Situation: Gloria, 6 weeks old, weighing 4.2 kgs, is brought to the RHU by her mother because of diarrhea occurring 4 times a day. 1. Your assessment revealed that Gloria has sunken eyes, restless and irritable. What will be your classification? A. No dehydration B. Some dehydration C. Moderate dehydration D. Severe dehydration 2. Based on your assessment, which of the following is best that you can do for Gloria? A. Accompany mother and child to the nearest facility for IV infusion B. Give Gloria 300‐400ml Oresol in 4 hrs C. Give Mother instructions about home management D. Keep Gloria in your RHU for close observation 3. What other problems do you have to consider in Gloria’s case? A. The presence of blood in his stools B. Severe undernutrition C. Fever or hypothermia D. All of these 4. After your management of Gloria’s condition, your assessment revealed that he has no more signs of dehydration. What instructions will you give the mother? A. Continue breastfeeding increasing duration and frequency B. Give her Oresol, 50‐100 ml after every loose stool C. Observe him for danger signs and bring immediately to RHU D. All of the above 5. After 2 days, Gloria was returned to the health center because of the presence of blood in the stool. What will be the classification for her condition? A. Severe dysentery in the pink row B. Dysentery in the yellow row C. Dysentery in the pink row D. Severe complicated diarrhea in the pink row 6. For sick children ages 2 months to 5 years classified as having severe malnutrition, the following are part of your management with waiting to refer the child: A. Continue breastfeeding frequently or continue feeding the child B. Give antibiotic treatment immediately C. Monitor the child’s temperature for fever D. All of the above 7. Philippine Legislation on Rooming – In and Breastfeeding Act promotes breastfeeding of infants during the first 6 months of their lives. This is known as: A. EO 51 B. RA 7610 C. RA 7600
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D. PD 996 Which of the following diseases target by EPI is for eradication this year 2008? A. Polio B. Diphtheria C. Measles D. Hepatitis B All of the following statements are true with regards to vaccinating children, except: A. It is safe and immunologically effective to administer all EPI vaccines on the same day B. Use one syringe, one needle per child during vaccination C. Fever and systemic symptoms result as an abnormal immune response to vaccination D. Do not immunize a child that needs to be hospitalized. Which of the following vaccines contains killed bacteria? A. OPV B. BCG C. Tetanus toxoid D. DPT Immunity that is brought about by antibody formation during the course of a disease is referred to as: A. Passive natural B. Passive artificial C. Active artificial D. Active natural When is the designated immunization day in barangay health stations/Rural health units? A. Monday B. Wednesday C. Friday D. Any day Supplementation of Vitamin A for pregnant women is given starting on the: A. 1st month of pregnancy B. 2nd month of pregnancy C. 3rd month of pregnancy D. 4th month of pregnancy Lactating women are given iron supplementations preferably for how many months? A. 1 month B. 3 months C. 6 months D. The whole duration of lactation Children with malnutrition are given Vitamin A capsule upon diagnosis. How much is given as supplementation? A. 100,000 iu B. 200,000 iu C. 600,000 iu
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D. 800,000 iu Malnutrition continues to be the Public Health concern in the country. The common nutritional deficiencies are: A. Vitamin A, iron and folic acid B. Vitamin A, B complex and iodine C. Iodine, iron and folic acid D. Iodine, iron and vitamin A The DOH, in its new role as the national authority on health has several functions. Which one is specific to the role of the DOH as the “enabler and capacity builder”? A. Serve as the national policy and regulatory institution B. Innovate new strategies in health to improve effectiveness of programs C. Administer direct services for emergent health concerns that require new technologies D. Serve as advocate in adoption of health policies Framework for the implementation of the HSRA is FOURmula One for health. Goals of FOURmula One for health include: A. Better health outcomes B. Equitable health care financing C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B Which element of FOURmula One aims to improve and ensure accessibility and availability of basic and essential health care? A. Health financing B. Health regulation C. Health service delivery D. Good governance Inter local health system is a system of health care similar to a district health system in which individuals, communities and all other health care providers participate together in providing quality and accessible health care. Composition of the inter‐local health zone include: A. People B. Boundaries C. Health workers D. All of the above Which of the following would be included in the primary level of institution? A. District Hospitals B. Puericulture centers C. Regional hospitals D. Provincial hospitals Which Public Health Nurse function is evident when she initiates the formulation of staff development programs for midwives in the RHU? A. Management function B. Supervisory function C. Training Function
