOH

(2)

H H

C

(3) Br

Cl

H

(4)

85.

(4)

Correct order of reactivity with CH3MgBr is :O

(i) Ph–C–Ph

(ii) Ph–C–H

(iii) CH3–C–H

(iv) CH 3–C–CH3

O

CH2

85.

CH2

CH2

(2) CN

CHO

CH2

CH2 NO2

O

(i) Ph–C–Ph (ii) Ph–C–H O O (iii) CH3–C–H (iv) CH 3–C–CH3 (1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) (2) (iii) > (ii) > (iv) > (i) (3) (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i) (4) (iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i)

CHO

(4)

CH3MgBr

(1)

(2) CH2

NO2 NO 2 :O

CH2

CN

(3)

84.

O

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) (2) (iii) > (ii) > (iv) > (i) (3) (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i) (4) (iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i) Which one of the carbanion's is most stable?

(1)

Cl

COOH COOH

NO2 NO 2

O

C

H

COOH COOH

84.

Br

(3)

CH2 NO2

(4)

86.

87.

88.

89.

are :(1) Chain isomer (2) Position isomer (3) Functional group isomer (4) Metamer Which is not suitable to obtain by Wurtz reaction?

86.

87.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

CH3

?

(2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(3)

(4)

During the estimation of sulphur 0.157 gm organic compound gives 0.4813 gm barium sulphate the % of sulphur in compound will be: (1) 24.10% (2) 42.10% (3) 40% (4) 14.42%

Alkene

88.

H /H2O +

(Product)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Which of the following is incorrect reaction ? (1) CH3–C–CH3

OCH3 CH3OH/H+ CH3 C (excess) CH3 OCH3

(2) CH3–C–CH3

O–H CH3OH/H+ CH3 C O–CH3 CH3

O

O

(3) CH2=CH–NO2 HBr CH3–CH–NO2

Br

(4) CH2=CH–CCl3

HBr CH –CH –CCl 2 2 3 Br

0.157

0.4813 (1) 24.10% (3) 40%

OH

89.

Alkene

:-

rFkk

(1)

Which of the following alkene does not give desired product :-

90.

CH2–CH3

CH3

H /H2O

:

(2) 42.10% (4) 14.42% OH

+

(

) ?

90.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) ?

OCH3 CH3OH/H+ CH3 C (1) CH3–C–CH3 (excess) CH3 OCH3 O

O–H CH3OH/H+ CH3 C (2) CH3–C–CH3 O–CH3 CH3 O (3) CH2=CH–NO2 HBr CH3–CH–NO2

Br

(4) CH2=CH–CCl3

HBr CH –CH –CCl 2 2 3 Br

91.

In the diagram of multipolar myelinated neuron given below, different parts have been indicated by alphabetes; choose the answers in which these alphabetes have been correctly matched with the parts which they indicates:-

C

92.

93.

F

D

B

91.

A

C

E

G

(1) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Nucleus, D = Dendrites, E = Naked portion of axon, F = Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier (2) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Naked portion of axon, D = Dendrites, E = Nucleus, F = Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier (3) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Naked portion of axon, D = Nucleus, E = Dendrites, F = Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier (4) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Dendrites, D = Nucleus, E = Naked portion of axon, F = Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier The spot where no image is formed is known as blind spot because it has (1) Nerves but no cones (2) Nerves and rods (3) No cones, rods and nerves (4) Cones and rods but contains no photochemical substance within them Cretinism is due to (1) Excess growth hormone (2) Absence of insulin (3) Excess adrenaline (4) Hyposecretion of thyroid in childhood (low Thyroxine)



B

92.

(1) A = C= E= F= (2) A= C= D= F= (3) A = C= D= F= (4) A = C= E= F= (1) (2) (3) (4)

93.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

F

D

G

E

A

,D=

,B=

,

,G= ,B= ,E= , ,G= ,B=

, , ,

,

,E= , ,G= ,B= , D= , , ,G=

,

,

,

94.

