Mcq Book It-sm-1 By Saket Ghiria.pdf

FIRST EDITION

CA IPC - IT&SM

MCQ BOOK For CA- IPC (Old Syllabus)

CA. SAKET GHIRIA (Visiting Faculty & Research Group Member of ICAI)

Published & Distributed by Saket Ghiria Classes Address – 1/11, Ground Floor, Lalita Park, Behind Amaan Electronics Laxmi Nagar, Delhi – 110092 Contact Details 9910674854 First Published in the Year 2019 Published in New Delhi, India (PAN India Availability)

© All Rights Reserved All rights reserved with the Author and publisher. No part of this book may be reproduced, stored in any electronic retrieval system, or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, or otherwise, without prior permission, in writing, from the Author.

Dear Friends. We have assured highest level accuracy in the answers. However if you find any contradiction, please inform us via mail. Our mail ID is [email protected]

ICA IPC IT-SM (iv) Function oriented structure is subject to end to end responsibility Which of the above statements are correct?

(Q-1). _________ is a coordinated and standardized flow of activities performed by people or machines, which can traverse functional or departmental boundaries to achieve a business objective and creates value for internal or external customers: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Process Business Process Flow Data Flow Accounting Process Flow

(Q-2). _______ is a set of activities or tasks that are performed in coordination to realize a business goal. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Process Business Process Data Process Accounting Process

(Q-3). Consider the following aspects about the process oriented organisational structure: (i)

Business Process is a set of activities or tasks that are performed in coordination to realize a business goal (ii) Process oriented structure is subject to departmental boundaries (iii) In process-oriented structure, optimization view is department specific (iv) Process performed by one organisation could interact with the process performed by the other organisation Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (iii) only Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i) & (iv) only

(Q-4). Consider the following aspects about the function oriented organisational structure: (i)

Coordination and communication are easy in the function-oriented structure (ii) Is subject to departmental boundaries (iii) In function-oriented structure, optimization view is department specific

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (ii) & (iii) only Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i) & (iv) only

(Q-5). Consider the following aspects about the process oriented organisational structure: (i)

Coordination is easy to build and maintain in the process-oriented structure (ii) Process oriented structure is headed by the functional executive (iii) In process-oriented structure, optimization view is process specific (iv) Process performed by one organisation is always subject to that organisation itself Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (iii) only Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i) & (iv) only

(Q-6). Consider the following steps involved in the management of process: (i) (ii)

Defining the tasks involved in the process Ensure standardization of and adherence to the process throughout the organization (iii) Performance measures are established to improve the process (iv) Mapping the task involved in the process List the above steps in the correct order: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

(Q-7). ___________ views an organization as a system of interlinked processes whereas ________ considers the organizations made of departments. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Process structure, Function structure Function structure, Process structure Team structure, Process structure Process structure, Department structure

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-8). Key figure in process-oriented structure is _______, & in function-oriented structure is _______. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Team Head, Functional Head Functional Head, Process Owner Team Head, Process Owner Process Owner, Functional Executive

(Q-9). Which of the following statement is correct about the function-oriented structure? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Focus on end-to-end responsibility More responsive to market changes Focus on functional excellence Improved communication & collaboration

(Q-10). Which of the following statement is incorrect about the process-oriented structure? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Focus on end-to-end responsibility More responsive to market changes Focus on functional excellence Improved communication & collaboration

(Q-11). Which of the following is the first step involved in the accounting cycle? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Journal Source Document Adjustments Financial statement

(Q-12). Consider the first four steps involved in the accounting process flow: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Trial Balance Source Document Journal Ledger

List the above steps in the correct order: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

(Q-13). Consider the last four steps involved in the accounting process flow: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Financial statement Adjusted Trial balance Closing Entries Adjustments

List the above steps in the correct order:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)

(Q-14). Consider the last four steps involved in the Order to Cash process flow: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Receipt Reconciliation Shipping Invoice

List the above steps in the correct order: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

(Q-15). Consider the first four steps involved in the Order to Cash process flow: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Recording Customer Order Shipping Pick release

List the above steps in the correct order: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

(Q-16). Consider the last four steps involved in the Procure to Pay process flow: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Purchase order Receipts Quotation Payments

List the above steps in the correct order: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)

(Q-17). Consider the first four steps involved in the Procure to Pay process flow: (i) Request for quote (ii) Purchase requisition (iii) Quotation

ICA IPC IT-SM (iv) Purchase order List the above steps in the correct order: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)

(Q-18). The highest level involved in the business process classification is __________? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Organizational Business Processes Operational Business Processes Business Strategy Goals

(Q-19). Which of the following business process act as supplier or consumer processes? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Organizational Business Processes Operational Business Processes Business Strategy Goals

(Q-20). In which of the following business process, activities and their relationships are specified? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Organizational Business Processes Operational Business Processes Business Strategy Implemented Business Processes

(Q-21). In which of the following business process, the information on the execution of the process activities are specified? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Organizational Business Processes Operational Business Processes Business Strategy Implemented Business Processes

(Q-22). ____________ stands for the achievement of an organization’s objectives through improvement, management and control of the essential business processes? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Business Processes Achievement Business Processes Management Business Goals Business Processes

(Q-23). Business Process Management stands for the achievement of an organization’s objectives through the _____________, ___________ and ________ of the essential business processes”?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Improvement, Management, Coordination Improvement, Monitoring, Control Investigation, Management, Control Improvement, Management, Control

(Q-24). Total number of principles involved in the Business Process Management are: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Three Four Five Fluctuates

(Q-25). The first principles involved in the Business Process Management is: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Managed process produces consistent value to customers Processes are assets that create value for customers Information technology is an essential enabler for BPM Continuous improvement of processes

(Q-26). The second principles involved in the Business Process Management is: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Managed process produces consistent value to customers Processes are assets that create value for customers Information technology is an essential enabler for BPM Continuous improvement of processes

(Q-27). The fourth principles involved in the Business Process Management is: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Managed process produces consistent value to customers Processes are assets that create value for customers Information technology is an essential enabler for BPM Continuous improvement of processes

(Q-28). Business Process Management Life Cycle involves total ___________ steps. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Four Five Six Seven

(Q-29). The second phase of BPM Life Cycle is ______.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Analysis Implementation Design Run & Monitor

(Q-30). Which of the following is not a practice involved in the BPM? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Collaborate with Business Partners Continuous Learning & Process Improvement Appoint Process Owners Processes are assets that create value

(Q-31). In which of the following phase of BPM Life Cycle, entity develops the potential solutions to meet the business needs? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Analysis Design Implementation Optimization

(Q-32). Consider the following statements: (i)

In the last few years, business Environment became static hence IT became irrelevant (ii) Financial resources are the only resources available in abundant (iii) There is a huge shift to process structure from the function-based structure (iv) Cross departmental communication is easier in process-based structure Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (iii) only Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (iii) & (iv) only

(Q-33). Which of the following phase of BPM Life Cycle, deals with continuous improvement of the business processes? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Analysis Design Implementation Optimization

(Q-34). __________ seeks to improve the quality of process outputs by identifying and removing the causes of defect? (a) (b)

Six Sigma Total Quality Management

(c) (d)

Business Process Management Business Process Reengineering

(Q-35). DMAIC is associated with ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Six Sigma Total Quality Management Business Process Management Business Process Reengineering

(Q-36). DMADV is associated with ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Six Sigma Total Quality Management Business Process Management Business Process Reengineering

(Q-37). In which of the phase of DMAIC in Six Sigma, measurements critical to customer satisfaction are considered for further improvement? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Measure Define Analyze Control

(Q-38). In which of the phase of DMAIC in Six Sigma, variances of process output are calculated? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Measure Define Analyze Control

(Q-39). In which of the phase of DMAIC in Six Sigma, process is standardized and documented? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Measure Define Analyze Control

(Q-40). DMAIC of Six Sigma methodology stand for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Define, Measure, Assure, Implement, Continue Define, Measure, Assure, Improve, Control Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control Determine, Modify, Assurance, Implement, Control

(Q-41). DMADV of Six Sigma methodology stand for: (a) (b) (c)

Define, Measure, Assure, Design, Validate Define, Measure, Assure, Design, Verify Define, Measure, Analyze, Design, Verify

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Define, Modify, Assurance, Design, Validate

(Q-42). Which of the following statement is correct about Six Sigma? (a) (b) (c) (d)

It is the tool of the radical transformation of business process Main priority of Six Sigma is towards the shareholders Six Sigma produce higher returns on the investment made in the process DMAIV is one of the methodologies of Six Sigma

(Q-43). Six Sigma is a business-driven, multidimensional structured approach to: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Reducing process variability Increasing customer satisfaction Lowering Defects All of the above

(Q-44). Which of the following is correct about the Business Process Management? (a) (b)

(c) (d)

To implement BPM, organization should adopt Top-Down Execution Approach Once organisation successfully implemented the business process management, no further improvement is necessary For implementing BPM, entity should appoint process owners for all core processes BPM is always applicable organisation wide

(Q-45). ________ is a structured approach that seeks to improve the quality of products and services through ongoing refinements in processes. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Six Sigma Total Quality Management Business Process Management Business Process Reengineering

(Q-46). The approach associated with TQM is best described through _______ life cycle. (a) (b) (c) (d)

DMAVA DMAIC PDCA PCDA

(Q-47). PDCA Cycle of TQM stands for: (a) (b)

Plan, Do, Confirm, Act Plan, Do, Check, Apply

(c) (d)

Plan, Define, Check, Act Plan, Do, Check, Act

(Q-48). In which of the phase of PDCA Cycle of TQM, the problem to be addressed is defined: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Plan Do Check Act

(Q-49). In which of the phase of PDCA Cycle of TQM, results are documented, and recommendations are made for the next PDCA cycle: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Plan Do Check Act

(Q-50). Consider the following statements about the TQM: (i)

TQM can be applied to both manufacturing and service entities. (ii) TQM is concerned with identifying and removing the causes of defect (iii) DMADV is associated with TQM (iv) TQM is one of the incremental approaches of implementing the BPM Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (iii) only Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i) & (iv) only

(Q-51). Which of the following concept is not associated with BPR? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Fundamental rethinking Radical redesign Dramatic achievement Incremental Approach

(Q-52). BPR is the ________ and ________ of processes to achieve dramatic improvement, in critical, contemporary measures of performance (a) (b) (c) (d)

Fundamental rethinking, Improvement Continuous, Radical redesign Fundamental rethinking, Radical redesign Incremental Approach, Redesign

(Q-53). Consider the following statements about BPR:

ICA IPC IT-SM (i) BPR works on fundamental rethinking (ii) BPR is an incremental approach of BPM (iii) BPR is usually the first BPM tool adopted by most of the companies (iv) BPR may result in loss of revenue during the transition period Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (iii) only Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i) & (iv) only

(Q-54). Consider the following statements about BPR: (i)

BRP success depends on effective change management procedure (ii) IT plays no role in the implementation of BPR (iii) It is better to have a BPR Team to take the BPR implementation task forward (iv) Organisation wide commitment is necessary for implementing BPR Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (iii) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i) & (iv) only

(Q-55). In the context of Six Sigma, CTQ stand for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cost to Quality Critical to Quality Commitment to Quality Concerned to Quality

(Q-56). Consider the following statements about Business Process Management: (i)

Scope of BPM could be single process, single department or entire company (ii) Goal of BPM is always reengineering (iii) TQM, Six sigma and BPR are the usually employed method of BPM (iv) BPM implementation initiate a culture of continuous improvement Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (iii) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i) & (iv) only

(Q-57). The Traditional IT architecture contains _______ layers. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Two Three Four Five

(Q-58). Which of the following layer is not involved in the traditional IT architecture? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Database Application Process Presentation

(Q-59). Which of the following layer is added in the process IT architecture? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Database Application Process Presentation

(Q-60). In the traditional IT architecture, which of the following layer is closest to the end user? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Database Application Process Presentation

(Q-61). In the traditional IT architecture, which of the following layer contains applications & process logic? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Database Application Process Presentation

(Q-62). In the traditional IT architecture, through which layer, user communicates with the system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Database Application Process Presentation

(Q-63). The Process IT architecture contains _______ layers. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Two Three Four Five

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-64). In the Process IT architecture, process layer is situated between the ________ and ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Database Layer, Application Layer Presentation Layer, Application Layer Database Layer, Presentation Layer Database Layer, Communication Layer

(Q-65). Which of the following is not an advantage of Business Process Management Systems? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Freeing‐up of employee time Automating repetitive business processes Operational Savings Ability to integrate people and systems

(Q-66). Which of the following is not reasons of failure of BPMS? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Lack of flexibility in the overall BPMS Too complicated to be customized Resources not available when needed Freeing‐up of employee time

(Q-67). _______________ is defined as a system of collection, storage and processing of financial and accounting data that is used by decision makers? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer Relationship Management Enterprise Resource Planning Accounting Information System Transaction Recording System

(Q-68). Which of the following is not a basic function of an accounting information system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Collect & store data Record transaction Preparing Journal Safeguard organisational assets

(Q-69). Paying of salaries to the employees will be classified in which of the following cycle of the accounting information system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Financing Cycle Revenue Cycle HR Cycle Production Cycle

(Q-70). Raising of funds for running the business will be classified in which of the following cycle of the accounting information system? (a) (b)

Financing Cycle Revenue Cycle

(c) (d)

HR Cycle Production Cycle

(Q-71). The accuracy of source document like ____________ can be improved if it is __________ & ______________? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Sales invoice, Purchase order, Serially numbered Purchase order, serially numbered, Properly designed Purchase order, Properly designed, Sales invoice Sales invoice, properly designed, Purchase order

(Q-72). Safeguard of organisational assets is one of the functions of the accounting information system. It is achieved through __________ & ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Physical access control, Network monitoring Documentation, Monitoring Logical access control, Segregation of duties Segregation of duties, Documentation

(Q-73). Which of the following is not the part of processing cycle of accounting information system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Financing Cycle Revenue Cycle HR Cycle Purchase Cycle

(Q-74). Which of the following is not the part of data processing cycle of accounting information system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Data input Data storage Data communication Data processing

(Q-75). Activities like addition, deletion and updating of the data is performed in which of the following stage of the data processing cycle? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Data input Data storage Data processing Information output

(Q-76). ____________ in the Accounting Information system involves activities like manufacturers of products, converting raw materials using labor, machines and methods into finished goods etc.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Financing Cycle Revenue Cycle Production Cycle HR Cycle

(Q-77). In the _________________ of the Accounting Information System, data is processed, ledgers are updated & reports prepared. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Processing Cycle General Ledger & Reporting System Production Cycle Data Processing Cycle

(Q-78). Which of the following is not a component of the Accounting Information System? (a) (b) (c) (d)

People Procedure & Instructions Information Software

(Q-79). The Purpose of ________ is to define the activities involved in a business process and to find opportunities for improvements in the current process.? (a) (b) (c) (d)

ER Diagram Data Flow Diagram Process Mapping Process Listing

(Q-80). ER Diagram stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Error Representation Diagram Entity Representation Diagram Entity Relationship Diagram Entity Reengineering Diagram

(Q-81). In the Context of Entity Relationship Diagram, Entities are represented by _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Diamond Symbol Box Symbol Oval Symbol Circle Symbol

(Q-82). In the Context of Entity Relationship Diagram, Relationship between entities are represented by _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Diamond Symbol Box Symbol Oval Symbol Circle Symbol

(Q-83). In the Context of ER Diagram, attributes about the entities are represented by _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Diamond Symbol Box Symbol Oval Symbol Circle Symbol

(Q-84). Mr. B owns a Car. In this case, in the Context of ER Diagram, Mr. B is _______ & ownership of Car is _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Attribute, Entity Entity, Entity Entity, Relation Attribute, Attribute

(Q-85). Mr. A owns a Car. In this case, in the Context of ER Diagram, Mr. A is _______ & Car is _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Attribute, Entity Entity, Entity Entity, Attribute Attribute, Attribute

(Q-86). Mr. A owns a Car. Car is of 1200 cc. In this case, in the Context of ER Diagram, Mr. A is _______, Car is _________ & 1200 cc is _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Attribute, Entity, Entity Entity, Entity, Attribute Attribute, Attribute, Entity Entity, Attribute, Entity

(Q-87). Mr. A owns a Bike. It is of 2017 Model. In this case, in the Context of ER Diagram, Mr. A is _______, Bike is _________ & 2017 Model is _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Attribute, Entity, Entity Entity, Entity, Attribute Attribute, Attribute, Entity Entity, Attribute, Entity

(Q-88). Mr. D owns a House which is of 1200 yards. In this case, in the Context of ER Diagram, Mr. D is _______, 1200 yards is _________ & House is _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Attribute, Entity, Entity Entity, Entity, Attribute Attribute, Attribute, Entity Entity, Attribute, Entity

(Q-89). __________ is a graphical representation of the flow of data through an information system.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Flowchart ER Diagram Data Flow Diagram Decision Table

(Q-90). There are ___________ major components in the Data Flow Diagram. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Three Four Five Only Two

(Q-91). In the context of Data Flow Diagram, ________ is the source or destination of data. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Attribute Data Store Entity Process

(Q-92). In the context of Data Flow Diagram, _______ receives input & generates output. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Attribute Data Store Entity Process

(Q-93). Which of the following is not a major component of Data Flow Diagram? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Attribute Data Store Entity Process

(Q-94). Which of the following is not a type of Data Flow Diagram? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Logical Data Flow Diagram Physical Data Flow Diagram Entity Data Flow Diagram Context Diagram

(Q-95). __________ is a high-level DFD that shows the entire system as a single process? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Logical Data Flow Diagram Physical Data Flow Diagram Entity Data Flow Diagram Context Diagram

(Q-96). One Revenue office is required to report to one minister only. In the context of ER Diagram, it represents ___________ Relationship.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

One to One One to Many Many to One Many to Many

(Q-97). In which of the following relationship of ER Diagram, crow foot symbol will not be used? (a) (b) (c) (d)

One to One One to Many Many to One Many to Many

(Q-98). One study course is made of multiple modules. In the context of ER Diagram, it represents ___________ Relationship. (a) (b) (c) (d)

One to One One to Many Many to One Many to Many

(Q-99). Which of the following is not a type of Flowchart? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Document Flowchart Program Flowchart System Flowchart Descriptive Flowchart

(Q-100). ___________ is concerned with the logical or arithmetic operations on data within the CPU and the flow of data between the CPU? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Document Flowchart Program Flowchart System Flowchart Descriptive Flowchart

ICA IPC IT-SM

Answers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35

(a) (b) (d) (b) (b) (b) (a) (d) (c) (c) (b) (c) (d) (d) (c) (c) (a) (c) (a) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (b) (a) (c) (b) (c) (d) (b) (d) (d) (a) (a)

36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

Answers (a) (b) (a) (d) (c) (c) (c) (d) (c) (b) (c) (d) (a) (d) (d) (d) (c) (d) (c) (b) (c) (b) (c) (c) (d) (b) (d) (c) (b) (d) (d) (c) (c) (c) (a)

71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

(b) (d) (d) (c) (c) (c) (b) (c) (c) (c) (b) (a) (c) (c) (b) (b) (b) (d) (c) (b) (c) (d) (a) (c) (d) (a) (a) (b) (d) (b)

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

(Q-1). Reasons of using IT do not include: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Communication capabilities Data and Information Management Strategic capabilities Process automation

(Q-2). Companies are using Teamware like software because of ____________ feature of IT. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Communication capabilities Data and Information Management Strategic capabilities Process automation

(Q-3). Companies are able to manage huge quantity of data because of ____________ feature of IT. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Communication capabilities Data and Information Management Strategic capabilities Process automation

(Q-4). BPA stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Business Process Accountability Business Process Automation Business Performance Assessment Business Profitability Analysis

(Q-5). Which of the following is not correct about BPA? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Automation of processes Removal of human element Increasing process efficiency Loosing competitive edge

(Q-6). ________ is not a critical pillar of BPA. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Integration Orchestration Automation Communication

(Q-7). _______ allows applicants & operating system not only to read data that the system produces but also to pass data between different applications & modify data as needed

Integration Orchestration Automation Communication

(Q-8). _______ enables the entity to bring tasks that exists across different computers, sources or department of the entity under one common umbrella. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Integration Orchestration Automation Communication

(Q-9). To be considered successful, BPA needs to ensure __________ of data. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Confidentiality Integrity Availability All of the above

(Q-10). Data is available only to persons having right to see the same is ensured by _____ objective of BPA. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Confidentiality Integrity Availability All of the above

(Q-11). No unauthorized modification in data is ensured by _____ objective of BPA. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Confidentiality Integrity Availability All of the above

(Q-12). ________ is not an advantage of BPA. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Reducing the Impact of Human Error Transforming Data into Information Cost Saving Reducing the business responsiveness

(Q-13). No. of steps involved in the implementation of BPA are ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Six Seven Eight Five

(Q-14). _____________ is the first step involved in the BPA implementation process.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Define why we plan to implement a BPA. Understanding the rules / regulations. Calculate the ROI for project Developing the BPA

(Q-15). _____________ is the seventh step involved in the BPA implementation process. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Understanding the rules / regulations Calculate the ROI for project Developing the BPA Define why we plan to implement a BPA

(Q-16). _____________ is the fifth step involved in the BPA implementation process. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Understanding the rules / regulations Calculate the ROI for project Engage the business process consultant Define why we plan to implement a BPA

(Q-17). Testing the BPA is usually the _____ step of the BPA implementation process. (a) (b) (c) (d)

First Second Fifth Last

(Q-18). Compliances with rules is usually considered in the _____ step of the BPA implementation process. (a) (b) (c) (d)

First Second Fifth Last

(Q-19). ________ helps in the achievement of BPA. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Tally SAP R/3 Attendance Systems All of the above

(Q-20). ________ is not a feature of objective or goal of BPA. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Specific Measurable Attainable Reliable

(Q-21). ________ is a generic reason of going for BPA. (a)

Errors in manual processes

(b) (c) (d)

Payment processes not streamlined Poor customer service All of the above

(Q-22). ________ is not a sub-discipline of computing. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Computer Science Computer Engineering Information System Hardware Engineering

(Q-23). ________ are powerful computers which provides the services to all the connected _______. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Clients, Servers Servers, Clients Workstations, Mainframes Clients, Workstations

(Q-24). ________ is not a type of server. (a) (b) (c) (d)

File server Web server Print server Data server

(Q-25). ________ delivers web pages when a request for the same is made by _______. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Client’s browser, Web servers Web servers, Client’s browser Mail servers, Client’s browser Client’s browser, Mail servers

(Q-26). Web pages of ICAI’s website is managed by _____ server. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Database Mail Web Network

(Q-27). ______ server manages the files while ______ server manages the database. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Database, File File, Database Web, File Network, Print

(Q-28). ______ is the science & art of selecting and interconnecting computer’s hardware components. (a) (b)

Network architecture Computer architecture

ICA IPC IT-SM (c) (d)

Communication architecture Computer protocol

(Q-29). __________ is not a sub-category of computer architecture. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Instruction Set Architecture Computer Instruction Architecture Micro Architecture System Design

(Q-30). ____________ acts as a bridge between the hardware and software. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Instruction Set Architecture Computer Instruction Architecture Micro Architecture System Design

(Q-31). ____________ describes data paths, data processing elements and data storage elements etc. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Instruction Set Architecture Computer Instruction Architecture Micro Architecture System Design

(Q-32). Memory controller is the part of _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Instruction Set Architecture Computer Instruction Architecture Micro Architecture System Design

(Q-33). ________ is a communication system that transfers data between the components inside a computer system. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Computer Buses Computer Architecture Micro Controller System Design

(Q-34). In the context of system design, DMA stands for ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Digital Memory Access Direct Memory Access Direct Memory Accessibility Digital Memory Accessibility

(Q-35). ______ allows certain hardware subsystems to access system memory independently of _______ in a computer. (a)

CPU, GPU

(b) (c) (d)

CPU, DMA DMA, CPU GPU, DMA

(Q-36). ________ is the use of two or more CPUs within a single computer. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Multiplexing Multi-processing Multi-tasking Multi-accessibility

(Q-37). ______ is an ODD among the following. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Dual core Quad core Octa core Front core

(Q-38). ______ is a digital circuit which manages the flow of data going to and from the main memory. (a) (b) (c) (d)

CPU GPU Memory controller Flow controller

(Q-39). ______ is the set of machine code instructions that processor can carry out. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Instruction set Data set Architecture set Memory access set

(Q-40). Instruction sets of the CPUs can be of ______ types. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Three Four Two Only one

(Q-41). _________ is not a type of Instruction sets of CPUs. (a) (b) (c) (d)

CISC RISC DISC All of the above

(Q-42). RISC stands for ________. (a) (b) (c)

Reduced Instruction System Computing Reduced Instruction Set Computing Reserved Instruction System Computing

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Reduced Instruction Software Computing

(Q-43). CISC stands for ________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Complex Instruction System Computing Complex Instruction Set Computing Complete Instruction System Computing Complete Instruction Software Computing

(Q-44). _________ is not a feature of CISC based processors. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Complex Instruction set Large no. of instructions Fixed length instructions Expensive to produce

(Q-45). Out of the following, _________ does not use CISC based processors. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Inter i7 CPU HP Laptop Dell Servers Motorola Moto G

(Q-46). _________ is not a feature of RISC based processors. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Reduced Instruction set Small no. of instructions Variable length instructions Less expensive to produce

(Q-47). _________ based processors use _______ length instructions. (a) (b) (c) (d)

RISC, Variable RISC, Fixed CISC, Fixed RISC, CISC

(Q-48). _________ based processors use _______ length instructions. (a) (b) (c) (d)

CISC, Variable RISC, Variable CISC, Fixed RISC, CISC

(Q-49). ____________ based processors need more efforts from the programmer’s side. (a) (b) (c) (d)

CISC RISC Both None of the above

(Q-50). ____________ based processors consume more power compared to _______ based processors. (a) (b) (c) (d)

CISC, RISC RISC, CISC Both None of the above

(Q-51). In DMA, _______ offloads the memory access task of I/O devices to _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

GPU, DMA Controller CPU, DMA Controller DMA Controller, CPU DMA Controller, GPU

(Q-52). Cloud computing architecture is made of _______ and _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Public cloud, Private cloud Front End, Back End IaaS, SaaS PaaS, NaaS

(Q-53). ______ are established by third party vendors & made available to the public on pay per-use basis. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Public cloud Private cloud Community Cloud Hybrid Cloud

(Q-54). ______ are used exclusively for the benefits of the organisation. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Public cloud Private cloud Community Cloud Hybrid Cloud

(Q-55). Microsoft Azure, Amazon Web Services are the example of ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Public cloud Private cloud Community Cloud Hybrid Cloud

(Q-56). __________ is the composition of two or more cloud computing services. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Public cloud Private cloud Community Cloud Hybrid Cloud

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-57). Hybrid cloud option is cheaper than completely _________ & more secure than complete ________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Public cloud, Private cloud Private cloud, Public cloud Community cloud, Private cloud Private cloud, community cloud

(Q-58). In ________, entity run non-core applications in ________ and core applications & sensitive data in the ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Public cloud, Private cloud, Hybrid cloud Private cloud, Public cloud, Hybrid cloud Hybrid cloud, Public cloud, Private cloud Hybrid cloud, Private cloud, Public cloud

(Q-59). All government colleges use the common cloud computing service. It is the example of __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Public cloud Private cloud Hybrid cloud Community cloud

(Q-60). In the cloud computing architecture, ________ is the cloud itself. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Front End Back End Middleware None of the above

(Q-61). In context of cloud computing architecture, Google Chrome Browser is the part of ________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Front End Back End Middleware None of the above

(Q-62). In the cloud computing architecture, software called _________ allows different computers that are connected to the network to communicate with each other. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Front End Back End Middleware None of the above

(Q-63). Cloud Computing Deployment Models does not include:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Public cloud Private cloud Software as a Service (SaaS) Community cloud

(Q-64). Unity App Engine is an example of: (a) (b) (c) (d)

IaaS SaaS PaaS NaaS

(Q-65). Asus Cloud Storage is an example of: (a) (b) (c) (d)

IaaS SaaS PaaS NaaS

(Q-66). Online Doc editing software is a type of: (a) (b) (c) (d)

IaaS SaaS PaaS NaaS

(Q-67). A company needs to develop some kind of business application. It should use: (a) (b) (c) (d)

IaaS SaaS PaaS NaaS

(Q-68). Which of the following is not correct about private cloud? (a) (b) (c) (d)

In the exclusive use of the entity More secure than public cloud More costly than public cloud Infinitely scalable

(Q-69). Which of the following is not correct about public cloud? (a) (b) (c) (d)

In the exclusive use of the entity Less secure than private cloud Less costly than private cloud Infinitely scalable

(Q-70). A company has various files which it needs to store in cloud. It should use: (a) (b) (c)

IaaS SaaS PaaS

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

NaaS

(Q-71). Through _______, user is not required to acquire and install the software in his own computer and he can use it in the cloud itself. (a) (b) (c) (d)

IaaS SaaS PaaS NaaS

(Q-72). _______ is usually the most expensive cloud computing service. (a) (b) (c) (d)

IaaS SaaS PaaS None of the above

(Q-73). VPN services is offered by __________ cloud computing service. (a) (b) (c) (d)

IaaS SaaS PaaS NaaS

(Q-74). In ________ cloud computing service model, vendor is responsible for all the communication related hardware & software. (a) (b) (c) (d)

CaaS IaaS PaaS NaaS

(Q-75). In public cloud, companies are required to pay only for the services they use. This is called ________ characteristic of cloud computing. (a) (b) (c) (d)

On demand Pay per use Resiliency Multi Tenancy

(Q-76). ________ is not a characteristic of cloud computing. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Workload Movement Pay per use Elasticity and Scalability Relevancy

(Q-77). ________ is a advantage of cloud computing. (a)

Cost Efficient

(b) (c) (d)

Automatic Software Integration Quick Deployment All of the above

(Q-78). ________ statement is incorrect about cloud computing. (a)

(b) (c)

(d)

Cloud computing saves the organisation from incurring huge acquisition, installation and operational cost of IT related infrastructure Cloud computing services are available as & when entity need In the community cloud, computing infrastructure is shared in between organisation of the same community Cloud computing services are not subject to any risk or threat

(Q-79). ________ computing. (a) (b) (c) (d)

is

disadvantage

of

cloud

Technical Issues Prone to attack Security in the Cloud All of the above

(Q-80). ________ is the most secure cloud computing environment. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Public cloud Private cloud Community cloud Hybrid cloud

(Q-81). ___________ is the least expensive cloud computing environment. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Public cloud Private cloud Community cloud Hybrid cloud

(Q-82). A new business start-up in the need of computing services but with very limited resources is most likely go for_____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Public cloud Private cloud Community cloud Hybrid cloud

(Q-83). Components of mobile computing includes: (a) (b)

Mobile Hardware Mobile Software

ICA IPC IT-SM (c) (d)

Mobile communication All of the above

(Q-84). In Mobile computing, mobile hardware is usually configured on _______ mode. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simplex Half duplex Full duplex None of the above

(Q-85). ___________ is not a concern in mobile computing. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Security concerns Possible health issues Power consumption issue Regulatory concerns

(Q-86). What is cloud computing replacing? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Corporate data centers Expensive hardware & software Both (i) & (ii) None of the above

(Q-87). _______ enables a computer to perform useful task beyond the running of the computer system itself? (a) (b) (c) (d)

System software Application software Central Processing Unit Graphics Processing Unit

(Q-88). Information system has total ________ layers. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Five Six Seven Four

(Q-89). _____________ is not a layer of information system. (a) (b) (c) (d)

People Hardware System software Middleware

(Q-90). ____________ provides capacities needed to support enterprise software system. (a) (b)

Enterprise software Enterprise infrastructure software

(c) (d)

Information worker software Content access software

(Q-91). Different types of application software include: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application suits Mobile Software Content access software All of the above

(Q-92). ___________ is a tangible portion of the computer system. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hardware Application Software System Software None of the above

(Q-93). Through _________, instructions are given to the system about the tasks to be performed: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hardware Input devices Output devices Processing devices

(Q-94). Control unit is the part of _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hardware Input devices Output devices Processing devices

(Q-95). ______________ is not an input device. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Webcam Scanner Printer Barcode reader

(Q-96). ___________ is not an input device. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Keyboard Mouse Speaker Joystick

(Q-97). ___________ is not a functional unit of CPU. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Control unit Athematic logical unit Registers Storage unit

(Q-98). ___________ is not a function of control unit.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Control the flow of data & instructions to & from the memory Applying logical operations Interprets the instructions Decide which tasks to be executed & when

(Q-99). ___________ are high speed memory with-in CPU for storing small amount of data. (a) (b) (c) (d)

ROM RAM Registers Flash storage

(Q-100). ___________ are registers in which intermediate arithmetic & logical results are stored. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Memory registers Accumulators Address registers Access registers

(Q-101). ___________ is not a part of internal memory. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Storage registers Accumulators Cache Memory Random Access Memory

(Q-102). ___________ is not a type of register. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Storage registers Accumulators Address registers Access registers

(Q-103). Size of normal cache memory is usually represented in ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Bits Kilo Byte Mega Byte Giga Byte

(Q-104). ___________ stores copies of the data from the most frequently used main memory locations so that Processor can access it more rapidly. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Accumulators Cache memory Read only memory Random access memory

(Q-105). ______ and _____ are the types of primary memory.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Storage registers, Accumulators Accumulators, Cache Memory RAM, ROM Registers, Cache Memory

(Q-106). Which of the following statement is incorrect about RAM? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Stands for Random Access Memory Volatile in nature Contents can be read as well as modified Internal memory of CPU

(Q-107). ___________ helps in initial booting of computer. (a) (b) (c) (d)

RAM ROM Cache Memory Registers

(Q-108). ___________ is a non-volatile memory. (a) (b) (c) (d)

RAM ROM Cache Memory Registers

(Q-109). Which of the following statement about secondary storage devices are incorrect? (a) (b) (c) (d)

It is a non-volatile memory It is a greater capacity memory It provides greater economy It is very high-speed memory

(Q-110). Pen Drives, Floppy drive, Hard Drive etc. are the example of ___________ (a) (b) (c) (d)

Primary storage devices Secondary storage devices Internal memory devices None of the above

(Q-111). ___________ is an allocation of hard disk space to help RAM in case RAM is lacking. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Primary memory Physical memory Virtual memory Secondary memory

(Q-112). Virtual memory is the function of _________. (a)

Hardware

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) (c) (d)

Software CPU Registers

(Q-113). _________ is a temporary primary memory. (a) (b) (c) (d)

RAM ROM PROM EPROM

(Q-114). Which of the following statement is valid? (a) (b) (c) (d)

1KB = 1024 bytes 1 MB=2048 bytes 1 MB = 10000 kilobytes 1 KB = 100 bytes

(Q-115). _________ is most quickly accessible by the Central Processing Unit (CPU). (a) (b) (c) (d)

RAM ROM Cache Memory Secondary Memory

(Q-116). Which of the following statement about cache memory is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Has greater capacity than RAM Faster to access than CPU Registers Permanent storage device Faster to access than RAM

(Q-117). _________ is an ODD among the following. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Keyboard Mouse Scanner Printer

(Q-118). ____________, when attached to a computer, can translate a user’s handwriting into digital input. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Keyboard Graphic Tablet Printer Mouse

(Q-119). _________ operate computer hardware & makes applications software to run. (a) (b) (c)

CPU System software Computer software

(d)

Graphics software

(Q-120). MS office is an example of: (a) (b) (c) (d)

System software Application software Computer software Processing software

(Q-121). In the computer system, basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in. (a) (b) (c) (d)

RAM ROM Register Secondary memory

(Q-122). In the context of cloud computing, instant messaging is an example of: (a) (b) (c) (d)

PaaS CaaS NaaS SaaS

(Q-123). Unity App Engine is an example of: (a) (b) (c) (d)

PaaS CaaS NaaS SaaS

(Q-124). Devices that usages Bluetooth technology includes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Printer Keyboard Mouse All of the above

(Q-125). Which of the following statement is not correct about Bluetooth? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Used in many devices Works on short-range radio signal Range is limited Security is a big concern

(Q-126). Which of the following statement is not correct about WiFi? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Used to provide internet services Uses radio technologies called 802.11 Works on radio waves WiFi access point have unlimited range

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-127). Which of the following statement is not correct about Laptop computer: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Needs a desk to operate Has very high processing capabilities Needs operating system to operate Weights upto 2 to 3 kgs

(Q-128). Which of the following statement is not correct about tablet computer: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Input is given through touch screen Has very portable size and weight Usually have all kinds of wireless connectivity options like WiFi, mobile connectivity Works only if external power source is available

(Q-129). Which of the following statement is not correct about smart phone devices: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Input is given through touch screen Has very portable size and weight Usually have all kinds of wireless connectivity options like WiFi, mobile connectivity Largest manufacturers includes HP, Dell, Toshiba etc.