D. Research function 23. Community health purposes and goals are realized through the application of a series of steps that lead to desired results. The nursing process is central to all nursing actions. Under which phase of the nursing process is analyzing and interpreting data included? A. Assessment B. Planning C. Implementation D. Evaluation 24. A very important part of the community Health Nursing Assessment process includes: A. The application of professional judgment in estimating importance of facts to family and community B. Evaluation structures and qualifications of health center team C. Coordination with other sectors in relation to health concerns D. Carrying out nursing procedures as per plan of action 25. The initial step in the PLANNING process in order to engage in any nursing project or activities at the community level involves:
A. Goal‐setting B. Monitoring C. Evaluation of Data D. Provision of data 26. Which of the following is important in the use of the bag technique during home visit? A. Arrangement of the bag’s contents must be convenient to the nurse B. The bag should contain all necessary supplies and equipments ready for use C. Be sure to thoroughly clean your bag especially when exposed to communicable disease cases D. Minimize if not totally prevent the spread of infection 27. Home visit is one example of a family nurse contact. Which of the following principles should be considered primarily in doing a home visit? A. Purpose of home visit B. Identifying needs of the family C. Flexibility of plan D. Planning for future visits 28. In Community organizing, under which step does the nurse integrate community values into the programs, materials and messages? A. Community analysis B. Design and initiation C. Implementation D. Program maintenance 29. Continuous assessment is part of the monitoring aspect in the management of the community organizing. All of the following are activities under the last stage of community organizing, except: A. Assess effectiveness of interventions/programs B. Generate broad citizen participation
C. Chart future directories and modifications D. Update community analysis 30. Community diagnosis must be carried out in an organized and systematic manner. There are 11 steps to be done in order to arrive at a community diagnosis. During which step of the process does the nurse categorize the responses of the community members gathered during the interview process. A. Actual data gathering B. Data collation C. Data presentation D. Data analysis 31. Which of the following activities will not be included in the data analysis phase of the community diagnosis? 1. Establishing trends and patterns 2. Comparison of data with standards 3. Determining interrelationship of factors 4. Identifying community health nursing problems 32. This pattern of disease occurrence and distribution refers to the intermittent occurrence of a few isolated and unrelated cases in a given locality. A. Sporadic B. Endemic C. Epidemic D. Pandemic 33. The primary purpose of conducting an epidemiologic investigation is to: A. Identify groups who are at risk of contracting the disease B. Encourage cooperation and support of the disease prevention programs C. Identify geographical location of cases of the disease in a locality D. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic 34. A nurse collected information on 100% of the population of the community she is assigned in. she conducted a/an: A. Community diagnosis B. Epidemiologic survey C. Census D. None of the above 35. You are a resident of Manila and a nationwide census was conducted while you were on a vacation in Puerto Princesa in Palawan. You were counted in the Puerto Princesa census. What type of census was done? A. De facto B. De jure C. Du jour D. Désuet
36. Observations of events in the community are presented in the form of tables, charts and graphs. Which graph is used to show peaks, valleys, and seasonal trends over a period of time? A. Area diagram B. Bar graphs C. Line graphs D. Histograms 37. What is the fundamental building block or foundation of the Field Health Service Information System? A. Family treatment record B. Target client list C. Tally forms D. Output reports 38. The number of cases of pneumonia for the month of January will be reflected in which record of the RHU? A. Family treatment record B. Client list C. Tally forms D. Output reports 39. Community health nursing is a service that is provided to an environment that is constantly changing. This implies that as a Public Health Nurse, in order to provide relevant service, he or she must: A. B. C. D.
involve other disciplines in carrying out health programs and services in different settings provide service that is integrated and comprehensive in manner update her knowledge on the current and evolving characteristics of the health care system provide service that is population focused
40. Who is the manager of the RHU? A. B. C. D.
Municipal Health Officer Public Health Nurse Rural Health Midwife Municipal Mayor
41. According to the Epidemiological triad, which of the following is considered an intrinsic factor in disease causation? A. B. C. D.
Allergens Pre‐existing disease Geology Viruses
42. In the steps of outbreak investigation, under what step will a nurse establish a case definition of the disease? A. B. C. D.