95.

Lateral appendages, parapodia which help in swimming is present in:-

94.

(1)

(2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(3)

(4)

African sleeping sickness is caused by which protozoan parasite:-

95.

(1) Trypanosoma gambiense

(3)

(3) Giardia intestinalis

(4) Trichomonas vaginalis

Which of the following is not a product of exocrine gland? (1) Earwax

97.

(3) Mucous

96.

Given these lung volumes:

A  Tidal volume = 500 ml

97.

98.

(2) 6000 ml (4) 5000 ml

Which of these substances is not required for normal red blood cell production ? (1) Folate

(3) Vitamin K

(2) Iron

(4) Vitamin B12

(3)

(4)

A

= 500 ml

= 1000 ml

(IRV) = 2500 ml

D

D  Expiratory reserve volume = 1000 ml

(3) 4000 ml

(2)

C

C  Inspiratory reserve volume = 2500 ml

(1) 3000 ml

?

B

B  Residual volume = 1000 ml

The vital capacity is :

(4)

(1)

(2) Saliva

(4) Hormones

(1) (2)

(2) Leishmania donovoni

96.

:-

98.

(ERV) = 1000 ml

(1) 3000

(2) 6000

(1)

(2)

(3) 4000

(3)

(4) 5000

K

(4)

B12

99.

In infants, rennin acts on milk protein and converts:-

99.

(Rennin)

(1) Caseinogen to casein

(1)

(3) Casein to paracasein

(3)

(2) Paracasein to caseinogen (4) Caseinogen to paracasein

100. Find the incorrect statement regarding mechanism of urine formation in man:(1) Tubular secretion also takes place in PCT (2) Aldosterone induces greater reabsorption of sodium (3) The countercurrent mechanism helps in dilution the urine (4) The glomerular Filtration rate is about 125 ml/min 101. Neurons are classified on the basis of (1) Number of nucleus present

(2) 100.

(1)

(2)

101.

102.

104. Which of the following is balance organ in arthropoda & mollusca ? (1) Radula

(3) Statocyst

(4) 103.

105. Function of cnidoblast is :(1) Anchorage

(2) Offence (capture of prey) (3) Defence (4) All

A

A

A

(1) (2)

104.

(3) (4) (1)

(2) Mantle

(4) Nephridia

A

(3)

(2) Decreased blood calcium level (3) Increased blood sugar level (4) Decreased blood sugar level

(4)

(2)

(3) Oxidation of rhodopsin requires vitamin A

(1) Increased blood calcium level

(1)

(1)

(2) Rhodopsin is made up of vitamin A

103. Parathormone is secreted during

125

(3)

(1) It is necessary for nerve impulses in choroid

(4) Vitamin A is necessary for formation of Bipolor neuron

(4)

(2)

(3) Number of nissl's granules present

102. Vitamin A is necessary for the proper physiological function of eye because

Na

(3)

(2) Number of processes arising from the cell body (4) Number of branches in axon

(4)

105.

(3)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

?

(2) :-

(4)

106. Which of the following is an example of loose connective tissue? (1) Adipose tissue (3) Ligament

106.

(2) Tendon (4) Bone

107. The chemosensitive area :-

(1) 107.

(1) is located in pons

(2) Stimulates the respiratory centre when blood pH increases

108. Critical count of thrombocyte is :(1) 40,000/mm

3

(3) 400000/mm 3

(2) 4000/mm

3

(4) 10000/mm 3

109. If pH of the stomach is made 7. which component of food would be affected ? (1) Starch

(3) Lactose

110. Podocytes occurs in :(1) PCT

108. 109.

(1) Effector organs to central nervous system

110.

(1) Presence of the helicotrema

111.

(3) 400000/mm 3

pH 7

112.