(Q-130). _______ is a pointing device that can translate the motion and position of a user's fingers to a relative position on screen. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Portable player Touch screen Touchpad Stylus

(Q-131). Which of the following statement is correct about iPad devices? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Runs on Android operating system Don’t have mobile & WiFi connectivity option Has touch screen as primary input option Biggest manufacturer of iPad devices are HTC

(Q-132). Which of the following statement is not correct about UMPC devices? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Having the size of 5 to 7 inches Launched by Microsoft & Intel First launch was in the year 2014 Uses touch screen, stylus etc.

(Q-133). __________ is a line of portable media players designed and marketed by Apple Inc.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

iMac iPhone iPod iPad

(Q-134). __________ is a Linux-based operating system designed primarily for touch screen mobile devices. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Windows Android Kindle Boss

(Q-135). Which of the following statement is not correct about Android operating system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Linux-based operating system Owned by Google Inc. Has open source and permissive licensing Windows based operating system

(Q-136). SDLC stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

System Design Life Cycle System Development Life Cycle Software Design Life Cycle Software Development Learning Course

(Q-137). ____________ is the first phase involved in the System Development Life Cycle: (a) (b) (c) (d)

System Analysis System Designing System Investigation System Implementation

(Q-138). ____________ is the second phase involved in the System Development Life Cycle: (a) (b) (c) (d)

System Analysis System Designing System Investigation System Implementation

(Q-139). ____________ is the second last phase involved in the System Development Life Cycle: (a) (b) (c) (d)

System Maintenance & Review System Designing System Investigation System Implementation

(Q-140). ____________ is the last phase involved in the System Development Life Cycle:

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

System Maintenance & Review System Designing System Investigation System Implementation

(Q-141). In the _________ phase of SDLC, various kinds of feasibility studies are carrier out: (a) (b) (c) (d)

System Analysis System Designing System Investigation System Implementation

(Q-142). In the system investigation phase of SDLC, following feasibility analysis is not carried out: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Technical Operational Legal Monetary

(Q-143). A company is planning to develop a new information system. It is evaluating how long it will take to develop the new system. It can be attributed to _____________ feasibility study: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Technical Operational Legal Schedule

(Q-144). During the development of SDLC, the system analyst is examining the current business practices. It can be attributed to the _________ phase of SDLC. (a) (b) (c) (d)

System Analysis System Designing System Investigation System Implementation

(Q-145). VLC media player is an example of: (a) (b) (c) (d)

System software Input device Output devices Application software

(Q-146). ___________ is not a method of gathering information during the system analysis phase of SDLC. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Interviewing staff Examine current business Sending out questionnaires Conducting feasibility studies

(Q-147). Which of the following statements is not correct about System Development Life Cycle: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Also called Information System Life Cycle Involves six phases in total Provides a sequence of activities for system designers and develop follow It needs to be followed when entity decides to go for computerization or migrate from existing computerized system to a new one

(Q-148). During the implementation phase of new system, old system continues alongside the new system for some time. It is ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Direct Changeover Parallel Conversion Phased Conversion Pilot Conversion

(Q-149). During the implementation phase of new system, it is implemented in a factory of the company and if it performs satisfactorily, it will be extended to the entire organisation. It is ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Direct Changeover Parallel Conversion Phased Conversion Pilot Conversion

(Q-150). During the implementation phase of new system, from a particular day, entity completely switched from the old system to the new system. It is ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Direct Changeover Parallel Conversion Phased Conversion Pilot Conversion

(Q-151). After the implementation of the system, it has been found that system is running satisfactorily but can be improved little further. This is known as: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Perfective maintenance (b) Adaptive maintenance (c) Corrective maintenance Special maintenance

(Q-152). Which of the following conversion mode is usually most risky? (a) (b) (c)

Direct Changeover Parallel Conversion Phased Conversion

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Pilot Conversion

(Q-153). __________ is made to change the system according to the changing needs of the company. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Perfective maintenance Adaptive maintenance Corrective maintenance Special maintenance

(Q-154). __________ is made to correct the error or fix the bug in the system. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Perfective maintenance Adaptive maintenance Corrective maintenance Special maintenance

(Q-155). Which of the following task is not performed by the DBMS? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Adding new files to database Deleting existing files from database Inserting data in existing files Controlling network management task

(Q-156). In the database model hierarchy, the smallest unit is ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Database File Bit Record

(Q-157). Which of the following statement is not correct in the context of DBMS? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Database is made of many fields File is the collection of record Bits are the binary units like 0 & 1 Record is the collection of fields

(Q-158). Which of the following is not a prominent database model? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hierarchical Database Model Network Database Model Reserved Database Model Object Oriented Database Model

(Q-159). __________ determines the logical structure of a database and manner in which data can be stored, organized and manipulated. (a) (b)

Database Hierarchy Database Model

(c) (d)

Database Structure Database Method

(Q-160). In a _________________, records are logically organized into a hierarchy of relationships. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hierarchical Database Model Network Database Model Relational Database Model Object Oriented Database Model

(Q-161). In a _________________, records are structured in an inverted tree pattern. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hierarchical Database Model Network Database Model Relational Database Model Object Oriented Database Model

(Q-162). The top parent record in the hierarchy is called ___________? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Grandparent record Main record Root record Master record

(Q-163). All records in hierarchical database model are called ___________? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Field Nodes Root Master

(Q-164). Hierarchical database model does not support _____________ between its records. (a) (b) (c) (d)

One-to-one relationship One-to-many relationship Many-to-many relationship All of the above

(Q-165). Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the Hierarchical database model? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Records are logically structured in inverted tree pattern Provides parent – child relationship amongst the nodes Queries are difficult and time consuming to accomplish One child record may have multiple parent records

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-166). Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the network database model? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Records are logically structured in inverted tree pattern Provides parent – child relationship amongst the nodes Allows more links between the child and parent records Does not support many-to-many relationship

(Q-167). In a _________________, data is structured and stored in the form of tables. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hierarchical Database Model Network Database Model Relational Database Model Object Oriented Database Model

(Q-168). In a relational database model, __________ are used to link different tables. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Node Key Relations Objects

(Q-169). In the context of relational database model, _________ refers to the table with columns & rows. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Relation Attributes Domain Structure

(Q-170). In the context of relational database model, named column of the relation is called ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Relation Attributes Domain Structure

(Q-171). In the context of relational database model, ___________ specifies the values attributes can take. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Relation Attributes Domain Structure

(Q-172). Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the relational database model? (a) (b)

Provides a better organization of data Relational database contains multiple tables.

(c) (d)

Keys are used to combine data from two or more tables Search is difficult and time consuming

(Q-173). In the context of database models, term ‘table’ is most closely associated with: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hierarchical Database Model Network Database Model Relational Database Model Object Oriented Database Model

(Q-174). In _______________, data is modeled and stored as objects: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hierarchical Database Model Network Database Model Relational Database Model Object Oriented Database Model

(Q-175). _______________ is most suited for storing the complex data like audio, video, images etc. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hierarchical Database Model Network Database Model Relational Database Model Object Oriented Database Model

(Q-176). Making data search is most difficult and time consuming in case of: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hierarchical Database Model Network Database Model Relational Database Model Object Oriented Database Model

(Q-177). Which of the following is not an advantage of the database model system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Permits Data Sharing Minimizes Data Redundancy Difficulty is application development Improved securities

(Q-178). _________ refers to the process of deciding how to communicate data from source to destination in network? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Routing Redundancy Resilience Bandwidth

(Q-179). _________ refers to the amount of data which can be transferred across the network in given time frame?

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Routing Redundancy Resilience Bandwidth

(Q-180). ______________ is the most used operating system of the personal computers in the world. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Linux Windows Macintosh Android

(Q-181). ______________ is the most used operating system of the mobile devices in the world. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Linux Windows Macintosh Android

(Q-182). Most followed database model in case of text-based data is _____________: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hierarchical Database Model Network Database Model Relational Database Model Object Oriented Database Model

(Q-183). Terms like relations, attributes, and domains etc. are usually used in case of _____________: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hierarchical Database Model Network Database Model Relational Database Model Object Oriented Database Model

(Q-184). ____________ is used to operate computer hardware & makes applications software to run. (a) (b) (c) (d)

System software Application software Utility software Database management software

(Q-185). _____________ acts as an intermediary between the application program and the hardware. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Operating system Operating software Utility software Hardware management software

(Q-186). API stands for _______________________: (a)

Application Program Interfaces

(b) (c) (d)

Application Procedure Interfaces Application Program Isolation Appropriate Program Interface

(Q-187). Which of the following statement is not correct in the context of operating system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Acts as an intermediary between application program and the hardware Manages computer hardware resources Provides user interface Performs task beyond the running of the computer itself

(Q-188). Through Application Program Interface, operating system performs _____________ function. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Memory management File management Hardware independence Network management

(Q-189). Multi-tasking is possible because of the _______________ function of the operating system. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Memory management File management Hardware independence Task management

(Q-190). Which of the following error will be handle by the operating system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Power failure Lack of paper in printer Network connection failure Physical damage in screen

(Q-191). A person that functions as an architect to plan, capture the vision, and understand the needs for a new system is often called a _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Software Engineer Programmer Analyst System Analyst Software Analyst

(Q-192). Output device, CRT stands for ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cathode-Ray Tube Crystal-Ray Tube Cathode-Row Tube Cathode-Ray Television

(Q-193). ________ is a temporary allocation of hard disk space to help _________.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

RAM, ROM Cache Memory, ROM Virtual Memory, RAM Register, RAM

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Random Access Memory Cache Memory Register Secondary Memory

(Q-194). Which among the following memory is not a physical memory? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Virtual Memory Cache Memory Random Access Memory Secondary Memory

(Q-195). When RAM runs low, virtual memory moves data from RAM to a space called _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Paging File Temporary File Register Primary Memory

(Q-196). Which among the following memory is the fastest memory? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Virtual Memory Cache Memory Register Read Only Memory

(Q-197). Which among the following memory is the slowest memory? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Random Access Memory Cache Memory Register Secondary Memory

(Q-198). Which among the following memory stores data on the permanent basis? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Random Access Memory Cache Memory Register Secondary Memory

(Q-199). Which among the following memory is not a volatile memory? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Random Access Memory Cache Memory Register Secondary Memory

(Q-200). Which among the following memory is the lowest storage capacity memory?

Answers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35

(c) (a) (b) (b) (d) (d) (a) (b) (d) (a) (b) (d) (c) (a) (c) (c) (d) (b) (d) (d) (d) (d) (b) (d) (b) (c) (b) (b) (b) (a) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c)

36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

(b) (d) (c) (a) (c) (c) (b) (b) (c) (d) (c) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b) (b) (a) (b) (a) (d) (b) (c) (d) (b) (a) (c) (c) (c) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (a)

ICA IPC IT-SM

Answers 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110

(b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (d) (d) (d) (d) (b) (a) (a) (d) (c) (d) (c) (b) (b) (d) (b) (d) (a) (b) (d) (c) (c) (d) (b) (c) (b) (d) (d) (c) (b) (c) (d) (b) (b) (d) (b)

111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150

Answers (c) (b) (a) (a) (c) (d) (d) (b) (b) (b) (b) (b) (a) (d) (d) (d) (a) (d) (d) (c) (c) (c) (c) (b) (d) (b) (c) (a) (d) (a) (c) (d) (d) (a) (d) (d) (b) (b) (d) (a)

151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190

(a) (a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (a) (c) (b) (a) (a) (c) (b) (c) (d) (d) (c) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d) (d) (a) (c) (a) (d) (b) (d) (c) (c) (a) (a) (a) (d) (c) (d) (c)

191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200

(c) (a) (c) (a) (a) (c) (d) (d) (d) (c)

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-7). _________ is a network between the entity & its trading partners.

(Q-1). ______________ is not a major trend in the telecommunication industry. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Technology Industry Business Application Financial Application

(Q-2). In telecom sector, move from copper wire to fiber optics cable is attributable to: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Technology Trend Industry Trend Business Application Trend None of the above

(Q-3). As the telecommunication network supports eCommerce. It is attributable to: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Technology Trend Industry Trend Business Application Trend None of the above

(Q-4). Now a days, numerous small companies are providing the telecom services. It is attributable to: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Technology Trend Industry Trend Business Application Trend None of the above

(Q-5). ___________ ensures common standards for hardware, software, & networking architecture etc. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Closed System Architecture Open System Architecture Analog Digital Technology None of the above

(Q-6). In Telecom Industry, move from analog to digital technology is attributable to: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Technology Trend Industry Trend Business Application Trend None of the above

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Intranet Extranet Internet None of the above

(Q-8). ____________ is a network that connects the organisation with the outside world. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Internet Extranet Intranet None of the above

(Q-9). ____________ is a network that connects the employees of the organisation. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Intranet Extranet Internet None of the above

(Q-10). ______ technology allows to carry multiple types of data (text, voice, video) on the same circuits. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Analog ISDN IDSP Digital

(Q-11). Big MNC’s are self-sufficient and don’t usually needs ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Intranet Open System Architecture Internet None of the above

(Q-12). _____________ strengthens the value chain of the entity. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Intranet Extranet Internet None of the above

(Q-13). __________ is broadest in nature. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Intranet Extranet Internet None of the above

(Q-14). ISDN stands for:

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Integrated Services Digital Network Internet Services Digital Network Isolated Services Digital Network Integrated Services Digital Node

(Q-15). ____________ is not a strategic capability of telecommunication for business entities. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Overcome geographic barriers Overcome time barriers Overcome cost barriers Overcome operational barriers

(Q-16). _________ are used to convert digital signals in the analog & again analog signals into digital. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Modems Routers Repeaters Multiplexer

(Q-17). _________ are used to connect computer to a network. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Modems Routers NIC Multiplexer

(Q-18). ______ connects many LANS to boost signals. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Modems Bridge NIC Multiplexer

(Q-19). __________ are used to route the data packers to its intended destination. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Modems Bridge Router Multiplexer

(Q-20). Without ________, Network signals would be very weak. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Repeaters Gateway Router Multiplexer

(Q-21). ___________ are used to carry data from multiple terminal through a single cable. (a)

Modems

(b) (c) (d)

Routers NIC Multiplexer

(Q-22). Demodulation task is performed by: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Modems Routers NIC Multiplexer

(Q-23). _______ are the starting and stopping points in any telecommunication network environment. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Terminal Routers Bridge Multiplexer

(Q-24). Telecommunication processors do not include: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Routers Bridge Multiplexer None of the above

(Q-25). High speed broadband is generally based on: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Twisted pair wire Coaxial cable Fiber opting cable Copper wire

(Q-26). ________ uses MAC address to transfer data to its intended location. (a) (b) (c) (d)

HUB Switch Bridge Repeater

(Q-27). _________ media channel is generally used for cable TV system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Twisted pair wire Coaxial cable Fiber opting cable Infrared

(Q-28). _________ communication media channel is least affected by noise. (a) (b) (c)

Twisted pair wire Coaxial cable Fiber opting cable

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Copper wire

(Q-29). __________ is an ODD among the following. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Terminal Routers Bridge Multiplexer

(Q-30). Internetwork processors do not include: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Routers Bridge Multiplexer HUB

(Q-31). ________ transfer data using coaxial cable. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Infrared Radio waves Micro waves None of the above

(Q-32). ___________ boosts the signal before passing it to the next section of cable in a network. (a) (b) (c) (d)

HUB Switch Bridge Repeater

(Q-33). ______________ connects networks that use different communication architectures. (a) (b) (c) (d)

HUB Gateway Bridge Repeater

(Q-34). __________ is an ODD among the following. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Twisted Pair Coaxial Cable Fiber Optics Communication Satellite

(Q-35). Telecommunication media is classified in: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Guided Media and Unguided Media Bounded Media and Unbounded Media Wired Media and Unwired Media All of the above

(Q-36). In _____________, signals are converted into light form for transmission. (a)

Twisted Pair

(b) (c) (d)

Coaxial Cable Fiber Optics All of the above

(Q-37). ___________ is not a feature of Twisted Pair (a) (b) (c) (d)

Slower transfer rate Long distance communication High error rates Affected by noise

(Q-38). ___________ is not a feature of Coaxial Cable transmission. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Large quantity data transfer Zero error rates Used in metropolitan areas for cable TV Insulated with spacers

(Q-39). ___________ is not a feature of Fiber optics transmission system. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Slower transfer rate Long distance communication Negligible error rates Large quantity data transfer

(Q-40). Inter-continent communication possible by________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Twisted Pair Coaxial Cable Fiber Optics Micro waves

(Q-41). ____________ microwave systems. (a) (b) (c) (d)

made

involves

earthbound

Communication satellite Micro waves Terrestrial microwave Radio waves

(Q-42). _______ wavelengths ranging from as long as one meter to as short as one millimeter: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Communication satellite Micro waves Terrestrial microwave Radio waves

(Q-43). TV remote usually uses: (a) (b) (c)

Communication satellite Micro waves Terrestrial microwave

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Infrared

(Q-44). _______ wavelengths may range upto 1,00,000 kilometers: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Infrared Micro waves Terrestrial microwave Radio waves

(Q-45). _______ operates between the frequency of 300 MHz to 300 GHz: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Communication satellite Micro waves Terrestrial microwave Radio waves

(Q-46). ________ does not uses atmosphere for the transmission of the signals. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Communication satellite Micro waves Infrared Fiber optics

(Q-47). __________ is an ODD among the following. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Micro wave Coaxial Cable Infrared Communication Satellite

(Q-48). For data transmission, line of sight path is essential in case of: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Communication satellite Micro waves Terrestrial microwave Radio waves

(Q-49). ____ is not a network management function. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Traffic management Network monitoring Capacity planning Software acquisition

(Q-50). Telecommunication network is classified as: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Area Based Function Based Ownership Based All of the above

(Q-51). _____________ is not an area coveragebased classification.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

LAN MAN WAN None of the above

(Q-52). _________ is most likely to communication satellite for data transmission. (a) (b) (c) (d)

use

LAN MAN WAN PAN

(Q-53). Data security is usually highest in: (a) (b) (c) (d)

LAN MAN WAN None of the above

(Q-54). ____________ client has more hardware and software than _________ client. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hybrid, Thick Thin, Hybrid Thin, Thick Thick, Hybrid

(Q-55). ____________ client has less hardware and software than _________ client. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hybrid, Thick Hybrid, Thin Thick, Thin Thick, Hybrid

(Q-56). ______________ client needs more network connectivity for operation than _________ client. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Thin, Thick Hybrid, Thin Thick, Thin Thick, Hybrid

(Q-57). ______________ client needs less network connectivity for operation than _________ client. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Thin, Thick Hybrid, Thin Hybrid, Thick Thin, Hybrid

(Q-58). _______________ client is most expensive for acquisition, operation and maintenance: (a)

Thin

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) (c) (d)

Hybrid Thick None of the above

(Q-59). ___________ topology uses a central unit to connect devices. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Star Bus Ring Mesh

(Q-60). Physical or logical arrangement of network links or devices is called: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Transmission Routing Topology Protocols

(Q-61). A company that uses centralized computing usually goes for _______ client or _______ client. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Thin, Thick Hybrid, Thick Thin, Hybrid None of the above

(Q-62). Company that needs very high reliability should adopt ___________ topology. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Star Bus Ring Mesh

(Q-63). In a network topology where each device is interconnected with one another is called: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Full Mesh Partial Mesh Integrated Mesh Complete Mess

(Q-64). In ________ topology, each connected device communicates with its two immediate neighbors. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Star Bus Ring Mesh

(Q-65). In ________ topology, the failure of central unit will disturb the entire network. (a)

Star

(b) (c) (d)

Bus Ring Mesh

(Q-66). ____________ is not a characteristic of client server architecture: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Shared resources Scalability Transparency of location None of the above

(Q-67). In _________ topology, a single length cable is used to connect the devices. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Star Bus Ring Mesh

(Q-68). Unguided media is most likely used in: (a) (b) (c) (d)

LAN MAN WAN None of the above

(Q-69). ______ is most likely to be privately owned. (a) (b) (c) (d)

LAN MAN WAN None of the above

(Q-70). In three tier architecture, ________ tier is situated in the middle. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application Presentation Database Logic

(Q-71). Network traffic management issue is most complicated in case of ________ tier architecture. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Single Two Three Four

(Q-72). In _________ transmission mode, data flows in both direction but simultaneously. (a) (b) (c)

Simples Half-simplex Half-duplex

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Full-duplex

(Q-73). Mobile phone is configured in________ mode. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simples Half-simplex Half-duplex Full-duplex

(Q-74). Most common n-tier architecture is ________ tier architecture. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Single Two Three Four

(Q-75). VPN uses ________ as its main backbone. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Intranet Internet Extranet LAN

(Q-76). An e-Commerce company is most likely to use ________ tier architecture (a) (b) (c) (d)

Single Two Three None of the above

(Q-77). In _______________ transmission, there are separate path for each bit. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Serial Parallel Asynchronous Synchronous

(Q-78). In ______________ transmission, transmitter and receiver are paced by the same clock speed. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Serial Parallel Asynchronous Synchronous

(Q-79). In _______________ transmission, message is sent with the start and stop bit. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Serial Parallel Asynchronous Synchronous

(Q-80). In ___________, many recipients receive data simultaneously. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Broadcast transmission Circuit switching Package switching Message switching

(Q-81). Most reliable switched network is: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Broadcast transmission Circuit switching Package switching Message switching

(Q-82). In _____________, data is broken in packets and then packets are transferred. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Broadcast transmission Circuit switching Package switching Message switching

(Q-83). ________________ establishes a fixed channel between nodes for communication (a) (b) (c) (d)

Broadcast transmission Circuit switching Package switching Message switching

(Q-84). Store-and-Forward feature is associated with. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Broadcast transmission Circuit switching Package switching Message switching

(Q-85). __________ capacity of networks. (a) (b) (c) (d)

maximizing

transmission

Network switching Circuit switching Package switching Message switching

(Q-86). __________ refers to layout of network like hardware, software, protocols, transmission mode. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Network layout Network architecture Network protocol Network switching

(Q-87). At the receiving computer, the first four tasks performed by protocols are:

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strips packets off any transmitting information; Bring packets into computer through NIC; Copy data from packet to a buffer for reassembly; Take data packets off the cable;

The correct order would be: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(a)-(b)-(c)-(d) (b)-(a)-(c)-(d) (d)-(b)-(a)-(c) (c)-(a)-(b)-(d)

(Q-88). OSI Model has ________ layers. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Six Four Eight None of the above

(Q-89). _____________ layer is closest to the end user in the OSI model. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application Presentation Session Transport

(Q-90). In the _____________ layer, communication partners are in the OSI model. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application Presentation Session Transport

(Q-91). _____________ layer is also referred as the syntax layer in the OSI model. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application Presentation Session Transport

(Q-92). Graceful close of session is the responsibility of _____________ layer in the OSI model. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application Presentation Session Transport

(Q-93). Assembly and disassembly of packets are taken at the _____________ layer in the OSI model.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Application Presentation Session Transport

(Q-94). Encryption are taken at the _____________ layer in the OSI model. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application Presentation Session Transport

(Q-95). _________ layer is situated between the session layer and network layer in the OSI model. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application Presentation Session Transport

(Q-96). _________ layer is situated between the application layer and session layer in the OSI model. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application Presentation Session Transport

(Q-97). _________ layer is situated between the physical layer and network layer in the OSI model. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application Data Link Presentation Transport

(Q-98). Modulation & demodulation is taken at the _____________ layer of the OSI model. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Physical Network Session Transport

(Q-99). Asynchronous Transmission is related with: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Parallel Transmission Serial Transmission Broadcast Transmission Full-duplex transmission

(Q-100). __________ is an ODD among the following. (a) (b)

Application layer Presentation layer

ICA IPC IT-SM (c) (d)

Communication layer Network layer

(Q-101). TCP/IP is made of ________ layers. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Six Four Five None of the above

(Q-102). TCP/IP does not have________ layer. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application Transport Internet protocol Data link

(Q-103). _____________ layer of the OSI model converts data packets into bits for transportation. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Physical Data link Session Transport

(Q-104). _____________ threat emerges from within the organisation. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Structured Unstructured Internal External

(Q-105). ________________ threat arises due to easily available hacking tools. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Structured Unstructured Internal External

(Q-106). _________ refers to the weakness in design, configuration or implementation of network or system. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Threat Vulnerability Software bug Compromise

(Q-107). TCP/IP Protocol is used in: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Internet Intranet Extranet All of the above

(Q-108). ________________ threat arises from highly motivated and technically competent persons. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Structured Unstructured Internal External

(Q-109). ___________ is not a reason of vulnerability. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Software Bugs Timing Windows End users Exposure

(Q-110). In the context of network security protocol, SSH stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Secure Shell Structured Shell Secure Service Shell None of the above

(Q-111). _____________ is a network protocol for accessing and managing files on remote systems. (a) (b) (c) (d)

SSH SFTP HTTPS SSL

(Q-112). __________ network protocol that provides a secure way for accessing a remote computer. (a) (b) (c) (d)

SSH SFTP HTTPS SSL

(Q-113). _________ is an ODD among the following. (a) (b) (c) (d)

HUB SFTP HTTPS SSL

(Q-114). __________ is a communications protocol for secure communication over a computer network. (a) (b) (c) (d)

SSH SFTP HTTPS SSL

(Q-115). While entering credit card details in website, a person probably using _____ & _____ protocol.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

HTTPS, SSH HTTPS, SFTP HTTPS, HTTP HTTPS, SSL

(Q-116). Data communication system within a building or campus is probably a ________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

LAN MAN WAN Extranet

(Q-117). __________ topology requires multipoint connection. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Star Bus Mesh MAN

(Q-118). Application layer is implemented in: (a) (b) (c) (d)

End system NIC Gateway Ethernet

(Q-119). In ____________, same key is used by both sender and the receiver: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Secret key encryption Public key encryption Hardware encryption Software encryption

(Q-120). E-commerce transactions between company and the final consumer is referred _____ eCommerce. (a) (b) (c) (d)

B2B B2C C2B B2G

(Q-121). E-commerce transactions between entity and other businesses is referred _____ e-Commerce. (a) (b) (c) (d)

B2B B2C C2B B2G

(Q-122). Companies like eBay, Flipkart usually belongs to _____ e-Commerce.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

B2B B2C C2B B2G

(Q-123). In ________ e-Commerce, one consumer deals with another consumer. (a) (b) (c) (d)

B2B C2C C2B B2G

(Q-124). There are total _______ aspects in the network security. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Three Four Five Six

(Q-125). _______ is third aspect of network security. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Privacy Authentication Integrity Non-repudiation

(Q-126). __________ is the fourth aspect of network security. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Privacy Integrity Non-repudiation Authentication

(Q-127). __________ aspect of the network security ensures that sender can’t deny sending of message. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Privacy Integrity Non-repudiation Authentication

(Q-128). In public key encryption, sender uses _______ key and recipient use __________ key. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Private, Public Private, Private Public, Private Public, Public

(Q-129). Through encryption, _________ text is converted into __________ text. (a)

Plain, Cipher

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) (c) (d)

Plain, Coded Cipher, Coded Public, Cipher

(Q-130). ______ is not the part of FCAPS. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Fault Management Communication Management Accounting Management Performance Management

(Q-131). In FCAPS, _________ is concerned with appropriate billing to the users. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Fault Management Communication Management Accounting Management Performance Management

(Q-132). A walkie-talkie operates in __________ mode. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simplex Half-duplex Full-duplex None of the above

(Q-133). A transmission medium in which one station is transmitter and other station is receiver, is _______. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simplex Half-duplex Full-duplex None of the above

(Q-134). Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______ transmission. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simplex Half-duplex Full-duplex None of the above

(Q-135). ISP’s can be: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Regional National International All of the above

(Q-136). Which of the following statement is wrong about Internet? (a) (b)

Internet is growing rapidly Internet is governed by a central body

(c) (d)

Internet made e-Commerce possible Internet is based on TCP/IP protocol

(Q-137). _______ is usually considered as a backbone of the Internet. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Router Connectivity Modem Switch

(Q-138). There are in total ______ rules of extranet. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Four Five Six Seven

(Q-139). ________ is the second rule of Extranet. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Deploy in Internet Time Be as flexible as business Serve the partner as customer Drive information to the decision maker

(Q-140). ________ is the fourth rule of Extranet. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Deploy in Internet Time Be as flexible as business Serve the partner as customer Drive information to the decision maker

(Q-141). ________ is a risk involved in e-Commerce. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Denial of service Problem of piracy Attack from hackers All of the above

(Q-142). _________ e-Commerce is also known as eGovernment. (a) (b) (c) (d)

B2B C2C C2B B2G

(Q-143). _________ e-Commerce is commerce done through the wireless handheld devices. (a) (b) (c) (d)

E-Commerce M-Commerce I-Commerce None of the above

(Q-144). In _________ e-Commerce, businesses offer the product and services to employees online.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

B2E C2C C2B B2G

(Q-145). Industries affected by M-Commerce are: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Financial services Information services Retail sector All of the above

(Q-146). WAP stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Wireless Application Protocol Wide Area Protocol Wireless Assistance Protocol Wireless Application Program

(Q-147). DSL stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Digital Service Line Digital Subscriber Line Digital Service Level Digital Security Line

(Q-148). DSLAM stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Digital Service Line Access Mode Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer Digital Service Level Access Multiplexer Digital Security Line Access Method

(Q-149). CMTS stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cable Modem Termination System Cable Modem Tier Service Central Modem Termination Service Central Modem Termination System

(Q-150). _______ commerce is the further evolution of _______ commerce: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Mobile, Electronic Electronic, Mobile Traditional, Electronic Traditional, Mobile

ICA IPC IT-SM

Answers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

(d) (a) (c) (b) (b) (a) (b) (a) (a) (b) (d) (b) (c) (a) (d) (a) (c) (b) (c) (a) (d) (a) (a) (d) (c) (b) (b) (c) (a) (c) (d) (d) (b) (d) (d) (c) (b) (b) (a) (c)

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Answers (c) (b) (d) (d) (b) (d) (b) (c) (d) (d) (d) (c) (a) (d) (a) (a) (b) (c) (a) (c) (c) (d) (a) (c) (a) (d) (b) (c) (a) (a) (c) (d) (d) (c) (b) (c) (b) (d) (c) (a)

81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

(d) (c) (b) (d) (c) (b) (c) (d) (a) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) (d) (b) (b) (a) (b) (c) (c) (d) (b) (c) (b) (b) (d) (a) (d) (a) (b) (a) (a) (c) (d) (a) (c) (a) (a) (b)

121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150

(a) (b) (b) (b) (c) (c) (c) (a) (a) (b) (c) (b) (a) (a) (d) (b) (a) (b) (a) (c) (d) (d) (b) (a) (d) (a) (b) (b) (a) (a)

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d) (Q-1). Processed data is called ________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Information Record File Knowledge

(Q-2). Processing involves transforming input into _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Data Output Knowledge Record

(Q-3). ____________ is a group of related elements working for reaching a common goal by taking inputs, processing it & producing output and having the feedback and control mechanism. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Mechanism System Information Automation

(Q-4). The Key components of IT Infrastructure are ___________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Users, Applications, DBMS, System Software, Network & Hardware Computing systems, satellite dishes, ISDN lines, Radio towers Concrete building, air conditioning, fire extinguishers, sprinklers Large servers, desktop computers, laptops

(Q-5). People, the most import element of information systems, comprise ________________ (a) (b) (c) (d)

Users of the system in the head office and branches All users of the system and all information system personnel All employees except IS personnel Employees involved with maintenance of the information system

(Q-6). The IT components of a Core Banking Solution Data Centre would mainly depend upon _________.

Number of employees in the Bank Type of services offered, risk management & control requirements Annual Business volume Nature of software applications used

(Q-7). Your client says that he is concern about security of the data in his company and would like to install software which effectively manages ownership assignment of all data for accountability. What type of software would you recommend him to install? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Data Communications Software Access Control Software Utility programs Application software

(Q-8). Which of the following is not a resource of information system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

People Resource Hardware Resource Data Resource Application Resource

(Q-9). Product descriptions, customer records, employee files etc. will usually the part of _________ of the information system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

People Resource Hardware Resource Data Resource Network Resource

(Q-10). Communications media will usually the part of _________ of the information system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

People Resource Hardware Resource Data Resource Network Resource

(Q-11). Programs and procedures will usually the part of _________ of the information system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Software Resource Hardware Resource Data Resource Network Resource

(Q-12). Machines and Media will usually the part of _________ of the information system? (a) (b)

Software Resource Hardware Resource

ICA IPC IT-SM (c) (d)

Data Resource Network Resource

(Q-13). __________ is defined as systems integrating information technology, people & business? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Information System Management Information System Business Information System Decision Support System

(Q-14). Which of the following is not a pre-requisite of Effective Information System? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Store large capacity of data Provide fast data processing Assist in business decision making Lower access and processing capacity

(Q-15). Transaction Processing System is most likely to be the part of ___________ in the organisation. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strategic Level Management Level Knowledge Level Operational Level

(Q-16). Office Automation System is most likely to be the part of ___________ in the organisation. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strategic Level Management Level Knowledge Level Operational Level

(Q-17). Which of the following is not the part of Transaction Processing System Architecture? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Data Entry Database Maintenance Inquiry Processing Access Control

(Q-18). Which of the following attribute of the Transaction Processing System is concerned with TPS is designed to be robust & trustworthy? (a) (b) (c) (d)

High Volume Rapid Processing Equivalence Atomicity Trustworthiness

(Q-19). Which of the following aspect of ACID Test of the Transaction Processing System ensures that TPS should exists within a set of operating rules?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Atomicity Consistency Isolation Durability

(Q-20). Which of the following is not a majority used office automation system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Word Processing Electronic Mail Fax Electronic Access Control

(Q-21). _______ is a mechanism to digitally generate, collect, process & store office information? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Transaction Processing System Office Automation System Decision Support System Management Information System

(Q-22). __________ refer to any kind of IT system that stores and retrieves knowledge. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Transaction Processing System Office Automation System Decision Support System Knowledge Management System

(Q-23). _______ is the knowledge which is formalizes, documented and articulated. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Recorded Knowledge Automated Knowledge Explicit Knowledge Tacit Knowledge

(Q-24). _____ is the knowledge which is informalizes, and yet to be documented and articulated. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Un-recorded Knowledge Automated Knowledge Explicit Knowledge Tacit Knowledge

(Q-25). ______ refers to the data, equipment & programs used to produce information for managerial use? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Transaction Processing System Office Automation System Decision Support System Management Information System

(Q-26). Consider the following steps involved in the Management Information System.

