03tg Sample Paper 4

ISEB FCITSM SAMPLE PAPER 4

INFORMATION SYSTEMS EXAMINATIONS BOARD

FOUNDATION CERTIFICATE IN IT SERVICE MANAGEMENT

SAMPLE 4 – 2003 Lecturer Copy with Answers and Guidelines

Time allowed : 1 hour Record your surname and initials on the Answer Sheet, writing in block capitals at the top and marking the relevant letter in each column

Attempt all 40 questions A number of possible answers, indicated by capital letters, are given for each multiple -choice question. Only one of these answers and no more than one answer is correct. Your answers should be indicated by a solid pencil mark inside the box representing your chosen answer to the right of the question number. If you make a mistake, erase your first mark and put a mark in your new chosen answer column for that question. Mark only one answer to each question. Copying of this paper is expressly forbidden without the direct approval of the Board.

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A customer-based SLA structure includes: A B C D

An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services they use An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business language An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that use that service

QUESTION 2. Which one of the following is NOT necessarily a direct benefit of implementing a formal Incident Management process? A B C D

Improved user satisfaction Incident volume reduction Elimination of lost incidents Less disruption to both IT support staff and users

QUESTION 3. An IT department is seeking to set its prices to match those of external suppliers selling comparable services. Which one of the following is the best description of this approach? A B C D

Market rate The going rate that is agreed with Customers Cost-plus Profitable

QUESTION 4. Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management? A B C D

Verification Security Reliability Maintainability

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QUESTION 5. The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should: A B C D

Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid spending a lot of money Be as high level as possible Match the organisation’s requirement for information to be held Vary according to cost

QUESTION 6. To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the capacity of the Service Desk servers has to be extended. Who is responsible for managing the request for additional capacity? A B C D

Service Level Manager Change Manager Capacity Manager Financial Manager

QUESTION 7. Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of: A B C D

Service Level Management IT Service Financial & Continuity Management Change & Capacity Management Change & Release Management

QUESTION 8. Possible problems with Change Management include: A B C D

Lack of ownership of impacted services Increased visibility and communication of changes Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs The ability to absorb a larger volume of change

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QUESTION 9. Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan? 1. 2. 3. 4. A B C D

Options Management summary Business workload forecasts Backout plans 2, 3 and 4 All of them 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

QUESTION 10. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational Management stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle? A B C D

Develop Procedures and Initial Testing Education and Awareness Review, Audit and Assurance Ongoing Training and Testing

QUESTION 11. Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following time periods? A B C D

4 to 24 hours More than 72 hours 24 to 72 hours 4 to 8 hours

QUESTION 12. Which of the following are likely members of the Change Advisory Board? 1 2 3 4 A B C D

Problem Manager Customer representatives Change Manager Senior IT technical managers All them 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4

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QUESTION 13. Consider the following activities: 1 2 3 4

The analysis of raw data The identification of trends The definition of Service Management processes The implementation of preventive measures

Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service Management software tool? A B C D

1, 2 and 4 2 and 3 All of them None of them

QUESTION 14. The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an organisation resulting from disruption to critical business processes is: A B C D

Root Cause Analysis Service Outage Analysis Business Impact Analysis Component Failure Impact Analysis

QUESTION 15. In Availability Management, what is SOA? A B C D

System Optimisation Approach Systematic Operational Adjustment Serviceability of Applications Service Outage Analysis

QUESTION 16. Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best defined? A B C D

The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components operable The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is available The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts of the IT infrastructure

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QUESTION 17. Which one of the following statements is TRUE? A B C D

Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value Cost centres are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)

QUESTION 18. Which one of the following is NOT a major CI type? A B C D

Documentation Software Purchase order Accommodation

QUESTION 19. Where would the information relating to software release components be stored? A B C D

DSL AMDB CMDB CDB

QUESTION 20. A remote site has recently had its Local Area Network upgraded. The users are now complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with the network capacity. Who should they contact for assistance? A B C D

Network Management The Service Desk Capacity Management Problem Management

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QUESTION 21. The following activities are involved in implementing a Service Management function: 1 2 3 4

Tool selection Tool specification Process design Functional requirements analysis

In which order should the above activities be taken? A B C D

4–2–1–3 4–3–2–1 2–1–4–3 2–1–3–4

QUESTION 22. The process to implement SLAs comprises the following activities in sequence: A B C D

Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLRs, negotiate, agree SLAs Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services, agree SLAs Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree SLAs Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate service levels, agree SLAs

QUESTION 23. Which of the following statements is true? A B C D

An urgent release is always a delta release A full release may contain package and delta releases A full release may contain several delta releases A package release may contain full and delta releases

QUESTION 24. Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management? A B C D

To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all customer demands To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels

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QUESTION 25. Consider the following: 1 2 3 4

Incident diagnostic scripts A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure supported A Forward Schedule of Change

Which of the above should be available to the Service Desk? A B C D

1&2 All four 3&4 1, 2 & 3

QUESTION 26. The Service Desk can act as the focal point for: 1 2 3 A B C D

Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users Recording Change Requests from users Handling complaints and queries 1 Only 2 Only 1&3 1, 2 & 3

QUESTION 27. Which of these is NOT a recognised Service Desk structure? A B C D

Remedial Service Desk Virtual Service Desk Local Service Desk Central Service Desk

QUESTION 28. The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be: A B C D

Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be understood by everyone Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity Legally worded as they must be contractually binding

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QUESTION 29. Consider the following list: 1 2 3 4

Modelling Risk Analysis Application Sizing DSL maintenance

Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity Management? A B C D

1&2 3&4 2&4 1&3

QUESTION 30. At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem? A B C D

When it is urgent When it is a Major Incident If the person reporting the incident is very senior Never

QUESTION 31. Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident Management process in place? A B C D

Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is no reliable information available No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive Problem Management No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident Management information

QUESTION 32. For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible? A B A C

Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident which has led to an RFC being raised Devising the backout plan for a significant Change Chairing the CAB Ensuring a Release has reached the target CIs

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QUESTION 33. Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the information to be held in a CMDB? A

You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of CIs You shouldn’t collect detailed information about components that are not currently under Change Control You shouldn’t worry too much about Change Control, the main objective is to get the database loaded You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff

B C D

QUESTION 34. There are strong links between Service Level Management and … 1 2 3 4 5 A B C D

Incident Management Availability Management Configuration Management IT Service Continuity Management Change Management 1, 3 and 5 2 and 4 2, 3 and 5 All of them

QUESTION 35. Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and Problems? 1 2 3 A B C D

One Incident to one Problem One Incident to many Problems Many Incidents to one Problem

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of them

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QUESTION 36. Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem Management to the Service Desk? A B C D

The number of Problems raised The number of Known Errors identified The number of Problems correctly categorised The number of RFCs raised

QUESTION 37. Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management? A B C D

To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with Customers their minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed these targets. To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously improve on this through ensuring all services operate at maximum availability. To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost.

QUESTION 38. Which of these is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk? A B C D

Customer Service Level Requirements are established Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with user’s calls Changes taking place are properly coordinated All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date.

QUESTION 39. The scope of a Release can best be defined by: A B C D

The RFCs that it satisfies The number of updates to the DHS Service Level metrics The DSL configuration

QUESTION 40. An ‘unabsorbed’ cost is best described as: A B C D

A capital cost A type of charging policy An uplift to allocated costs A revenue stream

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ISEB Sample Paper 4 - ANSWERS 1=A

2=B

3=A

4=A

5=C

6=B

7=D

8=A

9=D

10=A

11=C

12=A

13=A

14=C

15=D

16=D

17=A

18=C

19=C

20=B

21=B

22=D

23=D

24=D

25=B

26=D

27=A

28=C

29=D

30=D

31=C

32=C

33=B

34=D

35=C

36=B

37=A

38=B

39=A

40=C

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Sample Paper 4 Answer Logic Question 1 A – Fairly obvious as the question is about “customer- based” and this option is the only one referring to a customer (albeit a group). Question 2 B – Incident volumes will not be reduced directly using an Incident Management process. There is an argument to say numbers may well increase as customers gain confidence in the desks’ ability to handle incidents. Question 3 A – Straight from the Pocket Guide, page 48. Question 4 A – Verification is a responsibility of Configuration Management Question 5 C – This option in fact encompasses the other three available. It directly refers to the need to satisfy organisational requirements for effective management. Question 6 B – The operative phrase here is “managing the request”, which is clearly a Change Management responsibility. Raising the request could be seen as a Capacity Management responsibility. Question 7 D – Fairly obvious as Configuration/Change/Release all deal directly with Configuration Items and their management. Question 8 A – This is the only non-benefit option available, so is really a give away if delegates read the question. Question 9 D – A Capacity Plan would not require a back out plan itself. Each accepted option within the Capacity Plan will require a Change to be put in place and each Change will require a back out plan. Question 10 A – By definition Operational Management is the final stage, whereas Develop Procedures and Initial Testing is the first stage(s). Question 11 C – Straight from the Pocket Guide, page 61. Question 12 A – The key word here is “likely”. This means that all may participate or only subsets. Depends on the organisation and Change Management requirements. Question 13 A – Definition of processes must take place prior to implementing a software tool.

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Question 14 C – A fairly obvious answer. Option A is clearly Problem, Option B & D are Availability. Question 15 D – SOA is not mentioned in the Pocket Guide (shown on slide as Service Outage Analysis) and in the Delivery book has various options attributed to it. However it seems apparent that the examiners have decided that Service Outage Analysis is the way to go. Question 16 D – Straight from the Pocket Guide, page 65. Question 17 A – Straight from the Pocket Guide, page 49. Question 18 C – Purchase Order is an item that would fall under the main type Documentation. Question 19 C – This refers to the “Release Record” holding a number of components which is stored on the CMDB. The DSL holds the individual component(s). Question 20 B – The Service Desk is the first and single point of contact. This event can be regarded as an Incident and Incidents are reported to the Service Desk. Question 21 B – This starts with the “what do we want”, design how to do it, specify tool to assist and then select appropriate tool. Question 22 D – This is straight from the slide set. However logically, how can customers decide what they want, if they do not know what is available to begin with. Question 23 D – Straight from the Pocket Guide, page 36. Question 24 D – This is the best description as it brings in “cost effective”, apart from anything else A & C are clearly nonsense and B is extremely difficult to achieve. Question 25 B – Straightforward answer as all these items would enhance the operation of the Service Desk. Question 26 D – Key word here is “can”, they may not always do it, but they can. Question 27 A – No brainer really.

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Question 28 C – Option A more likely to be OLA, Option B & D more likely Underpinning Contract. Option C covers both SLA and OLA. Question 29 D – DSL is clearly Config/Change/ Release and Risk could be Change/Availability/Continuity Question 30 D – An incident can lead to a Problem Record being raised, but an Incident itself will never become a Problem. Question 31 C – A badly worded question. Investigation and diagnosis of long term problems can be undertaken even without Incident Management being in place. The key word is “Entirely” – Incident Management is not the only source of Problem data. Question 32 C - Option A is Problem, Option B is Change Builder, Option D is Release Management Question 33 B – Option A would apply once scope etc. has been agreed, Option C is clearly nonsense. Option D why only IT staff, you must include the business. Option B is the most logical answer of the provided set. Question 34 D – SLM is the co-ordinating discipline within the ITIL set. Question 35 C – Category 2 is the least likely to occur. Question 36 B – By definition a Known error will have a work round/ permanent solution identified which can be used to resolve incidents at first contact. This will lead to improved levels of customer satisfaction. Question 37 A – Derived from the Pocket Guide, page 41. Options B & D refer to lowest cost, which is not always achievable. Option C leaves no room for improvement if maximum availability is already achieved. Question 38 B – Option A is SLM, Option C is Change Management, Option D is Configuration Management. Question 39 A – A release is made up of a number of changes, these changes have been requested using RFC’s. Question 40 C – Another badly worded question. However Options A, B and D are clearly wrong which means that C being the only one left, must be the answer. Question Summary.

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The following is a list of the questions that may be applied after covering each discipline. The list is cumulative and is compiled to enable you to use particular sets of questions at various stages throughout the course.

Discipline Configuration Management Service Desk Incident Management Problem Management Change Management Release Management SLM Financial Management Availability Management Capacity Management ITSCM All Subjects Covered

Questions 5, 18 27 2 30, 31, 35 8, 12, 25, 26, 32, 33, 36 23, 39 1, 22, 28, 37, 38 3, 17, 40 4, 15, 16, 6, 9,19, 20, 24, 29 7, 10, 11, 14 13, 21, 34,

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