(3)

(4) (1) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) Insulin and glucagon

(1)

(3) Calcitonin and parathormone

(3)

(2) M.S.H and melanin

(4) Melatonin and M.S.H

:-

(2) M.S.H (4)

(2) 4000/mm3

(4) 10000/mm 3

(4)

(1)

113.

:-

(2)

(3)

(3) Vibrations of the ear ossicles

113. Which one of given below is not an example of antagonistic hormone :-

(1) 40,000/mm

3

(2)

(2) Vibrations set in the external auditory meatus (4) Nerve impulses are generated by the hair cells of the organ of corti

O2

(3)

(3) Central nervous system to muscles

112. Sensation of hearing is produced as a result of the

CO2

(2)

(2) Receptors to central nervous system (4) Central nervous system to receptors

pH

(1)

(3) Inner wall of bowman's capsule 111. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from

(1)

(4)

(2) Loop of Henle (4) DCT

(4)

(3)

(2) Protein

(4) Sucrose

(3) (2)

(3) Stimulates the respiratory centre when carbondioxide level increases (4) Stimulates the respiratory centre when blood oxygen level increases

(2)

M.S.H

114. Water vascular system is absent in:(1) Asterias

(3) Antedon

(2) Sycon

(4) Echinus

115. Which larva show neoteny? (1) Tornaria (3) Tadpole

116. Skeletal muscles are :-

(2) Axolotl

(4) Trochophore

(1) Unstriated, voluntary

114. 115. 116.

(2) Unstriated, involuntary

(1) (1) (1)

117. Carbondioxide is mostly transported in the blood :-

117.

(1)

(3) Bound to heme portion of haemoglobin

(3)

(2) Bound to blood protein

(4) In the form of bicarbonates

118. Given below are the structures of the conduction system of the heart :-

(2) 118.

(a) Internodal pathway

(4) (a)

(b)

(b) AV node

(c)

(c) Bundle of His

(d)

(d) Purkinje fibres

(e)

(e) SA node

Choose the correct sequence that an action potential passes through them (first to last)

(1) b, e, a, c, d

(2) e, a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d, e

119. Which of the following process need not take place when we eat glucose ?

119.

(3) e, b, c, d, a

(1) Ingestion

(1)

(3) Digestion

(3)

(2) Absorption

(2)

120. Reabsorption of choride ions (Cl ) from the glomerular filtrate in the kidney tubule of mammal is carried out by :(1) Osmosis

(2) Active transport (3) Diffusion

(4) Pinocytosis

:-

(4)

(4)

(1) as crystals

(4) Assimilation

(2)

?

(3)

(4) Striated, Involuntary

(3) e, b, c, d, a

(4)

(2)

(3) Striated, Voluntary

(1) b, e, a, c, d

(2)

(3)

(3)

:-

–

120.

(4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(SA node)

(2) e, a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d, e

121. The hind brain consists of (1) Pons + cerebellum

121.

(2) Hypothalamus + cerebellum

(2)

(3) Medulla oblongata + cerebrum

(4) Medulla oblongata + cerebellum + pons

122. In mammalian ear, a membranous structure which separate the scala vestibuli and scala media is

(3) 122.

123.

(i)

124.

(iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is

(iii) (1)

(2) Myxoedema 124.

Observe the above figure carefully and identify that this figure is shown by which phylum :-

(3)

(1) Aschelminthes

(1)

(3) Platyhelminthes

(3)

(4) Mollusca

125. Which one of the following is ectoparasite and their mouth is circular without jaw? (3) Myxine

(2) (4)

(2)

(2) Annelida

(1) Petromyzon

+

(ii)

(ii) increase in body weight and,

(4) Dwarfism

+

(4)

(i) a low metabolic rate,

(3) Simple goitre

+

(3)

(3) Otolith membrane

(1) Cretinism

+

(2)

(2) Reissner’s membrane 123. A health disorder that results from the deficiency of thyroxine in adults and characterised by

(4)

+

(1)

(1) Basilar membrane

(4) Tectorial membrane

(1)

125.