ICA IPC IT-SM (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Requirement Analysis Groundwork Examination Procurement of hardware & software System Blueprint

The correct sequence will be: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

(Q-27). In which of the stage of Management Information System, problem and its magnitude is examined, alternatives available are considered? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Requirement Analysis Groundwork Examination Procurement of hardware & software System Blueprint

(Q-28). In which of the following stage of Management Information System, input, processing, output, storage etc. are considered? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Requirement Analysis Groundwork Examination Procurement of hardware & software System Blueprint

(Q-29). In which of the following stage of Management Information System, users’ needs are ascertained? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Requirement Analysis Groundwork Examination Procurement of hardware & software System Blueprint

(Q-30). Consider the following statements about the Management Information System. (i)

It provide accurate & timely information which assist management in effective planning & control (ii) Requirement Analysis is usually the first step involved in the MIS development (iii) Entity should develop a manageable MIS & should not become too ambitious (iv) System Blueprint is usually the last step involved in the MIS development Which of the above statements are correct? (a)

(i), (ii) & (iii) Only

(b) (c) (d)

(i) & (iv) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only (i) & (iii) Only

(Q-31). __________ is acquired from external sources while __________ develops internally. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Knowledge, Wisdom Information, Data Knowledge, Information Information, Knowledge

(Q-32). __________ leads to __________ which results in _________ and gradually leads to ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Data, Knowledge, Information, Wisdom Information, Knowledge, Wisdom, Data Data, Information, Knowledge, Wisdom Data, Wisdom, Knowledge, Information

(Q-33). OLAP stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

On-Line Application Processing On-Line Analytical Processing Over Line Analytical Processing On-Line Analytical Power

(Q-34). In the context of Business Information System, DSS stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Decision Support Software Decision Software Support Decision Support System Decision Support Software

(Q-35). Which of the following is not a major component of DSS? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Database User Model Base Decision Base

(Q-36). Which of the following component of DSS acts as the brain of the DSS and performs the data manipulation tasks? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Database User Model Base Decision Base

(Q-37). Which of the following component of DSS is a manager with an unstructured or semi-structured problem to solve?

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Database User Model Base Decision Base

(Q-38). The Business Information System used for handling routine transactional jobs is most likely to be a _________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Transaction Processing System Decision Support System Executive Support System Structured Query Language

(Q-39). The Business Information System which provides answers to semi-structured problems for the validation of business decisions is ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Structured Query Language Transaction Processing System Decision Support System Executive Support System

(Q-40). In an inter-university competition on Artificial Intelligence, four students develop software which perform the following different functions. Which of the following is most likely to be an Artificial Intelligence software? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Calculation software which arrives at the arithmetic total of figures keyed in A password system which allows access based upon entry of the correct password Predictive & self-learning word-processing software A software which accepts dates only in numeric format dates

(Q-41). Consider the following statements about the Decision Support System: (i)

DSS is a manual system that supports business decision making activities. (ii) Users are generally the Top-Level Executives (iii) The database of DSS may be of both internal and external in nature (iv) DSS responds quickly to the changing needs of the decision maker Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c)

(i), (ii) & (iii) Only (iii) & (iv) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only

(d)

(i) & (iii) Only

(Q-42). An Expert System _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Is a software that supersedes other software Is a panel of software experts who are consulted for solving security threats Is a computer hardware that manages other hardware in a computer system Is a software that comprises specialized human knowledge

(Q-43). In the context of Business Information System, ESS stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Enterprise Support Software Executive Software Support Executive Support System Enterprise Support Software

(Q-44). Which of the following is not a component of Executive Information System? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Software Planning Language Hardware Telecommunication

(Q-45). Consider the following statements about the Executive Information System (EIS): (i) Scope of DSS is generally broader than the EIS (ii) Users of EIS is generally Top-Level Executives (iii) Planning Language is one of the components of the EIS (iv) EIS is not just a piece of hardware or software, but an infrastructure Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii) & (iii) Only (ii) & (iv) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only (i) & (iii) Only

(Q-46). You log on to the service provider's website to pay your mobile phone bill through net banking. However, server of the bank hangs and a message is flashed saying that there is a problem with the service provider's system & asking the users to try later. This is an issue with the service provider's ___________. (a) (b) (c)

Transaction Processing System Expert systems Decision Support systems

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Executive Support systems

(Q-47). You are an active player on the stock market & place buy / sell orders for shares throughout the day with your broker. In the middle of a day, you wish to assess your position. However, when you speak to your broker and ask him for a report of the transactions carried out on that day till that point of time, the broker responds that you would be able to access an report by the end of the day, for all the transactions of the day at one go. This is an example of __________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Online Transaction Processing system Online Expert System Batch Transaction Processing System Online Executive Support systems

(Q-48). You are an active player on the stock market & place buy / sell orders for shares throughout the day with your broker. In the middle of a day, you wish to assess your position. However, when you speak to your broker and ask him for a report of the transactions carried out on that day till that point of time, the broker responds that you can access data of any transaction at any point of time from their website. This is an example of __________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Online Transaction Processing system Online Expert System Batch Transaction Processing System Online Executive Support systems

(Q-49). The type of business information system which would generally be suited for top-level decision-making, like spinning-off a portion of the company, acquiring another company, entering a new business, etc. is ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Decision Support System Data Base Management System Executive Support System Management Information System

(Q-50). Executive Support Systems address _______. (a) (b) (c) (d)

External & uncertain information Internal & structured information Day-to-day information Analysis of routine transactional data

(Q-51). ______ system integrates internal & external management information across entire organization into single integrated software application.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer Relationship Management Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning Human Resource Management System

(Q-52). Total number of stages involved in the implementation of the Enterprise Resource Planning System is _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Six Eight Nine Ten

(Q-53). The very first step involved in the implementation of ERP is _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

ABC Analysis Inventory Control Economic Order Quantity Just-in-Time

(Q-54). In the context of Enterprise Resource Planning, MRP-II stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Material Requirement Planning Money Resource Planning Manufacturing Requirement Planning Manpower Resource Planning

(Q-55). Which of the following is an objective of Distribution Resource Planning: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Ensure materials are available for production and products are available for delivery Maintain the lowest possible material and product levels in store Optimize the distribution function Plan manufacturing, delivery schedules etc.

(Q-56). In the context of Enterprise Resource Planning, MRP-III stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Material Requirement Planning Money Resource Planning Manufacturing Requirement Planning Manpower Resource Planning

(Q-57). In the context of Enterprise Resource Planning, MRP-I stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Material Requirement Planning Money Resource Planning Manufacturing Requirement Planning Manpower Resource Planning

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-58). Which of the following is not an objective of the MRP-I: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Ensure materials are available for production and products are available for delivery Maintain the lowest possible material and product levels in store Optimize the distribution function Plan manufacturing, delivery schedules etc.

(Q-59). ___________ is concerned with planning like operational planning, financial planning and can also respond to "what-if" questions. (a) (b) (c) (d)

MRP-I MRP-II MRP-III Distribution Resource Planning

(Q-60). SAP R3 is an example of ________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer Relationship Management Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning Human Resource Management System

(Q-61). Oracle 9i is an example of ________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer Relationship Management Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning Human Resource Management System

(Q-62). SAS, SPSS etc. are an example of ________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

General Purpose Planning Language Special Purpose Planning Language Enterprise Resource Planning Database Management System

(Q-63). Anmol Ltd. has recently adopted a business information system which provides a single integrated view of the customers and smoothen the process to capture, consolidate and analyze data from existing and potential customers. It is most likely to be a _______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer Relationship Management Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning Human Resource Management System

(Q-64). JIT stands for ________. (a) (b)

Journey-in-Transit Just-in-Transmission

(c) (d)

Just-in-Transit None of the above

(Q-65). ___________ is also referred as ERP-II. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Material Requirement Planning Manufacturing Requirement Planning Money Resource Planning Distribution Resource planning

(Q-66). _____________ refers to practices, strategies & technologies that companies use to manage and analyze customer. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer Relationship Management Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning Human Resource Management System

(Q-67). _____________ refers to the linkages between suppliers, manufacturers & customers. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Supply Chain Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning Human Resource Management System

(Q-68). __________ can be defined as the process of planning, implementing & controlling the operations of supply chain. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Supply Chain Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning Human Resource Management System

(Q-69). Today companies are able to sell millions of units of their products with highest degree of efficiency. It is most likely to be attributed to _______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer Relationship Management Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning Human Resource Management System

(Q-70). Main focus of __________ is to ensure the delivers of right products at the right time to the right place at the right price and at the least possible cost. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer Relationship Management Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning Human Resource Management System

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-71). _________ is focused on improving the processes within the organisation, _________ tries to enhance the relationship with customers and _______ aims to facilitate the collaboration between the organization, its suppliers, distributors etc. (a) (b) (c) (d)

CRM, SCM, ERP ERP, CRM, SCM SCM, ERP, CRM SCM, CRM, ERP

(Q-72). Total no. of components in the Supply Chain Management are _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Three Four Five Six

(Q-73). Which of the following is not a component of the Supply Chain Management? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Procurement Operations Conversion Distribution

(Q-74). Which of the following component of the Supply Chain Management ensure that right items are purchased in required quantity? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Procurement Operations Integration Distribution

(Q-75). Which of the following component of the Supply Chain Management is concerned with the transformations of raw material into the finished products or services? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Procurement Operations Integration Distribution

(Q-76). _____ is a software application that manages many human resource functions like administration, payroll, recruiting, training, performance analysis etc. into one integrated software. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer Relationship Management Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning Human Resource Management System

(Q-77). Which of the following module of the HRMS manage labor rules, costs, expenses etc.? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Workforce Management Time & Attendance Management Payroll Management Compensation Management

(Q-78). Which of the following module of the HRMS maintains proper data & record about time & attendance of the employees? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Workforce Management Time & Attendance Management Employee Self Service Compensation Management

(Q-79). Which of the following module of the HRMS allows employees to query HR related data over the system without asking the HR personnel? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Workforce Management Recruitment Management Employee Self Service Compensation Management

(Q-80). Which of the following module of the HRMS helps in hiring the right people with required skills? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Workforce Management Recruitment Management Employee Self Service Personnel Management

(Q-81). Which of the following module of the HRMS manages HR master-data? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Workforce Management Recruitment Management Employee Self Service Personnel Management

(Q-82). In the CORE Banking, CORE stands for _____? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Centralized Online Reliable Environment Compliance Online Real Time Environment Centralized Online Real Time Entity Centralized Online Real Time Environment

(Q-83). Which of the following statement is not correct about HRMS? (a) (b)

It is a software application that manages many human resource function HRMS is usually used in large organisations having thousands of employees

ICA IPC IT-SM (c) (d)

Trainings Management Module of HRMS is concerned with managing HR Master Data Recruitment Management Module helps in hiring the right people with required skills

(Q-84). Which of the following is not an element of CORE Banking System? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Managing Customer Accounts Opening New Accounts Managing Transaction records Employee Self Service

(Q-85). Oracle Flexcube is an example of ________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer Relationship Management Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning CORE Banking System

(Q-86). Consider the following statements about the CORE Banking System: (i)

Stands for Common Online Real Time Environment (ii) Entire data is managed in the centralized data centres (iii) Data is kept branch specific (iv) CORE Banking enables cash withdrawal or deposit from any member branch Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii) & (iii) Only (ii) & (iv) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only (i) & (iii) Only

(Q-87). Infosys Finacal is an example of ________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer Relationship Management Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning CORE Banking System

(Q-88). Online virtual assistants like Siri or Alexa are capable of executing commands given through natural voice because of __________ technology. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Structured Query Language DBMS Artificial Intelligence Batch Processing

(Q-89). Today managers can operate the information system through natural voice command, gestures etc.

It is attributed to which of the following commercial application of AI? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Decision Support Virtual Reality Robotics Information Retrieval

(Q-90). In the Hi-Tech Manufacturing, robots are replacing humans as they are more powerful and capable of executing risky jobs. It is attributed to which of the following commercial application of AI? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Decision Support Virtual Reality Robotics Information Retrieval

(Q-91). Which of the following is not a component of expert system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Knowledge Acquisition facilities Knowledge base Inference Engine Model Base

(Q-92). Which of the following component of the expert system contains data, knowledge, information etc. to solve any problem? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Knowledge Acquisition facilities Knowledge base Inference Engine Explanation Facilities

(Q-93). Which of the following component of the expert system provides a mechanism to extract data and knowledge from the human expert? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Knowledge Acquisition facilities Knowledge base Inference Engine Explanation Facilities

(Q-94). Which of the following component of the expert system contains logics & rules to match the expert system’s knowledge with the user’s query? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Knowledge Acquisition facilities Knowledge base Inference Engine Explanation Facilities

(Q-95). A company is concerned about the health of its software engineering head and his team. It wants

ICA IPC IT-SM to preserve their knowledge so it can be used as and when needed. It should develop a _______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

HRMS System Supply Chain Management System Enterprise Resource Planning System Expert System

(Q-96). Which of the following is not a type of Expert System? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Example Based Formula Based Rule Based Frame Based

(Q-97). In which of the following Expert System, already available cases are match with user’s case to identify the solution? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Example Based Formula Based Rule Based Frame Based

(Q-98). In which of the Expert System, everything in knowledge base is organized as logical units? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Example Based Formula Based Rule Based Frame Based

(Q-99). Which of the following is not an advantage of Expert System? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Provide a cost-effective alternative to human experts Preserve the expertise of an expert Faster & more consistent than human expert Contains the knowledge pool of only one human expert

(Q-100). ETL stands for ________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Extract, Transmit, Load Exchange, Transform, Load Exchange, Transmit, Load Extract, Transform, Load

Answers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

(a) (b) (b) (a) (b) (b) (b) (d) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) (c) (d) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (c) (d) (d) (b) (b) (d) (a) (d) (d) (c) (b) (c) (d) (c) (b) (a) (c) (c) (b) (d) (c) (b) (b)

46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

(a) (c) (a) (c) (a) (c) (d) (b) (c) (c) (b) (a) (c) (b) (c) (c) (b) (a) (d) (c) (a) (a) (b) (b) (b) (b) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d) (a) (b) (c) (b) (d) (d) (c) (d) (d) (b) (d) (c) (a) (c)

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

(d) (b) (a) (c) (d) (b) (a) (d) (d) (d)

ICA IPC IT-SM kind of business application is most likely to be classified in which of the following parameters?

(Q-1). Business applications are the software or set of software used for business purposes. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Operating System Business Software Application Software Business Application

(Q-2). Which of the following is not a parameter of the classification of the Business applications? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Nature of Processing Source of Application Size and Complexity of Business Manpower size of the Business

(Q-3). A Ltd. has developed an application software as per its business requirement. Such kind of business application is most likely to be classified in which of the following parameters? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Nature of Processing Source of Application Size and Complexity of Business Nature of Application

(Q-4). A Ltd. purchased a Word Processing software online considering its business requirement. Such kind of business application is most likely to be classified in which of the following parameters? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Nature of Processing Source of Application Size and Complexity of Business Nature of Application

(Q-5). Superior Ltd. has a business application which can process the transaction as entered by the user. Such kind of business application is most likely to be classified in which of the following parameters? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Nature of Processing Source of Application Size and Complexity of Business Nature of Application

(Q-6). S Ltd. has a business application which can process the transaction as entered by the user. Such

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Nature of Processing Source of Application Size and Complexity of Business Nature of Application

(Q-7). Smart Ltd. has developed a Supply Chain Management Software for its business. Such software is most likely to be a _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Custom-built Application Packaged Software Leased Application None of the above

(Q-8). Microsoft Office Software is most likely to be a _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Custom-built Application Packaged Software Leased Application Accounting Application

(Q-9). ________ is defined as policies, procedures, practices etc. designed to provide reasonable assurance that business objectives are achieved & undesired events are prevented or detected & corrected. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Assurance Auditing Control Compliance

(Q-10). Insurance policy is a type of ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Preventive Control Detective Control Corrective Control Compliance Control

(Q-11). Security guard, lock doors etc. are type of ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Preventive Control Detective Control Corrective Control Compliance Control

(Q-12). Which of the following is not an objective of control? (a) (b)

Authorization Completeness

ICA IPC IT-SM (c) (d)

Segregation of Duties Testing

(Q-13). Which of the following objective of control ensures that no valid transactions have been omitted from the records? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Authorization Completeness Segregation of Duties Validity

(Q-14). Which of the following objective of control ensures that all transactions are approved by responsible personnel? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Authorization Completeness Segregation of Duties Validity

(Q-15). Which of the following objective of control ensures that all recorded transactions fairly represent the economic events that occurred? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Authorization Completeness Segregation of Duties Validity

(Q-16). Which of the following objective of control ensures that duties are properly segregated one person should not have too much authority? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Authorization Completeness Segregation of Duties Validity

(Q-17). Which of the following is an additional stage in the Computerized Information Processing Cycle? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Input Processing Output Feedback

(Q-18). Consider the following statements about the information processing cycle: (i) (ii)

The process of creating information from raw data is known as Information Processing Input, processing & feedback are the components of the manual information processing cycle

(iii) In the computerized information processing cycle, computer is used in every stage (iv) No matter what, a company should always go for the computerized information processing system Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii) & (iii) Only (i) & (iv) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only (i) & (iii) Only

(Q-19). Information Systems’ Controls can be broadly classified into ________ Control & _________ Control? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Preventive, Detective Managerial, Application Input, Output Managerial, Operational

(Q-20). Under Information Systems’ Controls, the first Managerial Control is ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Systems Development Management Controls Top Management & Information Systems Management Controls Programming Management Controls Data Resource Management Controls

(Q-21). Consider the following statements about the Managerial Controls: (i)

Boundary Controls is the part of Managerial Controls (ii) Input Controls is the part of Application Controls (iii) Ensuring the high-quality software is the part of Managerial Controls (iv) Security Management Controls is the part of Managerial Controls Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii) & (iii) Only (ii) & (iv) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only (i) & (iii) Only

(Q-22). Which of the following is not the part of Top Management & Information Systems Management Controls? (a)

Planning

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) (c) (d)

Strategic Plan Organizing General Audit

(Q-23). Consider the following statements about Top Management & Information Systems Management Controls: (i)

In the planning phase, top management organizes the resources needed to accomplish the goals (ii) Strategic Plan is the long-run covering next three to five years of operations (iii) Operational Plan is short term covering next three to five years of operations (iv) In the Control phase, actual performance is compared with planned performance Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii) & (iii) Only (ii) & (iv) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only (i) & (iii) Only

(Q-24). In the Systems Development Management Controls phase, which of the following audit is not performed? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Concurrent Audit Post-implementation Audit General Audit Cost Audit

(Q-25). In which of the audit of the Systems Development Management Controls phase, auditors are members of the system development team and assist the team in improving the quality of systems development they are building and implementing? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Concurrent Audit Post-implementation Audit General Audit Cost Audit

(Q-26). Which audit of the Systems Development Management Controls phase, helps to determine whether new system needs to be continued as it is or modified in some way? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Concurrent Audit Post-implementation Audit General Audit Cost Audit

(Q-27). Which of the following is not the part of Programming Management Controls? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Planning Design Coding Organizing

(Q-28). Techniques like PERT Chart etc. are used in which of the following phase of Programming Management Controls? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Planning Design Coding Testing

(Q-29). In which of the phase of Programming Management Controls, programmers should adopt systematic approach to program design? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Planning Design Coding Testing

(Q-30). In which of the phase of Programming Management Controls, programmers must choose a module coding strategy? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Planning Design Coding Testing

(Q-31). Which of the following test is not conducted in the Programming Management Controls? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Unit Testing Integration Testing Module Testing Whole-of-Program Testing

(Q-32). Which of the following test conducted in the testing phase of Programming Management Controls focuses on individual program modules? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Unit Testing Integration Testing Module Testing Whole-of-Program Testing

(Q-33). Which of the following maintenance is not conducted in the operation & maintenance phase of the Programming Management Controls?

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Corrective Maintenance Repair maintenance Adaptive Maintenance Perfective Maintenance

(Q-34). Which of the following maintenance is focused on correcting the program errors in the operation & maintenance phase of the Programming Management Controls? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Corrective Maintenance Repair maintenance Adaptive Maintenance Perfective Maintenance

(Q-35). Consider the following statements about the Programming Management Controls: (i)

Primary objective of programming management control is the implementation of high-quality programs (ii) The first stage of Programming Management Controls is design (iii) Control phase run in parallel for all other phases in the Programming Management Control (iv) There are total four kinds of maintenance involved in the programming management controls Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii) & (iii) Only (ii) & (iv) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only (i) & (iii) Only

(Q-36). Consider the following statements about the Quality Assurance Management Controls: (i)

Quality Assurance Management Controls are the part of Application Controls (ii) It ensure that information systems assets are secure and protected (iii) Organizations are increasingly producing safety-critical systems like guided missile, high speed trains etc., hence ensuring the high quality is essential (iv) Today users are becoming more demanding in terms of the quality of the software Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (i), (ii) & (iii) Only

(b) (ii) & (iv) Only (c) (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only (d) (iii) & (iv) Only (Q-37). Which of the following is not a major threat covered under the Security Management Controls? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Fire Energy Variations Structural Damage Population

(Q-38). Which of the following is a characteristic of the ‘detective control’? (a) Minimize the impact of a threat (b) Controls that detect & report the occurrence of an error, omission or malicious act (c) Detect problems before they occur (d) None of the above (Q-39). Information System access is not restricted though password. It indicates: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Poor security control High risk of the system getting hacked High risk of the system getting compromised All of the above

(Q-40). Planning, organizing, leading and controlling is covered in ___________ of the Managerial Control. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Systems Development Management Controls Top Management & Information Systems Management Controls Programming Management Controls Data Resource Management Controls

(Q-41). Concurrent Audit, Post-implementation Audit & General Audit is covered in ___________ of the Managerial Control. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Systems Development Management Controls Top Management & Information Systems Management Controls Programming Management Controls Data Resource Management Controls

(Q-42). Planning, Design, Coding, Testing etc. is covered in ___________ of the Managerial Control. (a) (b) (c)

Systems Development Management Controls Top Management & Information Systems Management Controls Programming Management Controls

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Data Resource Management Controls

(Q-43). Which of the following is not covered in the Application controls? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Boundary Controls Communication Controls Programming Management Controls Processing Controls

(Q-44). Which of the following is not a major type of boundary controls? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cryptographic Controls Access Controls Communication Controls Digital Signatures

(Q-45). Which of the following type of boundary control makes the data not-understandable for the persons not having the authority to see them? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cryptographic Controls Access Controls Communication Controls Digital Signatures

(Q-46). _______________ ensures the accuracy and completeness of data used as input into an application system. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Boundary Controls Output Controls Communication Controls Input Control

(Q-47). Which of the following is not a major input control? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Source Document Control Data Coding Controls Validation Controls Real-time Control

(Q-48). Which of the following input control ensures that the document for the input of data is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Source Document Control Data Coding Controls Validation Controls Real-time Control

(Q-49). Which of the following input control is concerned with reducing error during data feeding? (a)

Source Document Control

(b) (c) (d)

Data Coding Controls Validation Controls Real-time Control

(Q-50). Which of the following input control is intended to detect errors in transaction data before the data are processed by the system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Source Document Control Data Coding Controls Validation Controls Real-time Control

(Q-51). Flow Control is the part of _______________ of the Application Control. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Boundary Control Input Controls Communication Controls Output Control

(Q-52). Link Control is the part of _______________ of the Application Control. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Boundary Control Input Controls Communication Controls Output Control

(Q-53). Which of the following control is not the part of communication controls of Application Control? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Physical Component Controls Line Error Controls Batch Controls Topological Controls

(Q-54). Which of the following control is not the part of communication controls of Application Control? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Channel Access Controls Internetworking Controls Validation Controls Flow Controls

(Q-55). Which of the following communication control is concerned with reliable and resilient network resources like Router, Hub, Switch etc.? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Physical Component Controls Line Error Controls Batch Controls Topological Controls

(Q-56). In the context of communication controls, SDLC stands for __________________.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

System Development Life Cycle System Data Link Control Synchronous Data Link Control Synchronous Data Link Cycle

(Q-57). In the context of communication controls, HDLC stands for __________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hardware Link Data Control Higher Level Document Control Higher Level Data Control Higher Link Device Control

(Q-58). In the context of communication controls, SDLC & HDLC relates to __________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Physical Component Controls Line Error Controls Link Controls Channel Access Controls

(Q-59). In the context of communication controls, error detection & error correction relates to ______. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Physical Component Controls Line Error Controls Link Controls Channel Access Controls

(Q-60). In the context of communication controls, one of the techniques is Stop-and-Wait __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Line Controls Flow Controls Link Controls Channel Controls

(Q-61). As two nodes in a network can differ in terms of the rate at which they can send, receive and process data, entity needs ______________ to resolve this issue. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Line Error Controls Flow Controls Link Controls Channel Access Controls

(Q-62). An organisation should use reliable and quality transmission media. It relates to which of the following aspect of communication controls? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Physical Component Controls Line Error Controls Flow Controls Topological Controls

(Q-63). Out of the following, which from of processing is generally quickest? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Batch Online Real-time Discrete

(Q-64). Out of the following, missile system, radar system etc. generally uses ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Batch Online Real-time Discrete

(Q-65). As two different nodes in a network can compete to use a communication channel, entity needs ______________ to resolve this issue. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Line Error Controls Flow Controls Link Controls Channel Access Controls

(Q-66). In the context of communication controls, Polling methods and Contention methods relates to __________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Physical Component Controls Line Error Controls Link Controls Channel Access Controls

(Q-67). Consider the following statements about the Communication Controls: (i)

Physical Component Control is the part of Communication Controls (ii) Flow Controls are used to resolve the issue where two or more nodes try to use the same network resources (iii) SDHC & HDLC are part of Line Error Control (iv) Polling methods is one of the approaches of Channel Access Control Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii) & (iii) Only (ii) & (iv) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only (i) & (iv) Only

(Q-68). As entity may need to connect two or more communication networks together to allow the users

ICA IPC IT-SM of one network to communicate with the users of other networks, it needs to have _______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Line Error Controls Internetworking Controls Link Controls Channel Access Controls

(Q-69). Which of the following device is not used to connect different network? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Switch Bridge Router Gateway

(Q-70). In the channel access control, _________ establish an order in which a node can gain access to channel capacity? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Polling Technique Stop & Wait Flow Control Method Contention Method Synchronous Data Link Control

(Q-71). In the channel access control, in _________, nodes in a network must compete with each other to gain access to a channel? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Polling Technique Stop & Wait Flow Control Method Contention Method Synchronous Data Link Control

(Q-72). In computer system, ______ establish the authenticity of persons and prevent the denial of messages when data is exchanged electronically. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Access Controls Personal Identification Numbers Digital Signature Plastic Cards

(Q-73). In the context of Line Error Controls, CRC stands for ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cyclic Redundancy Checks Cyclic Reversal Checks Cyclic Relational Checks Cyclic Register Checks

(Q-74). Which of the following is not a major processing control? (a) (b)

Retention Controls Run-to-Run Totals

(c) (d)

Field Initialization Exception Reports

(Q-75). Which of the following processing control helps in verifying data that is subject to process through different stages? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Retention Controls Run-to-Run Totals Field Initialization Reasonableness Verification

(Q-76). Which of the following processing control compares and cross verifies two or more fields to ensure their correctness? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Retention Controls Run-to-Run Totals Field Initialization Reasonableness Verification

(Q-77). Which of the following processing control sets all initial values to zero before inserting data? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Retention Controls Run-to-Run Totals Field Initialization Reasonableness Verification

(Q-78). Consider the following statements about the Processing Controls: (i)

Processing control ensure that the data delivered to users will be presented, formatted and delivered in a consistent and secured manner. (ii) Exception Reports is the part of Processing Controls (iii) Reasonableness Verification verify data that is subject to process through different stages (iv) Recovery Controls is concerned with the recovery of the system from failure Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii) & (iii) Only (ii) & (iv) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only (i) & (iii) Only

(Q-79). __________ ensure that the data delivered to users will be presented, formatted and delivered in a consistent and secured manner? (a)

Input Controls

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) (c) (d)

Output Controls Processing Controls Database Controls

(Q-80). Which of the following is not a major output control? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Controls over Printing Exception Reports Retention Controls Logging of Output Program Executions

(Q-81). ________ protect the integrity of a database? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Input Controls Output Controls Processing Controls Database Controls

(Q-82). Which of the following is not a major Database Control? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Transaction and Master File Sync Ensure all records on file are processed Multiple transactions for a single record Storage and logging of Sensitive Forms

(Q-83). ____________ means to create a virtual version of a device or resource, such as a server, storage device, network etc. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cloud computing Grid computing Virtualization Computing

(Q-84). Which of the following is not a major application area of Virtualization? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Server Consolidation Disaster Recovery Parallel CPU Capacity Testing and Training

(Q-85). In the context of Virtualization, 'P2V' transformation stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Platform-to-Virtual Transformation Physical-to-Virtual Transformation Physical-to-Visual Transformation Physical-to-Virtualization Transformation

(Q-86). Platform Virtualization is another name of _____________: (a)

Software Virtualization

(b) (c) (d)

Storage Virtualization Network Virtualization None of the above

(Q-87). ____________ refers to the creation of a virtual machine that acts like a real computer with an operating system. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hardware Virtualization Storage Virtualization Network Virtualization Computation Virtualization

(Q-88). Which of the following statement is not correct regarding Hardware Virtualization? (a)

(b) (c) (d)

Basic idea of Hardware virtualization is to consolidate many small physical servers into one large physical server It is also referred as Platform Virtualization Hardware Virtualization helps in reducing server acquisition and operation cost It is also referred as Storage Virtualization

(Q-89). Which of the following virtualization is concerned with abstracting the logical storage from the physical storage? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hardware Virtualization Storage Virtualization Network Virtualization Computation Virtualization

(Q-90). Consider the following statements about the Virtualization: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

There are three major types of Virtualization Virtualization helps in server consolidation Helps in virtual to physical transformation Makes disaster recovery task difficult

Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii) & (iii) Only (ii) & (iv) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only (i) & (ii) Only

(Q-91). Consider the following statements about Grid Computing? (i)

Centralized architecture of large numbers of computers connected to each other (ii) Make use of underutilized resources (iii) Works on sequential CPU processing method

ICA IPC IT-SM (iv) One of the resources offered by Grid computing is Software and Licenses Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii) & (iii) Only (ii) & (iv) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only (i) & (ii) Only

(Q-92). Which of the following is not a major type of resource available under Grid Computing? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Computation Storage Communications Parallel CPU Capacity

(Q-93). Which of the following is not a primary responsibility of a Certificate Authority? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Issuing, removing, and archiving certificates Protecting the Certificate Authority server Identifying entities requesting certificates Managing enrollment of donors and users

(Q-94). What is grid computing? (a) (b) (c) (d)

It is parallel and centralized computing where computer infrastructure service It is parallel computing where autonomous computers act together to perform tasks Centralized computing where autonomous computers perform independent tasks Interconnected computing platform works on serial CPU processing capacity

(Q-95). Which of the following is not a security constraint while developing grid architecture? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Single Sign-on Protection of Credentials Interoperability with local security solutions Resource Management

(Q-96). Which of the following security constraint of grid architecture ensures that user should authenticate once be able to acquire resources, use them without any further authentication? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Single Sign-on Protection of Credentials Interoperability with local security solutions Support for secure group communication

(Q-97). Which of the following security constraint of grid architecture ensures that user passwords, private keys, etc. should be protected? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Single Sign-on Protection of Credentials Interoperability with local security solutions Support for secure group communication

(Q-98). Consider the following first four stages of using Grid Computing from the user’s perspective: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Logging onto the grid Enrolling and installing Grid Software Data configuration Queries and submitting jobs

What is the correct sequence? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

(Q-99). Consider the following first four stages of using Grid Computing from the administrators’ perspective: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Managing enrollment of donors and users Installation Planning Certificate Authority

What is the correct sequence? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

(Q-100). The technology used to distribute service requests to resources in grid computing is referred as: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Load performing Load scheduling Load balancing Load adjustment

ICA IPC IT-SM

Answers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

(d) (d) (b) (b) (a) (a) (a) (b) (c) (c) (a) (d) (b) (a) (d) (c) (d) (d) (b) (b) (C) (d) (b) (d) (a) (b) (d) (a) (b) (c) (c) (a) (a) (b) (d) (d) (d) (b) (d) (b)

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Answers (a) (c) (c) (c) (a) (d) (d) (a) (b) (c) (c) (c) (c) (c) (a) (c) (c) (c) (b) (b) (b) (a) (c) (c) (d) (d) (d) (b) (a) (a) (c) (c) (a) (a) (b) (d) (c) (b) (b) (b)

81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

(d) (d) (c) (c) (b) (d) (a) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (d) (b) (d) (a) (b) (b) (b) (c)

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-7). Which of the following memory is usually measured in Tera Bytes? (a) (b) (c) (d) (Q-1). Which of the following is not an advantage of Flowchart? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Documentation Quicker grasp of relationships Efficient coding Complex Logic

(Q-2). In the context of Flowchart, Diamond shape is used to represent __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Decision Making Output Programming Data Input

(Q-3). In the context of Flowchart, Rectangle shape is used to represent __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Decision Making Output Programming Data Input

(Q-4). Which among the following memory is directly involved in the process execution? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Random Access Memory Cache Memory Register Secondary Memory

(Q-5). Which among the following is not a feature of secondary memory? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Non-volatile in nature Slowest memory compared to others Has the largest storage capacity Costs more compared to others

(Q-6). Pen Drive is an example of ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Random Access Memory Cache Memory Register Secondary Memory

Random Access Memory Cache Memory Register Secondary Memory

(Q-8). Which of the following memory is the part of primary memory in the computer system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Random Access Memory Cache Memory Register Secondary Memory

(Q-9). Which of the following memory helps in the initial booting of the computer system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Random Access Memory Cache Memory Read Only Memory Secondary Memory

(Q-10). Which among the following is not a type of Read Only Memory? (a) (b) (c) (d)

PROM EPROM EEPROM EROM

(Q-11). In CPU, ___________ performs arithmetic operations like addition, subtraction, multiplication, and logical comparison of numbers. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Control Unit Athematic Logical Unit Accumulators Register

(Q-12). Which of the following memory is usually measured in Mega Bytes? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Random Access Memory Cache Memory Register Secondary Memory