Establish existence of an outbreak Verify diagnosis Define and identify cases Perform descriptive epidemiology
43. One of the areas where public health nurse function as a researcher is disease surveillance. As an epidemiology nurse, the following are your functions, except: A. B. C. D.
implement public health surveillance Conduct outbreak investigation Isolate cases of communicable disease None of the above
44. School nursing is a type of public health nursing that focuses on the promotion and wellness of the students, teaching and non‐teaching personnel of the schools. Every school child should be examined at least for how many times a year? A. B. C. D.
once a year once every grading period twice a year as the need arises
45. As a school nurse, your functions include all of the following, except: A. B. C. D.
Health assessment Putting up a functional school clinic Student health counseling None of the above
46. Occupational health nursing is a specialty practice that provides for and delivers health care services to workers and worker populations. Which essential component of this practice refers to the process of coordinating an individual client’s health care services to achieve quality care? A. B. C. D.
Health promotion and prevention Case management Primary care Management and administration
47. All of the following statements are true with regards to occupational injuries and illnesses, except:
A. B. C. D.
The younger workers are the most at risk Highway accidents are the leading causes of fatal work injuries Injury rates tend to be higher for mid‐size organizations None of the above
48. Pregnancy poses a risk to the life of every woman. Every woman has to visit the nearest health facility for antenatal registration and to avail prenatal services. The minimum number of prenatal visits is: A. B. C. D.
3 4 5 6
49. A woman in her 2nd month of pregnancy has intestinal parasitic infection and comes to the health center for consultation. What is the appropriate management for this? A. Give mebendazole as soon as possible to avoid infection of the fetus B. Give mebendazole on the 4th month of pregnancy regardless of when the previous dose was given C. Give mebendazole on the 4th month of pregnancy if none was given in the past 6 months D. Do not give any anti‐helminthic as this may cause problems during pregnancy 50. When is the recommended schedule for the 2nd post partum visit? A. B. C. D.
During the 1st week post partum On the 4th week post partum On the 6th week post partum 4 weeks after the first postpartum visit
51. Which of the following statements about tetanus toxoid immunization is not true? A. B. C. D.
The TT vaccine of 0.5ml is given to mothers in 5 doses to be considered a FIM. Infants born by the mother with TT vaccine will be protected from neonatal tetanus Mothers who have received 3rd dose of TT vaccine will have 5 years protection from tetanus 3RD dose of TT is given at least 4 weeks after the first dose
52. The new approach in maternal care which considers all pregnant women to be at risk of complications of childbirth is known as: A. Maternal Safety approach B. Emergency obstetric care approach (EMOC)
C. OB approach D. Risk approach 53. The death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days after termination of pregnancy from any cause related to pregnancy is known as: A. Maternal death B. Maternal mortality C. Obstetrical death D. All of the above 54. Which method of family planning can be used by women with any cycle length, no health related side effects associated and promotes male partner involvement? A. B. C. D.
Two‐day method Standard days method Both A and B Neither A nor B
55. What is the role of the DOH in the Family Planning Program? A. B. C. D.
Facilitator Regulator Dictator Decision‐Maker
56. Rooming‐in and Breastfeeding act mandates that infants delivered by caesarian section shall be roomed‐in and breastfed within: A. B. C. D.
30 minutes to 1 hour after birth 1‐2 hours after birth 3‐4 hours after birth anytime after birth
57. All of the following statements are true with regards to breastfeeding, except: A. Mothers with mastitis shall continue to breastfeed their infants B. Mothers with mild to moderate medical problems such as TB who have been adequately treated for at least 2 days shall continue to breastfeed C. Mothers who are taking anticancer drugs are not allowed to breastfeed D. Breastmilk shall be given to all infants who are sick but can tolerate oral and tube feeding
58. Which of the following are economic benefits of breastfeeding to households and the community? A. B. C. D.
Reduces infant’s exposure to infection Saves medical costs to families and governments by preventing illnesses Reduces the risk of ovarian and breast cancers and osteoporosis among women Provides a nutritional complete food for the young infant
59. When is newborn screening preferably done? A. B. C. D.
First 24 hours On the 48th hour after birth 1 week after birth 2 weeks after birth
60. Which of the following diseases screened could lead to death if not detected? A. B. C. D.
G6PD PKU Congenital adrenal hyperplasia Congenital hypothyroidism
61. Birth spacing is one of the four pillars of Family Planning. How many years interval is ideal birth spacing according to the program of FP? A. B. C. D.