(1)

(2) Lamprey

(4) All

126. Which of the statement is correct about muscle contraction?

(4)

126.

(3)

(1) 'I' bands : length increases

(1) 'I'

(3) 'H' zone : will be increased

(3) 'H'

(2) 'A' band : get reduced

(4) shortening of the sarcomere

(2) 'A' (4)

(2)

(4)

127. The rate of diffusion of a gas across the respiratory membrane increase when :(1) Respiratory membrane becomes thicker (2) Surface area of the respiratory membrane decreases (3) Partial pressure gradient of the gas across the respiratory membrane increases (4) Diffusion membrane become dry 128. Parasympathetic nerve fibres are part of ........ nerves and releases........... in heart :(1) Cardiac, Acetylcholine respectively (2) Cardiac, norepinephrine respectively (3) Vagus, Acetylcholine respectively (4) Vagus, norepinephrine respectively 129. Wisdom tooth in human is :(1) 3rd molar and 4 in number

127. (1) (2) (3)

128.

129.

(1) (2)

Number

Visual pigment contained

(3)

Overall function

(4)

Disitribution

Rod cells

Cone Cells

Iodopsin

Rhodopsin

Vision in poor light

Colour vision and vision in bright light

Low

High

More concentrated Evenly distributed all in centre of retina over retina

...........

Acetylcholine Acetylcholine

(1)

4

2

(3)

(3) 2nd molar and 4 in number 130. Ketonuria is due to :(1) Diabetes mellitus (2) Diabetes insipidus (3) High blood pressure (4) Intake of excess sugar 131. Nissl’s granules are present in the ....... and contain....... (1) Muscle cells and deoxyribo nucleic acid (2) Mast cells and RNA (3) Osteocytes and DNA (4) Neuron and RNA 132. Which one of the following is the correct difference between rod cells and cone cells of our retina ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

........

(2)

(2) 3rd molar and 2 in number

(4) 2nd molar and 2 in number

(4)

130.

131.

132

(1) (2) (3) (4)

4

(4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

2

.......

RNA

DNA RNA DNA

.......

133. Erythropoeitin is secreted from :(1) Kidney (2) Pancreas (3) Adrenal gland (4) Pituitary gland 134. Which of the following is not a chordate character? (1) Presence of notochord (2) Ventral heart (3) Central nervous system is ventral, solid & double (4) Pharynx perforated by gill slits 135. Which cell junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue? (1) Adhering junctions (2) Tight junction (3) Gap junction (4) Both (2) and (3) 136. Correctly match column-I with column-II. Column-I

(A) Myasthenia gravis

Column-II

(i)

133. 134.

(1) (3)

(2) (4)

(1) (2) (3) 135.

(4)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (2) 136. -I

(3) -I

-II

-II

A oxygen storing pigment

(A)

(i)

(B)

Muscular dystrophy (ii)

Rapid spasm in muscles

(B)

(ii)

(C)

Myoglobin

(iii)

Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle

(C)

(iii)

(iv)

Auto immune disorder

(D)

(iv)

(D) Tetany

(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D(ii)

(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D(iv)

(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D(iv) (4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D(iii)

137. C-shaped hyaline cartilage provide supports:(1) Ventral side of trachea only (2) Lateral side of trachea only (3) Dorsal side of trachea only (4) both ventral and lateral side of trachea 138. Find the incorrect statement related to lymphatic system :(1) It remove excess fluid from tissue (2) Absorbs fat from digestive tract (3) Defends the body against microorganism and other foreign substances (4) Lymph is red in color due to small number of RBCs

:-

(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D(ii)

(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D(iv)

(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D(iv) (4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D(iii)

137. C(1) (2) (3) (4) 138. (1) (2)

(3) (4)

(hyaline)