(Q-13). In CPU, ___________ controls the flow of data and instruction to and from memory, interprets the instruction and controls which tasks to execute and when. (a) (b)

Control Unit Athematic Logical Unit

ICA IPC IT-SM (c) (d)

Accumulators Register

(Q-14). ____________ provides capabilities required to support enterprise software systems. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Information Worker Software Enterprise Infrastructure Software Content Access Software Media Development Software

(Q-15). ____________ is the type of application software where multiple applications are bundled together and sold. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application Suits Enterprise Infrastructure Software Content Access Software Media Development Software

(Q-16). Enterprise Resource Planning software is most likely to be classified into: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application Suits Enterprise Infrastructure Software Enterprise Software Media Development Software

(Q-17). Video editing software is most likely to be classified into: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application Suits Enterprise Infrastructure Software Enterprise Software Media Development Software

(Q-18). Mobile stylus is a type of ______________: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Input device Output device Processing device Storage device

(Q-19). Which of the following is not a functional unit of a central processing unit? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Control Unit Arithmetic Logical Unit Processor Registers Cache Memory

(Q-20). A memory of the size of 4 Mega Byte is most likely to be a _____________. (a) (b)

Random Access Memory Cache Memory

(c) (d)

Register Secondary Memory

(Q-21). A memory of the size of 32 Bits is most likely to be a _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Random Access Memory Cache Memory Register Secondary Memory

(Q-22). A memory of the size of 16 Giga Byte is most likely to be a _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Random Access Memory Cache Memory Register Secondary Memory

(Q-23). Information System Layer consists of _______ layers. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Five Six Seven Eight

(Q-24). Which of the following is not a part of the Information System Layer? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application Software System Software Hardware Utility Software

(Q-25). Which of the following statement is not correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hardware is the tangible portion of the computer systems. Input devices are devices through which we interact with the systems. CPU consists of two functional units Registers are high speed memory within CPU

(Q-26). Which of the following statement is not correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Storage Registers temporarily stores data being sent to or coming from system memory Internal memory includes Processer Registers and Cache Memory RAM is volatile in nature where Information is lost as soon as power is turned off Modifying the contents of RAM is difficult

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-27). Which of the following is a general objective of audit? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Existence Valuation Compliance All of the above

(Q-28). Which of the following general objective of the audit ensures that transactions are recorded in the proper accounting period? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Existence Valuation Compliance Cut-off

(Q-29). Which of the following general objective of the audit ensures that accounting values fairly presents items worth? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Existence Valuation Compliance Cut-off

(Q-30). Which of the following general objective of the audit verifies that entity complies with laws, regulations, accounting standards etc.? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Existence Valuation Compliance Cut-off

(Q-31). Which of the following general objective of the audit verifies that assets, liabilities etc. are real and belongs to the company? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Existence Valuation Compliance Authorization

(Q-32). Which of the following general objective of the audit verifies that event occurred in accordance with management’s intent? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Existence Valuation Compliance Authorization

(Q-33). Audit procedure in the IT environment does not include ________________.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Study Technical Aspects Use Unique Techniques Audit Software Usage Availability of Audit Trail

(Q-34). ___________ arises when an organisation is heavily driven & dependent on technology. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Audit Risk Technology Risk Compliance Risk Accounting Risk

(Q-35). Information Systems control procedure may include ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Logical Access Controls Physical Access Controls Disaster Recovery Planning All of the above

(Q-36). Which of the following statement is not correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Each computer system must have a system software to function. Application software are optional & user might need them as per his requirements ROM is volatile in nature where Information is lost as soon as power is turned off Modifying the contents of RAM is not difficult

(Q-37). _________ enables the users to perform multiple things & tasks as per their requirements? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application software System software Operating system Random Access Memory

(Q-38). ________ can function without _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application software, System software System software, Application software Operating system, System software Application software, operating system

(Q-39). __________ needs _________ to operate. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Application software, System software System software, Application software Operating system, Application software System software, operating system

(Q-40). _________ holds data, programs & software etc. currently in use by the system.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Random Access Memory Cache Memory Register Secondary Memory

(Q-41). EPROM stands for ____________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory Electronically Programed Read-Only Memory Erasable Programmed Read-Only Memory Easily Programmable Read-Only Memory

(Q-42). _______ is independent of ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Software, Hardware Hardware, Software Hardware, Application software Application software, Hardware

(Q-43). Which of the following statement is not correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Primary memory is faster than secondary memory RAM is an example of Volatile memory RAM can be static or dynamic ROM is an example of volatile memory

(Q-44). How many types of RAM are there in the market? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Only One Two Three Four

(Q-45). Which of the following statement is not correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

ALU performs arithmetic & logical operations Virtual memory is a separate memory device which enhances RAM capacity RAM can be static or dynamic Modifying the contents of ROM is difficult

(Q-46). Which of the following statement is not correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Public cloud is a shared cloud computing service which can be accessed by any one Amazon Web Services is a Public Cloud Cache memory is an type of primary memory Private cloud is established and used by the company itself

(Q-47). Which of the following statement is not correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

WAN is basically internet Microsoft Azure is an example of Public Cloud Register is an example of primary memory Private cloud is established and used by the company itself

(Q-48). ____________ is a shared cloud computing service which can be accessed by anyone? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Private Cloud Public Cloud Community Cloud Hybrid Cloud

(Q-49). ____________ is a shared cloud computing service which can be accessed by members of a community only? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Private Cloud Public Cloud Community Cloud Hybrid Cloud

(Q-50). Which of the following statement is not correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Public cloud services are very scalable Private cloud services are used on pay-perusages basis Community cloud option is cheaper and secure Private cloud is established and used by the company itself

(Q-51). Which of the following statement is not correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hierarchical database model implements one to one & one to many relationship Network database Model permits many to many relationship also Bluetooth is a secure wired communication technology Private cloud is very secure

(Q-52). Which of the following statement is not correct? (a) (b) (c)

Android is owned by Google Inc. iOS is open source and openly customizable Bluetooth has a limited range

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Tablet computers are portable and weights upto 1 kg

(Q-53). Which of the following statement is not correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Android is open source software. iOS is owned by Apple Inc. Hardware are bulky & needs more storage space compared to software Software are independent of hardware

(d)

(Q-58). What are some of the outcomes of the nonexistence of efficient database management system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(Q-54). Hardware refers to___________________ (a) (b) (c) (d)

All computer parts except those which are soft, made of glass or plastic Devices performing Input, output, processing & data storage functions of a computer All connecting tubes, hoses, joints, cables and pipelines carrying IT cables All parts of the computer which are complex and hard to understand

(b) (c) (d)

Is a large, slow memory which is no longer used in computers Helps bridge speed difference between Registers and Primary Memory Is a virtual memory which is an image of another memory Is a memory where only valuable, secret information is stored

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(b) (c) (d)

Is volatile memory with large storage capacities Is non-volatile memory which is fast & responsive Is non-volatile memory with large storage capacities Involves higher cost per unit of information than RAM

(Q-57). Which of the following statement is incorrect about database management system application environment? (a) (b) (c)

Multiple users use data concurrently Helps in the application development The physical structure of the data is independent of user needs

Yes; there is risk of the operating system being compromised No; the application software prevents direct access to the OS No; the OS is a robust system which cannot be tampered with No, it is adequate if the application software is audited

(Q-60). What is a Database Management System? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(Q-56). Secondary Memory _______________ (a)

High redundancy and low data integrity Improved data sharing Reduced dependence between data and application software Better linkages between data originating from different sources

(Q-59). Does the Operating system need auditing?

(Q-55). Cache memory ________________ (a)

Each request for data access by the user must be analyzed by DBMS Administrator

A set of pre-loaded data relating to specific industries Customer profile data used for managing an organization Software for creation, control & manipulation of a database Hardware specifically designed to handle databases

(Q-61). What are the major risks of having a Database management system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Reduced speed of access to records High redundancy & duplication Reduced data integrity Cost and data security threats

(Q-62). Which of the following statement is associated with Relational Database Management System? (a) (b) (c)

Records have a one to many relationship in parent/child format Collection of one or more relations in twodimensional table form Records have many-to-many relationship in network form

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Data is organized in a tree structure, in hierarchical format

(Q-63). The Arithmetical & Logical unit of the CPU ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Can also be Accumulators Performs mathematical & logical operations Can also be Address Registers Controls flow of data & instructions to and from memory

(Q-64). The Front-end in Cloud computing refers to _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

The Client's computer alone; the access software is available on the cloud The various computers, servers & data storage systems in the cloud system The software available on the cloud computing systems The Client's computer as well as the software required to access the cloud

(Q-65). The back-end in Cloud computing refers to _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

The Client's computer alone; the access software is available on the cloud The various computers, servers & data storage systems in the cloud system The software available on the cloud computing systems The Client's computer as well as the software required to access the cloud

(Q-66). The Indian fertilizer industry depends on Government subsidies. The Government has evolved a complicated mechanism for deciding the subsidy level for each type of fertilizer depending upon various factors like price of the raw material, exchange rate, conversion costs, etc. The industry association are considering some kind of cloud computing facility but as the cost involved is very high, they have finally decided to establish a cloud where each participant can share the computing resources. Such a cloud facility would be deemed to be a ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Public Cloud facility Private Cloud facility Community Cloud facility Hybrid Cloud facility

(Q-67). One of your client's managers tells you that they have recently opted for some cloud computing facilities. Being a non-IT official, he says he does not understand what exactly is meant but he told that they have opted for a model of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS). What according to you, IaaS model involves _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Provision of processing, storage, secure networks & other computing resources Provision of various types of software on the cloud which can be used by any client Provision of hardware & other basic IT infrastructure over the cloud Provision of secure network communication

(Q-68). A company that uses de-centralized computing usually goes for _______ client or _______ client. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Thin, Thick Thick, Hybrid Thin, Hybrid None of the above

(Q-69). _______ topology is best suited when the entity needs highest level of fault tolerance: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Ring network Bus network Mesh network Star network

(Q-70). Which of the following network is not likely to use the wireless telecommunication media: (a) (b) (c) (d)

LAN MAN WAN Internet

(Q-71). Transmission of data from the mouse to computer is configured in _________ mode: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simples Half-duplex Full-duplex Packet transmission

(Q-72). Which of the following is not a risk of ecommerce? (a) (b) (c)

Repudiation of contract Attack from hackers Denial of Service

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Increase in competition

(Q-73). In the OSI Model, which of the following layer is closest to the end user? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Data-link Session Physical Network

(Q-74). In the OSI Model, which of the following layer is farthest to the end user? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Data-link Session Physical Network

(Q-75). _______ is a secure network that uses the Internet as its main backbone network, but relies on the firewalls and other security features? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Intranet Local Area Network Wide Area Network Virtual Private Network

(Q-76). Ignorance of the end users can cause _________ in the system. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Threat Vulnerability Difficulties Technical glitches

(Q-77). Which of the following is not a network security technique? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Intrusion Detection System Firewall Anti-malware HTTP

(Q-78). In the OSI Model, _______________ stands between the session layer and Network layer? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Transport layer Application layer Presentation layer Network layer

(Q-79). Protocol, in IT, is __________________ (a) (b)

The basis for allotment of new computers Arrangement of employee directories

(c) (d)

Set of rules for Communication between systems Proper behaviour while using computers

(Q-80). Data transmission _____________ (a) (b) (c) (d)

Can be only through a voltage signal & not through radio or microwave Is always digital in nature; one cannot transfer data in analog form Is the transmission of data over a communication channel Can happen only through a copper wire or optical fiber

(Q-81). Full Duplex communication ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cannot handle two-way communication Is the most expensive method in terms of equipment cost Cannot handle simultaneous two-way communication Is cheaper than Simplex communication

(Q-82). Which of the following features of LAN is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Have very limited or no practical use Security is low and error rates high Interconnects devices within a limited geographical area Installation and maintenance is cumbersome

(Q-83). What are the features of a Twisted pair cable? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Comprises two separate insulated wires in a twisted pattern that run parallel Comprises 4 separate insulated wires in a twisted pattern run parallel to each other Comprises 2 separate insulated wires in a twisted but non-parallel pattern It is a form of unguided transmission media

(Q-84). Which of the following are unguided transmission media? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Optical Fiber Cables Co-axial cables Twisted pair cables Radio Waves

(Q-85). What is a Hub? (a)

Hardware device with multiport connectivity

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) (c) (d)

It offers intelligence in interpreting data received by it Expensive device for transport of data between devices Connects LANs and amplifies data

(Q-86). What is a Switch? (a) (b) (c) (d)

It does not offer intelligence in interpreting data received by it It increases congestion & slows up the network It is a special type of hub with additional layer of intelligence which reads the MAC address It is a alternative of network interface card

(Q-87). What are the features of Mesh topology? (a) (b) (c) (d)

All computers are connected to a single cable Involves physical connection of every node with every other node Connects computers to a central hub Ideally suited for systems with need for low degree of fault tolerance

(Q-88). What are the features of Packet switching? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Needs P2P connection for transmission Breaks up a message into smaller packets for transmission Packets in each message need to travel in the same path & sequence As sequential transmission happen, receiving devices need not reassemble the packets

(Q-89). Which of the following statement is correct about Message switching? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Data is stored at switching point & sent forward whenever pathway is available Data is transmitted to all the recipient simultaneously Data is broken into packets and then transmitted in the same path & sequence Most used approach of transmission

(Q-90). The sequence of layers in a typical TCP/IP protocol is __________ (a) (b)

Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data link, Application Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical

(c) (d)

Application, Transport, Internet Protocol, Network Interface, Physical Layer Physical, Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Physical

(Q-91). The objective of Network Layer in the OSI Model is _______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

To provide security through encryption To decide which physical path information should follow from source to destination Carrying out the multiplexing activities Converting the message into packets

(Q-92). The Data Link Layer ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Performs the task of delivery of data over the local networks Starts, coordinates & terminates the session Carry out encryption and multiplexing Provides the path through which data moves among network devices

(Q-93). A Host Based Firewall is a device deployed ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Between networks for restricting movement of selected traffic between networks Within networks for restricting movement of selected traffic types within the networks Between networks for protecting network linkages but not the hosts on the network On a single host within network restricting incoming/outgoing traffic for that host alone

(Q-94). Any message that is converted into unintelligible (not-understandable) form is considered to be in _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Ciphertext form Plaintext form Understandable form Coded form

(Q-95). The process of converting a given plaintext into ciphertext form is called ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Decryption Translation Transcription Encryption

(Q-96). The process of converting ciphertext back into plaintext form is called _____________.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Transcription Encryption Decryption Translation

(Q-97). The mathematical function used for encryption & decryption is ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Binomial analysis Cryptographic Algorithm Transcription Algorithm Exponential function

(Q-98). A Cryptographic algorithm _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Must be difficult to use but easy to crack Must be easy both to use and crack Must be easy to use but difficult to crack Must be difficult to use as well as to crack

(Q-99). Virtual Private Network (VPN) __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Can operate between two private networks but not the Internet Does not provide confidentiality & integrity over un-trusted networks Not compatible on internet operations Uses Internet as its main backbone network

(Q-100). Ms. A orders five salwar-kameez sets on the Myntra website for her private purposes. She uses the wireless communication facility for carrying out this task. Which model of e-commerce it would be? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Business-to-Business Consumer-to-Consumer Business-to-Government Business-to-Consumer

(Q-101). You are being briefed by an accountant in your client's office who has limited knowledge of IT. He speaks of the type of cable which has been chosen by his IT department for transmission of information. He explains that the cable's positive features include high integrity, low error over long distances, high carrying capacity etc. He also feels that it comprises an inner core made of glass or plastic type of material. What can be this cable? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Optical fiber cable Co-axial cable Twisted pair cable Bi-metallic cable

(Q-102). You have recently taken on a Travel agency as your client. You are familiarizing yourself with the agency & its operations. You are told that they use network of computers which are designed as per Bus topology. You realize then that the agency's computer system involves ____________ (a) (b) (c) (d)

A single hub connecting all nodes Connection of its computers on a single circle of cable Connection of computers on a single backbone cable Connection of every node to every other node

(Q-103). You have signed on for an audit of an Internet service provider (ISP) which advertises itself as the most reliable service provider. What kind of network topology do you think the ISP have? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Ring topology Star topology Mesh topology Bus topology

(Q-104). Your client develops a auction website for purchase of various raw materials. The client accesses the platform through the internet. Several suppliers register themselves with the platform & participate in the auction on the planned date. Which model of e-commerce would this fall in __________? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Business-to-Government Business-to-Consumer Business-to-Business Consumer-to-Consumer

(Q-105). Delhi Government has developed a portal for the payment of utility bills, etc. Which model of ecommerce would this fall in __________? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Business-to-Business Business-to-Government Consumer-to-Consumer E-Government

(Q-106). In the large organisations, AI generally means _________ & BI means ________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Advanced Intelligence, Basic Intelligence Advanced Intelligence, Business Intelligence Artificial Intelligence, Business Intelligence Artificial Intelligence, Basic Intelligence

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-107). In BI, ___________ mechanism is used to transforms data obtained from different sources into the common form so to load it into data warehouse. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Knowledge Creation Facility Data Study & Analysis Extract, Transmit, Load Exchange, Transform, Load

(Q-108). Which of the following is not a Business Intelligence Tool? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple Reporting & Querying Business Analysis Dashboard Data Warehouse

(Q-109). Which of the following Business Intelligence Tool is most basic? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple Reporting & Querying Business Analysis Dashboard Data Mining

(Q-110). Which of the following BI Tool works on the principle of “Tell me what happened”? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple Reporting & Querying Business Analysis Dashboard Data Mining

(Q-111). Which of the following BI Tool works on the principle of ‘Tell me what happened & why'? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple Reporting & Querying Business Analysis Dashboard Data Mining

(Q-112). Which of the following BI Tool works on the principle of “Tell me a lot things without too much efforts”? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple Reporting & Querying Business Analysis

Scorecard Data Mining

(Q-114). Which of the following BI Tool offer a rich visual representation of the performance of specific initiatives, business units, or the enterprise as a whole? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple Reporting & Querying Business Analysis Scorecard Data Mining

(Q-115). In the business world, XBRL stands for ____. (a) (b) (c) (d)

eXtensible Business Recording Language eXtensible Basic Reporting Language eXtensible Business Reporting Literature eXtensible Business Reporting Language

(Q-116). XBRL uses ________ as its backbone. (a) (b) (c) (d)

HTTPs Technology Cryptography Technology XML Technology HTML Technology

(Q-117). In the context of XBRL, XML stands for ____. (a) (b) (c) (d)

eXtensible Multi-Dimensional Language eXtensible Markup Literature eXtensible Markup Language eXtensible Manageable Language

(Q-118). Consider the following statements about the XBRL: (i)

International standard language for business reporting purposes (ii) Stands for eXtensible Business Reporting Literature (iii) Uses SSL as its backbone technology (iv) Has streamlined the business reporting task Which of the above statements are correct?

Simple Reporting & Querying Business Analysis Dashboard Data Mining

(Q-113). Which of the following BI Tool helps in recognizing pattern & trends among the data contained in data warehouse? (a) (b)

(c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii) & (iii) Only (i) & (iv) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only (i) & (iii) Only

(Q-119). Access controls has four functions. Which of the following is not one of them? (a) (b)

Identity Management Authentication

ICA IPC IT-SM (c) (d)

Automation Accountability

(Q-120). Which of the following function of Access control assigns & manages the identity of users trying to access the system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Identity Management Authentication Authorization Accountability

(Q-121). Which of the following function of Access control ensures that everything is logged & recorded? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Identity Management Authentication Authorization Accountability

(Q-122). Which of the following is a major approach of establishing Access Control? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Relation Based Access control Responsibility Based Access control Role Based Access control Right Based Access control

(Q-123). Which of the approach of Access Control establishment, rules are specified that indicate what can & cannot happen between users & system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Rule Based Access control Responsibility Based Access control Role Based Access control Right Based Access control

(Q-124). Which of the fundamental principle of information security, states that users should be given only those rights with regard to the information system which are essential to that user's work? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Principle of Random Privilege Principle of Restricted Privilege Principle of Access Privilege Principle of Least Privilege

(Q-125). PayUMoney, PayPal etc. are the example of ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

ERP System Payment Gateway CORE Banking Software Payment Processing Software

(Q-126). To protect the credit card from online fraud, the common security standard developed by Visa & Master Card is _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

HTTPs Standard Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) Standard Secure e-Commerce Transaction (SET) Standard Secure Online Payment (SOP) Standard

(Q-127). Which of the following is the first step involved in the processing of credit card? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Batching Authorization Funding Clearing

(Q-128). Which of the following is the second-last step involved in the processing of credit card? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Batching Authorization Funding Clearing

(Q-129). In which step of credit card processing, merchant is paid for the transaction, and cardholder is billed for the transaction? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Batching Authorization Funding Clearing

(Q-130). Consider the following statements about the Electronic Cheque: (i)

Instrument where a person issues it to pay another person but no paper is involved (ii) Environmentally friendly (iii) Subject to online frauds (iv) FSTC, CyberCash Inc. & MoneySecure are the Corporations that developed e-cheque technology Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii) & (iii) Only (i) & (iv) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only (i) & (iii) Only

(Q-131). Consider the following statements about the Credit Card:

ICA IPC IT-SM (i) RuPay has become a major credit card network in India (ii) First step involved in the credit card processing is batching (iii) Credit card is subject to online frauds (iv) Least used medium of making e-payment Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii) & (iii) Only (i) & (iv) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) Only (i) & (iii) Only

(Q-132). Which of the following is not a type of smart card? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Contact Cards Contact less Card Secured Card Hybrid Cards

(Q-133). Which of the following type of smart card is needed to be inserted into the reader to function? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Contact Cards Contact less Card Secured Card Hybrid Cards

(Q-134). _______ is the first step and ______ is the last step involved in the Online Transaction Processing in the E-Commerce Environment. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Offering, Receipt Advertising, Resolving Offering, Resolving Selling, Delivery

(Q-135). You as an IT consultant observes that the TPS of a Branch of a Bank does not carry debit and credit of corresponding accounts at the same time. Which criteria of Acid test is missing? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Atomicity Consistency Isolation Durability

(Q-136). Which of the following BIS is the most comprehensive within itself? (a) (b) (c)

TPS OAS DSS

(d)

ESS

(Q-137). The information system used by operational level employees are: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Executive Information System Decision Support System Office Automation System Transaction Processing System

(Q-138). The information system used by knowledge level employees are: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Executive Information System Decision Support System Office Automation System Transaction Processing System

(Q-139). The information system generally used by the divisional level managers are: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Executive Information System Decision Support System Office Automation System Transaction Processing System

(Q-140). The most probable information system to be used by CFO of the organisation will be: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Executive Information System Decision Support System Office Automation System Transaction Processing System

(Q-141). Management information systems (MIS): (a) (b) (c) (d)

Create and share documents that support day-today office activities Process business transactions Capture and reproduce the knowledge of an expert problem solver Produce information needed by managers to run the business and make decisions

(Q-142). The manager of ABC Ltd. is planning when to launch their new product and the price at which it should be launched. Which information system can assist them in this regard? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Transaction Processing System Office Automation System Decision Support System Knowledge Management System

(Q-143). Which business intelligence tools provides various data in the form of snapshot to users.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple Reporting & Overlying Business Analysis Dash Boards Data Mining

(Q-144). Which of the following component of the Supply Chain Management ensures that everything is linked from the beginning to the end? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Procurement Operations Integration Distribution

(Q-145). How many steps are involved in the processing of credit card? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Three Four Five Six

(Q-146). In Computer Networks, OSI Model, ______ defines the relationship between a device and a physical medium. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Physical Layer Data Link Layer Network Layer Session Layer

(Q-147). An aspiring CA in his interview was asked to provide correct sequence of the following subprocesses that represent Procure to Pay Process Flow. The sub processes are - (1) Purchase Order, (2) Receipts, (3) Request for Quote (RFQ), (4) Purchase Requisition, (5) Payments, and (6) Quotation. What should be the sequence? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1)-(2)-(3)-(4)-(5)-(6) (4)-(3)-(6)-(1)-(2)-(5) (1)-(4)-(3)-(5)-(6)-(2) (5)-(3)-(1)-(2)-(4)-(6)

(Q-148). To qualify as a Transaction Processing System (TPS), transactions made by the system must pass the ACID Test – Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation and Durability. Which feature under ACID Test refers to the pre-requisite that “Once transactions are completed, they cannot be undone”. (a) (b) (c)

Atomicity Consistency Isolation

(d)

Durability

(Q-149). Google App Engine is an example of ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Network as a Service (NaaS) Platform as a Service (PaaS) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Communication as a Service (CaaS)

(Q-150). In Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Model, _______ provides for full-duplex, half-duplex or simplex operation; and establishes check pointing; adjournment, termination, and restart procedures. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Network Layer Presentation Layer Transport Layer Session Layer

(Q-151). Which of the following step is not involved in an Application Access Control mechanism process? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Identification Authentication Confidentiality Authorization

(Q-152). All are types of Expert System, except: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Example Based Rule Based Frame Based Policy Based

(Q-153). Which of the following steps in an accounting process is nor an Input and nor an Output. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Source Document Balance Sheet Journal Profit and Loss Account

(Q-154). SaaS model in cloud computing is a good example of: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Custom Built Application Leased Application Packaged Software Bought out Application

(Q-155). A security guard at the gate of ATM is an example of: (a) (b)

Preventive Control Detective Control

ICA IPC IT-SM (c) (d)

Corrective Control Administrative Control

(Q-156). The term "logical view of computing resources rather than physical view", define which technology. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Grid Computing Virtualization Time Sharing System Thin Clients

(Q-157). A school system send a SMS to parent's of student if attendance has not been marked on school's bio‐metric attendance system. This is a good example of ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Attendance System Biometric System Business Process Automation Business Process

(Q-158). System providing information to help management to launch a new product shall be best classified as ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Management Level System Operational Level System Knowledge Level System Strategic Level System

(Q-159). Which network device is used to extend a BUS network? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hub Switch Modem Repeater

(Q-160). Protocol defines the following aspects of digital communication except, (a) (b) (c) (d)

Source Semantics Timing Syntax

(Q-161). TATA Steel Ltd., allows its vendors to login to its system through Login Ids and passwords. This is a good example of ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Internet Intranet Extranet World Wide Web (WWW)

(Q-162). 5 Right's, namely; Right Time, Right Customer, Right Price, Right Place and Right Product are part of _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) Customer Relationship Management (CRM) Supply Chain Management (SCM) Core Banking System (CBS)

(Q-163). Vouchers would be part of which system. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Transaction Processing System (TPS) Knowledge Management Systems (KMS) Decision Support System (DSS) Enterprise Information Systems (EIS)

(Q-164). For an organization that is subject to changing business needs, which network architecture would be preferred. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Two Tier Three Tier Single Tier Application Tier

(Q-165). Which of the following is not a component of Decision Support System (DSS)? (a) (b) (c) (d)

User Database Model Base Artificial Intelligence (AI)

(Q-166). All but one can be used as an input as well as an output device. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Keyboard Printer ATM Monitor Scanner

(Q-167). Companies are using special software to help employee perform better as a team. Select the ODD one out. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Teamware Collaboration Software Groupware Hardware

(Q-168). Which symbol in flowchart will always have at least two outputs? (a) (b) (c)

Process Document Decision

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Start

(Q-169). In a proposed system, entity finds that system does not have an option to modify rates of TDS. The need may arise whenever law changes in future. This failure may be defined as failure of: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Economic Feasibility Legal Feasibility Operational Feasibility Schedule Feasibility

(Q-170). Tick the incorrect statement (a)

(b) (c)

(d)

Variable length instructions are commonly used with Complex Instruction Set Computer (CISC) machines Memory space is wasted by Complex Instruction Set Computer (CISC) Fixed length instructions are commonly used with Reduced Instruction Set Computer (RISC) processors. Fixed length instructions are commonly used on Complex Instruction Set Computer (CISC) machines

(Q-171). In terms of Entity Relationship Diagram, which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Boxes are commonly used to represent entities. Diamonds are normally used to represent relationships. Diamonds are normally used to for decision making. Ovals are used to represent attributes

(Q-172). In terms of Computer Network Topology, which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) (b) (c)

(d)

Star network has a central unit that has a number of terminals tied into it. In Bus network, even if one node fails, it does not affect the entire network. Ring networks do not require a central computer to control activity nor does it need a file server. In Mesh network, if one node fails, the whole system breaks down.

(Q-173). Which of the threat is not covered under Security Management Controls? (a)

Natural Calamities

(b) (c) (d)

Structural Damage Pollution Hackers

(Q-174). While moving from traditional approach to modern approach during use of BPM technology, which step is added to traditional approach. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Presentation Process Database Application

(Q-175). Which of the following is not true about Secondary Storage memory devices? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Random Access Memory (RAM) is an example of Secondary Storage device. Greater capacity (they are available in large size) Non-volatile (contents are permanent in nature) Slow speed (slower in speed compared to registers or primary storage)

ICA IPC IT-SM

Answers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 169 170

(d) (a) (c) (c) (d) (d) (d) (a) (c) (d) (b) (b) (a) (b) (a) (c) (d) (a) (d) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d) (c) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (a) (d) (d) (b) (d) (c) (a) (b) (a) (a) (a) (b) (b) (d)

43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 171 172

Answers (d) (b) (b) (c) (c) (b) (c) (b) (c) (b) (d) (b) (b) (c) (d) (a) (a) (c) (d) (b) (b) (d) (b) (c) (c) (b) (c) (a) (a) (d) (b) (c) (d) (b) (d) (a) (c) (c) (b) (c) (a) (d) (c) (d)

85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 173 175

(a) (c) (b) (b) (a) (c) (b) (a) (d) (a) (d) (c) (b) (c) (d) (d) (a) (c) (c) (c) (d) (c) (c) (d) (a) (a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d) (c) (c) (b) (c) (a) (d) (c) (a) (d) (b) (b) (a) (a)

127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 174

(b) (d) (c) (a) (d) (c) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) (c) (b) (a) (d) (c) (c) (c) (b) (a) (b) (d) (b) (d) (c) (d) (c) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) (a) (c) (c) (a) (b) (d) (c) (d) (c) (b)

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) Survival, Efficiency (c) Survival, Survival (d) Efficiency, Survival (Q-6). The ultimate objective pursued by the business is ________________. (Q-1). ______________ refers to the state of being busy by an individual, group, organisation or society in their regular occupation or profession. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Trading Occupation Business Adventure

(Q-2). Consider the following given statements about business: (i) (ii)

Business exists for profit only Regularity is an essential component to constitute business (iii) There can also be businesses where profit is not a prime objective (iv) Business is influenced by environment Which of the above statements are correct: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only All of the above

(Q-3). Which of the following statement relates to the conclusions made by Peter Drucker about business? (a) Business should focus on attaining the financial objectives only (b) Survival is the most important objective of business (c) Business exists for profit only (d) Business is created and managed by people

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Profitability Survival Effectiveness Efficiency

(Q-7). Which of the following is not true about profitability? (a) Profitability is the universal objective pursued by every type of organisation (b) Profitability is essential for the growth of the organisation (c) Profitability is the ultimate objective of the private sector businesses (d) For becoming profitable, survival and stability of the organisation is essential (Q-8). ____________ is essential as it provides ___________ to the organisation. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Profitability, Survival Survival, Efficiency Survival, Stability Efficiency, Competitiveness

(Q-9). Consider the following statements about business and its objectives: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Business are conducted to pursue multiple rather than single objective There are many organisations for which profitability is not a prime objective Survival becomes more crucial during initial stage of the business & during financial crises Organizations who are not efficient becomes competitive in the long run.

Which of the above statements are correct: (Q-4). Which of the following is not a primary objective pursued by the business? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Profitability Survival Social service Efficiency

(Q-5). ____________ is the most basic objective and businesses wants more than just ____________. (a) Profitability, Profitability

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only All of the above

(Q-10). For the profit-oriented organisations, all objectives are facilitative and are meant to be serve the ________ objective of the organization. (a) Profitability (b) Growth

ICA IPC IT-SM (c) Effectiveness (d) Efficiency (Q-11). Profit maximization is short term approach and successful businesses considers long term approach like development of wealth for its owners and also several non-financial factors such as goodwill, social reputation and so on. This statement relates to: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Michael Porter Glueck and Jauch Peter F Drucker Heinz Weihrich

(Q-12). Consider the following statements about the business environment: (i)

Environment is sum of several external and internal forces that affect the functioning of the business organisation (ii) Businesses function within a whole gambit of relevant environment and have to negotiate their way through it (iii) A business that remains most passive to its environment will be most successful (iv) Business environment largely remains static over the period of time Which of the above statements are correct: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (ii) only

(Q-13). Businesses organisations function within a whole gambit of relevant environment called business environment and should ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Control it Negotiate with it Ignore it Modify it

(Q-14). The success of a business depends upon how well it ___________ its environment. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Controls Interacts with Ignores Influences

(Q-15). Consider the following statements about the business: (i)

Main function of entity is conversion of inputs into outputs through processing

(ii) Inputs are taken from the environment (iii) Environmental factors influence only the input components of the business function (iv) Business environment largely remains static over the period of time Which of the above statements are correct: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (ii) only

(Q-16). _________ is the process by which organization monitors its relevant environment to identify the opportunities & threats and draws conclusions for the purpose of making strategic decisions. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Environmental analysis Environmental scanning Environmental study Environmental influence

(Q-17). Factors considered in environmental scanning does not include: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Events Trends Influences Expectations

(Q-18). In the context of environmental scanning, _________ are happenings in the environment that needs consideration by the entity. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Events Trends Issues Expectations

(Q-19). In the context of environmental scanning, _________ are grouping of related _______ that tends to move in a given direction. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Events, Trends Trends, Events Issues, Events Events, Issues

(Q-20). In the context of environmental scanning, ______ are concern arises due to _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Events, Trends Trends, Events Issues, Expectations Issues, Trends

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-21). Which of the following is not a major area of relationship between the entity and its environment? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Exchange of Resources Exchange of Information Exchange of Direction Exchange of Influence and Power

(Q-22). Consider the following statements about the business environment: (i)

To get the necessary information, organization should scan the environment & draws relevant information it needs (ii) External environment holds considerable power over the organization. (iii) Organisation may also becomes so powerful to influence the environment in totality (iv) There is never-ending exchange of resources between organization & environment Which of the above statements are correct: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) only Point (i), (ii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (ii) only

(Q-23). Which of the following is not a characteristic of business environment? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Environment is complex Environment is Dynamic Environment is multi-faceted Environment in uncertain

(Q-24). Environment consist number of factors both internal & external which makes the environment ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Complex Stable Multi-faceted Irrelevant

(Q-25). The same change occurring in the environment may be considered as opportunity by one entity and threat by another entity. It is because ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Environment is complex Environment is Dynamic Environment is multi-faceted Environment is uncertain

(Q-26). _______ may not be a universal objective but ____________ is definitely an objective common to all business.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Stability, Survival Profitability, Efficiency Efficiency, Growth Stability, Efficiency

(Q-27). Who is the most powerful in the following? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Internal Environment External Environment Organisation Government

(Q-28). Consider the following statements about environmental scanning: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Trends are grouping of related events Events follows trends Trends follows events Events are grouping of related trends

Which of the above statements are correct: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (iii) only

(Q-29). The reason of doing environmental analysis does not includes __________. (a) Provides an understanding of the current & potential changes taking place (b) Provides input for strategic decision making (c) Environmental is multi-faceted (d) Facilitate strategic thinking in the organization (Q-30). Which of the following is not a problem associated with environment that managers faces? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Complexity Diversity Uncertainty Dynamic

(Q-31). Which of the following provides the scope of business expansion? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strength Weakness Opportunity Threat

(Q-32). Company manages to expand the business only if strength gets linked with ______________. (a) Strength

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) Weakness (c) Opportunity (d) Threat (Q-33). Who among the following holds the most significant influence over the organization? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Employee Manager Owner Suppliers

(Q-34). _______ refers to a favourable condition available in the environment which if turned in its favour, enable the company to strengthen its position. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strength Weakness Opportunity Threat

(Q-35). _______ refers to the internal capacity which provides an organization strategic advantage over its competitors. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strength Weakness Opportunity Threat

(Q-36). _______ refers to the internal limitation which creates a strategic disadvantage for the company. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strength Weakness Opportunity Threat

(Q-37). _______ refers to the unfavourable condition in the environment which might create a risk for the organization. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strength Weakness Opportunity Threat

(Q-38). Consider the following statements about the business environment: Business environment can be broadly divided into two parts External & Internal (ii) Environment is complex, diverse & uncertain (iii) External environment includes all factors inside the organization (iv) Internal environment gives understanding about the opportunities and threats

Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (ii) only

(Q-39). The analysis of the internal environment of the organisation provides an understanding about the ___________ and __________ of the organization. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strength, Weakness Weakness, Threat Opportunity, Threat Threat, Strength

(Q-40). The analysis of the external environment of the organisation provides an understanding about the ___________ and __________ prevailing in the environment of the organization. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strength, Weakness Weakness, Threat Opportunity, Threat Threat, Strength

(Q-41). Micro environmental factor does not include which of the following? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Consumer Organisation Demography Suppliers

(Q-42). Consider the following statements about the micro environment: (i) (ii)

Also known as Task Environment Micro environment factor are specific to industry in which organisation operates (iii) Intermediaries are part of micro environment (iv) Market is not the part of micro environment Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (iii) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (ii) only

(i)

(Q-43). Which of the following may be attributed to the Demographic environment? (a) Change in interest rate (b) Change in population (c) Change in technology

ICA IPC IT-SM (d) Change in GDP (Q-44). The simplest form of a business organization is _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Company Sole- proprietorship Limited Liability Partnership Cooperative society

(Q-45). Micro environmental factor does not include which of the following? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Competitors Intermediaries Organisation Technology

(Q-46). ___________ are those who completes for the same resources like customers, markets etc.? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Competitors Intermediaries Suppliers Technology

(Q-47). In the context of micro environment, which of the following is not the part of the organisation? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Owners Shareholders Directors Employees

(Q-48). Consider the following statements about the micro environment: (i)

Intermediaries exert a considerable influence on the business organizations. (ii) Competitors also puts significant influence in the organisation (iii) Demography is part of micro environment (iv) Technology is not part of micro environment Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (iii) only Point (i), (ii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (ii) only

(Q-49). While understanding the competitors, which of the following question is not considered? (a) Who are the competitors? (b) What are competitor’s strategies & objectives? (c) What is the Life cycle of the market? (d) Who is most aggressive & power competitor?

