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a CCNA 2 Exam CCNA 3 Exam CCNA 4 Exam d CCNA 1 Exam Answers Answers Answers Answers f k J CCNA 2 V5.03 * ! CCNA 2 (v5.0.3 + v6.0) Chapter 7 Exam Answers ) 2018 – 100% Full N  CCNA Questions Answers  Feb 6, 2016  Last updated on: Jun 29, 2018 v v s L " New Version: CCNA 2 Chapter 7 Exam Answers 4.1 (69) votes 1 v6.0

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1. In which configuration would an outbound ACL placement be preferred over an inbound ACL placement? when the ACL is applied to an outbound interface to filter packets coming from multiple inbound interfaces before the packets exit the interface* when a router has more than one ACL when an outbound ACL is closer to the source of the traffic flow when an interface is filtered by an outbound ACL and the network attached to the interface is the source network being filtered within the ACL An outbound ACL should be utilized when the same ACL filtering rules will be applied to packets coming from more than one inbound interface before exiting a single outbound interface. The outbound ACL will be applied on the single outbound interface.

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2. Which address is required in the command syntax of a standard ACL? source MAC address destination MAC address

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source IP address* destination IP address The only filter that can be applied with a standard ACL is the source IP address. An

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extended ACL can use multiple criteria to filter traffic, such as source IP address, destination IP address, type of traffic, and type of message.

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3. Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs? In contrast to outbound ALCs, inbound ACLs can be used to filter packets with multiple criteria.

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Inbound ACLs can be used in both routers and switches but outbound ACLs can be

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used only on routers.

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Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed.*

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On a network interface, more than one inbound ACL can be configured but only one

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outbound ACL can be configured. TS – DHCP Sim Troubleshooting

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4. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

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An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACE.* A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the ACE that is matched.* A packet that has been denied by one ACE can be permitted by a subsequent ACE. A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACE will be forwarded by default. Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACE list.* Each packet is compared to the conditions of every ACE in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made. When a packet comes into a router that has an ACL configured on the interface, the router compares the condition of each ACE to determine if the defined criteria has been met. If met, the router takes the action defined in the ACE (allows the packet through or discards it). If the defined criteria has not been met, the router proceeds to the next ACE. An implicit deny any statement is at the end of every standard ACL.

5. What single access list statement matches all of the following networks? 192.168.16.0 192.168.17.0 192.168.18.0 192.168.19.0 access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.3.255* access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.15.255 access-list 10 permit 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255

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Drag and Drop Questions The ACL statement access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.3.255 will match all four network prefixes. All four prefixes have the same 22 high order bits. These 22 high order bits are matched by the network prefix and wildcard mask of 192.168.16.0 0.0.3.255. 6. A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve the task? (Choose two.) Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit host 192.168.15.23* Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0*

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Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.255 Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.0 Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.255

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To permit or deny one specific IP address, either the wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 (used

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after the IP address) or the wildcard mask keyword host (used before the IP address) can be used. 7. If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it? 4

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CCNA 2 (v5.0.3 + v6.0) Chapter 7 Exam Answers 2018 - 100% Full In calculating how many ACLs can be configured, use the rule of “three Ps”: one ACL per protocol, per direction, per interface. In this case, 2 interfaces x 2 protocols x 2 directions yields 8 possible ACLs.

8. Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.) Place standard ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic. Place extended ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic. Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link.* Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.* Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.*

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Fast

For every inbound ACL placed on an interface, there should be a matching outbound

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ACL. Extended ACLs should be placed as close as possible to the source IP address, so that traffic that needs to be filtered does not cross the network and use network resources. Because standard ACLs do not specify a destination address, they should be placed as close to the destination as possible. Placing a standard ACL close to the source may have the effect of filtering all traffic, and limiting services to other hosts.

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Filtering unwanted traffic before it enters low-bandwidth links preserves bandwidth and supports network functionality. Decisions on placing ACLs inbound or outbound are dependent on the requirements to be met. 9. Refer to the exhibit. Which command would be used in a standard ACL to allow only devices on the network attached to R2 G0/0 interface to access the networks attached to R1?

access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.63 access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.96 0.0.0.31* access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 Standard access lists only filter on the source IP address. In the design, the packets would be coming from the 192.168.10.96/27 network (the R2 G0/0 network). The correct ACL is access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.96 0.0.0.31. 10. Refer to the exhibit. If the network administrator created a standard ACL that allows only devices that connect to the R2 G0/0 network access to the devices

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on the R1 G0/1 interface, how should the ACL be applied?

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inbound on the R2 G0/0 interface outbound on the R1 G0/1 interface* inbound on the R1 G0/1 interface outbound on the R2 S0/0/1 interface Because standard access lists only filter on the source IP address, they are commonly placed closest to the destination network. In this example, the source packets will be coming from the R2 G0/0 network. The destination is the R1 G0/1 network. The proper ACL placement is outbound on the R1 G0/1 interface. 11. Refer to the following output. What is the significance of the 4 match(es) statement? R1#

10 permit 192.168.1.56 0.0.0.7 20 permit 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.63 (4 match(es)) 30 deny any (8 match(es)) Four packets have been denied that have been sourced from any IP address. Four packets have been denied that are destined for the 192.168.1.64 network. Four packets have been allowed through the router from PCs in the network of 192.168.1.64.* Four packets have been allowed through the router to reach the destination network of 192.168.1.64/26. The show access-lists command shows how many packets have met the criteria for each ACE in terms of a specific number of “matches.” 12. On which router should the show access-lists command be executed? on the router that routes the packet referenced in the ACL to the final destination network on the router that routes the packet referenced in the ACL from the source network on any router through which the packet referenced in the ACL travels on the router that has the ACL configured* The show access-lists command is only relevant to traffic passing through the router on which the ACL is configured. 13. What is the quickest way to remove a single ACE from a named ACL? Use the no keyword and the sequence number of the ACE to be removed.*

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Use the no access-list command to remove the entire ACL, then recreate it without the ACE. Copy the ACL into a text editor, remove the ACE, then copy the ACL back into the router. Create a new ACL with a different number and apply the new ACL to the router interface.

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Named ACL ACEs can be removed using the no command followed by the sequence number.

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14. Which feature will require the use of a named standard ACL rather than a numbered standard ACL? the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic the ability to add additional ACEs in the middle of the ACL without deleting and re-creating the list* Standard ACLs (whether numbered or named) only filter on the source IP address. Having a named ACL makes it easier at times to identify the purpose as well as

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modify the ACL.