:-

139. In humans, sphincter of oddi is associated with:(1) Pyloric stomach (2) Oesophagus (3) Hepato-pancreatic duct (4) Common hepatic duct 140. Glomerular filtrate consists of :(1) All the constituents of blood (2) All the constituents of blood except blood cells (3) Excess water, waste products and IgG (4) All the constituents of blood except blood corpuscles and larger proteins 141. An action potential in the nerve fibre is produced when positive and negative charges on the outside and the inside of the axon membrane are reversed,because (1) more potassium ions enter the axon as compared to sodium ions leaving it (2) more sodium ions enter the axon as compared to potassium ions leaving it (3) all potassium ions leave the axon (4) all sodium ions enter the axon 142. Hormones may be (1) Amino acid derivatives (2) Peptides (3) Steroids (4) All the above 143. In the heart of frog, ventricle opens into a sac like:(1) Sinus venosus on dorsal side (2) Conus arteriosus on ventral side (3) Sinus venosus on ventral side (4) Conus arteriosus on dorsal side 144. Select a fish which does not have air bladder:(1) Flying fish (2) Dog fish (3) Sea horse (4) Labeo 145. Observe the given figure of a tissue:

Find out incorrect one for the above figure : (1) Made up of more than one layer (2) Cover dry surface of skin (3) Found on moist surface of buccal cavity (4) Composed of a single layer of cell

139.

140.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

IgG

141.

(axon) (action potential) (1) (2)

142.

143.

144. 145.

(3) (4)

Na+

K+ Na

+

K+

K+ Na+

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (3)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

:-

:-

(2) (4)

:

146. Which type of joint is shown by the flat skull bones? (1) Saddle joint (2) Fibrous joint (3) Synovial joint (4) Cartilageneous joint 147. Find the correct match related to disorder of respiratory system :(1) Asthma  It is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation in nasal cavity (2) Emphysema  It is a chronic disorder in which alveolar wall are damaged due to which respiratory surface is increases (3) Occupational respiratory disorders  long exposure can give rise to inflammation leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious lung damage (4) Tachypnea  Slow breathing rate 148. Neutrophils are :(1) Largest granulocytes in blood (2) Most abundant agranylocytes in blood (3) Phagocytic in nature (4) Releases histamine, heparin and serotonin 149. Arrange the correct sequence of enzymes which act on food in different regions of alimentary canal :(A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin (C) Carboxypeptidase Option:(1) A, C, B (2) B, A, C (3) B, C, A (4) A, B, C 150. Part of nephron, impermeable to salt is :(1) Descending limb of loop of henle (2) Ascending limb of loop of henle (3) Distal convoluted tubule (4) Proximal convoluted tubule 151. Which of the following statement is correct about Node of Ranvier ?

146.

147.

(1) (3)

 

(2)



(3)

148.

149.



(4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (A) (B) (C)

:-

(1) A, C, B 150.

151.

(3) B, C, A (1) (2) (3) (4) (1)

(3) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous

(3)

(4) Covered by myelin sheath

(4)

(1)

(1) Axolemma is discontinuous

(2) Myelin sheath is discontinuous

(2)

(2) (4)

?

(2) B, A, C

(4) A, B, C

152. Receptors for protein hormones are located (1) In cytoplasm

152.

(2) On cell surface

(2)

(3) In nucleus

(4) On endoplasmic reticulum

153. Given below as a figure of alimentary canal of cockroach:-

(1) (3)

153.

(4)

(A)

(A)

Find out location of labelled A. (1) Between midgut and hindgut (2) Between pharynx and hindgut (3) Between foregut and hindgut (4) Between foregut and midgut 154. Find out incorrect match:(1) Naja – Non poisonous snake (2) Bungarus – Poisonous snake (3) Python – Non poisonous snake (4) Vipera – Poisonous snake 155. Fluid connective tissue is:(1) Blood (2) Bones (3) Tendon (4) Ligament 156. The regulatory protein of skeletal muscles whose filaments run close to the 'F' Actin through out is :(1) Myosin (2) Meromyosin (3) Troponin (4) Tropomyosin

:-

(1)

A

:-

(2) (3) 154.