(Q-50). An analysis of external environment enables a firm to identify? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strengths and opportunities Strengths and weaknesses Weaknesses and threats Opportunities and threats

(Q-51). Raising income taxes would be included in which component of PESTLE analysis? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Socio-cultural Political Economic Technology

(Q-52). In PESTLE Analysis, L stands for ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Loans and advances Legal Liability Legality

(Q-53). In PESTLE Analysis, S stands for ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Supplier Socio-cultural Shareholders Strength

(Q-54). Proper waste disposal mechanism would be included in which component of PESTLE analysis? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Socio-cultural Political Economic Environmental

(Q-55). Governmental policies would be included in which component of PESTLE analysis? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Socio-cultural Political Economic Environmental

(Q-56). Macro environmental factor will not include which of the following? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Socio-cultural Political-legal Economic Environmental

(Q-57). Macro environmental factor will not include which of the following? (a) Socio-cultural (b) Political-legal (c) Global

ICA IPC IT-SM (d) Competitor (Q-58). Which of the following is not the part of demographic environmental factor? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Population size Geographic distribution Ethnic-mix Population distribution

(Q-59). Consider the following statements about the Macro environment: (i)

Government is the part of Political-legal environment (ii) Income distribution pattern is the part of economic environment (iii) Demographic factors denotes population characteristics like size, age, gender mix etc. (iv) Technology is not part of macro environment Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (iii) only Point (i), (ii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (ii) only

(Q-60). Which of the following is not an aspect to be considered in the technological environment? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Is R&D department of the entity effective? What is family values, family structure? What is the pace of change in technology? How company manages technologies?

(Q-61). Which of the following is not an aspect to be considered in the socio-cultural environment? (a) (b) (c) (d)

What is role of women in society, family etc. What is family values, family structure? What is the pace of change in technology? What is social values like customs, believe?

(Q-62). Which of the following is not an aspect to be considered in the economic environment? (a) What is interest, inflation, tax rates? (b) What is Money markets rates? (c) What is the monetary & fiscal policies of the Government? (d) What is social values like customs, believe? (Q-63). Consider the following statements about the Macro environment: (i)

Legal environment refers the laws and regulations which affects the business

(ii)

Companies prefer to work in countries having political stability & business friendly policies (iii) Demography environment denotes population characteristics like its size, age, gender mix etc. (iv) Geographic distribution is the part of economic environment. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (iii) only Point (i), (ii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (ii) only

(Q-64). Consider the following statements about the business environment: (i) (ii)

Technology is the part of micro environment The constitutes of organisation are owners, promoters and employees (iii) Macro environmental factors are usually industry specific (iv) Customers are the part of micro environment Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (iii) only Point (i), (ii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (iii) & (iv) only

(Q-65). Taxation policy related aspect is the part of _____________ . (a) (b) (c) (d)

Demographic Environment Economic Environment Technological Environment Socio-cultural Environment

(Q-66). PESTLE Analysis is the framework for the study of _____________ . (a) (b) (c) (d)

Micro Environment Macro Environment Internal Environment Both (a) & (b)

(Q-67). Which of these is one of Porter's Five Forces? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Bargaining power of employees Pace of technological change Threat from substitutes Industry operating profit margin

(Q-68). Porter's Five Forces Model is essentially a model about ________________.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Market segmentation Profitability analysis Competitive rivalry Corporate strategy evaluation

(Q-69). Which of the following is not an element of Porter’s 5 Forces Model? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Potential competition from new entrants Firm’s existing competition Firm’s macroeconomic environment Bargaining power of suppliers

(Q-70). Low growth or declining markets are usually associated with ________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Lower competitive rivalry Higher prices and industry profits Lower numbers of new entrants Price competition thus low profitability

(Q-71). According to you in which of the following industry there is supply concentrated in the hands of just a few suppliers is ____________? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Paper manufacturing Passenger aircraft manufacturing Garment manufacturing Cement manufacturing

(Q-72). What is likely to happen if too many new businesses enter a market? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Industry profits will increase Industry capacity will fall Competitive rivalry will intensify Barriers to entry will rise

(Q-73). A market will usually be more difficult to enter if there is ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Distribution channels are well developed Patented or proprietary technologies Low brand loyalty Easy availability of capital

(Q-74). In the context of Porter’s Five Forces Model, which of these situations is likely to cause high bargaining power of suppliers? (a) Resource inputs are not essential to product (b) Homogeneous products low brand loyalty (c) Few large suppliers dominate market supply (d) Many alternative sources of supply (Q-75). What is the main purpose of Porter’s Five Forces Model? (a) Manage product portfolios (b) Decide which products to launch

(c) Analyse competition in a market (d) Evaluating investment decisions (Q-76). As per Porter’s five forces model, a significant reduction in barriers to entry should result in: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Higher industry profits Lower availability of substitutes Higher intensive of competitive rivalry Lower intensity of competitive rivalry

(Q-77). Which of the following tends to increase the competitive rivalry? (a) (b) (c) (d)

High barriers to entry Low fixed costs Market dominated by one competitor High industry growth rate

(Q-78). Consider the following statements in the context of Michael Porter’s Five forces model: (i)

New entrants in the industry are always a powerful source of competition. (ii) The bargaining power of suppliers affects the selling price of the product (iii) The bargaining power of the customers affects the cost of raw material (iv) Substitute products are a latent source of competition in an industry Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (iii) & (iv) only

(Q-79). In Porter's five forces model, conditions are more favourable for firms within an industry if ___________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Buyer’s bargaining power is high Supplier’s bargaining power is high Entry threat of new players is low Threat from substitute product is high

(Q-80). When buyers are able to join together to put the pressure on supplier, this is which of the Porter's Five Forces? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Threat of new entrants Threat from substitute products Bargaining power of customers Bargaining power of suppliers

(Q-81). OPEC is an example of _____________. (a) Kieretsus

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) Cartelization (c) Association (d) Conglomerate (Q-82). Which of the following is not an example of political risk? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Government policies Civil unrest Production capacity War with other countries

(Q-83). A powerful and widely used model for the analysis of competition in the industry is ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Value chain analysis Porter’s five forces model Dynamic response policy Environmental analysis

(Q-84). ___________ is a loosely-coupled group of companies operating in related industry who are peers & have board managers in common. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Kieretsus Cartelization Association Conglomerate

(Q-85). Consider the following statements about Japanese Kieretsus: (i)

Loosely-coupled group of companies operating in related industry (ii) Member companies in Kieretsus are subject to some common ownership (iii) Provides competitive advantage to the entity (iv) Conglomerate and Kieretsus are same Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (iii) only Point (i), (ii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (iii) & (iv) only

(Q-86). Which of the following is not a method of responding to the environmental changes? (a) Least resistance (b) Proceed with caution (c) Dramatic response (d) Dynamic response (Q-87). The most sophisticated method of responding to the environmental changes is _____________. (a) Least resistance

(b) Proceed with caution (c) Dramatic response (d) Dynamic response (Q-88). Consider the following statements about the competitive environment: (i)

Organisation working in different industries can never have co-operation with each other (ii) Entities operating in competitive environment may have to cooperate with each other (iii) Entity must have a very sound understanding of its competitive environment. (iv) Competition is always bad for the economy Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) only Point (i), (ii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (iii) & (iv) only

(Q-89). Consider the following statements about responding to the environment: (i)

There are total three methods of responding to the environment (ii) Most sophisticated method of responding to the environment is proceed with caution (iii) Most sophisticated method of responding to the environment is dynamic response (iv) Least resistance is also known as policy of least response Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (iii) & (iv) only

(Q-90). Which strategic response gives best advantage of opportunities available in environment? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Least resistance Proceed with caution Dramatic response Dynamic response

(Q-91). Consider the following statements about the competitive environment: (i) (ii)

There can be no co-operation where there is competition Organisation working in different industries can have co-operation with each other

ICA IPC IT-SM (iii) OPEC is an example of Kieretsus (iv) In India, there are family-owned enterprises Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (ii) & (iv) only

(Q-92). Managers should develop the strategy which will allow the organisation to convert the _________ in its favour through its ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strength, Weaknesses Strength, Opportunity Opportunity, Strength Opportunity, Threat

(Q-93). Identify the ODD among the following: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Environment is complex Environment is dynamic Environment is diverse Environment is multi-faceted

(Q-94). ___________ refers to the process of integration of the world into one huge market. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Business Globalization Environmental analysis Global company

(Q-95). Which of the following is not an approach of globalization by the company? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Multi-Domestic Strategy Global Strategy Transnational Strategy Multi-Global Strategy

(Q-96). Which of the approach of globalization will give the highest market share to the company? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Multi-Domestic Strategy Global Strategy Transnational Strategy Multi-Global Strategy

(Q-97). In which of the approach of globalization, company tries to sell standardized products across the countries? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Multi-Domestic Strategy Global Strategy Transnational Strategy Multi-national Strategy

(Q-98). In which of the approach of globalization, company tries to extensively customize their products and services according to the conditions of different countries? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Multi-Domestic Strategy Global Strategy Transnational Strategy Multi-Global Strategy

(Q-99). Which of the following is not a characteristic of the global company? (a) Conglomerate of multiple units located in different parts of the global and linked by common the ownership (b) All unit’s works on some common strategies (c) Units formulates regional blocks (d) All Units operates on common pool of resources like finance, trade name etc. (Q-100). Which of the following is not a reason of going global by the companies? (a) Domestic market may not be large enough (b) Faster travel, communication & transfer of information (c) Interlinked & inter-dependent Economies (d) Rapid growing foreign markets, it is profitable to operate in foreign markets

ICA IPC IT-SM

Answer 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

(c) (a) (d) (c) (c) (a) (a) (d) (c) (a) (c) (d) (b) (b) (d) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d) (c) (b) (d) (a) (c) (b) (b) (d) (c) (d) (c) (c) (c) (c) (a) (b) (d) (d) (a) (c)

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Answer (c) (a) (b) (b) (d) (a) (b) (b) (c) (d) (c) (b) (b) (d) (b) (d) (d) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d) (b) (b) (c) (c) (c) (d) (b) (c) (b) (c) (c) (c) (b) (a) (c) (c)

81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

(b) (c) (b) (a) (a) (c) (d) (a) (b) (d) (d) (c) (c) (b) (d) (a) (b) (a) (c) (c)

ICA IPC IT-SM (c)

(d)

(Q-1). The _________ answers the question "What do we want to become?" whereas _______ answers the question "What is our business?" (a) (b) (c) (d)

Short term objectives; long term objectives Short term plans; long term plans Vision Statement; Mission Statement Mission Statement, Vision Statement

(Q-5). A company’s strategy evolves over the period of time because of: (a)

(b) (c)

(Q-2). It is normal for a company’s strategy to be: (a)

(b)

(c) (d)

Blend of offensive actions on the part of managers to improve the company’s profitability and defensive moves to counteract changing market conditions Combination of conservative moves to protect the company’s market share and risky initiatives to set the company’s product offering apart from rivals Close imitation of the strategy employed by the recognized industry leader Blend of proactive actions to improve the company’s performance and as-needed reactions to unanticipated developments

(Q-3). Crafting a strategy involves: (a)

(b) (c)

(d)

Having a proactive strategy and then adapting as per the circumstances surrounding the company’s situation Developing a 5-year strategic plan and then fine-tuning it regularly Trying to imitate as much of the market leader’s strategy as possible so as not to end up at a competitive disadvantage Doing everything possible to differentiate company’s product/service from the rival

(Q-4). Which of the following statements about a company’s strategy is true? (a) (b)

A company’s strategy is hidden to outside and is kept secret by top-level managers A company’s strategy is planned well in advance and usually deviates little from the planned set of actions

A company’s strategy generally changes very little over time and unless a newly-appointed CEO decides to take the company in a new direction with a new strategy A company’s strategy is typically a blend of proactive and reactive strategy elements

(d)

The need to keep strategy in step with changing market conditions and changing customer needs The need to abandon some strategy features that are no longer working well The need to respond to the newly-initiated actions and competitive moves of rival firms All of the above

(Q-6). AACSB stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

American Association of Collegiate Schools of Business American Assembly of Collegiate Schools of Business American Assembly of Consortium Schools of Business American Assembly of Collegiate Society of Business

(Q-7). The origin of business policy can be traced back to the year ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

1901 1969 1921 1911

(Q-8). __________ played a very significant role in the initial development of Business Policy. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Indian Institute of Management Cambridge School of Business Stanford Business School Harvard Business School

(Q-9). Which of the following is not an aspect to be considered under the Business Policy? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Functions & responsibilities of management Long range blueprint of desired image Problems that affect success in enterprise Decisions that determine the direction of the organization

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-10). According to ___________, Management is a function, a discipline, a task to be done and managers carry out the functions, practice this discipline and discharge these tasks? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Michael Porter C.K. Prahalad Peter Drucker Kurt Lewin

(Q-11). In crafting a strategy, management is saying: (a) (b)

(c) (d)

This is who we are and where we are headed This is our vision of what our business will be like, what products or services we sell, and customer group we focus We intend to launch these new products Among all the strategic alternatives, what strategic alternative we should choose

(Q-12). The actual corporate strategy is Partly _________ & Partly __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Offensive, Defensive Strategic, Operation Proactive, Reactive Planned, Discretionary

(Q-13). _______ is defined as a long-range blueprint of an organization's desired image, direction and destination. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Planning Vision Strategy Strategic Management

(Q-14). _______ is defined as a long-range blueprint of an entity’s desired image, direction & destination. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Planning Vision Strategy Strategic Management

(Q-15). There are total _______ levels at which strategies are formulated. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Only one Two Three Four

(Q-16). Which of the following is not a level at which strategy of the company is formulated?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Corporate Divisional Knowledge Functional

(Q-17). Which of the following is not a characteristic of Corporate Strategy? (a) (b) (c) (d)

It is action oriented It is long-range in nature It is inflexible and static It helps build competitive advantages

(Q-18). _______ is the growth design of a company. It spells out the strategy for achieving the growth. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strategic Management Functional Strategic Business Strategy Corporate Strategy

(Q-19). __________ refers to the process of forming a strategic vision & mission, setting objectives, crafting a strategy, implementing and executing the strategy & evaluating the performance. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strategic Management Strategic Implementation Strategy Formulation Corporate Strategy

(Q-20). Which of the following is an objective of Strategic Management? (a) (b) (c) (d)

It is long-range in nature It is flexible and dynamic It builds competitive advantages for the firm It is Partly proactive & partly reactive

(Q-21). Framework of Strategic Management has total __________ steps. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Four Five Six Eight

(Q-22). The first stage of the framework of Strategic Management is _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Where we want to be? How might we get there? Where are we now? How can we ensure arrival?

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-23). The last stage of the framework of Strategic Management is _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Where we want to be? How might we get there? Where are we now? How can we ensure arrival?

(Q-24). The stage of the Strategic Management framework where situational analysis and SWOT analysis is performed is _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Where we want to be? How might we get there? Where are we now? How can we ensure arrival?

(Q-25). Given below are the first four stages involved in the strategic management framework: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Where we want to be? How might we get there? Where are we now? Which way is best?

The correct sequence will be: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)

(Q-26). The stage of the Strategic Management framework where out of all alternatives generated, entity selects best suitable alternative is __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Where we want to be? How might we get there? Where are we now? Which way is best?

(Q-27). The stage of the Strategic Management framework where implementation and control aspects are considered is _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Where we want to be? How might we get there? Where are we now? How can we ensure arrival?

(Q-28). Strategic Management Model or process has total __________ steps. (a) (b) (c)

Four Five Seven

(d)

Eight

(Q-29). The first thing an organisation should do in the Strategic Management process is ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Measure and evaluate performance Establish long-term objectives Develop vision and mission statements Generate, evaluate, and select strategies

(Q-30). Which one of the following is not a basic tasks performed in the strategic management process? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Forming a strategic vision of where the company needs to head Setting long-term objectives to convert the strategic vision into goals and objectives Crafting a strategy to achieve the objectives Deciding which employee to hire

(Q-31). Consider the following statements about the strategic management process: (i) It is not needed in the smaller organisations (ii) It is dynamic & continuous process (iii) Setting the long-term objectives of the entity is usually the starting point in any strategic management process (iv) It has total seven stages The of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (iii), (iv), only (i), (ii), (iv) only (ii), (iv) only

(Q-32). Which of the following are integral parts of the managerial process of crafting and executing strategy or strategic management? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Setting objectives, crafting a strategy, implementing & executing chosen strategy Developing a strategic vision, setting objectives, and crafting a strategy Developing a business model, deciding on the company’s objectives and crafting a strategy Coming up with a statement of mission, selecting a business model, and monitoring and initiating corrective adjustments

(Q-33). A company’s strategic vision concerns: (a)

A company’s directional path and future product-market-customer-technology focus

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) (c) (d)

Why the company does certain things in trying to please its customers Management’s storyline of how it intends to make a profit with the chosen strategy Who we are and what we do

(d)

(Q-39). The difference between the concept of a company mission and strategic vision is that: (a)

(Q-34). A company’s strategic vision (a) (b) (c) (d)

Is management’s plans to implement and execute a profitable business model Sets forth what business the company is presently in Providing a view of where we are heading and what is our future path Defines who we are and what we do

(Q-35). What a company’s top executives are saying about where the company is headed and about what the company’s future product-customer-markettechnology will be: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Indicates company’s long-term strategic plan Indicates what kind of business model the company is going to have in the future Constitutes strategic vision for the company Signals what the firm's strategy will be

(Q-36). Which of the following is an advantage of strategic management? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Increases the longevity of the business Makes organisation more proactive instead of reactive It is a costly and time-consuming process Acts as a corporate defense mechanism against mistakes and pitfalls

(Q-37). Which of the following are characteristics of a strategic vision statement? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Achievable, profitable and rational Inspirational, Motivating and future-oriented Challenging, competitive and achievable Realistic and market-driven

(Q-38). A company's mission statement typically addresses which of the following questions? (a) (b) (c)

What objectives and level of performance do we want to achieve?" Where are we going and what should our strategy be? What approach should we take to achieve sustainable competitive advantage?

Who are we and what do we do?

(b)

(c)

(d)

Mission statement typically concerns a company’s present business scope whereas the principal concern of a strategic vision is with the company's future path The mission is to make a profit, whereas a strategic vision concerns what business model to employ in striving to make a profit Mission statement deals with what to accomplish on behalf of shareholders and a strategic vision concerns what to accomplish on behalf of customers Mission statement deals with where we are headed whereas a strategic vision provides the critical answer to how will we get there?

(Q-40). SBU stands for ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strategic Business Undertaking Suitable Business Unit Strength Business Unit Strategic Business Units

(Q-41). The managerial purpose of setting objectives includes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Converting the strategic vision into specific performance targets Using the objectives as yardsticks for tracking the company’s progress and performance Objective should be specific, measurable, attainable, relevant All of the above

(Q-42). Business Policy evolved and transformed into _________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Business Management Business Planning Strategic Planning Strategic Management

(Q-43). Business Policy was introduced in the academics in the year ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

1908 1959 1939 1948

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-44). In the year __________, AACSB made the course of business policy, a mandatory requirement for the purpose of recognition of business schools. (a) (b) (c) (d)

1908 1959 1969 1948

(Q-45). Which one of the following is not part of a company's macroenvironment? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Conditions in the economy at large Population demographics and societal values and lifestyles Technological factors and governmental regulations and legislation The company’s strengths, weaknesses

(Q-46). Strategies for the company as a whole is formulated at ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Corporate Level Business Level Knowledge Level Functional Level

(Q-47). A company is evaluating some merger or acquisition strategy for the diversification of its existing business. Such strategies are usually formulated at ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Corporate Level Business Level Knowledge Level Functional Level

(Q-48). The strategies about production, marketing, finance, human resource, purchase etc. are usually formulated at ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Corporate Level Business Level Knowledge Level Functional Level

(Q-49). Considering the corporate level strategy, the manager of iPhone Division of Apple Inc. has drafted the strategy for the iPhone division. Such strategies will be usually ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Corporate Level Business Level Knowledge Level Functional Level

(Q-50). Primary Task of Strategic Manager or Corporate Level Managers does not include: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Defining the vision, mission and goals of the organization Determining what businesses, it should be in Providing leadership to the organization Developing functional level strategies

(Q-51). Identifying and assessing a company's strengths and weaknesses and its external opportunities and threats is called: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Competitive asset & liability analysis Competitive positioning analysis. Company resource mapping SWOT analysis

(Q-52). Which one of the following is not part of conducting a SWOT analysis? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Identifying company’s strengths, weaknesses Benchmarking the company's strengths and weaknesses against the competitors Identifying company’s market opportunities Identifying a company’s threats

(Q-53). The role of __________ are to translate the corporate level strategy into concrete strategies for the individual businesses. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Corporate Level Managers Business Level Managers Knowledge Level Managers Functional Level Managers

(Q-54). The role of _______________ are to draft the strategies for the specific business functions or operations of the organisation. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Corporate Level Managers Business Level Managers Knowledge Level Managers Functional Level Managers

(Q-55). Which of the following is not an element of the strategic vision? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Coming up with a mission statement Using the mission statement as basis for deciding on a long-term course making Communicating the vision of the organisation in clear, exciting terms Thinking creatively about how to prepare a company for the future

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-56). Which of the following is not aspect to be considered while developing the strategic vision? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Thinking creatively about how to prepare a company for the future A well-articulated strategic vision creates an organisation wide commitment Communicating the vision of the organisation in clear, exciting terms Forming a strategic vision is an exercise in intelligent entrepreneurship

(Q-57). A vision is considered as ________ when it was made by involving employees from all levels. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Good Vision Vision Shared Shared Vision Excellent Vision

(Q-58). Which of the following is not a reason of having a mission statement? (a) (b) (c) (d)

To specify organizational purposes To ensure unanimity of purpose Coming up with a mission statement that defines what business entity is presently in To develop a basis, or standard for allocating organizational resources

(Q-59). Which of the following is not aspect to be considered while developing the mission statement? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Mission statement should give the organization its own special identity Good mission statements are highly personalized & unique to the organization Communicating the vision of the organisation in clear, exciting terms The mission should not be to make profit

(Q-60). A company’s strength may be due to: (a) (b) (c) (d)

A skill, expertise etc. Valuable human resource Valuable alliances or cooperative ventures All of these

(Q-61). Which of the following most accurately reflect a company’s resource strengths? (a) (b)

Its human capital, skills and expertise, research capabilities etc. The sizes of its sales, revenues, and market share compared to its rivals

(c) (d)

The sizes of its profit margins and return on investment compared to its rivals The value chain of the organisation

(Q-62). Which of the following is not a good example of a company strength? (a) (b) (c) (d)

More intellectual capital and better research and development capabilities than rivals Strategic partnerships with suppliers Having higher earnings per share and a higher stock price than key rivals A well-known brand name and enjoying the confidence of customers

(Q-63). A company's weaknesses can relate to: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Inferior skills, expertise or intellectual capital Something that it lacks or does poorly Deficiencies in physical or intangible assets. All of the above

(Q-64). In SWOT analysis, which one is not an example of a potential weakness of a company? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Less productive R & D efforts than rivals Having a focused or differentiation strategy Lack of a strong brand image and reputation Higher overall unit costs relative to rivals

(Q-65). Which of the following is not an example of an external threat to a company's future profitability? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Slowdowns in market growth Change in buyers test and preferences The lack of a strong competitor New legislation that entails burdensome and costly government regulations

(Q-66). Consider the following statements about the objectives of the organisation: (i) (ii)

Objectives & goals are used interchangeably Business organization translates their objectives and goals into vision & mission (iii) They function as yardstick for tracking an organizations performance and progress (iv) Objectives should be measurable, relevant, specific and timely The of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (iii), (iv), only (i), (iii), (iv) only

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

(ii), (iv) only

(Q-67). Which of the following is not an example of an external threat to a company's future profitability? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Likely entry of powerful competitors The lack of a well-known brand name Shifts in buyer needs and tastes Costly new regulatory requirements

(Q-68). Consider the following statements about the strategy and strategic management: (i)

Strategic management is not needed in nonprofit organisations (ii) Strategies provide an integral framework for management to negotiate its way through a complex and turbulent external environment (iii) Strategy is a substitute for sound, alert and responsible management (iv) Corporate strategy is basically the growth design of the firm The of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (iii), (iv), only (i), (iii), (iv) only (ii), (iv) only

(Q-69). Consider the following statements about the strategy and strategic management: (i) (ii)

All strategies emerge from corporate vision Strategic management is a bundle of tricks and magic (iii) Control systems run parallel with strategic levels (iv) A company's strategy has always to be proactive in nature The of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (i), (iii), only (i), (iii), (iv) only (ii), (iv) only

(Q-70). Consider the following statements about the vision and mission of the organisation: (i) (ii)

For small entities vision & mission are irrelevant Formulation of vision and mission is usually first stage of strategic management exercise

(iii) All strategies emerge from corporate vision (iv) Strategic vision and mission statements are needed only by large business houses The of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), only (i), (iii), (iv) only (ii), (iv) only

Answer 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35

(c) (d) (a) (d) (d) (b) (d) (d) (b) (c) (d) (c) (c) (c) (c) (c) (c) (d) (a) (c) (b) (c) (d) (c) (c) (d) (d) (c) (c) (d) (d) (b) (a) (c) (c)

36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

(c) (b) (d) (a) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (d) (a) (a) (d) (b) (d) (d) (b) (b) (d) (d) (c) (c) (c) (c) (d) (a) (c) (d) (b) (c) (c) (b) (d) (b) (b)

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Financial institutions & Banks Lawyers Managers Lenders & Creditors

(Q-8). Which of the following represents a strength? (Q-1). A SWOT analysis consists of all of the following elements except: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strength Weakness Organisation Threat

(Q-2). Which of the following SWOT elements are internal factors for a business? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strengths and Weaknesses Opportunities and Threats Strengths and Opportunities Weaknesses and Threats

(Q-3). Which of the following could be a strength? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Weather New international market Location of a business Favourable legislation

(Q-4). Which of the following could be a weakness? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Competitors with access to better channels of distribution Poor quality of goods and services Special marketing expertise Advancing technologies like internet

(Q-5). Which of the following could be an opportunity for the company? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Having quality processes and procedures Damaged market reputation New international market New competitor entering in market

(Q-6). Which of the following could be a threat? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Location of the business Damaged market reputation New international market New competitor entering in market

(Q-7). Who usually conducts a SWOT Analysis for a business?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Cost disadvantage Rise in market growth rates Superior credit ratings Adverse regulatory changes

(Q-9). Which of the following represents a weakness? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Weaker distribution network Rise in market growth rates Superior credit ratings Adverse regulatory changes

(Q-10). Which of the following is an opportunity? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Weaker distribution network Rise in market growth rates Superior credit ratings Adverse regulatory changes

(Q-11). Which of the following represents a threat? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Weaker distribution network Rise in market growth rates Superior credit ratings Adverse regulatory changes

(Q-12). Which of the following is an opportunity? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Weaker distribution network Fall in market growth rates Superior credit ratings Favourable regulatory changes

(Q-13). Which of the following does not represents a significance of SWOT Analysis? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Provides a Logical Framework Presents a Comparative Account Guides in Strategy Identification Helps in improving credit rating

(Q-14). Consider the following statements about SWOT Analysis: (i) (ii)

The purpose of SWOT analysis is to rank the organisations Helps managers to frame better strategies that allows company to gain competitive advantage

ICA IPC IT-SM (iii) SWOT Analysis helps in the identification of suitable strategy (iv) SWOT Analysis is an extension of TWOS Matrix Which of the above statements are correct: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (ii) & (iii) only

(Q-15). OLA operates in APP based Taxi sector where UBER Inc. entered with very powerful balance sheet & technology. It is a _________ for OLA. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strength Weakness Opportunity Threat

(Q-16). B Ltd. is the only manufacture of a kind of pipe which is needed in huge quantity due to a new project of the government. It is a_________ for B Ltd. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strength Weakness Opportunity Threat

(Q-17). P Ltd. makes liquor & government is about to bring new anti-liquor policy. It is a _______ for P Ltd. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strength Weakness Opportunity Threat

(Q-18). R Ltd. has a very capable innovation team. It is a __________ for R Ltd. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strength Weakness Opportunity Threat

(Q-19). China has recently lifted ban on foreign IT companies. It is _______ for the Indian IT companies like Infosys, TCS. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strength Weakness Opportunity Threat

(Q-20). Orange Ltd. pays very high interest rate on borrowings due to its poor credit ratings. It is ________ for Orange Ltd. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strength Weakness Opportunity Threat

(Q-21). Who is considered to be the founder of TOWS Matrix? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Peter F. Drucker Michael Porter Heinz Weihrich Michael Weihrich

(Q-22). _________ helps to systematically identify relationships between strength, weakness, opportunity and threat and helps in selecting strategies on their basis. (a) (b) (c) (d)

SWOT Analysis TOWS Matrix Environmental scanning Portfolio analysis

(Q-23). The scope of _____________ is wider than the _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

SWOT Analysis, TOWS Matrix TOWS Matrix, SWOT Analysis Environmental scanning, SWOT Analysis SWOT Analysis, Portfolio analysis

(Q-24). How many strategic choices can be identified in the TOWS Matrix? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Two Three Four Depends upon situation

(Q-25). Consider the following statements about TOWS Matrix: (i)

TOWS matrix has a wider scope compared to SWOT analysis (ii) TOWS Matrix is the substitute of SWOT Analysis (iii) TOWS Matrix has been developed by Heinz Weihrich (iv) SWOT Analysis is an extension of TWOS Matrix

ICA IPC IT-SM Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (iii) only

(Q-26). As per TOWS Matrix, the best strategic position to be in is ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

SO ST WO WT

(Q-27). As per TOWS Matrix, position which the company should try to avoid is ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

SO ST WO WT

(Q-28). Consider the following statements about TOWS Matrix: (i)

ST is a position in which a firm tries to minimize threats through its strengths (ii) WT is a position that any firm will try to achieve (iii) TOWS matrix identifies three distinct alternative kinds of strategic choices (iv) TOWS Matrix is an extension of SWOT Analysis Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (iv) only

(Q-29). A company has lot of opportunities available in the market but it is not able to capitalize on these opportunities due to its poor brand reputation and substandard product quality. Considering the TOWS Matrix, in which position the company is currently? (a) (b) (c) (d)

SO ST WO WT

(Q-30). A company is facing the increasingly threating external environment but it is trying to handle the

situation through its highly skilled and talented workforce. Considering the TOWS Matrix, in which position the company is currently? (a) (b) (c) (d)

SO ST WO WT

(Q-31). A company is facing the threating external environment and regulations that are going to affect it adversely. Another issue with the company is that it is facing serious liquidity crisis. Considering the TOWS Matrix, in which position the company is currently? (a) (b) (c) (d)

SO ST WO WT

(Q-32). Which of the following sources is not usually visited by the managers for environmental analysis? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Economic Times Business Standard Business Today Onlinegamers.com

(Q-33). In the SWOT framework, ____________ are same for all the firms operating in the same competitive environment. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strengths and weaknesses Strengths and opportunities Weaknesses and threats Opportunities and threats

(Q-34). Heightened concern with fitness might be a threat to some companies and an opportunity to others. In the SWOT framework, these are _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Internal environmental factors External environmental factors Both internal & external environmental factors Not relevant to external environmental factors

(Q-35). By emphasizing the importance of identifying opportunities and threats, the SWOT framework makes firms act ________ rather than ___________. (a)

Quickly; Slowly

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) (c) (d)

Immediately; Eventually Proactively; Reactively Intelligently; Uninformed

(Q-36). SWOT analysis raises awareness about the role of strategy in creating a match between the environmental conditions and _________________ of the firm. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Internal opportunities and threats Internal strengths and weaknesses Internal strengths and opportunities Internal weaknesses and opportunities

(Q-37). _________ is a group of firms operating in same business line, whose products have similar attributes such that they compete for same buyers. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Business Industry Kieretsus Association

(Q-38). Elements of the five forces can be quantified. This is important for analyzing industry structure. Which of the following is not an example of an element that can be quantified? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Buyer’s purchase cost Growth rate of the industry Capital requirements in the industry Impact of governmental regulatory policy