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15. An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL? R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 in R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 out R1(config-line)# access-class 1 in* R1(config-line)# access-class 1 out Administrative access over SSH to the router is through the vty lines. Therefore, the ACL must be applied to those lines in the inbound direction. This is accomplished by entering line configuration mode and issuing the access-class command. 16. Which type of router connection can be secured by the access-class command? vty* console serial Ethernet Access to vty lines can be filtered with an ACL and applied using the access-class in command. 17. Consider the following output for an ACL that has been applied to a router via the access-class in command. What can a network administrator determine from the output that is shown? R1#

Standard IP access list 2 10 permit 192.168.10.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255 (2 matches) 20 deny any (1 match) Two devices connected to the router have IP addresses of 192.168.10.x. Traffic from one device was not allowed to come into one router port and be routed outbound a different router port. Two devices were able to use SSH or Telnet to gain access to the router.* Traffic from two devices was allowed to enter one router port and be routed outbound to a different router port. The access-class command is used only on VTY ports. VTY ports support Telnet and/or SSH traffic. The match permit ACE is how many attempts were allowed using the VTY ports. The match deny ACE shows that a device from a network other than 192.168.10.0 was not allowed to access the router through the VTY ports. 18. Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from

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the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the

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172.16.0.0 network?

Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.* Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15. Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.

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Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.

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Because the new deny ACE is a host address that falls within the existing 172.16.0.0 network that is permitted, the router rejects the command and displays an error message. For the new deny ACE to take effect, it must be manually configured by the administrator with a sequence number that is less than 10. 19. A network administrator issues the show vlan brief command while troubleshooting a user support ticket. What output will be displayed? the VLAN assignment and membership for all switch ports* the VLAN assignment and trunking encapsulation the VLAN assignment and native VLAN the VLAN assignment and membership for device MAC addresses 20. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL was configured on R1 with the intention of denying traffic from subnet 172.16.4.0/24 into subnet 172.16.3.0/24. All other traffic into subnet 172.16.3.0/24 should be permitted. This standard ACL was then applied outbound on interface Fa0/0. Which conclusion can be drawn from this configuration?

Only traffic from the 172.16.4.0/24 subnet is blocked, and all other traffic is allowed. An extended ACL must be used in this situation. The ACL should be applied to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1 inbound to accomplish the requirements. All traffic will be blocked, not just traffic from the 172.16.4.0/24 subnet.* The ACL should be applied outbound on all interfaces of R1. Because of the implicit deny at the end of all ACLs, the access-list 1 permit any command must be included to ensure that only traffic from the 172.16.4.0/24 subnet is blocked and that all other traffic is allowed. 21. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to the access list 10 ACEs if the router is

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rebooted before any other commands are implemented?

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The ACEs of access list 10 will be deleted. The ACEs of access list 10 will not be affected.

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CCNA 2 (v5.0.3 + v6.0) Chapter 7 Exam Answers 2018 - 100% Full The ACEs of access list 10 will be renumbered.* The ACEs of access list 10 wildcard masks will be converted to subnet masks. After a reboot, access list entries will be renumbered to allow host statements to be listed first and thus more efficiently processed by the Cisco IOS.

22. What is the effect of configuring an ACL with only ACEs that deny traffic? The ACL will permit any traffic that is not specifically denied. The ACL will block all traffic.* The ACL must be applied inbound only. The ACL must be applied outbound only.

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Because there is a deny any ACE at the end of every standard ACL, the effect of having all deny statements is that all traffic will be denied regardless of the direction in which the ACL is applied.

23. Which type of ACL statements are commonly reordered by the Cisco IOS as the first ACEs? host* range permit any lowest sequence number ACEs are commonly reordered from the way they were entered by the network administrator. The ACEs that have host criteria such as in the statement permit host 192.168.10.5, are reordered as the first statements because they are the most specific (have the most number of bits that must match). 24. A network administrator is configuring an ACL to restrict access to certain servers in the data center. The intent is to apply the ACL to the interface connected to the data center LAN. What happens if the ACL is incorrectly applied to an interface in the inbound direction instead of the outbound direction? All traffic is denied. All traffic is permitted. The ACL does not perform as designed.* The ACL will analyze traffic after it is routed to the outbound interface. Always test an ACL to ensure that it performs as it was designed. Applying an ACL that is applied using the ip access-group in command instead of using the ip accessgroup out command is not going to work as designed. 25. When would a network administrator use the clear access-list counters command? when obtaining a baseline when buffer memory is low when an ACE is deleted from an ACL when troubleshooting an ACL and needing to know how many packets matched* The clear access-list counters command is used to reset all numbers relating to ACE match conditions that have been made within a particular ACE. The command is useful when troubleshooting an ACL that has recently been deployed. 26. Match each statement with the example subnet and wildcard that it describes.

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(Not all options are used.)

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Place the options in the following order: 192.168.15.65 255.255.255.240 ==> the first valid host address in a subnet 192.168.15.144 0.0.0.15 ==> subnetwork address of a subnet with 14 valid

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host 192.168.15.2 ==> all IP address bits must match exactly

192.168.5.0 0.0.3.255 ==> hosts in a subnet with SM 255.255.252.0 a 192.168.3.64 0.0.0.7 ==> address with a subnet 255.255.255.248 d f Converting the wildcard mask 0.0.3.255 to binary and subtracting it from k 255.255.255.255 yields a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0. Using the host parameter in a wildcard mask requires that all bits match the given J address. * 192.168.15.65 is the first valid host address in a subnetwork beginning with the subnetwork address 192.168.15.64. The subnet mask contains 4 host bits, yielding ! subnets with 16 addresses. ) 192.168.15.144 is a valid subnetwork address in a similar subnetwork. Change the N wildcard mask 0.0.0.15 to binary and subtract it from 255.255.255.255, and the resulting subnet mask is 255.255.255.240. v 192.168.3.64 is a subnetwork address in a subnet with 8 addresses. Convert 0.0.0.7 v to binary and subtract it from 255.255.255.255, and the resulting subnet mask is 255.255.255.248. That mask contains 3 host bits, and yields 8 addresses. s L " Older Version: CCNA 2 Chapter 7 Exam Answers v5.1 1 1. What two tasks do dynamic routing protocols perform? (Choose two.) discover hosts update and maintain routing tables* propagate host default gateways network discovery* assign IP addressing 2. What is a disadvantage of using dynamic routing protocols? They are only suitable for simple topologies. Their configuration complexity increases as the size of the network grows. They send messages about network status insecurely across networks by default.* They require administrator intervention when the pathway of traffic changes. 3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.) sends subnet mask information in routing updates* sends complete routing table update to all neighbors is supported by RIP version 1 allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology* reduces the amount of address space available in an organization 4. An OSPF enabled router is processing learned routes to select best paths to reach a destination network. What is the OSPF algorithm evaluating as the

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metric? The amount of packet delivery time and slowest bandwidth. The number of hops along the routing path. The amount of traffic and probability of failure of links. The cumulative bandwidth that is used along the routing path.*

 5. After a network topology change occurs, which distance vector routing protocol can send an update message directly to a single neighboring router without unnecessarily notifying other routers? IS-IS

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6. What is the purpose of the passive-interface command? allows a routing protocol to forward updates out an interface that is missing its IP address allows a router to send routing updates on an interface but not receive updates via that interface allows an interface to remain up without receiving keepalives allows interfaces to share IP addresses

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allows a router to receive routing updates on an interface but not send

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updates via that interface*

7. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial output from the show ip route command, what two facts can be determined about the RIP routing protocol? (Choose two.)

CCNA2 Chapter 7 v5.03 001 RIP version 2 is running on this router and its RIP neighbor.* The metric to the network 172.16.0.0 is 120. RIP version 1 is running on this router and its RIP neighbor. The command no auto-summary has been used on the RIP neighbor router.* RIP will advertise two networks to its neighbor. 8. While configuring RIPv2 on an enterprise network, an engineer enters the command network 192.168.10.0 into router configuration mode. What is the result of entering this command? The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending version 1 and version 2 updates. The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is receiving version 1 and version 2 updates. The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending only version 2 updates.* The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending RIP hello messages. 9. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the exhibited commands in an attempt to activate RIPng on interface gig0/0. What is causing the console message that is shown after RIP is enabled?

CCNA2 Chapter 7 v5.03 004

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Interface gig0/0 is shutdown. Interface gig0/0 does not have a valid IPv6 address. IPv6 unicast routing has not been enabled on this router.* IPv6 is not supported on this IOS. 10. Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is used in the network. Which path will be chosen by

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OSPF to send data packets from Net A to Net B?

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CCNA2 Chapter 7 v5.03 002 R1, R2, R5, R7 R1, R3, R5, R7* R1, R3, R6, R7 R1, R4, R6, R7 R1, R3, R5, R6, R7 11. Which two events will trigger the sending of a link-state packet by a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.) the router update timer expiring a link to a neighbor router has become congested a change in the topology * the initial startup of the routing protocol process* the requirement to periodically flood link-state packets to all neighbors 12. Which two requirements are necessary before a router configured with a linkstate routing protocol can build and send its link-state packets? (Choose two.) The router has determined the costs associated with its active links.* The router has built its link-state database. The routing table has been refreshed. The router has established its adjacencies.* The router has constructed an SPF tree. 13. When does a link-state router send LSPs to its neighbors? every 30 seconds immediately after receiving an LSP from neighbors with updates* only when one of its interfaces goes up or down only when one of its neighbors requests an update 14. Which routing protocol uses link-state information to build a map of the topology for computing the best path to each destination network? OSPF* EIGRP RIP RIPng 15. A destination route in the routing table is indicated with a code D. Which kind of route entry is this? a static route a route used as the default gateway a network directly connected to a router interface a route dynamically learned through the EIGRP routing protocol* 16. Refer to the exhibit. Which interface will be the exit interface to forward a data packet with the destination IP address 172.16.0.66?

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CCNA2 Chapter 7 v5.03 003 Serial0/0/0 Serial0/0/1* GigabitEthernet0/0 GigabitEthernet0/1 17. Which two requirements are used to determine if a route can be considered as an ultimate route in a router’s routing table? (Choose two.) contain subnets be a default route contain an exit interface* be a classful network entry contain a next-hop IP address* 18. Which route is the best match for a packet entering a router with a destination address of 10.16.0.2? S 10.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 192.168.0.2 S 10.16.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9* S 10.16.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/1 S 10.0.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/0 19. Which type of route will require a router to perform a recursive lookup? an ultimate route that is using a next hop IP address on a router that is not using CEF* a level 2 child route that is using an exit interface on a router that is not using CEF a level 1 network route that is using a next hop IP address on a router that is using CEF a parent route on a router that is using CEF 20. A router is configured to participate in multiple routing protocol: RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF. The router must send a packet to network 192.168.14.0. Which route will be used to forward the traffic? a 192.168.14.0 /26 route that is learned via RIP* a 192.168.14.0 /24 route that is learned via EIGRP a 192.168.14.0 /25 route that is learned via OSPF a 192.168.14.0 /25 route that is learned via RIP 21. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate. When configuring RIPng, the default-information originate command instructs the router to propagate a static default route. 22. Match the features of link-state routing protocols to their advantages and disadvantages. (Not all options are used.)

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CCNA2 Chapter 7 v5.03 Question 001

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Answer

CCNA2 Chapter 7 v5.03 Answer 001 23. Match the characteristic to the corresponding type of routing. (Not all options are used.) Question

CCNA2 Chapter 7 v5.03 Question 002 Answer

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 24. Which two statements describe the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose two.) automatically summarizes networks at the classful boundaries has an administrative distance of 100 calculates its metric using bandwidth *

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25. What two actions result from entering the network 192.168.1.0 command in RIP configuration mode on a router? (Choose two.) The network address 192.168.1.0 is advertised to the neighbor routers. * Routing updates are sent through all the interfaces belonging to 192.168.1.0.* The routing table is created in the RAM of the router. The RIP process is stopped and all existing RIP configurations are erased. The neighboring routers are sent a request for routing updates. * 26. Which dynamic routing protocol was developed as an exterior gateway protocol

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to interconnect different Internet providers? BGP* EIGRP OSPF RIP

27. In the context of routing protocols, what is a definition for time to convergence? the amount of time a network administrator needs to configure a routing protocol in a small- to medium-sized network the capability to transport data, video, and voice over the same media a measure of protocol configuration complexity the amount of time for the routing tables to achieve a consistent state after a topology change* 28. A destination route in the routing table is indicated witha code D. Which kind of route entry is this? a static route a route used as the default gateway a network directly connected to a router interface a route dynamically learned through the EIGRP routing protocol* 29. Match the router protocol to the corresponding category. (Not all options are used.)

Distance vector RIOv2

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EIGRPLink state OSPF IS-IS 30. Which route is the best match for a packet entering a router with a destination address of 10.16.0.2?

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S 10.16.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/1 S 10.16.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9* S 10.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 192.168.0.2 S 10.0.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/0

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31. What is different between IPv6 routing table entries compared to IPv4 routing table entries? By design IPv6 is classless so all routes are effectively level 1 ultimate routes.* IPv6 does not use static routes to populate the routing table as used in IPv4. IPv6 routing tables include local route entries which IPv4 routing tables do not. The selection of IPv6 routes is based on the shortest matching prefix, unlike IPv4 route selection which is based on the longest matching prefix. 32. Which route will a router use to forward an IPv4 packet after examining its routing table for the best match with the destination address? a level 1 child route

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a level 1 parent route a level 2 supernet route a level 1 ultimate route*

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a CCNA 2 Exam CCNA 3 Exam CCNA 4 Exam d CCNA 1 Exam Answers Answers Answers Answers f k J CCNA 2 V5.0 ROUTING AND SWITCHING ESSENTIALS 2015 (100%) * ! Chapter 7 RSE Practice Skills Assessment ) Exam Answers N  CCNA Questions Answers  Jul 12, 2017  Last updated on: Sep 13, 2018 v v Pass CCNA Exam Fast OPEN s 100% Real Exam Questions, Accurate & Veri ed Answers. 30 Days Updates. PrepAway.com L " CCNA Routing and Switching 4 (31) votes 1 Routing & Switching Essentials Chapter 7 SIC: VLANs, Trunking, and Router-on-a-Stick

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CCNA 1 - Pretest CCNA 1 - Chapter 1 CCNA 1 - Chapter 2 CCNA 1 - Chapter 3 CCNA 1 - Chapter 4 CCNA 1 - Chapter 5 CCNA 1 - Chapter 6 CCNA 1 - Chapter 6 Skills PT CCNA 1 - Chapter 7 CCNA 1 - Chapter 8 CCNA 1 - Chapter 9 CCNA 1 - Chapter 10 CCNA 1 - Chapter 11 CCNA 1 PT Practice Skills CCNA 1 - Practice Final CCNA 1 - Final Exam

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Introduction

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In this practice skills assessment, you will configure the Science LLC network with VLANs, Trunking, inter-VLAN routing, and IPv4 standard ACLs. As part of this process, you will perform basic VLAN configuration tasks, address router interfaces and hosts, and implement two ACLs.

CCNA Labs Sim

You are not required to configure the Quark switch, or any of the servers.

Lab – CCNA Access List Sim 2 (ACL-2)

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[Cert] CCNA 200-125 Exam

Reserve ahora Note: In order to keep the assessment activity as brief as possible, you will only be partially configuring some devices, as directed in the instructions. In a real network, all devices would be fully configured to function in the network. You are only responsible for completing the tasks covered in the instructions. Any configuration that you do beyond the requirements will not result in additional credit. All IOS device configurations should be completed from a direct terminal connection to the device console. In addition, many values that are required to complete the configurations have not been given to you. In those cases, create the values that you need to complete the requirements. You will practice and be assessed on the following skills:

Lab – EIGRP Configuration TS – VLAN Sim Troubleshooting TS – DHCP Sim Troubleshooting TS – GRE Multilink Troubleshooting TS – RIPv2 Troubleshooting Sim TS – EIGRP Troubleshooting Sim TS – OSPF Troubleshooting Sim

Multiple choice questions Questions Answers

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PART 1 (Question 1-70) PART 2 (Question 71-140) PART 3 (Question 141-210) PART 4 (Question 211-280) PART 5 (Question 281-350) PART 6 (Question 351-420) PART 7 (Question 421-490) PART 8 (Question 491-512)

Configuration of initial device settings IPv4 address assignment Configuration and addressing of device interfaces

Basic Questions

Configuration of VLANs on three switches

Basic Questions 2

Configuration of trunking and inter-VLAN routing

OSI TCP/IP Model Questions

Configuration of ACL to limit device access Cloud & Virtual Services Requirements by device:

Router Atom: Configuration of initial router settings

WAN Questions » Show Full List

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Interface configuration and IPv4 addressing

Switch Neutron:

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Configuration of VLANs Configuration of VLAN trunking Configuration of interfaces into VLAN Configuration of IP address for the Management VLAN

Switch Proton: Configuration of VLANs Configuration of VLAN trunking Configuration of interfaces into VLAN Configuration of IP address for the Management VLAN

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Switch Electron: Configuration of VLANs Configuration of VLAN trunking Configuration of interfaces into VLAN Configuration of IP address for the Management VLAN

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PC hosts: Pv4 full addressing

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Addressing Table Note: You are provided with the networks that interfaces should be configured on. Unless you are told to do differently in the detailed instructions below, you are free to choose the host addresses to assign.

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VLAN Assignment Table

Instructions Step 1: Determine Addressing Determine the IP addresses that you will use for the required interfaces on the three switch SVIs, and the six LAN hosts. Use the information in the addressing table. Select the switch SVI addresses. The interfaces on the Atomrouter that are used to route the VLANs should be addressed with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Assign valid host addresses to the LAN hosts according to the Addressing Table and VLAN assignment.

Step 2: Con gure initial device setting on Neutron and Atom Configure Neutron and Atom with all initial configurations that you have learned in the course so far: Configure the switch hostname: Neutron.

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Configure the router hostname: Atom. Prevent the router from attempting to resolve unrecognized CLI entries as domain names. Protect device configurations from unauthorized access with the encrypted password cisco. Secure the router and switch console and remote access lines with password cisco.

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Prevent all passwords from being viewed in clear text in device configuration files.

Step 3: Con gure VLANs

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Configure four VLANs on the Neutron, Proton, and Electron switches using the values in the addressing table.

Step 4: Assign Switch Interfaces to VLANs Configure FastEthernet interfaces on Proton and Electron according to the following guidelines: Interfaces Fa0/1 - Fa0/5 are assigned to VLAN 20 Interfaces Fa0/6 - Fa0/10 are assigned to VLAN 40 Interfaces Fa0/11 - Fa0/15 are assigned to VLAN 60

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the SVIs of the Neutron, Proton, and Electron switches using the

information in the VLAN and Addressing Tables. Configure the IP address for the Management VLAN and the default-gateway IP address. Configure the SVIs so that they will be reachable by devices on other networks after the network has been fully configured.

 Step 6: Con gure VLAN Trunking Configure VLAN trunking between the Neutron, Proton, and Electron switches. Manuallyconfigure the VTP domain name to School on the Neutron, Proton, and Electron switches. Manuallyconfigure the trunking ports on the Neutron, Proton, and Electron switches.

Step 7: Con gure inter-VLAN Routing Use the information in the Addressing and VLAN tables to configure inter-VLAN routing on Atom according to the following guidelines: Configure inter-VLAN routing among VLANs 20, 40, 60 and 88 through Gi0/0 subinterfaces. Configure inter-VLAN routing for VLANs 250 and 254 through Gi0/1 subinterfaces.

Step 8: Con gure Host Addressing Address the hosts according to the values in the addressing table. Use a DNS server address of 172.16.254.252. All hosts should be able to reach the www.cisco.com server.

Step 9: Con gure Access Control Lists You will configure two access control lists on the Atom router. The ACL specifications are as follows: a. Restrict access to the vty lines on Atom. Create a numberedstandard ACL using number 10. Be sure that you use this number exactly as it appears in these instructions. Allow only hosts on the ProductionVLAN to access the vty lines of Atom. No other internal and Internet hosts should be able to access the vty lines of Atom. Your solution should consist of a single ACL statement. b. Restrict access to the internal web server Create a named standard ACL using the name INT-WEB. Be sure that you use this name exactly as it appears in these instructions. Allow hosts on the Researchand Production VLANs to reach the internal

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administrative web server at int.com. No other internal and Internet hosts should be able to access the internal administrative web server. Your solution should consist of two ACL statements.

 Step 10: Verify Connectivity

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Verify your configurations according to the following guidelines: Hosts in VLANs 20, 40, and 60 can ping each other.

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Chapter 7 RSE Practice Skills Assessment Exam Answers Hosts in VLANs 20, 40, and 60 can visit the external web server www.cisco.com. Hosts in VLAN 40 and 60 can visit the administrative web server www.int.com. Hosts in VLAN 60 can telnet into Atom Hosts in VLANs 20 and 40 cannot telnet to Atom.

Intructions - Answer 100% Router 1: Atom 427

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enable conf ter hostname Atom no ip domain-lookup enable secret cisco line console 0 password cisco login line vty 0 15 password cisco login exit int g0/0.20 encapsulation dot1Q 20 ip address 172.16.20.254 255.255.255.0 int g0/0.40 encapsulation dot1Q 40 ip address 172.16.40.254 255.255.255.0 int g0/0.60 encapsulation dot1Q 60 ip address 172.16.60.254 255.255.255.0 int g0/0.88 encapsulation dot1Q 88 ip address 172.16.88.254 255.255.255.0 int g0/0 no sh int g0/1.250 encapsulation dot1Q 250 ip address 172.16.250.254 255.255.255.0 int g0/1.254 encapsulation dot1Q 254 ip address 172.16.254.254 255.255.255.0 int g0/1 no shutdown exit access-list 10 permit 172.16.60.0 0.0.0.255 ip access-list standard INT-WEB permit 172.16.40.0 0.0.0.255 permit 172.16.60.0 0.0.0.255 exit line vty 0 15 access-class 10 in exit int g0/1.250 ip access-group INT-WEB out

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Switch 1: Neutron en conf ter hostname Neutron no ip domain-lookup enable secret cisco line console 0 password cisco login

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line vty 0 15 password cisco login exit service password-encryption vlan 20 name Lab vlan 40 name Research vlan 60 name Production vlan 88 name NetOps exit

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int vlan 88 ip add 172.16.88.253 255.255.255.0 no shutdown exit ip default-gateway 172.16.88.254 vtp domain School int g0/1 switchport mode trunk int range f0/23-24 switchport mode trunk

Switch 2: Proton en conf ter hostname Proton vlan 20 name Lab vlan 40 name Research vlan 60 name Production vlan 88 name NetOps exit int range fastEthernet 0/1-5 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 20 int range fastEthernet 0/6-10 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 40 int range fastEthernet 0/11-15 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 60 exit int vlan 88 ip add 172.16.88.252 255.255.255.0 no sh no shutdown exit ip default-gateway 172.16.88.254 vtp domain School

int f0/23 switchport mode trunk

Switch 3: Electron

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en conf ter hostname Electron vlan 20 name Lab vlan 40 name Research vlan 60 name Production vlan 88 name NetOps exit

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int range fa0/1-5 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 20 int range fa0/6-10

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switchport mode access switchport access vlan 40 int range fa0/11-15 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 60 exit int vlan 88 ip add 172.16.88.251 255.255.255.0 no shutdown exit ip default-gateway 172.16.88.254 vtp domain School

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Host: Lab 1 IP address: 172.16.20.5 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 172.16.20.254 DNS server: 172.16.254.252 Host: Research 1 IP address: 172.16.40.5 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 172.16.40.254 DNS server: 172.16.254.252 Host: Prod 1 IP address: 172.16.60.5 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 172.16.60.254 DNS server: 172.16.254.252 Host: Lab 2 IP address: 172.16.20.10 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 172.16.20.254 DNS server: 172.16.254.252 Host: Research 2 IP address: 172.16.40.10 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 172.16.40.254 DNS server: 172.16.254.252 Host: Prod 1 IP address: 172.16.60.10 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 172.16.60.254 DNS server: 172.16.254.252

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Routernya tidak bs dibuka kenapa ya alias konfigured locked Guest  1 year ago

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Connect a computer via the Console port on both devices Guest

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There’s a mistake on the router configuration, when you apply the ACL to the Guest

vty lines, it should be “line vty 0 15” instead of 0 1  4 months ago

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a CCNA 2 Exam CCNA 3 Exam CCNA 4 Exam d CCNA 1 Exam Answers Answers Answers Answers f k J CCNA 2 V5.03 * ! CCNA 2 (v5.0.3 + v6.0) Chapter 8 Exam Answers ) 2018 – 100% Full N  CCNA Questions Answers  Feb 6, 2016  Last updated on: Jun 29, 2018 v v 100% Free CCNA Exam File OPEN s Get 100% Latest Pool of CCNA Questions with Fast Updates PrepAway.com L " New Version: CCNA 2 Chapter 8 Exam Answers 3.9 (61) votes 1 v6.0

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1. Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server? unicast DHCPACK broadcast DHCPACK unicast DHCPREQUEST broadcast DHCPREQUEST* When a DHCP client receives DHCPOFFER messages, it will send a broadcast DHCPREQUEST message for two purposes. First, it indicates to the offering DHCP server that it would like to accept the offer and bind the IP address. Second, it notifies any other responding DHCP servers that their offers are declined. 2. A company uses DHCP servers to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses to

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employee workstations. The address lease duration is set as 5 days. An employee returns to the office after an absence of one week. When the employee boots the workstation, it sends a message to obtain an IP address. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will the message contain?

CCNA v5 + v6.0 Exam Answers CCNA 1

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CCNA 4 CCNA 1 - Pretest CCNA 1 - Chapter 1 CCNA 1 - Chapter 2 CCNA 1 - Chapter 3 CCNA 1 - Chapter 4 CCNA 1 - Chapter 5 CCNA 1 - Chapter 6 CCNA 1 - Chapter 6 Skills PT CCNA 1 - Chapter 7 CCNA 1 - Chapter 8 CCNA 1 - Chapter 9 CCNA 1 - Chapter 10 CCNA 1 - Chapter 11 CCNA 1 PT Practice Skills CCNA 1 - Practice Final CCNA 1 - Final Exam

FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255* both MAC and IPv4 addresses of the DHCP server MAC address of the DHCP server and 255.255.255.255 FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and IPv4 address of the DHCP server

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will send a DHCPDISCOVER message to start the process of obtaining a valid IP address. Because the workstation does not know the addresses of DHCP servers, it sends the message via broadcast, with destination addresses of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255. 3. Which is a DHCPv4 address allocation method that assigns IPv4 addresses for a limited lease period? manual allocation pre-allocation automatic allocation

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dynamic allocation*

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[Cert] CCNA 200-125 Exam CCNA Labs Sim Lab – CCNA Access List Sim 2 (ACL-2) Lab – EIGRP Configuration TS – VLAN Sim Troubleshooting TS – DHCP Sim Troubleshooting TS – GRE Multilink Troubleshooting

Dynamic allocation is the most commonly implemented allocation mechanism. It

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leases the IP parameters for a predefined period of time.

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4. Which address does a DHCPv4 server target when sending a DHCPOFFER message to a client that makes an address request?

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gateway IP address broadcast MAC address Which address does a DHCPv4 server target when sending a DHCPOFFER message to a client that makes an addres 5. As a DHCPv4 client lease is about to expire, what is the message that the client sends the DHCP server? DHCPDISCOVER DHCPOFFER DHCPREQUEST* DHCPACK

PART 1 (Question 1-70) PART 2 (Question 71-140) PART 3 (Question 141-210) PART 4 (Question 211-280) PART 5 (Question 281-350) PART 6 (Question 351-420) PART 7 (Question 421-490) PART 8 (Question 491-512) Basic Questions Basic Questions 2 OSI TCP/IP Model Questions

When a DHCP client lease is about to expire, the client sends a DHCPREQUEST

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message to the DHCPv4 server that originally provided the IPv4 address. This allows

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the client to request that the lease be extended. » Show Full List 6. What is an advantage of configuring a Cisco router as a relay agent? It will allow DHCPDISCOVER messages to pass without alteration.

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It can forward both broadcast and multicast messages on behalf of clients. It can provide relay services for multiple UDP services.* It reduces the response time from a DHCP server.

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By default, the ip helper-address command forwards the following eight UDP services: Port 37: Time Port 49: TACACS Port 53: DNS Port 67: DHCP/BOOTP client Port 68: DHCP/BOOTP server

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Port 69: TFTP Port 137: NetBIOS name service Port 138: NetBIOS datagram service 7. An administrator issues the commands:

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Router(config)# interface g0/1

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configuring the router to obtain IP parameters from a DHCPv4 server*

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configuring the router to act as a relay agent configuring the router to resolve IP address conflicts

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CCNA 2 (v5.0.3 + v6.0) Chapter 8 Exam Answers 2018 - 100% Full The ip address dhcp command activates the DHCPv4 client on a given interface. By doing this, the router will obtain the IP parameters from a DHCPv4 server.

8. Under which two circumstances would a router usually be configured as a DHCPv4 client? (Choose two.) The router is intended to be used as a SOHO gateway.* The administrator needs the router to act as a relay agent. The router is meant to provide IP addresses to the hosts. This is an ISP requirement.* The router has a fixed IP address.

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SOHO routers are frequently required by the ISP to be configured as DHCPv4 clients in order to be connected to the provider.

9. A company uses the SLAAC method to configure IPv6 addresses for the employee workstations. Which address will a client use as its default gateway? the all-routers multicast address the link-local address of the router interface that is attached to the network* the unique local address of the router interface that is attached to the network the global unicast address of the router interface that is attached to the network When a PC is configured to use the SLAAC method for configuring IPv6 addresses, it will use the prefix and prefix-length information that is contained in the RA message, combined with a 64-bit interface ID (obtained by using the EUI-64 process or by using a random number that is generated by the client operating system), to form an IPv6 address. It uses the link-local address of the router interface that is attached to the LAN segment as its IPv6 default gateway address. 10. A network administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 0 and O flag as 1. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration when a PC tries to configure its IPv6 address? It should contact a DHCPv6 server for all the information that it needs. It should use the information that is contained in the RA message exclusively. It should use the information that is contained in the RA message and contact a DHCPv6 server for additional information* It should contact a DHCPv6 server for the prefix, the prefix-length information, and an interface ID that is both random and unique. ICMPv6 RA messages contain two flags to indicate whether a workstation should use SLAAC, a DHCPv6 server, or a combination to configure its IPv6 address. These two flags are M flag and O flag. When both flags are 0 (by default), a client must only use the information in the RA message. When M flag is 0 and O flag is 1, a client should use the information in the RA message and look for the other configuration parameters (such as DNS server addresses) on DHCPv6 servers. 11. A company implements the stateless DHCPv6 method for configuring IPv6 addresses on employee workstations. After a workstation receives messages from multiple DHCPv6 servers to indicate their availability for DHCPv6 service, which message does it send to a server for configuration information? DHCPv6 SOLICIT DHCPv6 REQUEST DHCPv6 ADVERTISE DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST*

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In stateless DHCPv6 configuration, a client configures its IPv6 address by using the prefix and prefix length in the RA message, combined with a self-generated interface ID. It then contacts a DHCPv6 server for additional configuration information via an INFORMATION-REQUEST message. The DHCPv6 SOLICIT message is used by a client to locate a DHCPv6 server. The DHCPv6 ADVERTISE message is used by DHCPv6 servers to indicate their availability for DHCPv6 service. The DHCPv6 REQUEST

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message is used by a client, in the stateful DHCPv6 configuration, to request ALL configuration information from a DHCPv6 server.

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12. An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured? SLAAC stateless DHCPv6 * stateful DHCPv6 RA and EUI-64 Stateless DHCPv6 allows clients to use ICMPv6 Router Advertisement (RA) messages to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves, but then allows these clients

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to contact a DHCPv6 server to obtain additional information such as the domain name and address of DNS servers. SLAAC does not allow the client to obtain additional information through DHCPv6, and stateful DHCPv6 requires that the client receive its interface address directly from a DHCPv6 server. RA messages, when combined with an EUI-64 interface identifier, are used to automatically create an interface IPv6 address, and are part of both SLAAC and stateless DHCPv6.

13. How does an IPv6 client ensure that it has a unique address after it configures its IPv6 address using the SLAAC allocation method? It sends an ARP message with the IPv6 address as the destination IPv6 address. It checks with the IPv6 address database that is hosted by the SLAAC server. It contacts the DHCPv6 server via a special formed ICMPv6 message. It sends an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message with the IPv6 address as the target IPv6 address.* SLAAC is a stateless allocation method and does not use a DHCP server to manage the IPv6 addresses. When a host generates an IPv6 address, it must verify that it is unique. The host will send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message with its own IPv6 address as the target. As long as no other device responds with a Neighbor Advertisement message, then the address is unique. 14. What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface? the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface* a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface The EUI-64 process uses the MAC address of an interface to construct an interface ID (IID). Because the MAC address is only 48 bits in length, 16 additional bits (FF:FE) must be added to the MAC address to create the full 64-bit interface ID. 15. What two methods can be used to generate an interface ID by an IPv6 host that is using SLAAC? (Choose two.) EUI-64* random generation* stateful DHCPv6 DAD ARP A host that is using SLAAC has two means to configure an interface ID: EUI-64 and random generation by the host operating system. 16. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what kind of IPv6 addressing is being configured?

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SLAAC stateful DHCPv6 stateless DHCPv6* static link-local Stateful DHCPv6 pools are configured with address prefixes for hosts via the address command, whereas stateless DHCPv6 pools typically only contain information such as DNS server addresses and the domain name. RA messages that are sent from routers that are configured as stateful DHCPv6 servers have the M flag set to 1 with the command ipv6 nd managed-config-flag, whereas stateless DHCPv6 servers are indicated by setting the O flag to 1 with the ipv6 nd other-config-flag command. 17. What is the result of a network technician issuing the command ip dhcp excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15 on a Cisco router? The Cisco router will exclude only the 10.0.15.1 and 10.0.15.15 IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients. The Cisco router will automatically create a DHCP pool using a /28 mask. The Cisco router will allow only the specified IP addresses to be leased to clients. The Cisco router will exclude 15 IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients.* The ip dhcp excluded-address command is followed by the first and the last addresses to be excluded from being leased to DHCP clients. 18. Refer to the exhibit. What should be done to allow PC-A to receive an IPv6 address from the DHCPv6 server?

Add the ipv6 dhcp relay command to interface Fa0/0.* Configure the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command on interface Fa0/1. Change the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command to ipv6 nd other-config-flag. Add the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:1234:5678::10/64 to the interface configuration of the DHCPv6 server. Client DHCPv6 messages are sent to a multicast address with link-local scope, which

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means that the messages will not be forwarded by routers. Because the client and server are on different subnets on different interfaces, the message will not reach the server. The router can be configured to relay the DHCPv6 messages from the client to the server by configuring the ipv6 dhcp relay command on the interface that is connected to the client.

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19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing stateful DHCPv6 operation for the company. However, the clients are not using the prefix and prefix-length information that is configured in the DHCP pool. The administrator

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issues a show ipv6 interface command. What could be the cause of the problem?

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No virtual link-local address is configured The Duplicate Address Detection feature is disabled The router is configured for SLAAC DHCPv6 operation The router is configured for stateless DHCPv6 operation* The router is configured for stateless DHCPv6 operation, which is shown by the last two lines of the show command output. Hosts will configure their IPv6 addresses by using the prefix information that is provided by RA messages. They will also obtain additional configuration information from a DHCPv6 server. The “No virtual link-local address” option and the “Duplicate Address Detection” option are irrelevant to DHCP configuration. Option “SLAAC configuration” is incorrect because by definition SLAAC will use only the information that is provided by RA messages to configure IPv6 settings. 20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing the stateless DHCPv6 operation for the company. Clients are configuring IPv6 addresses as expected. However, the clients are not getting the DNS server address and the domain name information configured in the DHCP pool. What could be the cause of the problem?

The GigabitEthernet interface is not activated The router is configured for SLAAC operation* The DNS server address is not on the same network as the clients are on

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The clients cannot communicate with the DHCPv6 server, evidenced by the number of active clients being 0 The router is configured for SLAAC operation because there is no configuration command to change the RA M and O flag value. By default, both M and O flags are set to 0. In order to permint stateless DHCPv6 operation, the interface command

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ipv6 nd other-config-flag should be issued. The GigabitEthernet interface is in working condition because clients can get RA messages and configure their IPv6 addresses as expected. Also, the fact that R1 is the DHCPv6 server and clients are getting RA messages indicates that clients can communicate with the DHCP server.

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CCNA 2 (v5.0.3 + v6.0) Chapter 8 Exam Answers 2018 - 100% Full The number of active clients is 0 because the DHCPv6 server does not maintain the state of clients IPv6 addresses (it is not configured for stateful DHCPv6 operation). The DNS server address issue is not relevant to the problem.

21. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate Type a command to exclude the first fifteen useable IP addresses from a DHCPv4 address pool of the network 10.0.15.0/24. Router(config)# ip dhcp Correct Answer: excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15* The ip dhcp excluded-address command must be followed by the first and the last

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22. Order the steps of configuring a router as a DHCPv4 Server. (Not all options are used.)

23. Match the description to the corresponding DHCPv6 server type. (Not all options are used.)

6  Place the options in the following order: [+] enabled in RA messages with the ipv6 nd other-config-flag command [+] clients send only DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST messages to the server [+] enabled on the client with the ipv6 address autoconfig command

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CCNA 2 (v5.0.3 + v6.0) Chapter 8 Exam Answers 2018 - 100% Full [#] the M flag is set to 1 in RA messages [#] uses the address command to create a pool of addresses for clients [#] enabled on the client with the ipv6 address dhcp command[+] Order does not matter within this group. [#] Order does not matter within this group.

Older Version:CCNA 2 Chapter 8 Exam Answers v5.1 1. A router is participating in an OSPFv2 domain. What will always happen if the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OSPF router?

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OSPF will run a new DR/BDR election.

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SPF will run and determine which neighbor router is “down”. A new dead interval timer of 4 times the hello interval will start. OSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database.*

2. Which three statements describe the similarities between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3? (Choose three.) They both are link-state protocols.* They both use the global address as the source address when sending OSPF messages. They both share the concept of multiple areas.* They both support IPsec for authentication. They both use the same DR/BDR election process.* They both have unicast routing enabled by default. 3. Which OSPF component is identical in all routers in an OSPF area after convergence? adjacency database link-state database* routing table SPF tree 4. Which three statements describe features of the OSPF topology table? (Choose three.) It is a link-state database that represents the network topology.* Its contents are the result of running the SPF algorithm. When converged, all routers in an area have identical topology tables.* The topology table contains feasible successor routes. The table can be viewed via the show ip ospf database command.* After convergence, the table only contains the lowest cost route entries for all known networks. 5. What is used to create the OSPF neighbor table? adjacency database* link-state database forwarding database routing table 6. What is a function of OSPF hello packets? to send specifically requested link-state records to discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them* to ensure database synchronization between routers to request specific link-state records from neighbor routers 7. Which OPSF packet contains the different types of link-state advertisements? hello DBD LSR

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LSU* LSAck 8. What are the two purposes of an OSPF router ID? (Choose two.) to facilitate the establishment of network convergence to uniquely identify the router within the OSPF domain*

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to facilitate the transition of the OSPF neighbor state to Full to facilitate router participation in the election of the designated router* to enable the SPF algorithm to determine the lowest cost path to remote networks 9. What is the first criterion used by OPSF routers to elect a DR?

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10. Which wildcard mask would be used to advertise the 192.168.5.96/27 network as part of an OSPF configuration? 0.0.0.32 0.0.0.31* 255.255.255.224 255.255.255.223 11. What are two reasons that will prevent two routers from forming an OSPFv2

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adjacency? (Choose two.) a mismatched Cisco IOS version that is used mismatched OSPF Hello or Dead timers* mismatched subnet masks on the link interfaces* use of private IP addresses on the link interfaces one router connecting to a FastEthernet port on the switch and the other connecting to a GigabitEthernet port

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issued the command show ip ospf interface on the router R2. What conclusion can be drawn?

CCNA2 Chapter 8 v5.03 001 R2 is connecting to a point-to-point network. R2 has not formed an adjacency with any other router.* R2 is configured with the OSPF router-id command. R2 is not configured with default Hello and Dead timer values. 13. What command would be used to determine if a routing protocol-initiated relationship had been made with an adjacent router? ping show ip protocols show ip ospf neighbor* show ip interface brief 14. Which OSPFv3 function works differently from OSPFv2? metric calculation hello mechanism OSPF packet types authentication* election process 15. Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3 messages? (Choose three.)

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FE80::1* FF02::5* FF02::6* FF02::A FF02::1:2 2001:db8:cafe::1

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16. What does a Cisco router use automatically to create link-local addresses on serial interfaces when OSPFv3 is implemented?

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CCNA 2 (v5.0.3 + v6.0) Chapter 8 Exam Answers 2018 - 100% Full the highest MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI48 process the FE80::/10 prefix and the EUI-48 process the MAC address of the serial interface, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process an Ethernet interface MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process*

17. A network administrator enters the command ipv6 router ospf 64in global configuration mode. What is the result of this command? The router will be assigned an autonomous system number of 64. The router will be assigned a router ID of 64.

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The reference bandwidth will be set to 64 Mb/s. The OSPFv3 process will be assigned an ID of 64.*

18. Single area OSPFv3 has been enabled on a router via the ipv6 router ospf 20 command. Which command will enable this OSPFv3 process on an interface of that router? ipv6 ospf 0 area 0 ipv6 ospf 20 area 20 ipv6 ospf 0 area 20 ipv6 ospf 20 area 0* 19. Which command will verify that a router that is running OSPFv3 has formed an adjacency with other routers in its OSPF area? show running-configuration show ipv6 ospf neighbor* show ipv6 route ospf show ipv6 interface brief 20. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations. To quickly verify OSPFv3 configuration information including the OSPF process ID, the router ID, and the interfaces enabled for OSPFv3, you need to issue the command show ipv6 protocols 21. Fill in the blank. The election of a DR and a BDR takes place on networks, such as Ethernet networks. multiaccess 22. Fill in the blank. OSPF uses cost as a metric. 23. Match the information to the command that is used to obtain the information. (Not all options are used.) Question

CCNA2 Chapter 8 v5.03 Question 001 Answer

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CCNA2 Chapter 8 v5.03 Answer 001

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24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then complete the task. What message is displayed on www.ciscoville.com? Finished!

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25. Which criterion is preferred by the router to choose a router ID? the IP address of the highest configured loopback interface on the router the IP address of the highest active interface on the router the router-id rid command* the IP address of the highest active OSPF-enabled interface 26. Which command should be used to check the OSPF process ID, the router ID, networks the router is advertising, the neighbors the router is receiving

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updates from, and the default administrative distance? show ip protocols* show ip ospf neighbor show ip ospf show ip ospf interface

27. A network administrator enters the command ipv6 router ospf 64 in global configuration mode. What is the result of this command? The router will be assigned an autonomous system number of 64. The router will be assigned a router ID of 64. The reference bandwidth will be set to 64 Mb/s. The OSPFv3 process will be assigned an ID of 64.* 28. When a network engineer is configuring OSPFv3 on a router, which command would the engineer issue immediately before configuring the router ID? ipv6 ospf 10 area 0 ipv6 router ospf 10* interface serial 0/0/1 clear ipv6 ospf process 29. Which command will provide information specific to OSPFv3 routes in the routing table? show ip route ospf show ip route show ipv6 route show ipv6 route ospf* 30. Fill in the blank. The election of a DR and a BDR takes place on multiaccess networks, such as Ethernet networks. 31. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then complete the task. What message is displayed on www.ciscoville.com?

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The correct configuration on R1 is: router ospf 10 network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 network 10.0.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 The correct configuration on R2 is: router ospf 10 network 10.0.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 network 10.0.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0 network 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

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Completion!* Converged! Success!

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32. By order of precedence, match the selection of router ID for an OSFP-enabled router to the possible router ID options. (Not all options are used.)

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Place the options in the following order: Third precedence -> Loopback interface address 10.1.1.1 Fourth precedence -> Serial interface address 192.168.10.1 – not scored – First precedence -> Configured router ID 1.1.1.1 Second precedence -> loopback interface IP address 172.16.1.1 33. Match the description to the term. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order: This is where the details of the neighboring routers can be found. -> adjacency database This is the algorithm used by OSPF. -> Shortest Path First All the routers are in the backbone area. -> Single-area OSPF – not scored – This is where you can find the topology table. -> link-state database – not scored – 34. What is the first criterion used by OSPF routers to elect a DR? Highest priority* Highest IP address Highest MAC address Highest router ID 35. What are two reasons that will prevent routers from forming an OSPFv2 adjacency? (Choose two.) mismatched subnet masks on the link interfaces* use of private IP addresses on the link interfaces one router connecting to a FastEthernet port on the switch and the other connecting to a GigabitEthernet port a mismatched Cisco IOS version that is used mismatched OSPF Hello or Dead timers* 36. What command would be issued to determine if a routing protocol-initiated relationship has been made with an adjacent router?

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show ip protocols ping show ip interface brief show ip ospf neighbor* 37. Match the OSPF state with the order in which it occurs. (Not all options are used.)

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Place the options in the following order: second state -> Init state – not scored – seventh state -> Full state fifth state -> Exchange state first state -> Down state fourth state -> Exstart state – not scored – third state -> Two-way state sixth state -> Loading state Download PDF File below:

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What is the result of a network technician issuing the command ip dhcp excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15 on a Cisco router? The Cisco router will allow only the specified IP addresses to be leased to clients.

Pass Cisco CCNA Exam in First Attempt – Guaranteed Ad 100% Real Exam Questions, Accurate & Veri ed Answers. 30 Days Updates. PrepAway.com

Learn more The Cisco router will automatically create a DHCP pool using a /28 mask. The Cisco router will exclude only the 10.0.15.1 and 10.0.15.15 IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients. *The Cisco router will exclude 15 IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients.  Reply

 9 months ago

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Answer To JavI Guest

22 What is the result of a network technician issuing the command ip dhcp excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15 on a Cisco router?

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****The Cisco router will exclude 15 IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients.**** The Cisco router will automatically create a DHCP pool using a /28 mask. The Cisco router will allow only the specified IP addresses to be leased to clients. The Cisco router will exclude only the 10.0.15.1 and 10.0.15.15 IP addresses

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from being leased to DHCP clients.  Reply

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Ubaid Ilyas

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Match the descriptions to the corresponding DHCPv6 server type. (Not all options are used.) Guest

enabled in RA messages with the ipv6 nd other-config-flag command clients communicate with the DHCPv6 server by the use of RA messages the M flag is set to 1 in RA messages uses the address command to create a pool of addresses for clients clients send only DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST messages to the server

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enabled on the client with the ipv6 address dhcp command enabled on the client with the ipv6 address autoconfig command *Stateless DHCPv6 Stateful DHCPv6* Dont know the answer  3 months ago

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Ubaid Ilyas

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Place the options in the following order: Guest

[+] enabled in RA messages with the ipv6 nd other-config-flag command [+] clients send only DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST messages to the server [+] enabled on the client with the ipv6 address autoconfig command [#] the M flag is set to 1 in RA messages [#] uses the address command to create a pool of addresses for clients [#] enabled on the client with the ipv6 address dhcp command [+] Order does not matter within this group. [#] Order does not matter within this group. Reply

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