155.

156.

(4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

– – – –

:-

:-

:-

'F'

157. O 2 can bind with haemoglobin in __(i)__ manner to form __(ii)__

157.

Find the option which fills above blanks correctly:(1) (I) Irreversible (2) (I) Reversible

(3) (I) Irreversible (4) (I) Reversible

___(i)___

__(ii)__

(II) Oxyhaemoglobin

(1) (I)

(II)

(II) Methaemoglobin (II) Oxyhaemoglobin

(3) (I)

(II)

(2) (I)

(II) Methaemoglobin

158. Coronary artery arises from the :-

(1) Pulmonary vein and supply the heart

158.

(2) Pulmonary artery and supply the heart (4) Inferior vena cava and supply the wall of heart 159. Which one is correctly matched ? (1) Vit. E - Thiamine

(4) 159.

160.

(3) Presence of ketone bodies in urine is ketonuria.

(1) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa

(2) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and nervous system regulates endocrine glands

(3) Neither hormones control neural activity nor the neur ons cont rol endocr ine activity

(4) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice verse

(4) Vit. D (1) (2)

(2) Presence of excess urea in blood is haematuria

161. Which one of the following statement is correct?

(1) Vit. E -

(3) Vit. B12 -

(1) Presence of glucose in urine is glycosuria

(4) Damage of glomerular basement membrane is known as glomerulonephritis.

(Aorta)

(2) Vit. A -

(3) Vit. B12 - Cyanocobalamine 160. Which one of the following statement is false?

(II)

(1) (3)

(2) Vit. A - Calciferol

(4) Vit. D - Riboflavin

(4) (I)

(2)

(3) Aorta and supply the wall of heart

(II)

(3) (4) 161.

(1) (2)

(3)

(4)

?

162. Hormone released by posterior lobe of pituitary gland is concerned with

162.

(1) Metabolism of carbohydrates

(1) (2)

(2) Stimulation of thyroid

(3) Secondary sexual characters (4) Contraction of uterus

163. The ventral surface of earthworm is distinguished by the presence of :-

(3) 163.

(4)

(1) Dorsal blood vessel

(1)

(3) Genital opening

(3)

(2) Clitellum

(2)

(4) Prostomium

164. Which is not a character of animals of classAves? (1) Pneumatic bones (2) Presence of feathers (3) Air sac connected to lungs (4) External fertilisation 165. The epitheliun of proximal convoluted tubules (PCT) of nephron in the kidney has:(1) Cilia (2) Stereocilla (3) Microvilli (4) Flagella 166. Which option is correct for the region labelled as A, B, C, D in the given diagram? D

164.

(4) (1) (2) (3)

165.

166.

(4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

:-

A, B, C, D

? D

A B C

(1) A - Femur, B - Fibula, C - Tibia, D - Pubis (2) A - Humerus, B - Tibia, C - Fibula, D - Ilium (3) A - Femur, B - Tibia, C - Fibula, D - Ischium (4) A - Femur, B - Radius, C - Ulna, D - Ischium

(PCT)

A B C

(1) A (2) A (3) A (4) A -

,B,B,B,B-

Time Management is Life Management

,C,C,C,C-

,D,D,D,D-

167. The partial pressure of O 2 in deoxygenated blood is :(1) 104 mmHg (2) 45 mmHg (3) 40 mmHg (4) 95 mmHg 168. Find the correct statement related to circulatory system:(1) Closure of the semilunar valve produces the first heart sound (2) Closure the atrioventricular valves produces the second heart sound (3) The SA node is located in the right atrium (4) The tricuspid valve present in between the left atrium and ventricle 169. Which of the following vitamin is water soluble as well as antioxidant ?