1‐2 years 2‐3 years 3‐5 years 4‐6 years
62. Among the services of the Family Planning Clinic, which one relates to the provision of messages to clients to change and improve their knowledge, attitude towards FP? A. B. C. D.
FP Promotion FP Counseling Provision of FP method Principles and techniques of infection and prevention control
63. Oral health programs of the DOH aims to reduce prevalence rate of dental carries and periodontal diseases. For children 12‐ 71 months old, when should dental check‐ups be done? A. Every 6 months
B. Every 9 months C. Every 1 year D. Every 2 years 64. Under which classification of Oral interventions will Flouride Utilization program fall? A. Promotive services B. Curative services C. Preventive services D. Rehabilitative services 65. Among the elements of Reproductive Health, which is considered as the foremost intervention in attaining reproductive health? A. Maternal and Child health B. Prevention and Management of RTI C. Violence against Women and Children D. Family planning 66. Because of the availability of resources, the DOH has focused in addressing the health concerns of the priority elements of RH, which include all of the following, except: A. Family planning B. Adolescent Reproductive Health C. Violence against women and children D. None of the above 67. The PHN is to conduct a series of health education on Adolescent Reproductive Health among the young adolescents in the community. Health education aims to: A. Increase health awareness B. Facilitate exchange of information and experiences C. Improve health attitudes and practices D. All of the above
68. In the Philippines, there is a rising burden from the degenerative, non‐communicable diseases. This growing challenge threatens economic and social development. The following belong to the 4 major non‐communicable diseases in the country, except: A. Cancer B. DM C. COPD D. Renal disease 69. Key intervention strategies for preventing non‐communicable diseases include: A. Establishing program direction and infrastructure B. Changing environments C. Changing lifestyle D. All of the above 70. The PHN emphasizes on health promotion and disease prevention, focusing on promotion of rational diet and physical activity. The PHN is functioning as a: A. Health advocate B. Health care provider C. Community organizer D. Health educator 71. The basis of non‐communicable disease prevention is the identification of the major risk factors and their prevention and control. Risk factor assessment includes obesity. BMI of 24 is considered to be: A. Healthy weight B. overweight C. obese I D. Obese II 72. Physical inactivity is another risk factor for the development of NCDs. The recommended guideline for physical activity is: A. At least 30 minutes per day of regular physical activity preferably daily
B. At least 1 hour per day of regular physical activity preferably daily C. At least 30 minutes per day of vigorous intensity of 5 days per week D. At least 1 hour per day of vigorous intensity of 5 days per week 73. A client comes to the health center for consultation. Her BP is 120/80 mmHg. According to the JNC VII classification of BP, she is in the: A. Normal range BP B. Prehypertension stage C. Stage 1 HPN D. Stage 2 HPN 74. Stress management is a very good strategy in promoting mental health program. This includes: A. Relaxation exercises B. Spirituality C. Smiling D. All of the above 75. Nurse Maggie conducted an assessment of the Reyes family and observed that in the home of the family there are broken windows and unstable stairs. The kind of assessment that Nurse Maggie conducted is: A. First level assessment B. Second level assessment C. Third level assessment D. Fourth level assessment 76. Upon further assessment, Nurse Maggie found out the reasons for the presence of home hazards. The family has inadequate resources, specifically financial constraints, thus the windows and stairs are not being repaired. This is under what level of assessment? A. First level assessment B. Second level assessment C. Third level assessment D. Fourth level assessment 77. Which of the following statements is true with regards to second level data assessment? A. It reflects analysis on what health conditions or problems exist in the family. B. It is a process where existing and potential health conditions are determined.
C. It defines the nature or type of nursing problems that the family encountered with respect to a given health condition. D. It is done by collecting the initial database of the family. 78. The family nursing care plan is the blueprint of the care that the nurse designs to systematically minimize or eliminate the health and family nursing problems. All of the following are features of the FNCP except: A. The FNCP is based upon identified health and nursing problems. B. The FNCP relates to the future. C. The FNCP is an end in itself. D. The FNCP focuses on actions designed to solve or minimize problems. 79. Developing a family care plan involves many steps. These steps are done in which sequence? 1. Develop the intervention plan 2. Define goals and objectives of care 3. Prioritize the health conditions 4. Develop the evaluation plan A. 2,1,3,4 B. 3,2,1,4 C. 2,3,1,4 D. 3,1,2,4 80. In determining priorities among health conditions, there are four criteria. Which one pertains to the nature and magnitude of future problems that can be minimized? A. Nature of the problem B. Modifiability of the problem C. Preventive potential D. Salience 81. Mental health problems have four facets as a public health burden. Which refers to the portion of the burden relating to the impact of problems to persons other than the individual directly affected by the mental disorder? A. Defined burden B. Undefined burden C. Hidden burden D. Future burden 82. The nurse is able to recognize mental health hazards and stress situations in people in the community. This is under her nursing responsibility in: A. Mental health promotion B. Prevention and control C. Rehabilitation D. Research and epidemiology
83. RA 7170, is the Organ Donation Act of 1991. Under this law, who are qualified to become an organ and tissue donor? A. Ages 16‐65 of good health who wants to donate organs when they die B. Anyone 18 yrs old and above who wants to donate organs when they die C. Anyone who wants to donate organs when they die D. All of the above 84. TB is considered as the world’s deadliest disease and remains to be a major public health program in the Philippines. The most hazardous period for the development of clinical disease is during: A. First month after infection B. First 6‐12 months after infection C. First week after infection D. First 3 months after infection 85. DOTS is the internationally‐recommended TB control strategy and combines five elements. The following are the elements of DOTS, except: A. Sustained political commitment B. Access to quality assured sputum microscopy C. Uninterrupted supply of quality‐assure drugs D. None of the above 86. Which of the following is true with regards to the BCG vaccine? A. It has a protective efficacy of only 25% against TB. B. It has a protective efficacy of only 50% against TB. C. It has a protective efficacy of only 75% against TB. D. It has a protective efficacy of 100% against TB. 87. Patients with sputum smear negative PTB and minimal parenchymal lesions on CXR are placed under what DOTS category? A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III D. Category IV 88. An example of an approved type water supply under Level I is: A. Communal faucet B. Individual house connections C. Protected well D. Water stand post 89. An example of approved type of toilet facility under level II includes: A. Pour flush toilet B. Pit latrines C. Reed odorless earth closet D. Water carriage with water seal 90. There are four rights in food safety involving the chain in food processing. Right preparation includes:
A. Avoid buying canned foods with dents B. All cooked foods should be left at room temperature for not more than 2 hours C. Eat cooked foods immediately D. Avoid contact between raw foods and cooked foods 91. Sentrong Sigla Movement is the joint effort of the DOH and the LGU whose goal was quality health care. Which level of Certification refers to the highest level quality standards? A. Basic SS certification B. Specialty awards C. Award for excellence D. SS seal 92. The Sentrong Sigla Movement has been launched to improve health service delivery. Which of the following is/are true of this movement? A. All of these are true B. This is a joint project of the Department of Health and Local Government Units C. It aims to promote availability of quality health services D. The DOH provides grants and technical assistance to Sentrong Sigla 93. Which herbal preparation may be recommended for fever, cough and abnormal pain? A. Sambong B. Yerba Buena C. Tsaang gubat D. Bayabas 94. In epidemiology, this refers to the probability of contact between the source of infection and the susceptible host? A. Exposure Rate B. Contact rate C. Chance D. Herd immunity 95. What number will be used as the denominator in computing the general fertility rate? A. Estimated population as of July 1 B. Number of registered live births C. Number of females aged 15‐44 D. Number of pregnancies in a year Situation: You are assigned to a municipality with a total population of 25,000. (for numbers 96‐97) 96. You work with two rural health midwives. How many more midwives will you request? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 97. 1,350 persons died within the year. 36 persons died from pneumonia. 540 of those who died were aged 50 yrs and above. What is the crude death rate? A. 52/1000
B. 54/1000 C. 27/1000 D. 24/1000 98. Which refers to any phenomenon that has the potential to cause disruption or damage to humans and their environment? A. Disaster B. Emergency C. Hazards D. Risk 99. Which of the following statements are true with regards to disaster management? A. First priority is protection of people at risk B. Second priority is protection of critical resources C. Disaster management relies upon an understanding of hazard risks D. All of the above 100. Who will not be allowed to donate blood according to the guidelines for blood donation of RA 7719? A. Anna, who weighs 105 lbs and 4 ft 11 only B. Clara, who has a BP of 100/70 mmHg C. Mario ho is 67 years old and of good health D. Ellen, whose HGB is 13 mg/dl