(Q-39). Factors to be considered in determining an industry's economic features includes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Capital requirements Growth rate of the industry Life cycle of the industry All of the above

(Q-40). To determine the nature and strength of competition in the industry, which of the following method is used? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Environmental scanning Porter’s five forces model GE model Strategic group model

(Q-41). Consider the following statements about the Industry and Competitive Analysis: (i)

Different industries usually have more or less similar competitive nature

(ii)

Industry is a group of firms operating in the same business line (iii) Capital requirement is an important economic feature to be considered in the industry analysis (iv) It is important to have proper understanding of the competitive pressure in the industry Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (ii) & (iii) only

(Q-42). Strategic groups consist of a group of: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Top executives makes strategies for a company Firms within an industry that follows similar strategies CEO’s from different companies of industry makes decisions on industry standards Firms within an industry decides to collude rather than compete with each other

(Q-43). Strategic groups are clusters of firms that share __________ strategies. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Different Similar Same Competitive

(Q-44). Given below is the steps involved in the strategic group mapping process: (i)

Assign firms that fall in about the same strategy to same strategic group (ii) Draw circles around each strategic group (iii) Identify the competitive characteristics that differentiate firms in the industry (iv) Plot the firms on a two-variable map using pairs of these differentiating characteristics Arrange the steps involved in the correct order? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv) (ii)-(i)-(iii)-(iv) (iii)-(ii)-(i)-(iv) (iii)-(iv)-(i)-(ii)

(Q-45). Consider the following statements about strategic group mapping:

ICA IPC IT-SM (i)

A strategic group consists of those rival firms with similar competitive approaches and positions in the market (ii) There can be only one strategic group in the industry (iii) At least two competitive characteristics are needed to draw the strategic group (iv) It Companies like Audi, Mercedes, BMW etc. can fall in the same strategic group Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (ii) & (iii) only

(Q-46). The last step involved in the Industry & Competitive Analysis is: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Identifying Companies in the Strongest or Weakest Positions Likely Strategic Moves of Rivals Prospects and Financial Attractiveness of Industry Key Factors for Competitive Success

(Q-47). Given below is the first four steps involved in the industry and competitive analysis: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Nature & Strength of Competition Triggers of Change Dominant Economic Features of the Industry Identifying Companies in Strongest/Weakest Positions

Arrange the steps involved in the correct order? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv) (ii)-(i)-(iii)-(iv) (iii)-(i)-(ii)-(iv) (iii)-(iv)-(i)-(ii)

(Q-48). Which of the following is not a driving force which can trigger a change in the industry? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Internet and e-commerce Globalization Mobilization of resources Strategic Group Mapping

(Q-49). Which of the following is not a question to be considered in the determination of industry key success factor?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

On what basis do customers choose between the sellers? What resources & competitive capabilities seller need to be competitively successful? What does it take for sellers to achieve a sustainable competitive advantage? Technological structure of the industry

(Q-50). Audi introduced the Q3 SUV at a price of $32,500 and BMW, with its 1-series, is another wellknown example. Such cars, priced below $30,000s and compete directly with Ford, Toyota etc. Which of the following statement is correct in this regard? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Members belonging to one strategic group will always remain in that strategic group There can be only one strategic group in the industry Member of one strategic group can migrate to different strategic group Members belonging to one strategic group will always be same

(Q-51). BCG in BCG matrix stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Boston Calmette Group b. British Consulting Group Boston Corporate Group Boston Consulting Group

(Q-52). What does Dog symbolize in BCG matrix? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Introduction Growth Maturity Decline

(Q-53). What does Stars symbolize in BCG matrix? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Introduction Growth Maturity Decline

(Q-54). What do Cash Cows symbolize in BCG matrix? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Expand Invest Stable Liquidate

(Q-55). In the BCG Matrix, what is the label of the Vertical axis? (a)

Relative Market share

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) (c) (d)

Business Strength Industry Attractiveness Market Growth Rate

(Q-56). In the BCG Matrix, what is the label of the Horizontal axis? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Relative Market share Business Strength Industry Attractiveness Market Growth Rate

(Q-57). The BCG matrix is based on: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Industry attractiveness & Business strength Industry Growth rate and Business strength Industry Attractiveness & Relative Market share Industry growth rate & relative market share

(Q-58). In the BCG matrix, ________ are products or businesses that are growing rapidly and need heavy investment to maintain their position & finance their rapid growth potential. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Star Question Mark Cash Cow Dog

(Q-59). In the BCG matrix, ________ products represent best opportunities for expansion. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Star Question Mark Cash Cow Dog

(Q-60). In the BCG matrix, ________ are low-growth, high market share businesses or products. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Star Question Mark Cash Cow Dog

(Q-61). In long run when the growth rate slows down, _______ become _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Star, Question Mark Question Mark, Dog Star, Cash cow Dog, Star

(Q-62). In the BCG matrix, ________ are also known as problem children or wildcats.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Star Question Mark Cash Cow Dog

(Q-63). In the BCG matrix, ________ are products having low market share in high-growth markets. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Star Question Mark Cash Cow Dog

(Q-64). In the BCG matrix, __________ if left unattended can become cash traps. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Star Question Mark Cash Cow Dog

(Q-65). Through proper planning and investment, entity can turn their ___________ products into ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Star, Question Mark Question Mark, Star Star, Cash cow Dog, Star

(Q-66). In the BCG matrix, ________ are low-growth, low-share businesses. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Star Question Mark Cash Cow Dog

(Q-67). Electric Ltd. has an SBU which manufactures black and white television and has just 5% market share. As per BCG Matrix, it must be a _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Star Question Mark Cash Cow Dog

(Q-68). After classifying products or SBUs into star, question mark, cash cow or dog, BCG matrix identifies _________ strategic alternative. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Three Four Five Six

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-69). In the _________ strategic approach of BCG Matrix, objective is to increase market share, even by forgoing short-term earnings in favour of building a strong future with large market share. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Build Hold Harvest Divest

(Q-70). In the _________ strategic approach of BCG Matrix, objective is to hold or preserve existing market share. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Build Hold Harvest Divest

(Q-71). In the _________ strategic approach of BCG Matrix, objective is to increase short-term cash flow regardless of long-term effect. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Build Hold Harvest Divest

(Q-72). In the _________ strategic approach of BCG Matrix, objective is to sell or liquidate business to better use resources elsewhere. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Build Hold Harvest Divest

(Q-73). Consider the following statements about the BCG Matrix: (i) (ii)

It stands for Berlin Consulting Group In BCG approach, company classifies its businesses on a two-dimensional matrix (iii) Cash cow in the BCG Matrix is also called problem children or wildcats (iv) BCG matrix has limitations like it can be difficult, time-consuming and costly to implement Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (ii) & (iv) only

(Q-74). ADL matrix derived its name from _______. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Arise D. Little Arthur D. Liget Arnold D. Little Arthur D. Little

(Q-75). As per ADL matrix, which of the following can not be a competitive position of the organisation? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Dominant Strong Favourable Embryonic

(Q-76). As per ADL Matrix, fast grow, build barriers, act offensively etc. are the strategic choices for the organisation having the ___________ position and operating in the industry being in __________ stage. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Dominant, Ageing Strong, Mature Dominant, Mature Dominant, Embryonic

(Q-77). As per ADL Matrix, withdraw, divest etc. are the strategic choices for the organisation having the ___________ position and operating in the industry being in __________ stage. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Dominant, Ageing Weak, Mature Dominant, Mature Weak, Ageing

(Q-78). As per ADL matrix, when entity enjoys a virtual monopoly or have a very strong position in industry, it is said to have ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Dominant Strong Favourable Tenable

(Q-79). As per ADL matrix, when firms are able to perform satisfactorily and can justify staying in the industry but they are vulnerable in the face of increased competition from stronger companies in the market, it is said to have ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Dominant Strong Favourable Tenable

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-80). Another name for GE 9 cell model is: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Three color matrix Stop light matrix Strategic Portfolio Matrix Color light matrix

(Q-81). In GE 9 cell matrix, what is the label of the horizontal axis? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Relative Market share Industry Attractiveness Business strength Market Growth Rate

(Q-82). In GE 9 cell matrix, what is the label of the vertical axis? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Relative Market share Market Attractiveness Business strength Market Growth Rate

(Q-83). As per GE 9 cell matrix, which of the following factor is not associated with market attractiveness? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Size of the market Brand image Market growth rate Competitive intensity

(Q-84). As per GE 9 cell matrix, which of the following factor is not associated with business strength? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer loyalty Brand image Production capacity Competitive intensity

(Q-85). Which of the following representative color is not used in the GE 9 cell matrix? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Green Yellow While Red

(Q-86). As per GE 9 cell matrix, retrenchment, divestment or liquidation are the strategic options if the product falls in the ________ section? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Green Yellow While Red

(Q-87). As per GE 9 cell matrix, holding the position i.e. neither invest nor divest are the strategic options if the product falls in the ________ section? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Green Yellow While Red

(Q-88). As per GE 9 cell matrix, expand, invest, grow etc. are the strategic options if the product falls in the ________ section? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Green Yellow While Red

(Q-89). The GE 9 cell model is based on: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Industry attractiveness & Business Strength Industry Growth rate & Business strength Industry attractiveness & market share Industry growth & Relative market share

(Q-90). GE 9 cell matrix is developed by ___________ with the help of _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

General Electric, PWC General Electric, McKinsey & Company General Electric, Boston Consulting Group German Electric, McKinsey & Company

(Q-91). Which of the following portfolio analysis method uses business strength and market attractiveness as factors? (a) (b) (c) (d)

ADL Matrix General Electric Model Ansoff’s Product Market Growth Matrix BCG Growth-Share Matrix

(Q-92). Which of the following portfolio analysis method uses market growth rate and relative market share as factors? (a) (b) (c) (d)

ADL Matrix General Electric Model Ansoff’s Product Market Growth Matrix BCG Growth-Share Matrix

(Q-93). Which of the following portfolio analysis method identifies five competitive positions an organisation can have? (a)

ADL Matrix

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) (c) (d)

General Electric Model Ansoff’s Product Market Growth Matrix BCG Growth-Share Matrix

(Q-94). Consider the following statements about the Strategic Business Unit: (i)

It can be single business or collection of related businesses (ii) It has its own set of competitors (iii) It has a manager who is responsible for strategic planning and profit (iv) It can be planned for separately than the rest of the business Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(Q-95). ___________ can be defined as a set of techniques that help strategists in taking strategic decisions with regard to individual products or businesses in a firm’s portfolio. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Product Analysis Portfolio Analysis Product Life Cycle Analysis SBU Analysis

(Q-96). Consider the following statements about the portfolio and portfolio analysis: (i)

Portfolio is the combination of various businesses and products that makes up the company (ii) Strategic Business Unit is one of the methods of portfolio analysis (iii) Through resources could be channelized to those businesses or products that possess the greatest potential (iv) Through portfolio analysis, strategic decisions with regard to individual products or businesses can be taken Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(Q-97). Unless the organisation is in deep financial crisis, it should focus on both strategic as well as financial objective. This has been stated by ________ mechanism. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Balanced Scorecard Analysis Portfolio Analysis Product Life Cycle Analysis SBU Analysis

(Q-98). Product Life Cycle is an _________ curve. (a) (b) (c) (d)

L-shaped S-shaped Z-shaped Inverted C-shaped

(Q-99). _____________ exhibits the relationship of sales with respect of time. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Balanced Scorecard Portfolio Analysis Product Life Cycle SBU Analysis

(Q-100). In the __________ of the product life cycle, competition is negligible and prices are high. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Introduction Stage Growth Stage Maturity Stage Decline Stage

ICA IPC IT-SM

Answer 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

(c) (a) (c) (b) (c) (d) (c) (c) (a) (b) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (c) (d) (a) (c) (b) (c) (b) (b) (c) (d) (a) (d) (d) (c) (b) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (b) (b) (d) (d) (b)

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Answer (a) (b) (b) (d) (b) (c) (c) (d) (d) (c) (d) (d) (b) (c) (d) (a) (d) (a) (a) (c) (c) (b) (b) (b) (b) (d) (d) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (a) (d) (b)

81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

(c) (b) (b) (d) (c) (d) (b) (a) (a) (b) (b) (d) (a) (d) (b) (b) (a) (b) (c) (a)

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Conglomerate

(Q-7). The complete absorption of one company by another, wherein the acquiring firm retains its identity and the acquired firm may cease to exist, is called a: (Q-1). ___________ is process of determining organizational strategy? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strategic Management Strategic Execution Strategic Planning Strategic Analysis

(Q-2). Which of the following question is not answered by Strategic Planning? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Who we are? What are we doing? For whom do we do it? How to improve and excel?

(Q-3). Which of the following are the two approaches of Strategic Planning? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strategic, Operational Participative, Non-participative Top-down, Bottom-up Critical, Non-critical

(Q-4). The sale of a division of business to a third party is referred to as a: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Liquidation Divestment Merger Allocation

(Q-5). Which of the following best describes strategic uncertainty? (a) It is a long-term uncertainty (b) Uncertainty that arises during the regular course of business (c) Uncertainty that has strategic implications (d) Uncertainty that always lead to threat and damage for the company (Q-6). When Exxon Oil Inc. merged with Mobile Oil Ltd., what kind of merger was this? (a) (b) (c)

Vertical Horizontal Congeneric

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Merger Acquisition Tender offer Spinoff

(Q-8). The acquisition of a firm in the same industry like a competitor is called a __________ acquisition. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Conglomerate Vertical Backward Horizontal

(Q-9). The acquisition of a firm whose business is not related to that of the bidder is called a __________ acquisition. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Conglomerate Vertical Backward Horizontal

(Q-10). The acquisition of a firm engaged in the same industry but at different stages of production system than the acquirer is called a __________ acquisition. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Conglomerate Vertical Backward Horizontal

(Q-11). An acquisition is the same thing as: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Takeover Merger Spin-off Amalgamation

(Q-12). Justifications for M&As do not include: (a) (b) (c) (d)

To enter new markets To achieve synergy To increase risk To gain economies of scale

(Q-13). The three broad approaches to company valuation do not include: (a)

Stock market valuation

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) (c) (d)

Asset valuation Future earnings valuation Inventory valuation

(Q-14). Suppose that the market price of Company X is ₹45 per share and that of Company Y is ₹30. If X offers three-fourths a share of common stock for each share of Y, the ratio of exchange of market prices would be: (a) (b) (c) (d)

0.667 1.0 1.125 1.5

(Q-15). When British Airways merged with Iberia, the Spanish airline, what kind of merger was this? (e) (f) (g) (h)

Vertical Horizontal Congeneric Conglomerate

(Q-16). Which of the following would not be acquired from a target company in the event of a takeover? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Target company equity Target company asset Target company liabilities Target company share price premium

(Q-17). __________ is considered to be a process when two or more companies come together & a new entity is created. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Acquisition Takeover Merger Combination

(Q-18). In _________, one _________ organization acquires the _________ one. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Acquisition, Weaker, Stronger Acquisition, Stronger, Weaker Merger, Stronger, Weaker Merger, Weaker, Stronger

(Q-19). Consider the following statements about merger and acquisition: (i) (ii)

Mergers and acquisitions are also resorted to for achieving a synergy When one organization takes over another and controls its business, it is called merger

(iii) Merger and acquisition are same thing (iv) There are four major types of mergers and acquisitions Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (i), (iii) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only (i), (iv) only

(Q-20). The positive incremental net gain associated with the combination of two firms through a merger or acquisition is called: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Merger effect Goodwill Merger cost Synergy

(Q-21). The sale of a portion of a firm's operation or divisions to a third party is referred to as a: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Liquidation Divestment Merger Allocation

(Q-22). If ME Ltd., an electronic appliance maker, acquires New Manufacturer, an FMCG Company, the acquisition would be classified as a _____ acquisition. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Horizontal Concentric Conglomerate Vertical

(Q-23). If Children's Wear Ltd. acquires Kid's Clothing, Ltd. where both the entities are engaged in kids clothing, the acquisition would be classified as a ____________ acquisition. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Horizontal Concentric Conglomerate Vertical

(Q-24). Following are the examples of cost reductions which can result from an acquisition? (i) (ii)

Spreading overhead Eliminating duplicate back office functions by sharing central facilities (iii) Buying raw materials in larger quantities at a lower per unit cost

ICA IPC IT-SM (iv) Gaining economies of scale Which of the above cost reduction is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (iii) only (ii), (iv) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(Q-28). Merger and acquisition strategies: (a)

(b)

(Q-25). The difference between a merger and an acquisition is that: (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

A merger involves one company purchasing the assets of another company with cash, whereas an acquisition involves a company acquiring another company by buying all of the shares of its common stock A merger is the combination of two or more entities whereas an acquisition involves one company, the acquirer, purchasing another company, the acquired In a merger companies retain their original names whereas in an acquisition the name of the company being acquired is changed to be the name of the acquiring company A merger is a combination of three or more companies whereas an acquisition is a pooling of interests of just two companies

(Q-26). Which of the following is not a typical strategic objective or benefit that drives mergers and acquisitions? (a) (b) (c) (d)

To gain quick access to new technologies or other resources and capabilities To extend a company’s business into new product categories To expand a company’s geographic coverage To facilitate a company’s shift from a broad differentiation strategy to a focused differentiation strategy

(Q-27). Mergers and acquisitions are often driven by such strategic objectives as to: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Reduce the number of industry key success factors Reduce the number of strategic groups in the industry Facilitate a company’s shift from a low-cost leadership to a focused low-cost strategy Expand a company’s geographic coverage or business into new product categories

(c)

(d)

Are always a superior strategic alternative to forming alliances or partnerships with these same companies May offer considerable cost-saving opportunities and can also be beneficial in helping a company try to expand in new industry whose boundaries are blurred by changing technologies Are the only way for a company to differentiate its products and services compared to competitors Are the only way that enables a company to differentiate in new products and embrace globalization

(Q-29). Consider the following statements about merger and acquisition: (i)

Increasing the market power of the combined firm (ii) Improving the distribution network of the acquiring firm (iii) Providing the combined firm with a strategic advantage (iv) Reducing the utilization of the acquiring firm's assets Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (i), (iii) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only (i), (iv) only

(Q-30). Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to merger and acquisition? (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

If an acquisition increases the debt level of a firm then the tax liability of the firm tends to increase as a result If either an increase or a decrease in the level of production causes the average cost per unit to increase then the firm is currently operating at its optimal size Firms can always benefit from economies of scale if they increase the size of their firm through acquisitions If a firm uses it surplus cash to acquire another firm, then the shareholders of the acquiring firm immediately incur a tax liability related to the transaction

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-31). The shareholders of a target firm benefit the most when: (a) (b)

(c)

(d)

An acquiring firm has better management team and replaces the target firm's managers The management of the target firm is more efficient than the management of the acquiring firm which replaces them The management of both the acquiring firm and the target firm are as equivalent as possible The current management team of the target firm is kept in place even though the managers of the acquiring firm are more suited to manage the target firm's situation

(Q-32). Given below are some of the reasons of the divestment strategy: (i) To raise cash (ii) To unload unprofitable operations (iii) To improve the strategic fit of a firm's various divisions (iv) To comply with industry policies Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (i), (iii) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only (i), (iv) only

(Q-33). Organisation should establish its long-term objectives in the _________ areas. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Five Six Seven Eight

(iii) Long-term objectives are established for long-term like 1-2 years (iv) Long-term objective is established in total sever areas Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(Q-36). Given below are some of the aspects of strategy execution: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Profitability Productivity Employee Relations Employee Leadership

(Q-35). Consider the following statements about the long-term objective: (i) (ii)

As the environment is very complex, Longterm objective should be rigid and inflexible Profitability & productivity are also an area in which long-term objective be established

Staffing the organization with needed skills Developing budgets to provide resources Developing vision and mission statement Creating a suitable work climate

Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii) only (i), (ii), (iv) only (ii), (iv) only

(Q-37). Which of the following statement is correct regarding vertical integration strategies: (a)

(b) (c)

(d)

(Q-34). Which of the following is not an area in which long-term objective should be established? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only (ii), (iv) only

Are one of the best strategic options for helping companies win the race for global market leadership Offer good potential to expand a company into new industries Are particularly effective in boosting a company's ability to expand into additional geographic markets, particularly the markets of foreign countries Provides a company competitive advantage within the same industry by giving it control to more parts and components

(Q-38). For backward vertical integration into the business of suppliers to be a viable and profitable strategy, a company: (a) (b)

(c)

Must first be a very profitable manufacturer Must be able to achieve the same scale economies as previous suppliers and match or beat suppliers’ production efficiency with no drop-off in quality and increase in price Must have plans to diversify into new industries for conglomeratic diversification

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Needs to have a very wide product line, so that it can expand in foreign markets

(Q-39). The strategic intent for forward vertical integration could be: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Go for the conglomeratic or concentric diversification Get better control in parts and components thereby build effective supply chain Build core competence in technology development Gain better access to end users and better understanding of final consumer

(Q-43). The reasons why a company opts to expand outside its home market include (a) (b) (c) (d)

(Q-44). Using domestic plants as a production base for exporting products to the foreign markets: (a)

(Q-40). A good example of vertical integration is (a) (b) (c) (d)

A global public accounting firm acquiring a small local or regional public accounting firm A large supermarket chain getting into convenience food stores A crude oil refiner purchasing a firm engaged in drilling and exploring for oil A railroad company acquiring another railroad company specializing in long-haul freight

(Q-41). Which of the following is not a potential advantage of backward vertical integration? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Reduced vulnerability to powerful suppliers Reduced risks of disruptions in obtaining crucial components or support services Reduced overall risk by controlling a bigger portion of the overall value chain activities Immediately providing differentiation capabilities to the company

(Q-42). Which of the following is not a disadvantage of vertical integration? (a)

(b)

(c) (d)

Vertical integration increases firm's capital investment in the industry, thus increasing risk if industry becomes unattractive later Vertical integration backward into parts and components manufacture can impair a company’s operating flexibility when it comes to changing out the use of certain parts and components. It may call for substantially different skills and capabilities than the firm possesses Vertical integration gives better control of the overall product value chain

Gaining access to new customers for the company's products or services Spreading its business risk across a wider market base Achieving lower costs and enhancing the company’s competitiveness All of these

(b) (c)

(d)

can be a powerful strategy because the company is not vulnerable to fluctuating exchange rates is usually a weak strategy when competitors are pursuing the export based strategies can be an excellent initial strategy to test the international waters and learn if attractive market positions can be established in the foreign markets works well when a firm does not have the required financial resources for entering into foreign markets

(Q-45). The advantages of using an export strategy to build a customer base in foreign markets include (a)

(b) (c) (d)

being able to minimize shipping costs, avoid tariffs, and curb the effects of fluctuating exchange rates minimizing risk and capital requirements at the initial level being cheaper and more cost effective than licensing and franchising being cheaper and more cost effective than a transnational strategy.

(Q-46). When a company operates in the markets of two or more different countries, its foremost strategic issue is: (a) (b)

(c)

how many dealers are to be made in different countries? whether to vary the company’s competitive approach to fit specific market conditions and buyer preferences in each host country or whether to employ essentially the same strategy in all countries? choosing which foreign companies for strategic alliances or joint ventures?

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

whether to test the waters with an export strategy before committing to some other competitive approach?

(Q-47). A “think local, act local” multi-domestic type of strategy: (a) (b) (c)

(d)

is very risky and subject to trade barriers and foreign currency fluctuations is usually defeated by a “think global, act global” type of strategy becomes more appealing if country-tocountry differences in buyer tastes, cultural traditions & market conditions are significant is generally an inferior strategy competitors are pursuing a global low-cost strategy

(Q-48). In which of the following situations is employing a “think local, act local” multi-domestic strategy highly questionable? (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

When a company’s vision is global market leadership through single, uniform competitive approach worldwide When there are significant country-tocountry differences in customer taste, preferences and buying habits When there are significant country-tocountry differences in distribution channels and marketing methods When local governments enact regulations requiring that products sold locally meet strictly-defined manufacturing specifications or performance standards

(Q-49). Which of the following is not a generic strategy as recommended by Michael Porter? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cost Leadership Technological Leadership Differentiation Focus

(Q-50). Mergers and Acquisitions is an integral part of what level of strategy (a) (b) (c) (d)

Corporate level Operational Level Business Level Functional Level

(Q-51). ____________ means lowest cost of operation in the industry and it is driven by efficiency, size, scale, experience or learning curve etc.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Cost Leadership Technological Leadership Differentiation Focus

(Q-52). In the case where an organization acquires its supplier, this is an example of (a) (b) (c) (d)

Horizontal Integration Forward Vertical Integration Backward Vertical Integration Conglomeratic Integration

(Q-53). Basic competitive strategies include: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cost leadership Focus Differentiation All of above

(Q-54). Basic competitive strategies include: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cost leadership Focus Differentiation All of above

(Q-55). A strategy to be the industry's overall lowcost provider tends to be more appealing than a differentiation or focus strategy: (a) (b) (c) (d)

There are many ways to achieve product differentiation that buyers find appealing. Industry is composed of buyers not concerned about product or brand quality Industry is of such nature that differentiation is the only possible option to stay survive Entry barriers are high, and buyers values premium products and services

(Q-56). A competitive strategy predicated on lowcost leadership tends to work best when: (a) (b)

(c) (d)

There are varying needs & preferences among the buyers of the product or service. Price competition is especially vigorous, and the offerings of rival firms are essentially identical and standardized Buyers prefer products or services of sellers have widely varying attributes and features Differentiating features and services is the primary driving force of the industry

(Q-57). A competitive strategy to be the low-cost provider in an industry works well when

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Price competition among rival sellers is especially vigorous There are few ways to achieve product differentiation that have value to buyers Buyers are not much concerned about the differentiating features and attributes All of these

(Q-62). A company attempting to be successful with a differentiation strategy has to: (a)

(b)

(Q-58). Being the overall low-cost provider in an industry has the attractive advantage of (a) (b) (c)

(d)

Building strong customer loyalty and locking customers into its product Giving the firm a very appealing brand image Putting a firm in position to compete offensively on the basis of low price, win the business of price sensitive customers Putting the company in strong position to be more profitable than companies pursuing a differentiation strategy

(Q-59). The best evidence that a company is the industry’s low-cost provider is that (a) (b) (c) (d)

It sells more of its product than its key competitors It has lower overall per unit costs than other competitors in the industry It has lower total operating costs on its income statement than do its competitors. It is earning greater profits and a higher rate of return on investment than its competitors

(Q-60). Which of the following is not one of the ways that a company can achieve a cost leadership? (a) (b)

(c) (d)

Cutting out distributors and dealers by selling direct to customers Striving hard to have maximum capacity utilization without going for additional capacity acquisition Relocating production facilities near to raw material so to save the transportation cost Having an expensive marketing campaign

(Q-61). Successful differentiation allows a firm to: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Be the industry’s best-cost provider Set the industry ceiling on price Command a premium price for its product and gain buyer loyalty to its brand Take sales and market share away from rivals by undercutting them on price

(c) (d)

Study buyer needs and behavior carefully to learn what buyers consider important, what they think has value, and what they are willing to pay for Incorporate more and more differentiating features and attributes to its product or service Have a widely known and highly respected brand name image Having highly competent advertising team

(Q-63). Strong marketing, product engineering, strong innovation & research etc. are essential for ___________ strategy. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cost leadership Focus Differentiation Best Value Provider

(Q-64). Sustained capital investment, intense supervision of labor, low-cost distribution system etc. are essential for ___________ strategy. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cost leadership Focus Differentiation Best Value Provider

(Q-65). Strong marketing, product engineering, strong innovation & research etc. are essential for ___________ strategy. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cost leadership Focus Differentiation Best Value Provider

(Q-66). __________ is a strategy in which a company concentrates its resources on entering or expanding in a narrow market or industry segment. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cost leadership Focus Differentiation Best Value Provider

(Q-67). Companies like Rolls Royce, Cartoon Network, Animal Planet etc. are using ______________. (a) (b)

Cost leadership Focus

ICA IPC IT-SM (c) (d)

Differentiation Best Value Provider

(b) (c) (d)

(Q-68). Easy-to-copy differentiating features: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Produces sustainable competitive advantage over a long term Is one of the major risks of differentiation strategy should never be incorporated in a company’s product or services Provides large market share to the Entity

(Q-69). The most differentiation are: (a) (b) (c) (d)

successful

approaches

to

Those that are also being pursued by other rivals with differentiation strategies. Those that are the costliest to incorporate Those that can be made even more attractive to buyers through clever advertising. Those that are hard for rivals to duplicate and that also have considerable buyer appeal

(Q-70). The drawback of a differentiation strategy include: (a)

(b)

(c) (d)

Trying to differentiate on the basis of attributes or features that can be easily copied by the competitors Choosing to differentiate on the basis of attributes that buyers do not perceive as valuable or worth paying for Trying to charge too high a price premium for the differentiating features All of these

(Q-71). A company achieves best-cost provider status by: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Selling a product with the best cost at the best price Having the best cost as compared to rivals for each activity Providing buyers with the best attributes at the best cost. Incorporating upscale attributes into its product and offering it at a lower cost than the competitors

(Q-72). Which of the following is not an aspect of Best-Cost Provider Strategy? (a)

Overall Low-Cost Strategy

Broad Differentiation Strategy Focused Low-Cost Strategy Intensification Strategy

(Q-73). What sets focused strategies apart from lowcost leadership & broad differentiation strategies is: (a) (b) (c) (d)

The attention paid to top-notch product performance and product quality Concentrated attention on serving the needs of buyers in a narrow piece of overall market Greater opportunity for differentiation Suitable for market situations where industry cannot be segmented into different areas

(Q-74). The chief difference between a low-cost leader strategy and a focused low-cost strategy is: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Whether the product is differentiated or not from the rivals The degree of bargaining power that buyers have The size of the buyer group that a company is trying to appeal to The number of upscale attributes incorporated into the product or services

(Q-75). The main difference between the broad differentiation & focused differentiation strategy is: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Whether the product is differentiated or not from the rivals The degree of bargaining power that buyers have The size of the buyer group that a company is trying to appeal to The number of upscale attributes incorporated into the product or services

(Q-76). In a strategy where company tries to differentiate its product or services from rivals’ for broad range of buyers is _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Overall Low-Cost Strategy Broad Differentiation Strategy Focused Low-Cost Strategy Focused Differentiation Strategy

(Q-77). In a strategy where the entity concentrates on a narrow buyer segment and outcompeting rivals on the basis of lower cost is _____________. (a) (b)

Overall Low-Cost Strategy Broad Differentiation Strategy

ICA IPC IT-SM (c) (d)

Focused Low-Cost Strategy Focused Differentiation Strategy

(Q-78). In a strategy where the entity offers niche members a product or service customized to their tastes and requirements is _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Overall Low-Cost Strategy Broad Differentiation Strategy Focused Low-Cost Strategy Focused Differentiation Strategy

(Q-79). Which of the following is another name of Grand or Directional Strategies? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Master Strategy Differentiation Strategy Stability Strategy Expansion Strategy

(Q-80). Which of the following is not a major Grand or Directional Strategies? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Retrenchment Strategy Differentiation Strategy Stability Strategy Expansion Strategy

(Q-81). A strategy where a firm stays with same business, same product & market is _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Retrenchment Strategy Combination Strategy Stability Strategy Expansion Strategy

(Q-82). Consider the following statements about Stability Strategy: (i)

It does not involve a redefinition of the existing business (ii) It is a do-nothing strategy (iii) It is basically a status quo-oriented strategy (iv) It is a high-risk strategy Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (i), (iii) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only (i), (iv) only

(Q-83). Consider the following statements about Expansion Strategy:

(i)

It does not involve a redefinition of the existing business (ii) Diversification is one of the approaches of expansion strategy (iii) It is basically a status quo-oriented strategy (iv) It is a high-risk, high reward strategy Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iv) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only (i), (iv) only

(Q-84). A strategy where a firm stays with same business, same product & market is _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Retrenchment Strategy Combination Strategy Stability Strategy Expansion Strategy

(Q-85). A growth strategy where a company sells existing product in existing market but in large quantity is called _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Market Penetration Market Development Product Development Diversification

(Q-86). A growth strategy where a company markets its present products to customers in new markets is called _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Market Penetration Market Development Product Development Diversification

(Q-87). A growth strategy where a company makes modification in its products but for the existing markets is called _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Market Penetration Market Development Product Development Diversification

(Q-88). Which of the following expansion strategy is usually the most challenging? (a) (b) (c)

Market Penetration Market Development Product Development

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Diversification

(Q-89). If a company enter into a new market or industry which it is not currently in, with a new product for that new market, it is called _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Market Penetration Market Development Product Development Diversification

(Q-90). Unrelated diversification is another name of ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Vertically Integrated Diversification Horizontally Integrated Diversification Concentric Diversification Conglomerate Diversification

(Q-91). Which of the following is not a related diversification? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Vertically Integrated Diversification Horizontally Integrated Diversification Concentric Diversification Conglomerate Diversification

(Q-92). Terms like Forward & Backward Integration is related to which of the following diversification? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Vertically Integrated Diversification Horizontally Integrated Diversification Concentric Diversification Conglomerate Diversification

(Q-93). A company wants to offload some of its existing business units. It should go for __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Retrenchment Strategy Combination Strategy Stability Strategy Expansion Strategy

(Q-94). Which of the following is not a type of Retrenchment Strategy? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Turnaround Strategy Divestment Strategy Liquidation Strategy Penetration

(Q-95). In which of the following type of merger or acquisition, entity faces the regulatory issues most? (a) (b)

Horizontal Concentric

(c) (d)

Conglomerate Vertical

(Q-96). Which of the following is the merger or acquisition with a direct competitor? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Horizontal Concentric Conglomerate Vertical

(Q-97). An auto maker also enters into the business of auto insurance and auto finance. It is __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Vertically Integrated Diversification Horizontally Integrated Diversification Concentric Diversification Conglomerate Diversification

(Q-98). A diversification where new business is disjointed from the existing businesses in terms of process, technology or function etc. is __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Vertically Integrated Diversification Horizontally Integrated Diversification Concentric Diversification Conglomerate Diversification

(Q-99). When an organization wants to reduce its scale of operation either marginally or substantially should go for ___________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Retrenchment Strategy Combination Strategy Stability Strategy Expansion Strategy

(Q-100). Consider the following statements about Turnaround Strategy: (i) It is the part of expansion strategy (ii) It is a type of internal retrenchment (iii) Through turnaround, organisation focus on ways to reverse the process of decline (iv) Over-staffing and low employee morale is one of the signs that shows entity should go for liquidation Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only (i), (iv) only

ICA IPC IT-SM

Answer 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

(c) (a) (c) (b) (c) (b) (b) (d) (a) (b) (a) (c) (d) (c) (b) (d) (c) (b) (d) (d) (b) (c) (a) (d) (b) (d) (d) (b) (a) (b) (a) (a) (c) (d) (d) (c) (d) (b) (d) (c)

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Answer (d) (d) (d) (c) (b) (b) (c) (a) (b) (a) (a) (c) (d) (d) (b) (b) (d) (c) (b) (d) (c) (a) (c) (a) (c) (b) (b) (b) (d) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (c) (b) (C) (d) (a) (b)

81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

(c) (b) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) (d) (d) (a) (a) (d) (a) (a) (c) (d) (a) (b)

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

(Q-1). Out Of 4ps in marketing mix three are product, promotion, and price, which is the 4th P. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Purpose Place Plan Physical evidence

(Q-2). Which of the following P is not included in the 7Ps of marketing mix? (a) (b) (c) (d)

People Purpose Promotion Price

(Q-3). From the buyer's point of view, product is considered as ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customers cost Customer solution Convenient availability Communication

(Q-4). Fashion designers usually adopts ___________ pricing policy. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Penetration Cost plus Market skimming Going rate

(Q-5). In marketing, ______ is the focal point. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Profit Sales Customer Market share

(Q-6). The major components of marketing mix are (a) (b) (c) (d)

Product Price Place All of the above

(Q-7). Which of the following are the majority used pricing policy?

Market skimming Market penetration Cost-plus All of the above

(Q-8). Setting a low initial price to attract a large number of buyers quickly and cover the large market share is known as _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Skimming pricing Going-rate pricing Value based pricing Penetration pricing

(Q-9). ______________ refers to the system that assists the organization in delivering the services to the customer. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Product Process Price Promotion

(Q-10). Given below are some of the statements about the needs of functional strategies: (i)

Determines what is to be done at functional level (ii) Facilitates the implementation of corporate and business strategies at the functional level (iii) Whether to be a price leader or a price follower in the market (iv) Brings harmony and coordination in the functional areas Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii) only (i), (ii), (iv) only (ii), (iv) only

(Q-11). Which of the following is not a functional level strategy? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Marketing Strategy Financing Strategy Cost-leadership Strategy Production Strategy

(Q-12). _________ is an activity that creates and sustains relationships among those who are willing and able to buy and sell products or services.? (a)

Marketing

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) (c) (d)

Financing Research & Development Production

(Q-13). Marketing strategy is a ___________ type of strategy. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Business level Growth Level Corporate Level Functional Level

(Q-14). Given below are some of the decisions to be made under marketing strategy are: (i) Kind of distribution network to be used (ii) Extent of advertisement and its budget (iii) Whether to be a price leader or a price follower in the industry (iv) Whether to offer a complete or limited warranty for its products Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii) only (i), (ii), (iv) only (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(Q-15). In effective target market, marketers should focus on: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Market segmentation Market Targeting Market positioning All of the above

(Q-16). Offering of the very affordable products like Honda Activa scooter is an example of __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Mass marketing Regional marketing Niche marketing Low-cost marketing

(Q-17). Offering of the very expensive products like Honda Goldwing Bike is an example of __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Mass marketing Regional marketing Niche marketing Low-cost marketing

(Q-18). Offering of the very expensive products like Harley Davidson Bike is an example of __________.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Mass marketing Regional marketing Niche marketing Low-cost marketing

(Q-19). Since a company cannot satisfy all customers in a given market, it must divide the market properly. This is known as __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Market Positioning Market Targeting Market Analysis Market Segmentation

(Q-20). After market segmentation, company should choose the best segment it wants to be. This is known as __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Market Positioning Market Targeting Market Analysis Market Segmentation

(Q-21). After determining the target segments, it should design strategies for profitably serving the chosen segment in a way better than competitor. This is known as __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Market Positioning Market Targeting Market Analysis Market Segmentation

(Q-22). Consider the following steps involved in the Marketing process: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Managing marketing efforts Analyzing market opportunities Selecting Target markets Developing marketing mix

Which of the following option represents the correct sequence? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

(Q-23). The __________ is the set of controllable marketing variables that the firm uses to produce the response it wants in the target market. (a) (b)

Marketing Process Marketing Mix

ICA IPC IT-SM (c) (d)

Marketing Analysis Marketing Plan

(Q-24). The ________ consists of everything that the firm can do to influence the demand for its product. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Marketing Process Marketing Mix Marketing Analysis Marketing Plan

(Q-25). Which of the following is not the part of 4 C’s in the context of marketing mix? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Costumer Solution Consumption Convenience Communication

(Q-26). _________ is the combination of goods and services which the company offers.? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Price Promotion Product Process

(Q-27). Given below are some of the points entity should consider under the Product component of the marketing mix: (i) (ii)

Proper management of product portfolio Differentiating the products from the competitors (iii) Proper attention to the branding and packaging of the product (iv) Proper understanding of its product position Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii) only (i), (ii), (iv) only (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(Q-28). Which of the following pricing policy is usually not used in the competitive market situations? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Market skimming Market penetration Cost-plus Going-rate/Market Price

(Q-29). Many times, company tends to adopt the price prevailing in the market. It is called ________.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Market skimming Market penetration Cost-plus Going-rate/Market Price

(Q-30). Apple generally uses ____________ pricing policy for its iPhones & iPad. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Market skimming Market penetration Cost-plus Going-rate/Market Price

(Q-31). Given below are some of the points regarding market skimming pricing policy: (i)

Company keeps a very low price for a new product to gain a majority market share (ii) This pricing policy is suitable for the buyers who are relatively price insensitive (iii) To apply market skimming successfully, product must be unique for the market (iv) This pricing policy should be adopted after due analysis of the market Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii) only (i), (ii), (iv) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only

(Q-32). Since companies cannot satisfy all consumers in a given market, they must do market _______, then market ________, and lastly market _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Segmentation, Positioning, Targeting Targeting, Positioning, Segmentation Segmentation, Targeting, Positioning Positioning, Segmentation, Targeting

(Q-33). __________ involves face-to-face interaction of sales force with prospective customers. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Personal Selling Advertising Publicity Sales promotion

(Q-34). In which of the mode of promotion, company is not required to make payment? (a) (b) (c)

Personal Selling Advertising Publicity

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Sales promotion

(Q-35). In which of the mode of promotion, company is required to make payment? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Personal Selling Advertising Sales promotion All of the above

(Q-36). Activities like discounts, contests, money refunds, instalments, exhibitions and fairs constitute sales promotion etc. would be classified as ________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Personal Selling Advertising Publicity Sales promotion

(Q-37). Which of the following statement is not correct about personal selling? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Involves face-to-face interaction of sales force with the prospective customers It involves very high cost It is one of the modes of promotion It is a non-personal mode of promotion

(Q-38). Which of the following statement is not correct about advertising? (a) (b) (c) (d)

There are very limited tools of advertising are available It involves very high cost It is one of the modes of promotion It is a non-personal mode of promotion

(Q-39). Which of the following statement is not correct about publicity? (a)

(b) (c) (d)

Basic tools for publicity are press releases, press conferences, reports, and internet releases etc. It involves very high cost It is one of the modes of promotion It is a non-personal mode of promotion

(Q-40). Which of the following statement is not correct about sales-promotion? (a)

(b)

Activities like discounts, contests, money refunds, instalments, exhibitions and fairs constitute sales promotion Today sales promotion is getting more and more ineffective

(c) (d)

It is one of the modes of promotion Sales promotion done periodically help in getting a larger market share

(Q-41). Activities like press releases, press conferences, reports, and internet releases etc. would be classified as ________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Personal Selling Advertising Publicity Sales promotion

(Q-42). From the marketers perspective, it is ___________ and from the customer’s perspective, it is __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Product, Communication Price, Convenience Promotion, Communication Place, Costumer Solution

(Q-43). From the marketers perspective, it is ___________ and from the customer’s perspective, it is __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Product, Costumer Solution Price, Convenience Promotion, Cost for Customers Place, Costumer Solution

(Q-44). From the marketers perspective, it is ___________ and from the customer’s perspective, it is __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Product, Communication Price, Cost for Customers Promotion, Convenience Place, Costumer Solution

(Q-45). Which of the following is not the part of expanded marketing mix? (a) (b) (c) (d)

People Physical evidence Place Process

(Q-46). The environment in which the market offering is delivered and where the firm and customer interact is called _____________. (a) (b) (c)

People Physical evidence Place

ICA IPC IT-SM (d)

Process

(Q-47). Actual procedures, methods & flow of activities by which product or service is delivered is called _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

People Physical evidence Place Process

(Q-48). All human actors who play a part in delivery of the market offering and thus influence the buyer’s perception is called _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

People Physical evidence Place Process

(Q-49). Michael Porter has proposed the _______ as a tool for creating more customer value. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Product chain analysis Value chain analysis Supply chain analysis Marketing analysis

(Q-50). __________ refers to the marketing strategy seeking to increase the acceptability of a social ideas or practice. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Augmented Marketing Social Marketing Direct Marketing Relationship Marketing

(Q-51). __________ refers to the provision of additional services and benefits built around the actual products or services that relate to introduction of hi-tech services. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Augmented Marketing Social Marketing Direct Marketing Relationship Marketing

(Q-52). __________ refers to the marketing through various advertising media that interact directly with consumers. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Services Marketing Person Marketing Direct Marketing Relationship Marketing

(Q-53). __________ refers to the marketing technique that focuses on creating & maintaining strong relationships with customers. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Services Marketing Person Marketing Organization Marketing Relationship Marketing

(Q-54). Application of marketing techniques for marketing of services is called ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Services Marketing Person Marketing Organization Marketing Relationship Marketing

(Q-55). __________ refers to the activities undertaken to create, maintain or change attitudes towards particular people. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Place Marketing Person Marketing Organization Marketing Relationship Marketing

(Q-56). __________ refers to the activities undertaken to create, maintain or change attitudes towards particular organisation. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Place Marketing Person Marketing Organization Marketing Enlightened Marketing

(Q-57). __________ refers to the activities undertaken to create, maintain or change attitudes towards particular place. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Place Marketing Person Marketing Organization Marketing Enlightened Marketing

(Q-58). Incredible India campaigns are the example of ________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Place Marketing Person Marketing Organization Marketing Enlightened Marketing

(Q-59). Marketing philosophy that says a company’s marketing should support best long-run performance of the marketing system is called _____________.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Place Marketing Person Marketing Organization Marketing Enlightened Marketing

(Q-60). Enlightened Marketing has total ________ principles to follow. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Three Four Five Six

(Q-61). Which of the following is not a principle of Enlightened Marketing? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer-Oriented Marketing Innovative Marketing Value Marketing Concentrated Marketing

(Q-62). A market-coverage strategy in which a firm decides to target several market segments and designs separate offer for each is called __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Differential Marketing Synchro-marketing Concentrated Marketing Enlightened Marketing

(Q-63). When the demand for the product is irregular due to season etc. entity uses __________ to manage the demand. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Differential Marketing Synchro-marketing Concentrated Marketing Enlightened Marketing

(Q-64). ____________ is a strategy whereby a product is developed and marketed for a very well defined and specific segment of market. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Differential Marketing Synchro-marketing Concentrated Marketing Demarketing

(Q-65). Marketing strategies to reduce demand temporarily or permanently without destroying but only to reduce or shift it is called ____________. (a) (b) (c)

Differential Marketing Synchro-marketing Concentrated Marketing

(d)

Demarketing

(Q-66). Consider the following steps involved in the Marketing Plan contents: (i) Opportunity & Threat Analysis (ii) Executive Summary (iii) Objectives, Goals & Issues based on the SWOT Analysis (iv) Current Marketing Situation Which of the following option represents the correct sequence? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

(Q-67). General Stores and Apple Ltd. are all-equity firms. General Stores has 1,750 shares outstanding at a market price of $18.40 a share. Apple Ltd. has 2,100 shares outstanding at a price of $34 a share. Apple Ltd. is acquiring General Stores for $34,900 in cash. What is the merger premium per share? (a) (b) (c) (d)

$0.46 $0.89 $1.54 $1.65

(Q-68). Game Shop has 1,200 shares outstanding at a market price per share of $13. Sports Shop has 2,800 shares outstanding at a market price of $29 a share. Neither firm has any debt. Sports Shop is acquiring Game Shop for $19,500 in cash. What is the merger premium per share? (a) (b) (c) (d)

$1.13 $1.20 $2.75 $3.25

(Q-69). SS Ltd. has 1,600 shares outstanding at a market price per share of $11. JS Ltd. has 1,800 shares outstanding at a market price of $14 a share. Neither firm has any debt. JS Ltd. is acquiring SS Ltd. The incremental value of the acquisition is $1,600. What is the value of SS Ltd. to JS Ltd.? (a) (b) (c) (d)

$1,600 $17,600 $19,200 $22,500

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-70). Tuesday's and Thursday's are all-equity firms. Tuesday's has 5,600 shares outstanding at a market price of $28 a share. Thursday's has 4,500 shares outstanding at a price of $42 a share. Thursday's is acquiring Tuesday's. The incremental value of the acquisition is $4,200. What is the value of Tuesday's to Thursday's? (a) (b) (c) (d)

$130,200 $152,600 $156,800 $161,000

(Q-71). Which of the following is not a major R&D approach adopted by the organisations in Implementing the strategy? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Technology Leaders Technology Imitator Lower End Technology Followers Technology Appraisal

(Q-72). __________ are the firms who develops new technologies and takes a lead in the R&D. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Technology Leaders Technology Imitator Lower End Technology Followers Technology Appraisal

(Q-73). __________ are the firms who do not take lead in R&D but imitates the successful products and services based on the new technologies. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Technology Leaders Technology Imitator Lower End Technology Followers Technology Appraisal

(Q-74). __________ are the firms who mass produce products similar to but significantly less expansive. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Technology Leaders Technology Imitator Lower End Technology Followers Technology Appraisal

(Q-75). Consider the following statements regarding the technological leadership approach of Research and Development strategy: (i)

These are the firms who do not take lead in R&D but imitates the successful products and services based on the new technologies

(ii)

This strategy involves huge risk as it causes high R&D costs and there is no surety that the ultimate product be a commercial success (iii) In this approach, risks and rewards are less compared to other approach (iv) These are the firms who develops new technologies and takes a lead in the R&D Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iv) only (i), (ii), (iv) only (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(Q-76). Consider the following statements regarding the technology imitator approach of Research and Development strategy: (i)

These are the firms who do not take lead in R&D but imitates the successful products and services based on the new technologies (ii) This strategy involves huge risk as it causes high R&D costs and there is no surety that the ultimate product be a commercial success (iii) In this approach, risks and rewards are less compared to other approach (iv) These are the firms who develops new technologies and takes a lead in the R&D Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iv) only (i), (iii) only (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(Q-77). Consider the following statements regarding the task performed by R&D employees & managers: (i) (ii)

Transferring complex technology Adapting processes to local raw materials, markets etc. (iii) Development of works ethics and culture (iv) Altering products to particular tastes and specifications Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iv) only (i), (ii), (iv) only (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-78). Whether a company should have in-house R&D approach, or it should outsource it, depends upon _________ and ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Market growth rate, Market share Business strength, Market attractiveness Technology change, Market growth Strength, Opportunity

(Q-79). Situation where company should acquire a specialist technology firm which will develop technology on behalf of the company is when pace of technology change is _________ and market growth rate is ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Slow, Slow Slow, Fast Fast, Slow Fast, Fast

(Q-80). In-house R&D is preferred option for the companies operating in the industry where pace of technology change is _________ and market growth rate is ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Slow, Slow Slow, Fast Fast, Slow Fast, Fast

(Q-81). For developing technologies in its behalf, one of the largest multi-national corporation Google Inc. has acquired ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Android YouTube NestLab All of the above

(Q-82) Consider the following statements regarding the role played by R&D policies to enhances the strategic implementation efforts: (i)

Performs research needed to fulfil the overall objectives (ii) Develop processes as per the needs (iii) Perform R&D within the firm or to contract R&D to outside firms (iv) Use researchers as per the requirement Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iv) only (i), (iii) only

(d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(Q-83) Consider the following factors having an influence on employee competence & performance: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Recruitment and selection Training Appraisal of performance Compensation

Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iv) only (i), (iii) only (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(Q-84) Consider the following statements about the human resource function of the organisation: (i)

In the growing number of organizations, human resource function is now getting less and less important (ii) Recruitment and selection practices can have a strong influence on employee competence and performance (iii) Well-designed strategic management system can fail if insufficient attention is given to the human resource function (iv) Strategic human resource management may be defined as the linking of human resource management with the strategic goals and objectives of the organisation Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only (i), (iii) only (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(Q-85). In a growing number of organizations, human resources are now viewed as a source of great __________ for the company. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Opportunity Threat Competitive advantage Competitive disadvantage

(Q-86). For the human resource function, strategic focus should be given in the _____________ areas. (a) (b)

Pre-selection practices Selection practices

ICA IPC IT-SM (c) (d)

Post-selection practices All of the above

(Q-87) Consider the following statements about the strategic role played by human resource manager: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Providing purposeful direction Creating competitive atmosphere Diversion of workforce Empowerment of human resources

Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only (i), (iii) only (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(Q-88). ICICI Ltd. markets itself as a Bank to promote its image. It is type of: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Person Marketing Place Marketing Organization Marketing Social Marketing

(Q-89). Functional level constitutes the __________ hierarchical level of strategic management. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Upper Middle Lower All of the above

(Q-90). Marketing strategies used by politicians, film stars, sports stars etc. is an example of __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Person Marketing Place Marketing Organization Marketing Social Marketing

(Q-91). Expanded version of marketing mix is mainly due to the growth of ________ entities. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Manufacturing sector Agriculture sector Service sector Trading sector

(Q-92). L Ltd. deals in kids learning products. It has participated in educational fair. It is an example of _____________. (a) (b)

Personal selling Advertising

(c) (d)

Publicity Sales promotion

(Q-93). Honda Pvt. Ltd. launched a road safety campaign in India. It is an example of __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Person Marketing Place Marketing Organization Marketing Social Marketing

(Q-94). Singapore Tourism Ministry has recently launched advertising programs to attract tourists from the world. It is an example of __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Person Marketing Place Marketing Organization Marketing Social Marketing

(Q-95) Consider the following statements about the advantages of the logistics management: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Improved delivery time Improved customer satisfaction Reduced inventory holding requirements Cost savings in multiple areas

Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only (i), (iii) only (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(Q-96). Which of the following is not a question to be considered in the logistics management? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Which sources of raw materials and components are available? How much be spend on the R&D Function How many manufacturing locations of the organisation are there? What is the nature of distribution facilities?

(Q-97). _____________ is an extension of ________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Marketing management, Logistics management Supply chain management, Logistics management Marketing management, Financial Management Purchase Management, Marketing Management?

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-98). Consider the following steps involved in the implementation of the supply chain management system: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Procurement Physical distribution Product development Manufacturing

Which of the following option represents the correct sequence? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

(Q-99). Which of the following is the first step involved in the implementation of the supply chain management system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Procurement Performance measurement Product development Manufacturing

(Q-100). Which of the following is the last step involved in the implementation of the supply chain management system? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Procurement Performance measurement Product development Manufacturing

Answer 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

(b) (b) (b) (c) (c) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c)

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

(c) (a) (d) (d) (d) (a) (c) (c) (d) (b)

Answer 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

(a) (b) (b) (b) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d) (a) (d) (c) (a) (c) (d) (d) (d) (a) (b) (b) (c) (c) (a) (b) (c) (b) (d) (a) (b) (b) (a) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (a) (a) (d) (c)

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

(d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) (c) (d) (c) (d) (d) (a) (b) (c) (b) (c) (c) (c) (d) (b) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (d) (d) (c) (c) (a) (c) (d) (d) (b) (d) (b) (b) (b) (c) (b)

ICA IPC IT-SM (iii) Strategy formulation requires coordination among few individuals (iv) Strategy formulation is managing forces during the action Which of the above statements are correct? (Q-1). Once company managers have decided on a strategy, the emphasis turns to: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Converting the strategy into actions Empowering employees to revise and reorganize value chain activities Establishing policies and procedures to formulate the strategy Developing the organisational structure and corporate culture

(Q-2). ____________ is the managerial exercise of putting a freshly chosen strategy into place. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Corporate strategy Strategy planning Strategic Management Strategy Implementation

(Q-3). Strategy formulation is primarily an ________ process while strategy implementation is primarily an ___________ process. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Operational, Motivating Motivating, Intellectual Intellectual, Operational Operational, Intellectual

(Q-4). Strategy formulation is ________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Mainly on operational process Positioned after strategy implementation Positioning forces before the action Focuses on efficiency

(Q-5). Strategy formulation focuses on __________ while strategy implementation focuses on ________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Efficiency, Effectiveness Motivation, Efficiency Intellectual, Effectiveness Effectiveness, Efficiency

(Q-6). Consider the following statements about strategy formulation: (i) (ii)

Strategy formulation focuses on efficiency Strategy formulation is primarily an intellectual process

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only (ii), (iv) only

(Q-7). Consider the following statements about strategy implementation: (i)

Strategy implementation focuses on efficiency (ii) Strategy implementation is primarily an intellectual process (iii) Strategy implementation requires coordination among few individuals (iv) Strategy implementation is managing forces during the action Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only (i), (iv) only

(Q-8). To achieve the strategic objectives successfully, entity needs not only ___________ strategic formulation but also needs __________ strategy implementation. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Weak, Excellent Flawed, Sound Sound, Excellent Excellent, Flawed

(Q-9). To kinds of linkages exists between strategy formulation and implementation. These linkages are ______________ & _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Horizontal, Vertical Related, Unrelated Forward, Backward Strong, Weak

(Q-10). A company formulates a new strategy and makes necessary changes in its structure, culture etc. It indicates _____________ between the strategy formulation and implementation.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Forward Linkage Backward Linkage Horizontal Linkage Vertical Linkage

(Q-11). A company formulates a strategy considering its existing structure, culture, leadership etc. It indicates _____________ between the strategy formulation and implementation. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Forward Linkage Backward Linkage Horizontal Linkage Vertical Linkage

(Q-12). If an organisation is both effective and efficient, it is going to _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Thrive Die slowly Survive Die quickly

(Q-13). If an organisation is effective but inefficient, it is going to _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Thrive Die slowly Survive Die quickly

(Q-14). If an organisation is ineffective but efficient, it is going to _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Thrive Die slowly Survive Die quickly

(Q-15). If an organisation is both ineffective and inefficient, it is going to _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Thrive Die slowly Survive Die quickly

(Q-16). To implement the strategy successfully, entity needs: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Supportive Organisational Structure Supportive Corporate Culture Supportive Leadership All of the above

(Q-17). Changes in ____________ often require changes in the organizational __________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Structure, Strategy Strategy, Structure Leadership, Strategy Leadership, Objective

(Q-18). A company's corporate culture is best defined and identified by: (a) (b)

(c) (d)

Its vision, mission and strategy The character of a company’s internal work climate, values, beliefs, business principles, traditions etc. Its code of ethics Its internal politics

(Q-19). ______________ is the company's formal configuration of its intended roles, procedures, authority, and decision-making processes. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Organisational Structure Corporate Culture Corporate Leadership Strategic Management

(Q-20). In order to implement strategies, all companies need _______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Organisational Structure Corporate Culture Corporate Leadership All of the above

(Q-21). Unless structure follows strategy, inefficiency results. This has been stated by ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Michael Porter Peter Drucker A. D. Chandler H.C. Kalman

(Q-22). Multinational companies usually have: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strong corporate cultures Multiple cultures rather than a single culture Weak cultures Absence of cultures

(Q-23). A. D. Chandler found a particular structure sequence to be repeated as organizations grow and change strategy over time. Consider the first four steps of this sequence: (i)

New administrative problems emerge

ICA IPC IT-SM (ii) Organisational performance declines (iii) New strategy is formulated (iv) New organisational structure is established Which of the following sequence is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)

(Q-24). Consider the following statements about organisational structure: (i)

Structure should be designed to assist in successful strategy implementation (ii) Strategy should follow the structure (iii) Organisational structure is usually established once in a lifetime (iv) There are various kinds of organisational structure to select from Which of the above statement are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only (i), (iv) only

(Q-25). According to you which among the following factor may have the most significant influence on the organisational structure? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Age of the Company Industry in which company operates Strategy of the company Production facilities of the company

(Q-26). If the owner of the organisation wants to have complete control over everything happening in the organisation and wants to directly involve in everything, he should choose ________________ for its organisation. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Network Structure Divisional Structure Simple Structure Strategic Business Unit (SBU) Structure

(Q-27). In the very initial stage where the size and operation of the entity is very small, it should usually go for ________________. (a) (b)

Network Structure Divisional Structure

(c) (d)

Simple Structure Strategic Business Unit (SBU) Structure

(Q-28). Organisation having single product and working with the single strategy in the single geographical market should adopt _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Network Structure Divisional Structure Simple Structure Strategic Business Unit (SBU) Structure

(Q-29). As the organisation grows and becomes complex, which of the following structure becomes ineffective? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Network Structure Divisional Structure Simple Structure Strategic Business Unit (SBU) Structure

(Q-30). In the organisation where there is a Chief Executive Officer and managers for managing the operations like production, marketing, finance, purchase etc. is most likely to have ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Functional Structure Divisional Structure Simple Structure Strategic Business Unit (SBU) Structure

(Q-31). Functional structures help to create: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Teamwork Specialization Project work groups Multi-skilled employees

(Q-32). Specialization is a feature of which organisational structure? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Functional Structure Divisional Structure Multi-Divisional Structure Strategic Business Unit (SBU) Structure

(Q-33). Restricted view of organizational goals is represented by deploying a (a) (b) (c) (d)

Network Structure Divisional Structure Simple Structure Functional Structure

(Q-34). Which of the following not a purpose of an organisational structure?

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

To coordinate people and resources To set up formal communication structure To formalize authority To limit organisational growth

(Q-35). If the organisation is structured on the basis of the major products or services it deals in, it has adopted _____________ structure. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Functional Structure Division by Product Division by Customer Division by Geographical Area

(Q-36). Most small businesses are organized as ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple structures Matrix structures Network structure Hourglass structure

(Q-37). The ______________ combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and product. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple structure Network structure Hourglass structure Matrix structure

(Q-38). Which of the following is an advantage of a matrix organization? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Clear organizational structure Coordination of complex and interdependent activities Elimination of power struggles All of the above

(Q-39). The framework of interrelationships among individuals & departments that describe relationships of reporting and accountability is called: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Chain of command Functional arrangement Specialization Organizational structure

(Q-40). A process of retaining authority in the hands of a few high-level managers is called: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Centralization Decentralization Formalization None of the above

(Q-41). Which form of departmentalization would be most appropriate in companies that have distinctly different product lines? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Functional Structure Division by Product Division by Customer Division by Geographical Area

(Q-42). Dividing Canada into, Western Canada, Eastern Canada, North Canada etc. for the purpose of organisational organisation would be considered as _______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Functional Structure Division by Product Division by Customer Division by Geographical Area

(Q-43). The organisational structure where the organisation is structured on the basis of division and each division will have their own functional hierarchy with a divisional manager managing the day to day operations of the division is _________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Functional Structure Network Structure Multi-divisional Structure Network structure

(Q-44). Which of the following are the reasons that why divisional structure is costly? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Each division needs functional specialists Each division needs divisional heads Needs extensive control mechanism All of the above

(Q-45). The SBU organisational structure consists at least __________ layers. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Two Three Four None of the above

(Q-46). In the SBU organisational structure, the layer which comes in the middle is ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Corporate Layer SBU Layer Knowledge Layer Divisional Layer

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-47). In the SBU organisational structure, the layer which comes at the last is ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Corporate Layer SBU Layer Knowledge Layer Divisional Layer

(Q-48). A book-publishing company organizes its structure around customer groups like colleges, secondary schools, and private schools is following _______________ structure. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Functional Structure Division by Product Division by Customer Division by Geographical Area

(Q-49). _____________ is a set of values that states what an organisation stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Organizational structure Organizational culture Organizational spirit Organizational effectiveness

(Q-50). ___________ leader is self-confident and can attract followers by his great influence. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Charismatic Autocratic Traditional Transactional

(Q-51). In ___________ leadership, there is a complete centralization of authority in the leader. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Charismatic Autocratic Traditional Transactional

(Q-52). In an organisation, ideas need to be crossfertilized, resources are scarce and abilities to process information need to be improved. The most suited structure for this organisation is: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple structure Network structure Hourglass structure Matrix structure

(Q-53). In an organisational structure where there is both the horizontal and vertical flow of authority at the same level is ________________.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple structure Network structure Hourglass structure Matrix structure

(Q-54). In an organisational structure where there may be two superior or bosses of an employee may be ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple structure Network structure Hourglass structure Matrix structure

(Q-55). In an organisational structure where there is the violation of the unity of command principle is ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple structure Network structure Hourglass structure Matrix structure

(Q-56). Old organisational structures usually configured in ______________ mode while modern organisation is usually configured in ______________ mode. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simplex, Half duplex Vertical communication, Horizontal communication Horizontal communication, Vertical communication Network structure, Hourglass structure

(Q-57). Old organisations usually have ___________ decision making while modern organisation usually have ________________ decision making. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Decentralized, Centralized Vertical, Horizontal Horizontal, Vertical Centralized, Decentralized

(Q-58). For the development of matrix structure. ___________, have proposed set of distinct phases. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Michael Porter H.C. Kalman Davis and Lawrence Gluck & Jauch

(Q-59). For development of matrix structure Davis & Lawrence, have proposed _____ distinct phases.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Two Three Four Six

(Q-60). Consider the following steps about the phases involved in the development of matrix structure as given by Davis and Lawrence: (i) Cross-functional task forces (ii) Mature matrix (iii) Product/brand management Which of the following sequence is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) (ii), (iii), (i) (iii), (ii), (i) (i), (iii), (ii)

(Q-61). In which of the phase for the development of matrix structure as given by Davis & Lawrence, project manager becomes a product or brand manager? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cross-functional task forces Mature matrix Product/brand management Internalization

(Q-62). In which of the phase for the development of matrix structure as given by Davis & Lawrence, both the functional and product structures are made permanent? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cross-functional task forces Mature matrix Product/brand management Internalization

(Q-63). The structure which is also termed as nonstructure is ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple structure Network structure Hourglass structure Matrix structure

(Q-64). The structure that should be adopted by the entity which has outsourced almost all of its functions is _______________. (a) (b) (c)

Simple structure Network structure Hourglass structure

(d)

Matrix structure

(Q-65). The organisation which has adopted the ___________ is also called virtual organisation. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple structure Network structure Hourglass structure Matrix structure

(Q-66). If an organisation needs very high degree of flexibility and adaptability as per the changing market conditions, it should go for ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple structure Network structure Hourglass structure Matrix structure

(Q-67). If an organisation thinks that it should not go for the salaries employees, but it should use contractbased employees, it should go for ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple structure Network structure Hourglass structure Matrix structure

(Q-68). If an organisational operations have been impacted by the information technology and telecommunication network, the most probable organisational structure for such a kind of organisations are ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Simple structure Network structure Hourglass structure Matrix structure

(Q-69). Particularly in the IT Industry, the role played by middle management is ___________ as the tasks performed by them are increasingly being replaced by the technological tools. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Increasing Diminishing Constant None of the above

(Q-70). Consider the following statement about the Hourglass Structure: (i) (ii)

It helps in enhancing responsiveness by simplifying decision making process It has the broadest middle level

ICA IPC IT-SM (iii) The managers in the hourglass structure are generalists and perform wide variety of tasks (iv) In the hourglass structure, the promotion opportunities for the lower levels managers increased significantly Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), only (i), (iii) only (i), (iv) only

(Q-71). ___________ played major role in the development of core competence concept. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Michael Porter H.C. Kalman C.K. Prahalad Gluck & Jauch

(Q-72). The concept of core concept has been invented in the year ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

1969 1911 1990 1995

(Q-73). ____________ are the unique strength of the organisation which is not shared by others. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strategic Management Competitive Advantage Core Competence Competitive Edge

(Q-74). The concept of value chain analysis is first developed by ________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Michael Porter H.C. Kalman C.K. Prahalad Gluck & Jauch

(Q-75). The concept of value chain analysis has been invented in the year ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

1969 1911 1990 1985

(Q-76). ____________ refers to the activities that a firm engaged in any specific industry performs to transform input into the final products and services.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Supply chain Value chain Core competence Competitive advantage

(Q-77). In the value chain analysis, value chain activities are classified into the _______________ and _________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Related activities, Unrelated activities Value added activities, Non value added activities Primary activities, secondary activities Primary activities, support activities

(Q-78). Value chain analysis refers to ____________. (a) (b)

(c) (d)

Process by which firm classifies value chain activities into primary & support activities Activities that a firm engaged in any specific industry performs to transform input into the final products and services Unique strength of the organisation which is not shared by others The activities are directly concerned with creating and delivering a product or service

(Q-79). Consider the following statement about the value chain and value chain analysis: (i)

Value chain analysis is a great source of competitive advantage (ii) Value chain analysis refers to the activities that a firm engaged in any specific industry performs to transform input into the final products and services (iii) In the value chain analysis, value chain activities are classified into the primary and secondary activities (iv) Purpose of value chain analysis is to identify remove those activities which do not add any value to the customer Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), only (i), (iii) only (i), (iv) only

(Q-80). Purpose of ____________ is to identify remove those activities which do not add any value to the customer.

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Supply Chain Analysis Value Chain Analysis Core competence Competitive advantage

(Q-81). _____________ of the value chain analysis are directly concerned with creating and delivering a product or service. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Support Activities Secondary Activities Primary Activities Competitive advantage

(Q-82). Which of the following is not the part of the primary activities of value chain analysis? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Inbound logistics Operations Procurement Outbound logistics

(Q-83). Which of the following primary activities of value chain analysis is concerned with the receiving, storing and distributing the raw material? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Inbound logistics Operations Procurement Outbound logistics

(Q-84). Which of the following primary activities of value chain analysis is concerned with the transformation of input into the final products and services. It includes activities like machining, assembling, packing, testing etc.? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Inbound logistics Operations Procurement Outbound logistics

(Q-85). Which of the following primary activities of value chain analysis is concerned with the distribution of final products to the consumers? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Inbound logistics Operations Procurement Outbound logistics

(Q-86). In which of the following primary activities of value chain analysis, activities like a warehousing, transport, handling etc. of the final products are handled?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Inbound logistics Operations Marketing and sales Outbound logistics

(Q-87). Which of the following primary activities of value chain analysis is concerned with making the consumers aware about the products or services so that they can purchase it? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Inbound logistics Services Marketing and sales Outbound logistics

(Q-88). In which of the following primary activities of value chain analysis, activities like installation, repair, warranty, after sale services etc. are handled? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Inbound logistics Services Marketing and sales Outbound logistics

(Q-89). ___________ is the process through which various resources (inputs) are obtained. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Inbound logistics Procurement Outbound logistics Logistics management

(Q-90). Which of the following is not the part of the support activities of value chain analysis? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Procurement Technology Services Firm Infrastructure

(Q-91). _____________ of the value chain analysis do not contribute the value directly but helps the primary activities. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Support Activities Secondary Activities Primary Activities Competitive advantage

(Q-92). In which of the following support activities of value chain analysis, activities like managing finance, planning, legal, accounting management etc. are considered? (a)

Procurement

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) (c) (d)

Technology Human Resource Management Firm Infrastructure

(Q-93). In which of the following support activities of value chain analysis, activities like recruiting, training, rewarding people in the organisation etc. are considered? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Procurement Technology Human Resource Management Firm Infrastructure

(Q-94). What does PEST stand for? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Political, environmental, strategic, testing Political, environmental, social, technological Political, economic, strategic, technological Political, economic, social, technological

(Q-95). Which one is not an element in the primary activities of a value chain? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Technology Inbound logistics Outbound logistics Service

(Q-96). Core competences are likely to be more robust and difficult to imitate if they relate to the management of linkages within the organization's _____________ and linkages into the ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Primary activity, Support activities Value chain, Supplier & distributor chain Inbound logistics, Outbound logistics Service, Manufacturing

(Q-97). As per Kurt Lewin, during strategic change, unfreezing is the process where: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Behaviour patterns are redefined People are made aware about the need of change New behaviour patterns are made permanent in the organisation Employees asked to identify the role model

(Q-98). As per Kurt Lewin, during strategic change, reunfreezing is the process where: (a) (b)

Behaviour patterns are redefined People are made aware about the need of change

(c) (d)

New behaviour patterns are made permanent in the organisation Employees asked to identify the role model

(Q-99). Consider the following steps about the stages for reassigning the behaviour patterns as given by H. C. Kelman: (i) Internalization (ii) Identification (iii) Compliance Which of the following sequence is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) (ii), (iii), (i) (iii), (ii), (i) (i), (iii), (ii)

(Q-100). As per H.C. Kelman, ________________ involves internal changes to the individual’s thought process so that he can adjust with the new environment. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Internalization Identification Compliance Unfreezing

(Q-101). As per H. C. Kelman, through ____________, behaviour pattern are strictly enforced through rewards and punishment approach. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Internalization Identification Compliance Unfreezing

(Q-102). Transactional Leadership ______________: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Uses the charisma and enthusiasm to inspire the workforce Improves the current situation without going for any major or dynamic change Appropriate in the troubling environment Rarely used in the organisation

(Q-103). Consider the following statement about the traditional leadership style: (i)

This leadership approach provides the scope of more than one leader at a time (ii) This approach is like a Top-Down Approach (iii) This approach is suitable in the organisations in the early stage of its life-cycle

ICA IPC IT-SM (iv) Focuses on incremental improvements Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), only (i), (iii) only (ii), (iv) only

(Q-104). Consider the following statement about the transformational leadership style: (i)

This leadership approach provides the scope of more than one leader at a time (ii) This approach is like a Top-Down Approach (iii) This approach is suitable in the organisations in the early stage of its life-cycle (iv) Focuses on incremental improvements Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), only (i), (iii) only (ii), (iv) only

(Q-105). Strategic culture conflict is the situation: (a) (b) (c) (d)

A situation where there is a conflict between the strategy and organisational leadership A situation where there is a conflict between the strategy and organisational structure A situation where there is a conflict between the strategy and organisational culture None of the above

(Q-106). If the corporate culture is compatible with organisational strategy, it becomes a _____________ in the successful execution of strategy otherwise it becomes ____________ in the successful execution of strategy. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Related, Unrelated Strength, Contributor Contributor, Obstacle Source, Destination

(Q-108). Consider the following statement about the strategy implementation: (i)

Efficiency and effectiveness mean the same in strategic management (ii) Strategies may require changes in the organizational structure (iii) Supportive culture promote better strategy execution (iv) Primarily, strategy formulation is an operational process and strategy implementation is an intellectual process Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(Q-109). Consider the following statement about the corporate culture: (i)

Supportive culture promotes better strategy execution (ii) An organization’s culture is always an obstacle to the successful strategy implementation (iii) A corporate culture is always identical in all the organisations (iv) Making changes in the unsupportive culture takes lot of time and efforts Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Michael Porter H.C. Kalman C.K. Prahalad Kurt Lewin

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), only (i), (iii) only (i), (iv) only

(Q-110). Changing a problem culture: (a)

(b)

(Q-107). Change model proposed by _________ is widely followed in the business world. (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), only (i), (iii) only (ii), (iv) only

(c) (d)

is best done by selecting a team of key employees to lead the culture change effort within a short period can be done very quickly if managers give incentive to exhibiting the desired new cultural behaviors in the organisation is one of the toughest managerial tasks that needs lot of continuous efforts is done by instituting an aggressive program to train employees in the desired cultural manner in a short period

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-111). Which of the following is not an example of an unhealthy company culture? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Change-resistant cultures Unethical and greed-driven cultures Politicized cultures Hyper-adaptive cultures

(Q-112). Primarily there are __________ major types of organizational control. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Two Three Four Five

(Q-113). Which of the following is not a major type of organizational control? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Operational Control Premise control Management Control Strategic Controls

(Q-114). ____________ deals with individual tasks or transactions like stock control, production control, cost control etc. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Operational Control Premise control Management Control Strategic Controls

(Q-115). Primarily there are __________ major types of strategic control. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Two Three Four Five

(Q-116). Which of the following is not a major type of strategic control? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strategic surveillance Premise control Management Control Special alert Controls

(Q-117). ___________ is a tool for systematic and continuous monitoring of the environment to verify the validity and accuracy of the premises on which the strategy has been built. (a) (b)

Strategic surveillance Premise control

(c) (d)

Implementation control Special alert controls

(Q-118). In case of ______________ organizations usually form crisis management teams to handle the situation. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strategic surveillance Premise control Implementation control Special alert controls

(Q-119). Monitoring strategic thrusts is the part of _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strategic surveillance Premise control Implementation control Special alert controls

(Q-120). Milestone _____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Reviews

Strategic surveillance Premise control Implementation control Special alert controls

is

the

part

of

ICA IPC IT-SM

Answer 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

(a) (d) (c) (c) (d) (b) (d) (c) (c) (a) (b) (a) (c) (b) (d) (d) (b) (b) (a) (d) (c) (b) (d) (d) (c) (c) (c) (c) (c) (a) (b) (a) (d) (d) (b) (a) (d) (b) (d) (a)

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Answer (b) (d) (c) (d) (b) (b) (d) (c) (b) (a) (b) (d) (d) (d) (d) (b) (d) (c) (b) (d) (c) (b) (b) (b) (b) (b) (b) (c) (b) (c) (c) (c) (c) (a) (d) (b) (d) (a) (d) (b)

81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

(c) (c) (a) (b) (d) (d) (c) (b) (b) (c) (a) (d) (c) (d) (a) (b) (b) (c) (c) (a) (c) (b) (d) (c) (c) (c) (d) (b) (d) (c) (d) (b) (b) (a) (c) (c) (b) (d) (c) (c)

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) (c) (d)

Define Analyze Control

(Q-7). In which of the phase of DMAIC in Six Sigma, variances of process output are calculated? (Q-1). _________ is a coordinated and standardized flow of activities performed by people or machines, which can traverse functional or departmental boundaries to achieve a business objective and creates value for internal or external customers: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Process Business Process Flow Data Flow Accounting Process Flow

(Q-2). __________ is a set of activities or tasks that are performed in coordination to realize some business goal or objective. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Process Business Process Data Process Accounting Process

(Q-3). __________ seeks to improve the quality of process outputs by identifying and removing the causes of defect? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Six Sigma Total Quality Management Business Process Management Business Process Reengineering

(Q-4). DMAIC is associated with ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Six Sigma Total Quality Management Business Process Management Business Process Reengineering

(Q-5). DMADV is associated with ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Six Sigma Total Quality Management Business Process Management Business Process Reengineering

(Q-6). In which of the phase of DMAIC in Six Sigma, areas critical to customer satisfaction are considered for further improvement? (a)

Measure

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Measure Define Analyze Control

(Q-8). In which of the phase of DMAIC in Six Sigma, process is standardized and documented? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Measure Define Analyze Control

(Q-9). DMAIC of Six Sigma methodology stand for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Define, Measure, Assure, Implement, Continue Define, Measure, Assure, Improve, Control Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control Determine, Modify, Assurance, Implement, Control

(Q-10). DMADV of Six Sigma methodology stand for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Define, Measure, Assure, Design, Validate Define, Measure, Assure, Design, Verify Define, Measure, Analyze, Design, Verify Define, Modify, Assurance, Design, Validate

(Q-11). Which of the following statement is correct about Six Sigma? (a) (b) (c) (d)

It is the tool of the radical transformation of business process Main priority of Six Sigma is towards the shareholders Six Sigma produce higher returns on the investment made in the Six Sigma exercise DMAIV is one of methodologies of Sig Sigma

(Q-12). Six Sigma is a business-driven, multidimensional structured approach to: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Reducing process variability Increasing customer satisfaction Lowering Defects All of the above

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-13). ________ is a structured approach that seeks to improve the quality of products and services through ongoing refinements in processes. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Six Sigma Total Quality Management Business Process Management Business Process Reengineering

(Q-14). The approach associated with TQM is best described through _______ life cycle. (a) (b) (c) (d)

DMAVA DMAIC PDCA PCDA

(Q-15). PDCA Cycle of TQM stands for: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Plan, Do, Confirm, Act Plan, Do, Check, Apply Plan, Define, Check, Act Plan, Do, Check, Act

(Q-16). In which of the phase of PDCA Cycle of TQM, the problem to be addressed is defined: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Plan Do Check Act

(Q-17). In which of the phase of PDCA Cycle of TQM, results are documented and recommendations are made for the next PDCA cycle: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Plan Do Check Act

(Q-18). Consider the following statements about the Total Quality Management (TQM): (i)

TQM can be applied to both manufacturing and service entities (ii) TQM is concerned with identifying and removing the causes of defect (iii) DMADV is associated with TQM (iv) TQM is one of the incremental approaches of implementing the BPM Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b)

Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (iii) only

(c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i) & (iv) only

(Q-19). Which of the following concept is not associated with BPR? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Fundamental rethinking Radical redesign Dramatic achievement Incremental approach

(Q-20). BPR is the ________ and ________ of processes to achieve dramatic improvement, in critical, contemporary measures of performance. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Fundamental rethinking, Improvement Continuous, Radical redesign Fundamental rethinking, Radical redesign Incremental Approach, Redesign

(Q-21). Consider the following statements about BPR: (i) BPR works on fundamental rethinking (ii) BPR is an incremental approach of BPM (iii) BPR is usually the first BPM tool adopted by most of the companies (iv) BPR may result in loss of revenue during the transition period Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (iii) only Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i) & (iv) only

(Q-22). Consider the following statements about BPR: (i)

BRP success depends on effective change management procedure (ii) IT has very marginal or no role to play in the implementation of BPR (iii) It is better to have a BPR Team to take the BPR implementation task forward (iv) Organisation wide commitment is necessary for implementing BPR Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i) & (iii) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i) & (iv) only

(Q-23). In the context of Six Sigma, CTQ stand for:

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cost to Quality Critical to Quality Commitment to Quality Concerned to Quality

(Q-24). Consider the following circumstances calling for the implementation of BPR: (i)

Organizations on decline may have to redesign their processes (ii) Processes may also need change to take advantage of emerging technologies (iii) Processes developed by functional units over a period of time and may be subject to many unplanned decisions (iv) Departments focused on optimizing their own performance thus needs reengineering Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) Point (i) & (iii) only Point (i), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i) & (iv) only

(Q-25). The business processes needing redesign may be classified into _______ broad categories? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Two Three Four Five

(Q-26). Consider the following given categories of business process that needs redesign: (i)

Processes related to development & delivery of product and services (ii) Process involving interface with customers (iii) Process comprising management activities Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (ii), (iii) Point (i) & (iii) only Point (i), (ii) only Point (ii) & (iii) only

(Q-27). Consider the following given first four steps involved in the implementation of BPR: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Identify customers & their needs Determining objectives of BPR Formulate redesign process plan Study the existing process

Which of the following sequence is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(Q-28). Which of the following is the first step in the implementation of BPR? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Identify customers & their needs Determining objectives of BPR Formulate redesign process plan Implement the redesign

(Q-29). Which of the following is the last step in the implementation of BPR? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Identify customers & their needs Determining objectives of BPR Formulate redesign process plan Implement the redesign

(Q-30). Which of the following are the major roles played by IT in the Business Process Reengineering? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Compression of time Overcoming geography barriers Improved products and services All of the above

(Q-31). Which of the following are the Central Thrust of Business Process Reengineering? (a) (b) (c) (d)

BPR works on radical thinking BPR recognizes the potential of IT May require massive organizational changes All of the above

(Q-32). ____________ is an approach of setting goals & measuring performance based on best industry practices. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Six Sigma Total Quality Management Benchmarking Business Process Reengineering

(Q-33). Benchmarking approach can be used in which of the following areas? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Human resource management Manufacturing and other costs Plant utilization levels All of the above

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-34). Which of the following is the first step in the Benchmarking process? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Understanding existing business processes Identifying the need for benchmarking Compare own processes with others Identify best processes

(Q-35). Which of the following is the last step in the Benchmarking process? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Understanding existing business processes Identifying the need for benchmarking Compare own processes with others Evaluation

(Q-36). Consider the following given first four steps involved in the Benchmarking Process: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Understanding existing business processes Identifying the need for benchmarking Compare own processes with others Identify best processes

Which of the following sequence is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(Q-37). Which of the following is not a theme or critical element of Six Sigma? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Genuine focus on the customer Universal Quality Responsibility Data & fact-driven management Boundary-less collaboration

(Q-38). Which of the following is the first theme or critical element of Six Sigma? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Genuine focus on the customer Universal Quality Responsibility Drive for perfection; tolerate failure Boundary-less collaboration

(Q-39). Which of the following is the last theme or critical element of Six Sigma? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Genuine focus on the customer Universal Quality Responsibility Drive for perfection; tolerate failure Boundary-less collaboration

(Q-40). Which of the following is not the key characteristic of Six Sigma? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Six Sigma is customer focused Six Sigma produce higher returns on investment compared to other Six Sigma exercise requires massive organisational changes Six Sigma changes how management operates

(Q-41). Which according to you can be considered as an benchmark in the automobile industry? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Microsoft Xerox Toyota McDonald’s

(Q-42). Consider the following statements about the Benchmarking process: (i)

Benchmarking is an approach of setting goals & measuring performance based on the companies below our position (ii) Identifying the need for benchmarking is usually first step in benchmarking process (iii) Product development & distribution is also an area where benchmarking can be used (iv) Microsoft can be considered as a benchmark for the Automobile Field Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (ii), (iii) Point (i) & (iii) only Point (i), (ii) only Point (ii) & (iii) only

(Q-43). Who of the following has significant contribution in the area of TQM development? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Michael Porter H.C. Kalman C.K. Prahalad W. Edwards Deming

(Q-44). Which of the following country has benefitted the most from the TQM development? (a) (b) (c) (d)

France Japan India Spain

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-45). Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Employee Customer Both (a) and (b) None of the above

(Q-46). What is premise control based on? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Organisation People Resources Assumptions

(Q-47). Benchmarking determines ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer requirements Market opportunities and threats How company is doing relative to others Market requirements

(Q-48). Six Sigma strives that _________ of products manufactured are defect free. (a) (b) (c) (d)

100% 97% 99.97% 80%

(Q-49). Which of the following theme or critical element of Six Sigma is concerned with the concept 'of "management by fact"? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Processes are where the action is Universal Quality Responsibility Data & fact-driven management Boundary-less collaboration

(Q-50). Which of the following theme or critical element of Six Sigma states that company to succeed, must ensure that its processes are effective? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Processes are where the action is Universal Quality Responsibility Data & fact-driven management Boundary-less collaboration

Answer 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25

(a) (b) (a) (a) (a) (b) (a) (d) (c) (c) (c) (d) (b) (c) (d) (a) (d) (d) (d) (c) (d) (c) (b) (a) (b)

26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

(a) (d) (b) (d) (d) (d) (c) (d) (b) (d) (d) (b) (a) (c) (c) (c) (d) (d) (b) (c) (d) (c) (c) (c) (a)

ICA IPC IT-SM (ii)

Transnational strategy tries to combine the aspects of both multi-domestic and global strategies (iii) Global company mainly has six characteristics (iv) Faster travel, communication & transfer of information has also contributed towards globalization (Q-1). A company wants to customize some of its products according to the requirements of different countries and wants to keep standardization in some of the products, it should go for ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Multi-Domestic Strategy Global Strategy Transnational Strategy Multi-national Strategy

(Q-2). Which of the following approach of globalization can be most expensive? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Multi-Domestic Strategy Global Strategy Transnational Strategy Multi-Global Strategy

(Q-3). Expansion into foreign markets can be done through ________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Exporting Franchising Joint Venture All of the above

(Q-4). A company is planning to enter into a foreign market it is quite uncertain about. Most likely it is going to follow ________________ route. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Exporting Franchising Joint Venture Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)

(Q-5). Hyundai Motors of Korea has its own manufacturing plants in India. Most likely it has adopted ________________ route for globalization. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Exporting Franchising Joint Venture Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)

(Q-6). Consider the following statements about globalization: (i)

For developing countries, Globalization refers to the process of integration of the world into one huge market

Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) only Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (ii) & (iv) only

(Q-7). Consider the following statements about globalization: (i)

Due to Globalization, Companies can operate in any part of the world they want (ii) Due to globalization, economies of the world are interlinked & interdependent (iii) Due to globalization, resources are no longer mobile and very difficult to transfer (iv) The decision as to how a company enters a foreign market can have a significant impact on the results Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) only Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iv) only Point (ii) & (iv) only

(Q-8). SAARC stands for __________________. (a) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (b) South American Association for Regional Cooperation (c) South Asian Association for Regional Coordination (d) South African Association for Regional Cooperation (Q-9). NAFTA stands for __________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

North American Free Trade Agreement North Asian Free Trade Agreement North American Free Trade Association North American Foreign Trade Agreement

(Q-10). Government is about to pass new antipollution law. It will cause impact on _____________. (a) Retail Industry

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) Entertainment Industry (c) Automobile Industry (d) Education Industry (Q-11). The aging of the population, changes in ethnic composition, and effects of the baby boom are _____________ changes. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Technological Demographic Economic Global

(Q-12). Larger numbers of women entering the work force is an example of _____________ changes. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Socio-cultural Demographic Economic Global

(Q-13). Emerging socio-cultural changes in the environment include: (a) Changes in the ethnic composition (b) Increasing educational attainment by women (c) Progressively less disposable income by consumers (d) Changes in the geographic distribution of the population (Q-14). All of the following are important elements of the political and legal segment of the general environment except. (a) Introduction of Goods and Services Tax (GST) by the Parliament (b) Increases in the mandated minimum wage by the Government (c) The increasingly availability of the Internet related technologies (d) The de-regulation of fuel and gas prices by the Government (Q-15). Interest-rate increases have a __________ impact on the real estate industry and a __________ effect on industries that produce consumer necessities such as essential drugs or basic grocery items. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Positive; negligible Negative; negligible Negative; positive Positive; negative

(Q-16). In the general environment, which of the following is not a demographic trend?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Changes in the ethic mix of population Changes in the geographic distribution Changes in the income distribution Changes in the economic growth rate

(Q-17). In the environment, many relationships exist among various elements. Environmental trends can have positive & negative impacts on various industries. Like aging population might have a ______ impact on the health care industry and a ______ impact on baby product industry. These are called ________ impacts? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Negative; positive; demographic Positive; negative; demographic Negative; positive; economic Positive; negative; global

(Q-18). Which of the following firms would likely pose the least competitive threat? (a) A firm in the same industry and in the same strategic group (b) A firm that produces substitute goods (c) A firm in the same industry and in the nearest strategic group looking to join same group (d) A competitor’s product with very high switching cost (Q-19). Which of the following would be an entry barrier in an industry? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Easy access to raw materials Low switching costs Low capital requirements Very high switching cost

(Q-20). In the Five-Forces model, conditions under which a supplier group can be powerful include all of the following except: (a) Lack of importance of the buyer for the suppliers group (b) High differentiation by the supplier (c) Readily available substitute products (d) Dominance by a few suppliers (Q-21). In the __________ of the product life cycle, the competition gets tough, profit comes down and there is no visible growth in the sales. (a) Introduction Stage (b) Growth Stage (c) Maturity Stage (d) Decline Stage (Q-22). Consider the following statements about the experience curve:

ICA IPC IT-SM (i)

Being very technical area, experience curve is not relevant in the strategic management (ii) It is also known as learning curve (iii) It is based on the phenomenon that unit costs increases as cumulative volume of production increases due to learning effect (iv) Experience curve is considered a barrier for new firms contemplating entry in an industry Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (ii), (iii) & (iv) only Point (ii) & (iv) only Point (i), (ii) & (iii) only Point (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(Q-23). What does the term PLC stand for? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Product life cycle Production life cycle Product long cycle Production long cycle

(Q-24). Which of the following is not a characteristic of “Market Introduction Stage” in PLC? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Demands has to be created Costs are negligible Slow sales volume to start There is little or no competition

(Q-25). Increased competition leads to price decrease, increasing public awareness, sales volume increase significantly are the characteristics of ______________ in PLC. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Maturity stage Decline stage Growth stage Introduction stage

(Q-26). Profits related to new product in its introductory stage are ________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Very less or negative Continuously rising Higher Declining

(Q-27). In which of the following stages of the product life cycle do profits peak? (a) (b) (c)

Introduction Growth Maturity

(d)

Decline

(Q-28). In the Boston Consulting Group matrix, stars do which of the following? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Achieve high market growth in the future but currently have low market share Hold a sizeable portion of a small, but growing market Hold high market share in a mature market Hold a low market share in a mature market

(Q-29). How much does it take to go through a PLC? (a) (b) (c) (d)

1 day to 365 days 1 year to 5 years Almost 2-3 years No set time

(Q-30). Bharat Publications has released the updated edition of Indirect Taxation Book for CA Inter & CA Final Students. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Market penetration Product development Market development Diversification

(Q-31). Which of the following is not a early warning sign that indicate the need of Turnaround? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Continuous negative cash flow Declining market share Uncompetitive products or services Advantages from the scale of operations

(Q-32). Which of the following is not an element that contribute to Turnaround? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Changes in top management Initiate credibility-building actions Identifying quick payoff activities Sale or liquidation of a portion of business

(Q-33). Consider the following steps involved in the Turnaround Strategy: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Develop an action plan Assessment of current problems Restructuring the business Implementing the action plan

Which of the following represents the correct sequence? (a)

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

ICA IPC IT-SM (b) (c) (d)

(ii), (iii), (i), (iv) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

(Q-34). ___________ involves sale or liquidation of a portion of business, or a major division. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Turnaround Strategy Divestment Strategy Liquidation Strategy Penetration Strategy

(Q-35). Which of the following is not a reason of adopting the divestment strategy? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Business acquired proves to be a mismatch & cannot be integrated within the company Persistent negative cash flows from a particular business or unit Better investment alternatives are available Environment is stable and certain

(Q-36). ___________ involves closing down a firm, selling its assets and paying off the liability. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Turnaround Strategy Divestment Strategy Liquidation Strategy Penetration Strategy

(Q-37). Consider the following statements about the Liquidation Strategy: (i) (ii)

It is the most extreme retrenchment strategy Liquidation is usually the first option any company should consider (iii) No matter what, a company should never go for liquidation (iv) The possibility that a company would go for liquidation increases if the environment is threatening and highly unstable Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(i), (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii) only (ii), (iii), (iv) only (i), (iv) only

(Q-38). Which of the following is not a strategic alternative given by W.F. Glueck and L R. Jauch? (a) (b) (c)

Stability Strategy Expansion Strategy Retrenchment Strategy

(d)

Penetration Strategy

(Q-39). When a company wants to invest in a particular division by selling off another division, it is following ________________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Stability Strategy Expansion Strategy Retrenchment Strategy Combination Strategy

(Q-40). Which of the following is not a perspective of Balanced Scorecard? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Financial perspective Customer perspective Internal Process perspective External Process perspective

(Q-41). _____________ refers to the linkages between suppliers, manufacturers & customers. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Supply Chain Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning Human Resource Management System

(Q-42). __________ can be defined as the process of planning, implementing & controlling the operations of supply chain. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Supply Chain Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning Human Resource Management System

(Q-43). Today companies are able to sell millions of units of their products with highest degree of efficiency. It is most likely to be attributed to _______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer Relationship Management Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning Human Resource Management System

(Q-44). Main focus of __________ is to ensure the delivers of right products at the right time to the right place at the right price and at the least possible cost. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customer Relationship Management Supply Chain Management Enterprise Resource Planning Human Resource Management System

ICA IPC IT-SM (Q-45). _________ is focused on improving the processes within the organisation, _________ tries to enhance the relationship with customers and _______ aims to facilitate the collaboration between the organization, its suppliers, distributors etc. (a) (b) (c) (d)

CRM, SCM, ERP ERP, CRM, SCM SCM, ERP, CRM SCM, CRM, ERP

(Q-46). Total no. of components in the Supply Chain Management are _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Three Four Five Six

(Q-47). Which of the following is not a component of the Supply Chain Management? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Procurement Operations Conversion Distribution

(Q-48). Which of the following component of the Supply Chain Management ensure that right items are purchased in required quantity? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Procurement Operations Integration Distribution

(Q-49). Which of the following component of the Supply Chain Management is concerned with the transformations of raw material into the finished products or services? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Procurement Operations Integration Distribution

(Q-50). Financial Management is mainly concerned with ______________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

All aspects of acquiring and utilizing financial resources for firms activities Arrangement of funds Efficient Management of every business Profit maximization

(Q-51). The primary goal of management is ____________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

the

financial

To maximize sales To minimize the risk To maximize the wealth of owners To maximize market share

(Q-52). In the P/E Ratio formula, P stands for ______ and E stands for _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Profit, Earning Profit, Equity Price, Earning Price, Equity

(Q-53). Which of the following is the financial asset? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Machinery Land & Building Bonds Finished Goods

(Q-54). JJ Ltd. is planning on merging with TS Ltd. JJ Ltd. will pay TS’s shareholders the current value of their stock in shares of JJ’s stock. JJ Ltd. currently has 4,700 shares of stock outstanding at a market price of $25 a share. TS has 2,500 shares outstanding at a price of $31 a share. How many shares of stock will be outstanding in the merged firm? (a) (b) (c) (d)

7,100 shares 4,700 shares 7,200 shares 7,800 shares

(Q-55). Firm X is planning on merging with Firm Y. Firm X will pay Firm Y's stockholders the current value of their stock in shares of Firm X. Firm X currently has 3,900 shares of stock outstanding at a market price of $40 a share. Firm Y has 2,200 shares outstanding at a price of $17 a share. The after-merger earnings will be $7,800. What will the earnings per share be after the merger? (a) (b) (c) (d)

$1.61 $1.67 $1.75 $1.81

(Q-56). General Motors made an offer to acquire General Mills. This merger would be classified as a: (a) (b)

Horizontal merger Vertical merger

ICA IPC IT-SM (c) (d)

Conglomerate merger Congeneric merger

(Q-57). Exxon-Mobil acquired, an oil exploration company. This merger would be classified as a: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Horizontal merger Vertical merger Conglomerate merger Concentric merger

(Q-58). Suppose Airtel and Vodafone decided to merge. This merger would be classified as a: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Horizontal merger Vertical merger Conglomerate merger Concentric merger

(Q-59). Two basic sources from where entity can raise the necessary fund are: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Equity, Preference Short-term, Long-term Debt, Equity Debenture, Preference

(Q-60). Firm B was worth $450 and Firm A had a market value of $375. Firm B acquired Firm A for $425 because they thought the combination of the new Firm BA was worth $925. What is the synergy from the merger of Firm B and Firm A? (a) (b) (c) (d)

$50 $100 $475 $500

(Q-61). Which of the following theme of Six Sigma states that organization must not be divided into departmental lines to survive & succeed? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Processes are where the action is Universal Quality Responsibility Data & fact-driven management Boundary-less collaboration

(Q-62). Consider the following statement about the business process re-engineering (BPR): (i) (ii)

Implementation of BPR usually causes huge resistance in the organisation BPR means partial modification or marginal improvement in the existing work processes

(iii) BPR is usually given priority over TQM and Six Sigma improvement approach (iv) BPR is an approach to maintain the existing growth of an organization Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Point (i), (ii), (iii) Point (i) & (iii) only Point (i), (ii) only None of the above

(Q-63). __________ opens up a host of opportunities for the company. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Six Sigma Total Quality Management E-commerce Benchmarking

(Q-64). What do we mean by the term 'strategic change'? (a) The proactive management of change to achieve strategic objectives (b) Changes that inevitably result in organisation as they evolve in a changing environment (c) An important organisational change (d) Planned change (Q-65). Which of the following statement is correct for strategy implementation? (a) Strategy implementation positions forces before the action (b) It requires intellectual skills (c) It is basically an operational process (d) It focuses on effectiveness (Q-66). An organization’s strengths and weaknesses are determined relative to: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Its strategic business units Government Competitors External opportunities and threats

(Q-67). Developing a vision and mission, identifying an organization’s external opportunities and threats, and determining internal strengths and weaknesses are all __________ activities. (a) Strategy-formulation (b) Strategy-implementation (c) Long-range planning

ICA IPC IT-SM (d) Short-range planning (Q-68). In a large organization, strategic management activities occur at what level? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Corporate and divisional only Divisional Strategic business unit only Functional, divisional, and corporate

(Q-69). Developing new digital watch by a company manufacturing analogue watches is: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Product development strategy Market development strategy Market penetration strategy One of the above

(Q-70). Which of the following is not a significance of SWOT analysis? (a) Provides a logical framework of analysis (b) SWOT presents a comparative account (c) Overemphasizes a single dimension of strategy (d) Guides strategist in strategy identification (Q-71). The scope of Financial management covers: (a) Sources of finance (b) Financing mix (c) How firm should analyze, plan and control its financial affairs (d) All the above (Q-72). What action involves reconfiguring or redesigning work, jobs and processes for the purpose of improving costs, quality, service and speed? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Restructuring Downsizing Reengineering Benchmarking

(Q-73). What is not one of Michael Porter’s five competitive forces? (a) (b) (c) (d)

New entrants Rivalry among existing firms Bargaining power of unions Bargaining power of suppliers

(Q-74). ‘Customer Analysis’ and ‘Market Analysis’ are the part of: (a) Internal analysis

(b) Strategy identification and selection (c) External Analysis (d) None of the above (Q-75). Which of these basic questions should a vision statement answer? (a) (b) (c) (d)

What is our business? Who are our competitors? Where we are to go? Why do we exist?

(Q-76). According to Porter, what is usually the most powerful of the five competitive forces? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Rivalry among existing firms Development of substitute products Bargaining power of buyers and suppliers Potential entry of new competitors

(Q-77). Strategic management can be effectively used by NGOs to(a) (b) (c) (d)

Use resource effectively Raise funds Achieve goals All the above

(Q-78). Which of the following are responsible for formulating and developing realistic and attainable strategies? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Corporate level and business level managers Corporate level & functional level managers Functional & business level managers Corporate level managers, business level managers and functional level managers

(Q-79). The process of strategic management can be made effective by building(a) (b) (c) (d)

Product advantage Market advantage Competitive advantage Price advantage

(Q-80). How many strategic levels generally exist in a typically large multi divisional organization? (a) (b) (c) (d)

3 4 5 6

(Q-81). Reactive strategy can also be termed as-

ICA IPC IT-SM (a) (b) (c) (d)

Planned strategy Adaptive strategy Sound strategy Dynamic strategy

(Q-82). Formulation of strategies & implementation in a strategic management process is undertaken by(a) (b) (c) (d)

Top level executives Middle level executives Lower level executives All of the above

(Q-83). Which of the following is correct? (a) Strategy is always pragmatic and not flexible (b) Strategy is not always perfect and flawless (c) Strategy is always perfect, flawless and optimal (d) Strategy is always flexible but not pragmatic (Q-84). Competitive rivalry has the most effect on the firm's ____ strategies than the firm's other strategies. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Business level Corporate level Functional level All of these

(Q-85). An organisation successfully implementing a differentiation strategy would expect: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Customers to be sensitive to price increases To charge premium prices Customers perceives the product as standard To automatically have high levels of power over suppliers

(Q-86). An important activity in __________ is taking corrective action. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strategy evaluation Strategy implementation Strategy formulation Strategy leadership

(Q-87). Which of the following is not a limitation of SWOT analysis? (a) Organizational strengths may not lead to competitive advantage (b) Gives a one-shot view of a moving target (c) SWOT's focus on the external environment is too broad and integrative

(d) SWOT overemphasizes dimension of strategy

on

the

single

(Q-88). The emphasis on product design is very high, the intensity of competition is low, and the market growth rate is low in the ______ stage of the industry life cycle. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Maturity Introduction Growth Decline

(Q-89). A narrow market focus is to a differentiationbased strategy as a (a) Broadly-defined target market is to a cost leadership strategy (b) Growth market is to a cost-based strategy (c) Technological innovation is to a cost-based strategy (d) Growth market is to a differentiation-based strategy (Q-90). The most probable time to pursue a harvest strategy is in a situation of (a) (b) (c) (d)

High growth Decline in the market life cycle Strong competitive advantage Mergers and acquisitions

(Q-91). Vertical integration may be beneficial when: (a) Lower transaction costs and improved coordination are vital and achievable through vertical integration (b) Flexibility is reduced, providing a more stationary position in the competitive environment. (c) Various segregated specializations will be combined. (d) The minimum efficient scales of two corporations are different (Q-92). One of the main advantages of diversification is sharing core competencies. Diversification to be most successful, it is important that: (a) The target market is the same, even if the products are very different (b) Products use similar distribution channels (c) The methods of production are the same

ICA IPC IT-SM (d) Similarity required for sharing core competencies must be in the value chain, not in the product (Q-93). The reasons for acquisition are _________. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Increased market power Increased diversification Increased speed to market All of the these

(Q-94). The Niche strategy is the best way to enter a: (a) (b) (c) (d)

New market Growing market Matured market None of the above

(Q-95). Geographical Diversification, Product diversification and Entry Mode are the domains of: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Functional Strategy Business Strategy Corporate Strategy All of the Above

(Q-96). An advertisement says, ‘Have Roohafza with milk and lassi too’. Which strategy is the company trying to use: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Market Development Product Development Market Penetration All of the above

(Q-97). ‘Build,’ ‘Hold,’ ‘Harvest,’ and ‘Divest’ are the strategies pursued in: (a) (b) (c) (d)

BCG Growth Share Matrix Value chain Analysis Managerial Grid Matrix Ansoff’s Product Matrix Growth Matrix

(Q-98). ‘Inbound & Outbound logistics” relates to: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Supply Chain Management Logistics Management Value Chain Analysis All of the above

(Q-99). A campaign advocating the message of ‘SAVE WATER’ is: (a) Services Marketing (b) Holistic marketing (c) Social Marketing

(d) Direct Marketing (Q-100). ‘Strategic group mapping’ involves: (a) Identifying the strongest rival companies (b) Identifying weakest rival companies (c) Identifying weakest and strongest rival companies (d) None of the above

ICA IPC IT-SM

Answer 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44

(c) (a) (d) (a) (d) (d) (c) (a) (a) (c) (b) (a) (b) (c) (b) (d) (b) (d) (d) (c) (c) (b) (a) (b) (c) (a) (c) (b) (d) (b) (d) (d) (c) (b) (d) (c) (d) (d) (d) (d) (a) (b) (b) (b)

45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88

Answer (b) (b) (c) (a) (b) (a) (c) (c) (c) (d) (a) (c) (b) (a) (c) (b) (d) (d) (c) (a) (c) (c) (a) (d) (a) (c) (d) (c) (c) (c) (c) (a) (d) (d) (c) (a) (b) (d) (b) (a) (b) (a) (c) (b)

89 91 93 95 97 99

(a) (a) (d) (c) (a) (c)

90 92 94 96 98 100

(b) (d) (c) (c) (d) (c)