167.

168.

O2 (1) 104 mmHg (3) 40 mmHg (1) (2) (3) (4)

169.

(1) Vit. E

(1) Vit. E

(3) Vit. D

(3) Vit. D

(2) Vit. A (4) Vit. C

170. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by :-

(2) Vit. A

170.

(4) Vit. C

(1) Macula densa cell

(1) Macula Densa

(3) Liver cells

(3)

(2)

(2) Kupffer's cells

(4) Juxta-Glomerular cells

171. Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature?

171.

(4) JG-

(1) cerebellum

(1)

(3) hypothalamus

(3)

(2)

(2) cerebrum

(4) medulla oblongata

172. The function of glucagon hormone is (1) To increase glycogenesis

(2) To decrease blood sugar level

(3) To release glucose from liver cells and glycogenolysis promotion (4) To increase the absorption of fatty acids into the cell

(2) 45 mmHg (4) 95 mmHg

172.

(4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

-

173. Non-chordates include :-

173.

(1) Porifera to Tunicates

(2) Annelida to echinodermata

174. Match the column A with column B and Column C:Column-A

Column-B

(3) 174.

(4)

Column-C

Fertilisation

Oviparous/ viviparous

(1)

(i) External

(a) Viviparous

(2)

(ii) Internal

(b) Oviparous

Animals

(1) (2)

(3) Ctenophora to cephalochordata (4) Porifera to echinodermata

:-

A

B

C

dkWye-A

dkWye-B

tUrq

fu"kspu (i) ckg~;

(a) tjk;qt

(2)

(ii) vkUrfjd

(b) v.Mçtd

(4)

(4)

(1) 1-ii-a, 2-i-b, 3-i-b, 4-ii-a

(1) 1-ii-a, 2-i-b, 3-i-b, 4-ii-a

(3) 1-ii-a, 2-i-b, 3-ii-a, 4-i-b

(3) 1-ii-a, 2-i-b, 3-ii-a, 4-i-b

(2) 1-i-a, 2-ii-b, 3-i-a, 4-ii-b

(2) 1-i-a, 2-ii-b, 3-i-a, 4-ii-b (4) 1-i-b, 2-ii-a, 3-ii-b, 4-i-a

175. Most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body :-

175.

(4) 1-i-b, 2-ii-a, 3-ii-b, 4-i-a :-

(1) Epithelial tissue

(1)

(3) Connective tissue

(3)

(2) Nervous tissue

(4) Muscular tissue

176. Scapula is a large triangular bone located in the dorsal part of thorax between:-

(2)

176.

(4)

(1) 2nd and 3rd ribs

(1) 2nd

(3) 11th and 12th ribs

(3) 11th

(2) 2nd and 7th ribs

(4) 7th and 10th ribs

dkWye-C v.Mçtd@ tjk;qt

(1)

(3)

(3)

:-

(2) 2nd (4) 7th

3rd 7th

12th

10th

:-

177. A thin elastic cartilaginous flap which prevent the entry of food into the larynx is :-

177.

(1) Thyroid cartilage

(1)

(3) Epiglottis cartilage

(3)

(2) Cricoid cartilage

178.

(4) Corniculate cartilage

The state of heart when it is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the need of the body is known as :-

(2)

178.

(4)

(1) Angina pectoris

(1)

(3) Cardiac arrest

(3)

(2) Heart failure

(4) Myocardial infarction

179. Ileocaecal valve is present between :(1) Colon and rectum

(2)

179.

(2) Large and small intestine

180. Maintenance of medullary osmolarity of kidney is due to :(1) Rebsorption in loop of henle and collecting duct (2) Reabsorption in PCT only

(3) Reabsorption in DCT only

(4) Secretion of descending LOH and collecting duct

(1) (2)

(3) Stomach and small Intestine

(4) Cardiac part of stomach and fundus.

(4)

(3) 180.

(4)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

LOH

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /